16 May 2026, Questions & Answers

116 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.

116 questions  ·  0 topics covered  ·  24 min revision

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This page contains 116 current affairs questions with answers from 16 May 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.

These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.

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16 May 2026, Questions with Answers

116 Qs
Q1.

The Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls is an exercise conducted by which constitutional body?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • B.Election Commission of India✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Law Commission of India
  • D.Supreme Court of India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Election Commission of India (ECI), established under Article 324 of the Constitution, is the permanent body responsible for the superintendence, direction, and control of all elections, including the revision of electoral rolls as mentioned in the article.

Source: ECI Announces 3rd Phase of SIR Covering 36.73 Cr Electors in 16 States & 3 UTs Amidst Concerns Over Disenfranchisement →
Q2.

Consider the following statements regarding the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls:

1. The third phase of SIR covers a combined electorate of 36.73 crore across 16 States and three Union Territories.

2. The second phase of SIR led to a net increase in the electoral rolls across all states due to improved enumeration.

3. A key criticism of the SIR process has been the centralization of data and decision-making in ECI authorities in New Delhi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because Phase 2 resulted in a net trim (decrease) of 10.2%, not an increase. Statement 3 is correct as the article cites centralization as a major flaw in the SIR process.

Source: ECI Announces 3rd Phase of SIR Covering 36.73 Cr Electors in 16 States & 3 UTs Amidst Concerns Over Disenfranchisement →
Q3.

According to the article, what was the net percentage trim in the electoral rolls during the second phase of the Special Intensive Revision (SIR)?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.5.5%
  • B.7.8%
  • C.10.2%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.12.5%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Phase 2 of the SIR resulted in "a staggering net trim of 10.2% in the rolls." This is a critical data point highlighting the scale of voter deletion and a potential fact for Prelims.

Source: ECI Announces 3rd Phase of SIR Covering 36.73 Cr Electors in 16 States & 3 UTs Amidst Concerns Over Disenfranchisement →
Q4.

What is a primary concern raised by critics regarding the methodology of the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) as per the article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It excessively relies on door-to-door verification by ECI officials.
  • B.It places the onus on electors themselves to establish their eligibility on the rolls.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It uses biometric data which raises privacy concerns.
  • D.It mandates online registration, excluding voters without internet access.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article identifies as the "most fundamental" flaw the design that "places the onus on electors rather than on ECI officials to establish eligibility on the rolls." This shifts the burden of proof and can lead to disenfranchisement, especially among marginalized groups.

Source: ECI Announces 3rd Phase of SIR Covering 36.73 Cr Electors in 16 States & 3 UTs Amidst Concerns Over Disenfranchisement →
Q5.

Which ministry/department is responsible for preparing the Economic Survey cited in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  • B.Ministry of Finance✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
  • D.NITI Aayog
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Economic Survey is an annual document prepared by the Department of Economic Affairs under the Ministry of Finance. It is presented to Parliament ahead of the Union Budget.

Source: Viksit Bharat 2047 Vision: Economic Survey 2025-26 Highlights Need for Manufacturing Productivity Growth & Zombie Firm Exit →
Q6.

Consider the following statements regarding the challenges highlighted for Viksit Bharat:

1. India's manufacturing sector is characterized by a large number of small, low-productivity firms and few mid-sized scalable firms.

2. Zombie firms, though a small share of total firms, account for a disproportionately large share of total debt and assets.

3. Equity-financed firms are more likely to become zombies and remain distressed longer compared to bank-financed firms.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article describing India's manufacturing firm structure. Statement 2 is correct as highlighted by the research on zombie firms. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states that bank-financed firms are more likely to become zombies and remain distressed longer, while equity-financed firms are less prone.

Source: Viksit Bharat 2047 Vision: Economic Survey 2025-26 Highlights Need for Manufacturing Productivity Growth & Zombie Firm Exit →
Q7.

According to the article, what was India's real GDP growth rate in FY2024-25?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.5.8%
  • B.6.2%
  • C.6.5%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.7.0%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that real GDP growth remained robust, reaching 6.5% in FY2024-25. This is a key data point for prelims factual recall.

Source: Viksit Bharat 2047 Vision: Economic Survey 2025-26 Highlights Need for Manufacturing Productivity Growth & Zombie Firm Exit →
Q8.

What is identified as a key institutional issue contributing to the persistence of zombie firms and weak business dynamism in India?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.High corporate tax rates discouraging new investments
  • B.Financial and regulatory structures that sustain inefficient firms rather than facilitating exit✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Lack of skilled labor in the manufacturing sector
  • D.Over-protection of intellectual property rights hindering innovation
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article concludes that financial and regulatory structures often sustain inefficient firms (zombies) rather than facilitating their exit. This weakens the process of creative destruction and reallocation of resources to productive firms, undermining overall productivity growth.

Source: Viksit Bharat 2047 Vision: Economic Survey 2025-26 Highlights Need for Manufacturing Productivity Growth & Zombie Firm Exit →
Q9.

Which Indian public sector company is responsible for maintaining the country's Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPR)?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL)
  • B.Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC)
  • C.Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Limited (ISPRL)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, ISPRL is a specialised Indian public sector company under the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas, responsible for maintaining the country's strategic crude oil reserves.

Source: India-UAE Strategic Partnership: UAE to Store 30 Million Barrels in SPR, Invest $5 Bn in Infrastructure and Bank →
Q10.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent India-UAE agreements:

1. The UAE will store 30 million barrels of crude oil in India's Strategic Petroleum Reserves.

2. The UAE pledged a total investment of $10 billion across infrastructure and banking sectors in India.

3. The UAE is India's largest source of LPG, meeting nearly 40% of its requirement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the total pledged investment is $5 billion, not $10 billion. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the UAE is India's largest LPG source, catering to nearly 40% of the requirement.

Source: India-UAE Strategic Partnership: UAE to Store 30 Million Barrels in SPR, Invest $5 Bn in Infrastructure and Bank →
Q11.

What is the total capacity of India's Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPR) as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.3.33 Million Metric Tons (MMT)
  • B.5.33 Million Metric Tons (MMT)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.30 million barrels
  • D.5 million barrels
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that ISPRL holds 5.33 MMT (million metric tons) of crude across three underground facilities. Option C (30 mn barrels) is the new UAE storage volume, not India's total SPR capacity. Option D is the previous UAE storage volume in Mangaluru.

Source: India-UAE Strategic Partnership: UAE to Store 30 Million Barrels in SPR, Invest $5 Bn in Infrastructure and Bank →
Q12.

What is a primary strategic objective for India in securing the agreement for UAE oil storage in its Strategic Petroleum Reserves?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce the fiscal deficit by earning storage fees
  • B.To ensure energy security against potential supply disruptions✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To increase crude oil exports to neighbouring countries
  • D.To replace domestic crude oil production entirely
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As stated in the article, strategic crude oil reserves are maintained 'to ensure energy security against supply disruptions.' The agreement with the UAE enhances this buffer, which is a key objective of India's energy security policy.

Source: India-UAE Strategic Partnership: UAE to Store 30 Million Barrels in SPR, Invest $5 Bn in Infrastructure and Bank →
Q13.

The 'Ice Memory' project, which inaugurated a global ice core repository in Antarctica, was launched by a consortium that includes which of the following Indian institutions?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
  • B.National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR)
  • C.Ministry of Earth Sciences
  • D.None of the above; it is a European consortium✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the Ice Memory project was launched by a consortium of European research institutes from France (CNRS, IRD), Italy (CNR), and Switzerland (Paul Scherrer Institute). No Indian institution is mentioned as part of the founding consortium.

Source: 25 Key Global Locations for UPSC Prelims 2026: Maratha Forts to Antarctic Ice Cores →
Q14.

Consider the following statements regarding places in the news:

1. The Litani River, forming a security buffer for Israel, is the longest river in Lebanon.

2. The Great Chagos Bank, part of the Chagos Archipelago, is the world's largest atoll structure.

3. Kharg Island, a key Iranian oil terminal, is located in the Strait of Hormuz.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states the Litani River is the longest and largest river in Lebanon. Statement 2 is correct: The Great Chagos Bank is described as the world's largest atoll structure. Statement 3 is incorrect: Kharg Island is in the Persian Gulf, not the Strait of Hormuz.

Source: 25 Key Global Locations for UPSC Prelims 2026: Maratha Forts to Antarctic Ice Cores →
Q15.

According to the article, what is the deck height of the Chenab rail bridge from the riverbed?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.315 metres
  • B.359 metres✓ Correct Answer
  • C.400 metres
  • D.450 metres
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Chenab bridge has a deck height of 359 meters from the riverbed, making it 35 meters taller than the Eiffel Tower. The other options are close but incorrect distractors.

Source: 25 Key Global Locations for UPSC Prelims 2026: Maratha Forts to Antarctic Ice Cores →
Q16.

What is the primary strategic significance of India's erstwhile Ayni airbase in Tajikistan, as per the news?

MediumUPSC
  • A.It served as a key listening post for monitoring Chinese naval activity in the Indian Ocean.
  • B.It provided India with a military foothold and strategic leverage in Central Asia.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It was used primarily for humanitarian missions across Africa.
  • D.It functioned as a joint training facility with NATO forces.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states Ayni airbase gave India 'a strategic heft in central Asia' and 'a military foothold in central Asia and leverage over Pakistan,' projecting influence in a region dominated by Russia and China. While it was used for evacuation (option C is partially true but not primary), its core significance was strategic positioning.

Source: 25 Key Global Locations for UPSC Prelims 2026: Maratha Forts to Antarctic Ice Cores →
Q17.

The Supreme Court's 1995 judgment, which interpreted Hinduism as a 'way of life', was delivered in the context of which Act of Parliament?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Indian Penal Code, 1860
  • B.The Representation of the People Act, 1951✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Constitution of India
  • D.The Religious Institutions (Prevention of Misuse) Act, 1988
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The case (Ramesh Prabhoo vs Prabhakar Kunte) involved the interpretation of Section 123(3) and 123(3A) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, which defines 'corrupt practices' in elections, including appeals on grounds of religion.

Source: SC's 1995 'Hinduism as Way of Life' Ruling & Section 123(3) of RPA 1951: Electoral Corrupt Practice →
Q18.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's 1995 ruling on Hinduism as a 'way of life':

1. The ruling originated from a case related to the 1987 Vile Parle Assembly by-election.

2. The Court held that the phrase 'Hindutva' per se, in the abstract, constitutes a corrupt practice under election law.

3. The judgment upheld the constitutional validity of restrictions on religious appeals in elections under Article 19(2).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the case pertained to the 1987 Vile Parle by-election. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court explicitly stated that 'Hindutva' per se should not be equated with religious bigotry. Statement 3 is correct as the Court upheld Sections 123(3) and (3A) of the RPA as reasonable restrictions under Article 19(2).

Source: SC's 1995 'Hinduism as Way of Life' Ruling & Section 123(3) of RPA 1951: Electoral Corrupt Practice →
Q19.

In which year did the Supreme Court deliver the landmark judgment that described 'Hinduism as a way of life' while dealing with electoral corrupt practices?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.1987
  • B.1990
  • C.1995✓ Correct Answer
  • D.1999
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Supreme Court's judgment in the case of Ramesh Yeshwant Prabhoo vs Prabhakar Kunte was delivered in 1995. The year 1987 is when the disputed election was held, making it a close distractor.

Source: SC's 1995 'Hinduism as Way of Life' Ruling & Section 123(3) of RPA 1951: Electoral Corrupt Practice →
Q20.

What was the primary legal consequence established by the Supreme Court's 1995 ruling regarding speeches made during election campaigns?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.All religious terminology in speeches was banned.
  • B.The intent and effect of a speech on the audience determine if it violates election law.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Only explicit calls for votes based on religion were prohibited.
  • D.Speeches criticizing other religions were granted immunity under free speech.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Court ruled that election law cannot be defeated through indirect phrasing. What matters is not just the wording but how the speech would be understood by the audience, establishing a test based on effect and perception.

Source: SC's 1995 'Hinduism as Way of Life' Ruling & Section 123(3) of RPA 1951: Electoral Corrupt Practice →
Q21.

Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Limited (ISPRL), responsible for maintaining the country's strategic crude oil reserves, operates under which Ministry?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of External Affairs
  • B.Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  • D.Ministry of Finance
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As mentioned in the article's 'Do You Know' section, ISPRL is a specialised Indian public sector company under the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas. It manages strategic crude oil reserves to ensure energy security.

Source: India-UAE Sign Strategic Defence Pact, Store 30 Mn Bbl Oil; Fuel Price Hike Rs 3/L Amid West Asia Crisis →
Q22.

Consider the following statements regarding the India-UAE relationship discussed in the article:

1. The UAE has been the first country to partner with India in strategic petroleum reserves.

2. The India-UAE Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) is India's first trade agreement with a major trading partner in over a decade.

3. The UAE was India's largest source of crude oil in the previous year, meeting nearly 40% of its requirement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct as the article states CEPA is India's first major FTA in over a decade (since Japan in 2011). Statement 3 is incorrect; the UAE was the fourth largest source (nearly 11%), while it is India's largest source of LPG (nearly 40%).

Source: India-UAE Sign Strategic Defence Pact, Store 30 Mn Bbl Oil; Fuel Price Hike Rs 3/L Amid West Asia Crisis →
Q23.

According to the article, what was the quantum of the recent hike in petrol and diesel prices by public sector oil marketing companies (OMCs)?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Rs 2 per litre
  • B.Rs 3 per litre✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Rs 4 per litre
  • D.Rs 5 per litre
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "Public sector oil marketing companies (OMCs) hiked petrol and diesel prices by Rs 3 per litre on Friday." This is the first price increase in over four years.

Source: India-UAE Sign Strategic Defence Pact, Store 30 Mn Bbl Oil; Fuel Price Hike Rs 3/L Amid West Asia Crisis →
Q24.

What is identified in the article as a primary ecological driver increasing the risk of zoonotic spillover events like the Hantavirus outbreak?

MediumUPSC
  • A.Increased international air travel
  • B.Industrial livestock farming and deforestation✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Overuse of antibiotics in human medicine
  • D.Declining vaccination rates in wildlife
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes Dr. Gagandeep Kang stating that industrial livestock farming and deforestation-driven habitat fragmentation are key drivers. Deforestation pushes wildlife like bats and rodents into human habitats, while industrial farming amplifies pathogens.

Source: India-UAE Sign Strategic Defence Pact, Store 30 Mn Bbl Oil; Fuel Price Hike Rs 3/L Amid West Asia Crisis →
Q25.

Which Central Public Sector Undertaking (CPSU) is specifically mentioned in the article as implementing coal gasification projects in partnership with other entities?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL)
  • B.Gas Authority of India Limited (GAIL)
  • C.Coal India Ltd (CIL)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.NTPC Limited
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'Coal India Ltd (CIL) is also implementing four coal gasification projects in partnership with other Central Public Sector Undertakings (CPSUs).' The other options, while being energy sector PSUs, are not mentioned in the context of this specific scheme.

Source: Cabinet Approves ₹37,500 Cr Scheme for Coal Gasification Projects, Targets 100 MT Gasification by 2030 →
Q26.

Consider the following statements regarding the recently approved coal gasification scheme:

1. It has an outlay of ₹37,500 crore to incentivise projects for producing syngas.

2. The scheme targets the gasification of approximately 100 million tonnes of coal/lignite.

3. It provides a financial incentive of a maximum of 25% of the cost of plant and machinery.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the scheme targets gasification of approximately 75 million tonnes (MT), while the national target is 100 MT by 2030. Statement 3 is incorrect; the incentive is a maximum of 20%, not 25%, of the plant and machinery cost.

Source: Cabinet Approves ₹37,500 Cr Scheme for Coal Gasification Projects, Targets 100 MT Gasification by 2030 →
Q27.

According to the National Coal Inventory of 2025 cited in the article, what is the total estimated coal reserve (resource) of India as of 01.04.2025?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.389 billion tonnes
  • B.400.715 billion tonnes✓ Correct Answer
  • C.212 billion tonnes
  • D.75 billion tonnes
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'According to the National Coal Inventory of 2025, the total estimated coal reserve (resource) of India is 400.715 billion tonnes as of 01.04.2025.' Option A (389 bt) is the global reserve estimate, option C (212 bt) is the proven reserve figure, and option D is the gasification target under the scheme.

Source: Cabinet Approves ₹37,500 Cr Scheme for Coal Gasification Projects, Targets 100 MT Gasification by 2030 →
Q28.

What is a primary strategic objective of promoting coal gasification in India, as highlighted in the news?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To completely replace coal-based power generation with renewable energy.
  • B.To reduce dependence on imported Liquified Natural Gas (LNG), urea, ammonia, and methanol.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To increase the export of raw coal to neighbouring countries.
  • D.To phase out all underground coal mining operations for safety reasons.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the scheme advances the national target 'reducing dependence on Liquified Natural Gas (LNG), urea (~20% imported), ammonia (~100% imported), and methanol (~80–90% imported).' This is the core strategic objective of using domestic coal to produce these imported commodities indigenously.

Source: Cabinet Approves ₹37,500 Cr Scheme for Coal Gasification Projects, Targets 100 MT Gasification by 2030 →
Q29.

The Bihar Public Service Commission (BPSC) is established under which part of the Indian Constitution?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Part X (The Scheduled and Tribal Areas)
  • B.Part XIV (Services under the Union and the States)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Part XV (Elections)
  • D.Part XVI (Special Provisions relating to certain classes)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

State Public Service Commissions, including the BPSC, are established under Article 315 of the Constitution, which falls within Part XIV titled 'Services under the Union and the States'. This part deals with the recruitment and conditions of service of persons serving the Union or a State.

Source: BPSC Mandates 'Blind Assessment' for Interviews, Prohibits Personal Details to Curb Bias →
Q30.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent reforms in BPSC interviews:

1. Interview boards are prohibited from asking about a candidate's regional accent.

2. The final candidate code is a combination of two codes to ensure anonymity.

3. Members of the interview board are informed about the candidate's written test scores before the interview.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states boards have been asked not to take into account any regional accents. Statement 2 is correct: The BPSC chairman explained the 'two-level coding, or recoding' system. Statement 3 is incorrect: The article clearly states board members are NOT told how much each candidate scored in the written tests ahead of the interview.

Source: BPSC Mandates 'Blind Assessment' for Interviews, Prohibits Personal Details to Curb Bias →
Q31.

For the BPSC 70th Combined Competitive Examination, how many candidates were interviewed for approximately how many posts in April?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.5,504 candidates for 1,800 posts
  • B.5,504 candidates for 2,100 posts✓ Correct Answer
  • C.5,040 candidates for 2,100 posts
  • D.5,040 candidates for 1,800 posts
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the reforms were tried during interviews held in April of 5,504 candidates for about 2,100 posts following the BPSC's 70th CCE. The other options provide close but incorrect numbers.

Source: BPSC Mandates 'Blind Assessment' for Interviews, Prohibits Personal Details to Curb Bias →
Q32.

What is the primary objective behind BPSC's directive to implement 'blind assessment' in interviews?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To reduce the total time taken for the interview process
  • B.To help interview boards overcome biases related to a candidate's social and educational background✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To standardize the questions asked across all interview boards
  • D.To increase the weightage of the interview in the final selection
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the BPSC chairman, the first attempt is to help boards get over any bias from personal details. The core objective is equity, not time reduction, standardization, or changing mark weightage. The reform is explicitly aimed at creating a level playing field.

Source: BPSC Mandates 'Blind Assessment' for Interviews, Prohibits Personal Details to Curb Bias →
Q33.

Which Indian regulatory body is responsible for setting the limits and guidelines for External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs)?

EasyUPSC, Banking
  • A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
  • B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Finance
  • D.Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) regulates External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs) under the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999. It sets the eligibility, end-use, and limit guidelines under the automatic and approval routes.

Source: India Inc's ECBs Fall 51% to $5.43B in March 2026, Down 30% for FY26 Amid Rupee Volatility & High Global Rates →
Q34.

Consider the following statements regarding India's foreign borrowings as per the news article:

1. External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs) in March 2026 were $5.43 billion, marking a 51% decline from March 2025.

2. The total foreign borrowing for FY26 was $61 billion, which was higher than the previous fiscal year.

3. The RBI increased the borrowing limit under the automatic route for ECBs from $750 million to $1 billion in February 2026.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per RBI data: ECBs in March 2026 were $5.43 billion, down 51% from $11.04 billion in March 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect; total foreign borrowing for FY26 was $43 billion, which is lower than the $61 billion in FY25 (a 30% decline). Statement 3 is correct; the RBI enhanced the borrowing limit under the automatic route from $750 million to $1 billion in February 2026.

Source: India Inc's ECBs Fall 51% to $5.43B in March 2026, Down 30% for FY26 Amid Rupee Volatility & High Global Rates →
Q35.

According to the RBI data cited in the article, what was the approximate amount raised by Indian companies through Rupee Denominated Bonds (RDBs) in February 2026?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.₹200 crore
  • B.₹318 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹500 crore
  • D.₹750 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that in February 2026, Indian companies raised money from abroad through rupee-denominated bonds (RDBs) amounting to Rs 318 crore (which was equivalent to $35 million). This was the only instance in the last two years.

Source: India Inc's ECBs Fall 51% to $5.43B in March 2026, Down 30% for FY26 Amid Rupee Volatility & High Global Rates →
Q36.

What is identified as the primary reason making External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs) less attractive for Indian companies in the current scenario?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Strict environmental, social, and governance (ESG) norms for international loans
  • B.Rupee's rapid weakening and high overseas interest rates increasing the cost of borrowing✓ Correct Answer
  • C.A domestic credit crunch forcing companies to rely on internal accruals
  • D.New RBI mandates requiring higher collateral for foreign loans
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the rupee's rapid weakening and rising overseas interest rates made taking on domestic debt more attractive, thereby reducing the appeal of ECBs. High hedging costs due to currency volatility further increase the all-in borrowing cost for foreign loans.

Source: India Inc's ECBs Fall 51% to $5.43B in March 2026, Down 30% for FY26 Amid Rupee Volatility & High Global Rates →
Q37.

Which department issued the order for re-verification of caste certificates in West Bengal?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Department of Home Affairs
  • B.Backward Classes Welfare Department✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Department of Social Justice
  • D.Department of Tribal Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The order dated May 14, 2026 was issued by the Backward Classes Welfare Department secretary to all district magistrates, as stated in the article.

Source: West Bengal Orders Re-verification of 1.69 Crore SC/ST/OBC Certificates Issued Since 2011, Links to SIR Electoral Roll Deletions →
Q38.

Consider the following statements regarding the West Bengal caste certificate re-verification:

1. The re-verification order covers all caste certificates issued since 2011, totaling 1.69 crore certificates.

2. The order applies only to certificates issued through the Duare Sarkar camps, which account for 47.80 lakh certificates.

3. Caste certificates issued to persons whose names were deleted in the Election Commission's Special Intensive Revision (SIR) will be examined and may be cancelled.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the order mandates re-verification of all 1.69 crore certificates issued since 2011. Statement 2 is incorrect because the order covers all certificates since 2011, not only those from Duare Sarkar camps (47.80 lakh is a subset). Statement 3 is correct as explicitly mentioned in the order.

Source: West Bengal Orders Re-verification of 1.69 Crore SC/ST/OBC Certificates Issued Since 2011, Links to SIR Electoral Roll Deletions →
Q39.

According to the order, how many Scheduled Tribe (ST) caste certificates were issued in West Bengal since 2011?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.48 lakh
  • B.21 lakh✓ Correct Answer
  • C.32.51 lakh
  • D.1.00 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the breakdown: SC: 1.00 crore, ST: 21 lakh, OBC: 48 lakh. The other options are distractors: 48 lakh is OBC, 32.51 lakh is SC certificates via Duare Sarkar, and 1.00 crore is total SC.

Source: West Bengal Orders Re-verification of 1.69 Crore SC/ST/OBC Certificates Issued Since 2011, Links to SIR Electoral Roll Deletions →
Q40.

What is the primary statutory authority responsible for issuing caste certificates in West Bengal, as mentioned in the order?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.District Magistrate (DM)
  • B.Chief Minister's Office
  • C.Sub-divisional Officers (SDOs) and District Welfare Officer (DWO), Kolkata✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Election Commission of India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The order notes that issuance of caste certificates is a statutory responsibility of the sub-divisional officers (SDOs) and district welfare officer (DWO), Kolkata. District Magistrates are directed to oversee re-verification, but SDOs/DWO are the issuing authorities.

Source: West Bengal Orders Re-verification of 1.69 Crore SC/ST/OBC Certificates Issued Since 2011, Links to SIR Electoral Roll Deletions →
Q41.

Under which Article of the Constitution did the Allahabad High Court primarily base its judgment protecting an individual's right to choose a life partner?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 14
  • B.Article 19
  • C.Article 21✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Article 25
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court explicitly held that the right to choose a partner is inherent under the right to life and personal liberty, which is guaranteed by Article 21 of the Constitution. The judgment repeatedly emphasizes the supremacy of this fundamental right.

Source: Allahabad HC Upholds Article 21 Right to Choose Partner, Validates Live-in Relationships Under Constitutional Liberty →
Q42.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent Allahabad High Court judgment:

1. The court held that the father of an adult woman can interfere if her marriage is not performed through a valid religious ceremony.

2. The judgment stated that the right to choose a partner is protected under Article 21, even for couples in a live-in relationship.

3. The court emphasized that social approval is a necessary basis for recognizing intimate personal decisions like marriage.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The court ruled that a father cannot interfere even if there is no valid 'Nikah'. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect; the court explicitly said social approval is NOT the basis for recognizing such decisions.

Source: Allahabad HC Upholds Article 21 Right to Choose Partner, Validates Live-in Relationships Under Constitutional Liberty →
Q43.

According to the news, in which month and year did the couple involved in the case solemnize their marriage/nikah?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.January 2025
  • B.April 2025✓ Correct Answer
  • C.May 2025
  • D.May 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'Both major petitioners solemnised their marriage in April 2025.' The other options are distractors: January-May 2025 was when the woman was in Dubai, and May 2026 is the publication date of the news.

Source: Allahabad HC Upholds Article 21 Right to Choose Partner, Validates Live-in Relationships Under Constitutional Liberty →
Q44.

What is the primary constitutional principle that the Allahabad High Court's judgment seeks to uphold against societal interference?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The principle of Uniform Civil Code
  • B.The principle of constitutional morality and individual autonomy✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The principle of religious freedom for performing any marriage ritual
  • D.The principle of parental authority over adult children
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core of the judgment is the protection of individual autonomy (right to choose) and constitutional morality (rights under Article 21) from societal and parental disapproval. While it mentions religion, the primary shield is constitutional liberty, not ritual validity. It counters, not upholds, parental authority over adult choices.

Source: Allahabad HC Upholds Article 21 Right to Choose Partner, Validates Live-in Relationships Under Constitutional Liberty →
Q45.

The authority that first approved the drug mifepristone for abortion use in the United States in 2000 is the?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
  • B.Food and Drug Administration (FDA)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Department of Health and Human Services (HHS)
  • D.National Institutes of Health (NIH)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the federal Food and Drug Administration (FDA) first approved mifepristone for use in abortion in 2000. The FDA is the primary US agency responsible for the safety and efficacy of human drugs.

Source: US Supreme Court Preserves Access to Mifepristone, Blocks Lower-Court Restrictions Citing Roe v. Wade Overturn Context →
Q46.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The US Supreme Court's order permanently guarantees access to the abortion pill mifepristone through mail and pharmacies.

2. The lawsuit challenging the FDA's rules on mifepristone was filed by the state of Louisiana.

3. Justices Clarence Thomas and Samuel Alito supported the court's decision to preserve access to mifepristone.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The court's order is a temporary stay preserving access only while the lawsuit plays out; it is not a permanent guarantee. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect; Justices Thomas and Alito dissented from the decision.

Source: US Supreme Court Preserves Access to Mifepristone, Blocks Lower-Court Restrictions Citing Roe v. Wade Overturn Context →
Q47.

According to the article, what proportion of all abortions in the United States in 2023 were medication abortions?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Nearly one-third
  • B.Nearly half
  • C.Nearly two-thirds✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Over three-quarters
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'Medication abortions accounted for nearly two-thirds of all abortions in the US in 2023, the last year for which statistics are available.' This is a key data point highlighting the significance of the drug access issue.

Source: US Supreme Court Preserves Access to Mifepristone, Blocks Lower-Court Restrictions Citing Roe v. Wade Overturn Context →
Q48.

What is a primary legal argument used by Justice Clarence Thomas in his dissent against the Supreme Court's order on mifepristone?

MediumUPSC
  • A.Violation of the Affordable Care Act
  • B.States' rights under the Tenth Amendment
  • C.Violation of the 19th-century Comstock Act✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Lack of standing by the drug manufacturers
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions Justice Thomas argued that 'those who mail the pills are in violation of the Comstock Act, a 19th-century law...' This invocation of a historical, largely unenforced law is a central part of his dissent, as per the provided content.

Source: US Supreme Court Preserves Access to Mifepristone, Blocks Lower-Court Restrictions Citing Roe v. Wade Overturn Context →
Q49.

Which international institution is providing the financial programme linked to Pakistan's budget reforms mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.World Bank
  • B.International Monetary Fund (IMF)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Asian Development Bank
  • D.World Trade Organization
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions an 'IMF-backed reform programme' and details from an 'IMF staff report'. The World Bank, ADB, and WTO are other international financial/trade bodies not mentioned in this context.

Source: Pakistan Defence Budget Hike PKR 100 Billion Under IMF EFF & RSF Programme →
Q50.

Consider the following statements regarding Pakistan's IMF-linked budget proposals:

1. The defence expenditure for 2026-27 is estimated at PKR 2.665 trillion.

2. Pakistan's total federal revenues for 2026-27 are projected to be PKR 17.144 trillion, representing a decrease compared to the current fiscal year.

3. The government has committed to phasing out existing incentives for Special Economic Zones by 2035.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: defence expenditure is PKR 2.665 trillion. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states revenues are 'more than PKR 2 trillion higher', indicating an increase, not a decrease. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions 'phasing out existing incentives... by 2035'. Hence, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Source: Pakistan Defence Budget Hike PKR 100 Billion Under IMF EFF & RSF Programme →
Q51.

According to the IMF staff report cited in the news, what is the estimated increase in Pakistan's defence budget for the upcoming fiscal year?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.PKR 50 billion
  • B.PKR 75 billion
  • C.PKR 100 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • D.PKR 125 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's headline and content specify that Pakistan is expected to raise its defence budget by 'about PKR 100 billion'. The other options are plausible distractors but not the figure mentioned.

Source: Pakistan Defence Budget Hike PKR 100 Billion Under IMF EFF & RSF Programme →
Q52.

What is a key structural reform commitment Pakistan has made under its IMF programme, as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Introducing new incentives for Special Economic Zones
  • B.Increasing defence spending without any conditions
  • C.Digitizing all federal and provincial government payments by June 2027✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Reducing social spending to curb fiscal deficit
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states Pakistan 'had also committed to... digitising all federal and provincial government payments by June2027'. The other options are opposite to the commitments: it is phasing out SEZ incentives, defence spending is part of a conditional programme, and social spending is being increased by 0.2% of GDP.

Source: Pakistan Defence Budget Hike PKR 100 Billion Under IMF EFF & RSF Programme →
Q53.

The 'Thucydides Trap', mentioned in the context of US-China relations, is primarily a concept from which field?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.International Relations✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Macroeconomics
  • C.Environmental Science
  • D.Constitutional Law
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Thucydides Trap is a theory in International Relations concerning the likelihood of war when a rising power challenges an established one. The article mentions it while discussing US-China strategic competition.

Source: China-US Beijing Summit Articulates 'Constructive Strategic Stability' Framework to Manage Taiwan, Trade Tensions →
Q54.

Consider the following statements regarding the US-China Summit discussed in the article:

1. President Xi Jinping articulated a new guideline for bilateral ties called 'Constructive Strategic Stability'.

2. China identified the South China Sea issue as the 'most important issue' in its relationship with the US.

3. President Xi Jinping met with a delegation of American CEOs during the summit to discuss business deals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as Xi set the tone with 'Constructive Strategic Stability'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states Taiwan is 'the most important issue'. Statement 3 is correct as Xi met 17 US CEOs.

Source: China-US Beijing Summit Articulates 'Constructive Strategic Stability' Framework to Manage Taiwan, Trade Tensions →
Q55.

According to the article, how many American CEOs were part of the US delegation that met President Xi Jinping during the summit?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.15
  • B.17✓ Correct Answer
  • C.20
  • D.25
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'Xi also met with the 17 American CEOs who travelled as part of the US delegation.' The other numbers are plausible distractors.

Source: China-US Beijing Summit Articulates 'Constructive Strategic Stability' Framework to Manage Taiwan, Trade Tensions →
Q56.

What was a primary objective of China's engagement with US CEOs during the Beijing Summit, as per the article's analysis?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To immediately transfer advanced technology to China
  • B.To create transactional deliverables that the US could declare as victories✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To persuade them to relocate manufacturing entirely to China
  • D.To secure unconditional loans for Chinese infrastructure projects
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that business deals brought 'opportunities to strike a deal and create a transactional deliverable for Washington to declare a victory back home.' This was a tool of economic diplomacy, not an aim for unconditional tech transfer or relocation.

Source: China-US Beijing Summit Articulates 'Constructive Strategic Stability' Framework to Manage Taiwan, Trade Tensions →
Q57.

Which US law provides the framework for unofficial relations with Taiwan?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Taiwan Defense Act
  • B.The Taiwan Relations Act✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Sino-American Treaty
  • D.The Pacific Security Pact
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Taiwan Relations Act of 1979 is the key US legislation that established the framework for continuing unofficial commercial, cultural, and security relations with Taiwan after the US switched diplomatic recognition to Beijing.

Source: Trump Warns Taiwan Against Independence Post Beijing Summit, US Arms Sale $11bn Package Under Review →
Q58.

Consider the following statements regarding the US stance on Taiwan:

1. The United States officially recognizes Taiwan as a separate sovereign country.

2. The US maintains unofficial diplomatic and military ties with Taiwan.

3. A $11bn package of weapons was sold to Taiwan by the US in 2025.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The US officially adheres to the 'One-China' policy, recognizing Beijing as the sole Chinese government. Statement 2 is correct as per the Taiwan Relations Act. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article about the 2025 arms sale package.

Source: Trump Warns Taiwan Against Independence Post Beijing Summit, US Arms Sale $11bn Package Under Review →
Q59.

According to the article, what was the value of the US weapons package announced for Taiwan in 2025?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.$5bn
  • B.$8bn
  • C.$11bn✓ Correct Answer
  • D.$15bn
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically states that the Trump administration announced an '$11bn package of weapons to be sold to Taiwan' in 2025. Other options are plausible distractors given the scale of such deals.

Source: Trump Warns Taiwan Against Independence Post Beijing Summit, US Arms Sale $11bn Package Under Review →
Q60.

What is the primary objective behind the US policy of 'strategic ambiguity' regarding Taiwan?

MediumUPSC
  • A.To formally ally with Taiwan against China
  • B.To deter Chinese aggression without committing to automatic military intervention✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To encourage Taiwan to declare formal independence
  • D.To reduce economic dependencies on China
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Strategic ambiguity aims to prevent China from attacking Taiwan by leaving unclear the US response, while also not giving Taiwan a guarantee that might encourage provocative moves towards independence. This balancing act is central to maintaining regional stability.

Source: Trump Warns Taiwan Against Independence Post Beijing Summit, US Arms Sale $11bn Package Under Review →
Q61.

Which statutory organization formed the Standing Site Selection Committee that carried out the site selection exercise for repurposing thermal plants into nuclear facilities?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB)
  • B.Nuclear Power Corporation of India Ltd (NPCIL)
  • C.Central Electricity Authority (CEA)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Department of Atomic Energy (DAE)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Standing Site Selection Committee was formed by the Central Electricity Authority (CEA) in January 2025. CEA is a statutory body under the Ministry of Power responsible for power sector planning.

Source: CEA Panel Shortlists 3 Thermal Sites for Nuclear Conversion to Meet 100 GWe by 2047 Under SHANTI Act 2025 →
Q62.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The SHANTI Act, 2025, for the first time enabled private players to enter the operations side of India's nuclear power sector.

2. The site selection panel shortlisted sites based on a 10-point checklist covering parameters like land and seismotectonics.

3. One of the key challenges identified is the requirement of an exclusion zone, which is currently mandated as a 500-metre radius around reactor sites.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the panel used a detailed 17-point checklist, not a 10-point checklist. Statement 3 is incorrect; the current exclusion zone norm is a 1 km radius, not 500 metres. The proposal is to reduce it to 500m for smaller reactors.

Source: CEA Panel Shortlists 3 Thermal Sites for Nuclear Conversion to Meet 100 GWe by 2047 Under SHANTI Act 2025 →
Q63.

According to the article, what is India's current installed nuclear power capacity and its target capacity by 2047?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.6.5 GWe and 75 GWe
  • B.8.8 GWe and 100 GWe✓ Correct Answer
  • C.10.2 GWe and 120 GWe
  • D.7.4 GWe and 90 GWe
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The move comes as India seeks to expand its civil nuclear power capacity from the current 8.8 gigawatt-electric (GWe) to 100 GWe by 2047.' The other options are close distractors.

Source: CEA Panel Shortlists 3 Thermal Sites for Nuclear Conversion to Meet 100 GWe by 2047 Under SHANTI Act 2025 →
Q64.

What is a primary reason, as mentioned in the article, behind the government's move to repurpose old thermal power plant sites for nuclear projects?

MediumUPSC
  • A.To reduce the capital cost of building entirely new nuclear plants.
  • B.To utilize the existing land, water, and infrastructure at these ageing sites.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To immediately replace all coal-based power generation in the country.
  • D.To bypass the stringent environmental clearance processes for new sites.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article lists multiple reasons, including 'the availability of existing land, water and infrastructure at these sites.' This is a key strategic advantage for repurposing. While cost reduction may be a benefit, it is not the primary reason stated. The option about immediate replacement is not mentioned, and bypassing processes is incorrect.

Source: CEA Panel Shortlists 3 Thermal Sites for Nuclear Conversion to Meet 100 GWe by 2047 Under SHANTI Act 2025 →
Q65.

The crackdown on the OPT program was announced by which U.S. government agency?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)
  • B.Department of Homeland Security (DHS)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Central Intelligence Agency (CIA)
  • D.Department of Justice (DOJ)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the acting Immigration and Customs Enforcement (ICE) director, under the Department of Homeland Security (DHS), described OPT as a 'magnet for fraud'. DHS is the primary agency responsible for immigration enforcement and border security in the United States.

Source: US DHS Targets OPT Visa Program: Over 10,000 Fraud Cases, 12-Month & 24-Month STEM Extensions Under Scrutiny →
Q66.

Consider the following statements regarding the Optional Practical Training (OPT) program:

1. It allows international students on F-1 visas to work in the US after graduation.

2. STEM graduates are eligible for an additional 12-month extension under OPT.

3. The total permissible unemployment period during OPT and STEM OPT combined is 150 days.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as OPT allows F-1 visa students to work post-graduation. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states STEM graduates get an additional 24-month extension, not 12 months. Statement 3 is correct as per the attorney's explanation in the article. Hence, option C is correct.

Source: US DHS Targets OPT Visa Program: Over 10,000 Fraud Cases, 12-Month & 24-Month STEM Extensions Under Scrutiny →
Q67.

According to the article, how many potential fraud cases involving international students and employers has the Department of Homeland Security identified in the OPT system?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Over 1,000
  • B.Over 5,000
  • C.Over 10,000✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Over 50,000
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Department of Homeland Security had identified 'over 10,000 potential fraud cases involving international students and employers' in the OPT system. This is a key data point highlighting the scale of the alleged fraud.

Source: US DHS Targets OPT Visa Program: Over 10,000 Fraud Cases, 12-Month & 24-Month STEM Extensions Under Scrutiny →
Q68.

What is a primary reason cited in the article for the US crackdown on the OPT program?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce the number of international students in US universities
  • B.To address alleged widespread fraud involving shell companies and fake jobs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To encourage students to return to their home countries immediately after studies
  • D.To promote the use of alternative visa categories like the O-1 visa
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core news is the DHS crackdown due to allegations of systemic fraud. Officials described OPT as a 'magnet for fraud' and cited cases of shell companies, fake jobs, and 'pay-to-stay' arrangements. The other options are potential outcomes or suggestions, not the primary reason for the crackdown.

Source: US DHS Targets OPT Visa Program: Over 10,000 Fraud Cases, 12-Month & 24-Month STEM Extensions Under Scrutiny →
Q69.

Which organization is responsible for the overall control and management of the Bhojshala monument, as per the court's judgment?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Monuments Authority
  • B.Ministry of Culture
  • C.Archaeological Survey of India✓ Correct Answer
  • D.State Archaeology Department of Madhya Pradesh
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The judgment clarifies that the ASI will continue to exercise overall control and management of the protected monument under the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958.

Source: MP High Court Rules Bhojshala Complex as Temple of Saraswati, Sets Aside 2003 ASI Order; Directs Govt on Management →
Q70.

Consider the following statements regarding the Madhya Pradesh High Court's judgment on the Bhojshala complex:

1. The court concluded that the disputed site's religious character is that of a temple dedicated to Goddess Saraswati.

2. The court's decision was based on a claim of property title over the disputed area.

3. The judgment sets aside the April 7, 2003 order of the ASI Director that allowed shared religious practices at the site.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court ruled the site's character was Bhojshala, a temple of goddess Vagdevi (Saraswati). Statement 2 is incorrect because the court explicitly stated it was NOT deciding the title of the property, only the character based on historical evidence. Statement 3 is correct as the judgment set aside the portions of the April 7, 2003 ASI order that restricted Hindu worship and permitted Muslim namaz.

Source: MP High Court Rules Bhojshala Complex as Temple of Saraswati, Sets Aside 2003 ASI Order; Directs Govt on Management →
Q71.

According to the news, in which year did the Madhya Pradesh High Court order an ASI survey of the Bhojshala complex?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2003
  • B.2019
  • C.2024✓ Correct Answer
  • D.2025
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'In 2024, the Madhya Pradesh High Court ordered an ASI survey of the complex...' The year 2003 is when the previous ASI order was passed, and 2019 is when the Ayodhya verdict was delivered.

Source: MP High Court Rules Bhojshala Complex as Temple of Saraswati, Sets Aside 2003 ASI Order; Directs Govt on Management →
Q72.

What was a primary legal reason cited by the court for rejecting the 1935 'ailan' (order) presented by the Muslim side as evidence?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The order was not issued by a competent religious authority.
  • B.The site was already a protected monument under the Ancient Monuments Preservation Act, 1904.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The order was not properly documented or authenticated.
  • D.The order pertained to a different property altogether.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court held that since the disputed area was already notified as an ancient monument under the 1904 Act, and was a protected monument since 1904, the Ruler of Dhar State could not have validly issued the Ailan in 1935. This legal status invalidated the document as evidence for establishing the site as a mosque.

Source: MP High Court Rules Bhojshala Complex as Temple of Saraswati, Sets Aside 2003 ASI Order; Directs Govt on Management →
Q73.

Which agricultural university, mentioned in the article, is the primary research body studying Direct-Seeded Rice (DSR) in Punjab?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI)
  • B.Punjab Agricultural University (PAU), Ludhiana✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Tamil Nadu Agricultural University (TNAU)
  • D.Chaudhary Charan Singh Haryana Agricultural University
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions scientists from Punjab Agricultural University (PAU), Ludhiana, providing data on DSR water savings and recommending weed management practices. PAU is the state's premier agricultural research institution.

Source: Punjab Promotes DSR with ₹40 Cr Incentive for 2.77 Lakh Acres Amid 15-20% Water Saving but Herbicide Risks →
Q74.

Consider the following statements regarding Direct-Seeded Rice (DSR) in Punjab:

1. It can reduce water consumption by approximately 15-20% compared to traditional puddled transplanted rice.

2. The primary challenge in DSR cultivation is increased susceptibility to fungal diseases due to moist soil conditions.

3. A key herbicide used in DSR weed management, pendimethalin, has been included in a list of pesticides proposed for phase-out due to toxicity concerns.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per PAU scientists cited in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the primary challenge is aggressive weed growth, not fungal diseases. Statement 3 is correct as the article states pendimethalin was among pesticides proposed for phase-out/ban.

Source: Punjab Promotes DSR with ₹40 Cr Incentive for 2.77 Lakh Acres Amid 15-20% Water Saving but Herbicide Risks →
Q75.

According to the Punjab government's budget proposal for 2026-27, what is the total financial allocation to promote Direct-Seeded Rice (DSR) cultivation?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹25 crore
  • B.₹40 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹55 crore
  • D.₹70 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: "Punjab’s 2026-27 budget proposed a Rs 40-crore allocation" for DSR incentives. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned.

Source: Punjab Promotes DSR with ₹40 Cr Incentive for 2.77 Lakh Acres Amid 15-20% Water Saving but Herbicide Risks →
Q76.

What is the core agricultural dilemma highlighted in Punjab's promotion of Direct-Seeded Rice (DSR)?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Increasing yield versus maintaining crop quality
  • B.Reducing labour costs versus ensuring farmer income
  • C.Saving groundwater versus preserving soil health from herbicides✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Promoting mechanization versus protecting traditional farming knowledge
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's central theme is the trade-off where DSR saves water but leads to heavy herbicide use, risking long-term soil degradation and ecological harm. This captures the policy's core environmental dilemma.

Source: Punjab Promotes DSR with ₹40 Cr Incentive for 2.77 Lakh Acres Amid 15-20% Water Saving but Herbicide Risks →
Q77.

The Karnataka High Court judgment linked the right to travel abroad for work to which fundamental right under the Indian Constitution?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 14 (Right to Equality)
  • B.Article 19(1)(d) (Right to move freely)
  • C.Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Article 32 (Right to Constitutional Remedies)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The judgment explicitly stated that the right to travel abroad has been recognized as an integral facet of personal liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution. This is a well-established judicial interpretation.

Source: Karnataka HC Quashes LOC Under Article 21, Section 498A; Stresses Proportionality Test for Right to Livelihood →
Q78.

Consider the following statements regarding the Karnataka High Court judgment on Look-Out Circulars (LOCs):

1. The court held that an LOC cannot operate in a manner that results in the 'civil death' of an individual by extinguishing the right to livelihood.

2. The judgment stated that the mere pendency of a criminal case under Section 498A IPC automatically justifies an absolute embargo on the right to travel abroad.

3. The court emphasized that criminal law, especially in matrimonial disputes, should not be employed as a means of economic strangulation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Judicial Services
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court used the term 'civil death'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the court said the mere pendency of a case, particularly from matrimonial discord, cannot 'ipso facto' (by that fact alone) justify an absolute travel embargo. Statement 3 is correct as the article quotes the court saying criminal law should not be used for 'economic strangulation'.

Source: Karnataka HC Quashes LOC Under Article 21, Section 498A; Stresses Proportionality Test for Right to Livelihood →
Q79.

In the recent Karnataka High Court case, the Look-Out Circular (LOC) was issued following a complaint under which section of the Indian Penal Code?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Section 304B (Dowry Death)
  • B.Section 498A (Cruelty by husband)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Section 506 (Criminal intimidation)
  • D.Section 420 (Cheating)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the estranged wife lodged a complaint under Section 498-A (and other provisions) of the IPC at the Udupi Mahila Police Station in 2022, following which the police issued the LOC.

Source: Karnataka HC Quashes LOC Under Article 21, Section 498A; Stresses Proportionality Test for Right to Livelihood →
Q80.

What was the primary legal principle invoked by the Karnataka High Court to limit the state's power in issuing Look-Out Circulars (LOCs) in cases like matrimonial disputes?

MediumUPSC, Judicial Services
  • A.The Doctrine of Basic Structure
  • B.The Test of Proportionality✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Principle of Double Jeopardy
  • D.The Rule of Law
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court held that 'any restriction imposed by the State must satisfy the test of proportionality.' This principle requires that a state's action must be proportionate to its aim, ensuring that individual rights are not excessively curtailed, especially concerning the right to livelihood under Article 21.

Source: Karnataka HC Quashes LOC Under Article 21, Section 498A; Stresses Proportionality Test for Right to Livelihood →
Q81.

The news mentions consultations to establish a Greenlandic version of the 'Canadian Rangers'. The Rangers are a reserve unit of which country's armed forces?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.United States Armed Forces
  • B.Canadian Armed Forces✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Royal Danish Armed Forces
  • D.Norwegian Armed Forces
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'A reserve unit of the Canadian Armed forces called the Rangers...' Therefore, the Rangers are a part of the Canadian Armed Forces, and this model is being discussed for adoption by Greenland.

Source: Canada, Nordic 5 Deepen Arctic Defense Cooperation; Plan Ranger-Style Greenland Force by 2026 →
Q82.

Consider the following statements regarding the Arctic security developments mentioned in the article:

1. Canada's increased defense collaboration with Nordic countries is part of an effort to strengthen alliances among 'middle powers'.

2. The Canadian Rangers are a permanent, regular force deployed in Canada's southern urban centers.

3. Russia has the largest number of military bases in the Arctic region compared to any other nation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as PM Carney describes strengthening ties with Nordics as part of an effort between 'middle powers'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Rangers are a 'reserve unit' maintaining a presence in 'inaccessible Arctic communities', not a regular force in southern cities. Statement 3 is correct as the article states 'Russia has far more military bases than any other nation there'.

Source: Canada, Nordic 5 Deepen Arctic Defense Cooperation; Plan Ranger-Style Greenland Force by 2026 →
Q83.

According to the article, by when is the plan for how Greenland might adapt the Canadian Rangers model expected to be ready?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.By the end of 2025
  • B.By the end of 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.By March 2027
  • D.A plan has already been finalized
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'A plan for how Greenland might adapt the Canadian Rangers is expected by the end of this year,' where 'this year' refers to the publication year of 2026. Therefore, the expected deadline is the end of 2026.

Source: Canada, Nordic 5 Deepen Arctic Defense Cooperation; Plan Ranger-Style Greenland Force by 2026 →
Q84.

What is described as a primary catalyst for the accelerated efforts by Canada and Greenland to develop Arctic security cooperation, specifically the Rangers-style force?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.The discovery of new mineral resources in Greenland
  • B.Threats by former U.S. President Donald Trump to seize Greenland✓ Correct Answer
  • C.A formal request from NATO for increased regional burden-sharing
  • D.A major joint military exercise conducted by Russia and China in the Arctic
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly links the urgency of the talks to 'Mr. Trump’s threats'. It states that conversations between Greenland, Denmark, and Canada 'grew more urgent with Mr. Trump’s threats' and that 'The rhetoric coming out of the White House has sped up efforts...'

Source: Canada, Nordic 5 Deepen Arctic Defense Cooperation; Plan Ranger-Style Greenland Force by 2026 →
Q85.

The WHO report on nicotine pouches mentions the 'Tobacco Free Initiative'. Who is the Unit Head of this initiative at WHO?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Dr. Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus
  • B.Dr. Vinayak Prasad✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Dr. Etienne Krug
  • D.Dr. Sonu Goel
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, Vinayak Prasad is the unit head of the Tobacco Free Initiative for WHO. Dr. Tedros is the WHO Director-General. Dr. Etienne Krug is the Director of the Department of Health Determinants, Promotion and Prevention. Dr. Sonu Goel is a professor at PGIMER Chandigarh.

Source: WHO Report Warns on $7 Billion Nicotine Pouch Market, Flags Youth Targeting and Urges Regulation Under PECA →
Q86.

Consider the following statements regarding nicotine pouches as discussed in the WHO report:

1. They are small sachets placed between the gum and lip that release nicotine.

2. Their global retail sales in 2024 increased by more than 50% compared to the previous year.

3. In India, nicotine pouches are currently banned under the Prohibition of Electronic Cigarettes Act (PECA), 2019.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article defines nicotine pouches as such. Statement 2 is correct as the article states retail sales increased by more than 50% in 2024. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article quotes an expert suggesting they *should* be regulated under PECA, not that they currently are.

Source: WHO Report Warns on $7 Billion Nicotine Pouch Market, Flags Youth Targeting and Urges Regulation Under PECA →
Q87.

According to the WHO report, what was the approximate global market value of nicotine pouch products in the year 2025?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.$5 billion
  • B.$7 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • C.$10 billion
  • D.$23 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "The global market of nicotine pouch products was worth nearly $7 billion in 2025." $23 billion refers to the number of units sold in 2024, not the market value.

Source: WHO Report Warns on $7 Billion Nicotine Pouch Market, Flags Youth Targeting and Urges Regulation Under PECA →
Q88.

What is the primary public health concern highlighted by the WHO regarding the marketing of nicotine pouches?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.They are being sold at exorbitant prices, making them inaccessible.
  • B.Their aggressive marketing targets youth, risking a new generation of nicotine addiction.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.They contain carcinogens not found in traditional cigarettes.
  • D.They are being illegally smuggled across international borders.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core concern of the WHO report, as detailed in the article, is the use of flavours, lifestyle branding, and packaging that mimics candy to appeal to younger audiences, thereby normalising use and creating addiction. The other options are not the central focus of the report as described.

Source: WHO Report Warns on $7 Billion Nicotine Pouch Market, Flags Youth Targeting and Urges Regulation Under PECA →
Q89.

The Institutes of Eminence (IoE) scheme, relevant to the context of global rankings, falls under the purview of which ministry?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Science and Technology
  • B.Ministry of Education✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
  • D.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Institutes of Eminence (IoE) scheme is an initiative of the Government of India to empower higher educational institutions. It is administered by the Ministry of Education (formerly Ministry of Human Resource Development).

Source: IITs, IISc in Top 250 of QS World Rankings 2026, Highlight Systemic Challenges in Research Funding and Quality →
Q90.

Consider the following statements regarding the news article on India's higher education:

1. The Indian Institute of Science (IISc) was ranked in the global top 100 for Computer Science in 2026.

2. All IITs mentioned in the article secured a rank within the global top 100 in the QS World University Rankings.

3. The article identifies inadequate funding for research as a continuing problem for Indian higher education.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 3
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states IISc secured 96th place in Computer Science. Statement 2 is incorrect; the IITs were ranked among the top 250, not necessarily the top 100. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly mentions 'inadequate funding for research' as a problem.

Source: IITs, IISc in Top 250 of QS World Rankings 2026, Highlight Systemic Challenges in Research Funding and Quality →
Q91.

According to the article, how many Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) were specifically mentioned as being ranked among the world's top 250 universities in the QS World University Rankings 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Three
  • B.Four✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Five
  • D.Six
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article lists IIT Bombay, Delhi, Kanpur, and Madras, which are four IITs. IISc is a separate institution (Indian Institute of Science). Therefore, four IITs were mentioned in the top 250.

Source: IITs, IISc in Top 250 of QS World Rankings 2026, Highlight Systemic Challenges in Research Funding and Quality →
Q92.

What is the primary concern raised by the article regarding reforms in India's higher education system?

MediumUPSC
  • A.Reforms are too slow and lack ambition.
  • B.Reforms focus excessively on expanding the number of institutions.
  • C.Reforms risk creating a 'cobra effect' by incentivizing quantity over quality.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Reforms are not aligned with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core argument of the article is the danger of the 'cobra effect', where poorly planned reforms focusing on metrics like number of research papers or PhDs could weaken the system by neglecting originality and impact, which are harder to measure.

Source: IITs, IISc in Top 250 of QS World Rankings 2026, Highlight Systemic Challenges in Research Funding and Quality →
Q93.

Which international relations concept, mentioned in the article, describes the risk of conflict between a rising power and an established power?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Domino Theory
  • B.Thucydides Trap✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Balance of Power
  • D.Clash of Civilizations
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the 'Thucydides Trap', a concept where conflict arises when a rising power threatens to displace an established dominant power. The other options are distinct theories not referenced in the article.

Source: U.S.-China Summit Stresses Taiwan Issue and 'Thucydides Trap', India's Strategic Autonomy Key →
Q94.

Consider the following statements regarding the U.S.-China summit discussed in the article:

1. The summit concluded with a breakthrough agreement on the Taiwan issue.

2. President Xi Jinping proposed a new framework called a 'constructive relationship of strategic stability'.

3. The U.S. agreed to stop arms sales to Taiwan as part of the summit outcomes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the article states the summit concluded without any apparent breakthroughs, especially on Taiwan. Statement 2 is correct; President Xi proposed this new label for ties. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article mentions the U.S. stance on Taiwan, including substantial arms sales, remains unchanged.

Source: U.S.-China Summit Stresses Taiwan Issue and 'Thucydides Trap', India's Strategic Autonomy Key →
Q95.

According to the article, what quantity of Boeing aircraft did China agree to purchase as part of the trade discussions?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.100 aircraft
  • B.150 aircraft
  • C.200 aircraft✓ Correct Answer
  • D.250 aircraft
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically states that Beijing agreed to buy 200 Boeing aircraft. This is a concrete data point from the trade agreements discussed.

Source: U.S.-China Summit Stresses Taiwan Issue and 'Thucydides Trap', India's Strategic Autonomy Key →
Q96.

What is the primary strategic challenge for India highlighted in the article, arising from the U.S.-China dynamics?

MediumUPSC
  • A.To choose a permanent alliance with one of the superpowers.
  • B.To reinforce its strategic autonomy and independence.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To increase its military spending to match the superpowers.
  • D.To mediate directly between the U.S. and China.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article concludes that reinforcing India's strategic autonomy and independence, rather than diluting it, offers the best path forward. This is the core implication for India's foreign policy, not forming an alliance or direct mediation.

Source: U.S.-China Summit Stresses Taiwan Issue and 'Thucydides Trap', India's Strategic Autonomy Key →
Q97.

Which constitutional body is primarily responsible for administering elections and maintaining electoral data in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Parliament of India
  • B.The Election Commission of India✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Ministry of Home Affairs
  • D.The National Statistical Office
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional authority established under Article 324. It is responsible for administering all elections to the Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice-President, including the maintenance of electoral rolls.

Source: Voter Turnout Trends Show Broad Increase from 59.77% in Gujarat (2007) to 92.47% in West Bengal (2026) →
Q98.

Consider the following statements regarding voter turnout trends in India:

1. Voter turnout in Gujarat increased from 59.77% in 2007 to 64.84% in 2022.

2. Voter turnout in Punjab increased from 76.04% in 2007 to 72.15% in 2022.

3. The rise in voter turnout is solely attributable to the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the data in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states Punjab's turnout fell from 76.04% to 72.15%. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article argues the rising trend is broader and longer-term, and the SIR's effect is additive rather than foundational.

Source: Voter Turnout Trends Show Broad Increase from 59.77% in Gujarat (2007) to 92.47% in West Bengal (2026) →
Q99.

According to the article, what was the voter turnout percentage in West Bengal in 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.84.72%
  • B.90.28%
  • C.92.47%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.78.27%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically states that West Bengal's voter turnout moved upward from 84.72% in 2011 to 92.47% in 2026. 84.72% is the 2011 figure, 90.28% is Manipur's 2022 turnout, and 78.27% is Kerala's increased turnout.

Source: Voter Turnout Trends Show Broad Increase from 59.77% in Gujarat (2007) to 92.47% in West Bengal (2026) →
Q100.

What does the broad increase in voter turnout across Indian states, as discussed in the article, primarily indicate?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.A sudden phenomenon limited to politically intense states.
  • B.A sustained deepening of electoral engagement over decades.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The exclusive success of the Election Commission's administrative exercises.
  • D.A decline in the quality of democratic competition.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's central argument is that the rise in voter turnout is a widespread, long-term trend across diverse states, reflecting stronger political engagement and mobilization. It explicitly states this is not a sudden phenomenon and that administrative exercises like SIR worked on top of an existing trend.

Source: Voter Turnout Trends Show Broad Increase from 59.77% in Gujarat (2007) to 92.47% in West Bengal (2026) →
Q101.

Which ministry's data analysis showed the shift in India's trade flows due to the West Asia war?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Commerce and Industry✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Ministry of External Affairs
  • C.Ministry of Finance
  • D.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the analysis of data was based on figures shared by the Commerce and Industry Ministry. This ministry is responsible for formulating India's trade policy and compiling trade statistics.

Source: India's Trade Diversion: Exports to Singapore Surge 180% to $3.2B, UAE Falls 36% Amid Strait of Hormuz Closure →
Q102.

Consider the following statements regarding the impact of the West Asia war on India's trade:

1. Exports to Singapore in April 2026 were $3.20 billion, a 180% increase compared to April the previous year.

2. The Strait of Hormuz, closed since March 2026, accounted for about half of global oil flows before the conflict.

3. According to the US EIA, West Asian oil producers shut in 10.5 million barrels per day of crude oil production in April 2026.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Strait of Hormuz accounted for about a fifth (not half) of global oil flows. Statement 3 is correct, as directly mentioned in the article's data from the US Energy Information Administration (EIA).

Source: India's Trade Diversion: Exports to Singapore Surge 180% to $3.2B, UAE Falls 36% Amid Strait of Hormuz Closure →
Q103.

According to the article, what was the value of India's exports to the United Arab Emirates (UAE) in April 2026?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.$1.14 billion
  • B.$2.18 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • C.$3.20 billion
  • D.$3.43 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that exports to the UAE slipped by 36% to $2.18 billion in April 2026. Option A ($1.14bn) is Singapore's export value a year ago. Option C ($3.20bn) is Singapore's export value in April 2026. Option D ($3.43bn) is the UAE's export value a year ago.

Source: India's Trade Diversion: Exports to Singapore Surge 180% to $3.2B, UAE Falls 36% Amid Strait of Hormuz Closure →
Q104.

What was a primary consequence of the West Asia war and the Strait of Hormuz closure that directly affected the Indian economy, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.A sharp increase in foreign direct investment inflows.
  • B.A significant appreciation of the Indian rupee against the US dollar.
  • C.The widening of India's import bill and depreciation of the rupee.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.A boost in domestic manufacturing due to reduced competition.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly links the conflict to a jump in global energy prices and supply disruption, which widened India's import bill. It also states the conflict directly impacted the rupee, which fell 5.2% against the US dollar. The other options are not supported by the article's content.

Source: India's Trade Diversion: Exports to Singapore Surge 180% to $3.2B, UAE Falls 36% Amid Strait of Hormuz Closure →
Q105.

Which government body issued the notification placing silver imports for domestic consumption under the restricted category?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
  • B.Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Finance
  • D.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the import restriction was announced via a DGFT notification. The DGFT, under the Ministry of Commerce, is responsible for implementing India's Foreign Trade Policy.

Source: India Restricts Silver Imports, Raises Gold/Silver Customs Duty to 15% to Curb CAD & Forex Outflow Amid West Asia Crisis →
Q106.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent government measures on precious metal imports:

1. The customs duty on imports of both gold and silver has been raised to 15.4%.

2. Silver imports for processing and value-added exports as jewellery continue to be unrestricted.

3. The quantitative limit on gold imports under a key export scheme is 100 kg.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: Duty on gold and silver was raised to 15% (not 15.4%; 15.4% is for platinum). Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is correct: a 100 kg limit was placed on gold imports under an export scheme. Hence, option C is correct.

Source: India Restricts Silver Imports, Raises Gold/Silver Customs Duty to 15% to Curb CAD & Forex Outflow Amid West Asia Crisis →
Q107.

According to the article, what was the value of India's silver imports in the financial year 2025-26?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.$5.6 billion
  • B.$12.05 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • C.$71.98 billion
  • D.$411 million
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: "In 2025-26, silver imports increased by 150% to $12.05 billion." $5.6 billion is the gold import value for April, $71.98 billion is the annual gold import value, and $411 million is the silver import value for April.

Source: India Restricts Silver Imports, Raises Gold/Silver Customs Duty to 15% to Curb CAD & Forex Outflow Amid West Asia Crisis →
Q108.

What is the primary economic rationale behind the government's recent restrictions and duty hikes on gold and silver imports?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To increase government revenue through higher tariff collection
  • B.To promote domestic mining and production of precious metals
  • C.To conserve foreign exchange and manage the Current Account Deficit (CAD)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To reduce the physical smuggling of gold across borders
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article repeatedly cites the strain on the current account, forex outflow, and the need to prioritize forex for essential imports like crude oil as the key reasons. While revenue increase is a by-product, the primary objective is external sector management amidst the West Asia crisis and high global prices.

Source: India Restricts Silver Imports, Raises Gold/Silver Customs Duty to 15% to Curb CAD & Forex Outflow Amid West Asia Crisis →
Q109.

The National Testing Agency (NTA), involved in the NEET-UG paper leak case, operates under which Union Ministry?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Education✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  • C.Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
  • D.Ministry of Science and Technology
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The National Testing Agency (NTA) is an autonomous organization under the Department of Higher Education in the Ministry of Education. It was established to conduct entrance examinations for higher educational institutions.

Source: NTA Flags 2026 NEET-UG Paper Setters to CBI, Announces Retest on June 21 After Leak →
Q110.

Consider the following statements regarding the NEET-UG 2026 paper leak case:

1. The breach was traced to the first stage of the exam process, which is the printing press.

2. The NTA has submitted a list of suspected paper setters and translators to the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI).

3. As per the 2024 expert committee protocol, question papers are set in rooms with internet facilities for research purposes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The breach was traced to the first stage where the question paper originates (paper setting), not the printing press. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect: The 2024 committee's protocol mandates that the room should NOT have internet facilities.

Source: NTA Flags 2026 NEET-UG Paper Setters to CBI, Announces Retest on June 21 After Leak →
Q111.

According to the article, in how many languages can candidates opt for the NEET-UG question paper?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.10 languages
  • B.13 languages✓ Correct Answer
  • C.15 languages
  • D.22 languages
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states, 'Candidates can opt for NEET-UG question papers in one of 13 languages.' This is a key factual detail about the exam's accessibility features.

Source: NTA Flags 2026 NEET-UG Paper Setters to CBI, Announces Retest on June 21 After Leak →
Q112.

What is a primary security measure, as per the 2024 expert committee, that was reportedly compromised in the NEET-UG leak?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Use of biometric authentication at exam centers
  • B.Setting questions in acoustically insulated rooms without internet✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Real-time digital surveillance of all paper setters
  • D.Encrypted digital transmission of the final paper
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article details the 2024 committee's protocol, which includes drawing experts to set papers in an 'acoustically insulated' room that 'does not have internet facilities.' The leak suggests a failure in enforcing these physical and digital isolation measures.

Source: NTA Flags 2026 NEET-UG Paper Setters to CBI, Announces Retest on June 21 After Leak →
Q113.

Which central government organization has been directed by the Madhya Pradesh High Court to take charge of the preservation and regulation of access to the Bhojshala complex?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Monuments Authority
  • B.Indian Council of Historical Research
  • C.Archaeological Survey of India✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Ministry of Culture
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Madhya Pradesh High Court made the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), which has administered the monument since 1952, in-charge of preservation and regulation of access. The ASI is the primary body for archaeological conservation in India.

Source: Madhya Pradesh HC Declares Bhojshala as Saraswati Temple, Bars Namaz, ASI to Manage Site per 242-Page Verdict →
Q114.

Consider the following statements regarding the Bhojshala-Kamal Maula complex dispute:

1. The Madhya Pradesh High Court, in its verdict, declared the religious character of the complex to be that of a temple of Goddess Vagdevi (Saraswati).

2. As per the 2003 arrangement managed by the ASI, Hindus were allowed to offer namaz at the complex on Tuesdays.

3. The court has directed the state government to consider allotting alternative land in Dhar district for Muslim prayers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states Hindus performed puja on Tuesdays, while Muslims offered namaz on Fridays. Statement 3 is correct as the court directed the state government to consider allotting alternative land. Hence, option C is correct.

Source: Madhya Pradesh HC Declares Bhojshala as Saraswati Temple, Bars Namaz, ASI to Manage Site per 242-Page Verdict →
Q115.

According to the article, for how many years had the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) been administering the Bhojshala monument prior to the High Court verdict?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Since 1947
  • B.Since 1952✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Since 1991
  • D.Since 2003
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly mentions that the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) has administered the monument since 1952. This is a specific factual detail crucial for prelims-style questions.

Source: Madhya Pradesh HC Declares Bhojshala as Saraswati Temple, Bars Namaz, ASI to Manage Site per 242-Page Verdict →
Q116.

What is a significant implication of the Madhya Pradesh High Court verdict on the Bhojshala complex, as described in the article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It mandates the construction of a new mosque adjacent to the complex.
  • B.It allows for continued shared worship under a revised weekly schedule.
  • C.It bars Muslims from offering namaz at the site and designates it for exclusive Hindu worship.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It orders the demolition of all structures added after the 15th century.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core implication of the verdict, as stated in the article, is that the court ruled the site's character is a Hindu temple (Bhojshala), Muslims would no longer be permitted to offer namaz there, and it directed the ASI to manage it. This effectively designates it for exclusive Hindu worship.

Source: Madhya Pradesh HC Declares Bhojshala as Saraswati Temple, Bars Namaz, ASI to Manage Site per 242-Page Verdict →

Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?

For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.

  • Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
  • Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
  • Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.

Frequently Asked Questions

What are the important current affairs questions for 16 May 2026?▼

This page contains 116 current affairs questions from 16 May 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.

How to use 16 May 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼

Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.

How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼

Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.

Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼

Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.

What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼

Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.

All Questions in This Set

  1. Q1. The Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls is an …
  2. Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the Special Intens…
  3. Q3. According to the article, what was the net percentage trim in …
  4. Q4. is a primary concern raised by critics regarding the methodolo…
  5. Q5. ministry/department is responsible for preparing the Economic …
  6. Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the challenges hig…
  7. Q7. According to the article, what was India's real GDP growth rat…
  8. Q8. is identified as a key institutional issue contributing to the…
  9. Q9. Indian public sector company is responsible for maintaining th…
  10. Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the recent India-U…
  11. Q11. is the total capacity of India's Strategic Petroleum Reserves …
  12. Q12. is a primary strategic objective for India in securing the agr…
  13. Q13. The 'Ice Memory' project, which inaugurated a global ice core …
  14. Q14. Consider the following statements regarding places in the news…
  15. Q15. According to the article, what is the deck height of the Chena…
  16. Q16. is the primary strategic significance of India's erstwhile Ayn…
  17. Q17. The Supreme Court's 1995 judgment, which interpreted Hinduism …
  18. Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
  19. Q19. In which year did the Supreme Court deliver the landmark judgm…
  20. Q20. was the primary legal consequence established by the Supreme C…
  21. Q21. Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Limited (ISPRL), responsib…
  22. Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the India-UAE rela…
  23. Q23. According to the article, what was the quantum of the recent h…
  24. Q24. is identified in the article as a primary ecological driver in…
  25. Q25. Central Public Sector Undertaking (CPSU) is specifically menti…
  26. Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the recently appro…
  27. Q27. According to the National Coal Inventory of 2025 cited in the …
  28. Q28. is a primary strategic objective of promoting coal gasificatio…
  29. Q29. The Bihar Public Service Commission (BPSC) is established unde…
  30. Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the recent reforms…
  31. Q31. For the BPSC 70th Combined Competitive Examination, how many c…
  32. Q32. is the primary objective behind BPSC's directive to implement …
  33. Q33. Indian regulatory body is responsible for setting the limits a…
  34. Q34. Consider the following statements regarding India's foreign bo…
  35. Q35. According to the RBI data cited in the article, what was the a…
  36. Q36. is identified as the primary reason making External Commercial…
  37. Q37. department issued the order for re-verification of caste certi…
  38. Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the West Bengal ca…
  39. Q39. According to the order, how many Scheduled Tribe (ST) caste ce…
  40. Q40. is the primary statutory authority responsible for issuing cas…
  41. Q41. Under which Article of the Constitution did the Allahabad High…
  42. Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Allahab…
  43. Q43. According to the news, in which month and year did the couple …
  44. Q44. is the primary constitutional principle that the Allahabad Hig…
  45. Q45. The authority that first approved the drug mifepristone for ab…
  46. Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  47. Q47. According to the article, what proportion of all abortions in …
  48. Q48. is a primary legal argument used by Justice Clarence Thomas in…
  49. Q49. international institution is providing the financial programme…
  50. Q50. Consider the following statements regarding Pakistan's IMF-lin…
  51. Q51. According to the IMF staff report cited in the news, what is t…
  52. Q52. is a key structural reform commitment Pakistan has made under …
  53. Q53. The 'Thucydides Trap', mentioned in the context of US-China re…
  54. Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the US-China Summi…
  55. Q55. According to the article, how many American CEOs were part of …
  56. Q56. was a primary objective of China's engagement with US CEOs dur…
  57. Q57. US law provides the framework for unofficial relations with Ta…
  58. Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the US stance on T…
  59. Q59. According to the article, what was the value of the US weapons…
  60. Q60. is the primary objective behind the US policy of 'strategic am…
  61. Q61. statutory organization formed the Standing Site Selection Comm…
  62. Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  63. Q63. According to the article, what is India's current installed nu…
  64. Q64. is a primary reason, as mentioned in the article, behind the g…
  65. Q65. The crackdown on the OPT program was announced by which U.S. g…
  66. Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the Optional Pract…
  67. Q67. According to the article, how many potential fraud cases invol…
  68. Q68. is a primary reason cited in the article for the US crackdown …
  69. Q69. organization is responsible for the overall control and manage…
  70. Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the Madhya Pradesh…
  71. Q71. According to the news, in which year did the Madhya Pradesh Hi…
  72. Q72. was a primary legal reason cited by the court for rejecting th…
  73. Q73. agricultural university, mentioned in the article, is the prim…
  74. Q74. Consider the following statements regarding Direct-Seeded Rice…
  75. Q75. According to the Punjab government's budget proposal for 2026-…
  76. Q76. is the core agricultural dilemma highlighted in Punjab's promo…
  77. Q77. The Karnataka High Court judgment linked the right to travel a…
  78. Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the Karnataka High…
  79. Q79. In the recent Karnataka High Court case, the Look-Out Circular…
  80. Q80. was the primary legal principle invoked by the Karnataka High …
  81. Q81. The news mentions consultations to establish a Greenlandic ver…
  82. Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the Arctic securit…
  83. Q83. According to the article, by when is the plan for how Greenlan…
  84. Q84. is described as a primary catalyst for the accelerated efforts…
  85. Q85. The WHO report on nicotine pouches mentions the 'Tobacco Free …
  86. Q86. Consider the following statements regarding nicotine pouches a…
  87. Q87. According to the WHO report, what was the approximate global m…
  88. Q88. is the primary public health concern highlighted by the WHO re…
  89. Q89. The Institutes of Eminence (IoE) scheme, relevant to the conte…
  90. Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the news article o…
  91. Q91. According to the article, how many Indian Institutes of Techno…
  92. Q92. is the primary concern raised by the article regarding reforms…
  93. Q93. international relations concept, mentioned in the article, des…
  94. Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the U.S.-China sum…
  95. Q95. According to the article, what quantity of Boeing aircraft did…
  96. Q96. is the primary strategic challenge for India highlighted in th…
  97. Q97. constitutional body is primarily responsible for administering…
  98. Q98. Consider the following statements regarding voter turnout tren…
  99. Q99. According to the article, what was the voter turnout percentag…
  100. Q100. does the broad increase in voter turnout across Indian states,…
  101. Q101. ministry's data analysis showed the shift in India's trade flo…
  102. Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the impact of the …
  103. Q103. According to the article, what was the value of India's export…
  104. Q104. was a primary consequence of the West Asia war and the Strait …
  105. Q105. government body issued the notification placing silver imports…
  106. Q106. Consider the following statements regarding the recent governm…
  107. Q107. According to the article, what was the value of India's silver…
  108. Q108. is the primary economic rationale behind the government's rece…
  109. Q109. The National Testing Agency (NTA), involved in the NEET-UG pap…
  110. Q110. Consider the following statements regarding the NEET-UG 2026 p…
  111. Q111. According to the article, in how many languages can candidates…
  112. Q112. is a primary security measure, as per the 2024 expert committe…
  113. Q113. central government organization has been directed by the Madhy…
  114. Q114. Consider the following statements regarding the Bhojshala-Kama…
  115. Q115. According to the article, for how many years had the Archaeolo…
  116. Q116. is a significant implication of the Madhya Pradesh High Court …