15 May 2026, Questions & Answers

144 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.

144 questions  ·  0 topics covered  ·  29 min revision

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This page contains 144 current affairs questions with answers from 15 May 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.

These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.

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15 May 2026, Questions with Answers

144 Qs
Q1.

As per Article 145(3) of the Constitution, what is the minimum number of judges required to constitute a 'Constitution Bench' of the Supreme Court?

EasyUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Three judges
  • B.Five judges✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Seven judges
  • D.Nine judges
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 145(3) states that any case involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution shall be heard by a bench of not less than five judges. The 9-judge bench in the Sabarimala reference exceeds this minimum requirement.

Source: SC's 9-Judge Bench Reserves Verdict on Sabarimala Reference, Grapples with Article 25, 26, and Constitutional Morality →
Q2.

Consider the following statements regarding the Sabarimala reference case hearings:

1. The Solicitor General argued that Article 25(1) of the Constitution does not itself provide for gender equality.

2. The bench observed that Articles 15, 16, 25, and 26 all function on the same constitutional plane.

3. Justice B V Nagarathna remarked that public interest litigation (PIL) should not transform into 'private interest litigation' or 'publicity interest litigation'.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article where SG Tushar Mehta argued Article 25(1) does not provide for gender equality. Statement 2 is incorrect because the bench cautioned against conflating Articles 15/16 with 25/26, stating they function on 'different planes'. Statement 3 is correct as Justice Nagarathna made this observation about PILs on Day 11.

Source: SC's 9-Judge Bench Reserves Verdict on Sabarimala Reference, Grapples with Article 25, 26, and Constitutional Morality →
Q3.

For how many days did the nine-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court hear the Sabarimala reference case before reserving its verdict?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.10 days
  • B.12 days
  • C.16 days✓ Correct Answer
  • D.20 days
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the hearing spanned '16 days', describing it as a 'marathon hearing'. The verdict was reserved on May 14, 2026, after these 16 days of proceedings.

Source: SC's 9-Judge Bench Reserves Verdict on Sabarimala Reference, Grapples with Article 25, 26, and Constitutional Morality →
Q4.

What was a central constitutional concern raised by the Supreme Court bench during the Sabarimala hearings, beyond the immediate issue of temple entry?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.The need to increase the number of Supreme Court judges.
  • B.Balancing social reform with the preservation of India's civilisational identity.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The procedure for appointing the Solicitor General.
  • D.Amending the Preamble to include the word 'secularism'.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

On Day 14, the bench raised broader questions about balancing social reform with preserving India's civilisational identity while examining denominational protections. Justice Nagarathna explicitly asked if the bench was 'going to upset the civilisation'. This reflects the core dilemma of enforcing modern constitutional values without disrupting traditional societal structures.

Source: SC's 9-Judge Bench Reserves Verdict on Sabarimala Reference, Grapples with Article 25, 26, and Constitutional Morality →
Q5.

The India-EFTA Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) involves which of the following country groups?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway, and Switzerland✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Denmark, Sweden, Finland, and Norway
  • C.Netherlands, Belgium, Luxembourg, and France
  • D.Austria, Czech Republic, Poland, and Hungary
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the India-EFTA TEPA is between India and the European Free Trade Association, whose members are Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway, and Switzerland. This is a key static GK fact linked to the news.

Source: PM Modi's Europe Trip: 3rd India-Nordic Summit in Oslo, $19 Bn Trade, Focus on Defence, Arctic & IMEEC →
Q6.

Consider the following statements regarding PM Modi's Europe visit as per the article:

1. The third India-Nordic Summit is being held in Oslo, Norway.

2. Sweden has removed Chinese vendors from its telecom networks as part of strategic de-risking.

3. The Netherlands is India's largest export destination in Europe.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states the summit is in Oslo. Statement 2 is correct: It mentions Sweden's firm position on de-risking from China, including removing Chinese vendors from telecom. Statement 3 is correct: The article notes the Netherlands is India's largest export destination in Europe. Hence, all are correct.

Source: PM Modi's Europe Trip: 3rd India-Nordic Summit in Oslo, $19 Bn Trade, Focus on Defence, Arctic & IMEEC →
Q7.

According to the article, what was the approximate value of bilateral merchandise trade between India and Norway in 2024-25?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Approximately US$500 million
  • B.Approximately US$1 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Approximately US$2 billion
  • D.Approximately US$5 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically states: 'Bilateral merchandise trade approximately US$1 billion in 2024-25'. The other options are plausible distractors but do not match the exact figure provided in the news content.

Source: PM Modi's Europe Trip: 3rd India-Nordic Summit in Oslo, $19 Bn Trade, Focus on Defence, Arctic & IMEEC →
Q8.

What is a primary strategic objective of India's enhanced engagement with Nordic countries, as highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To form a military alliance against Russia
  • B.To establish a dedicated cooperation mechanism for the Arctic region✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To replace the United States as the primary security guarantor in Europe
  • D.To counter the economic influence of the European Union
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that with all five Nordic states as Arctic Council members, the Summit aims to establish a dedicated India-Nordic Arctic cooperation mechanism. This is a clear strategic objective mentioned, unlike the other options which are not supported by the article's content.

Source: PM Modi's Europe Trip: 3rd India-Nordic Summit in Oslo, $19 Bn Trade, Focus on Defence, Arctic & IMEEC →
Q9.

Which Indian agency filed the chargesheet against the accused in the November 10 Delhi bomb blast case?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
  • B.National Investigation Agency (NIA)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Delhi Police Special Cell
  • D.Intelligence Bureau (IB)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that on May 14, the National Investigation Agency (NIA) filed a chargesheet against 10 accused. The NIA is the central agency mandated to investigate terror cases across India.

Source: NIA Chargesheets 10 Accused for Nov 10 Delhi Bomb Blast Linked to AQIS/AGuH, Terror Incidents Decline in J&K 61 in 2024 to 9 in 2026 →
Q10.

Consider the following statements regarding the terrorism incidents in Jammu and Kashmir:

1. In 2024, 61 terrorism-related incidents were reported.

2. In 2025, the number of terrorism-related incidents reported was 35.

3. Up to May 2, 2026, only 9 terrorism-related incidents were reported.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

All three statements are factually correct as per the article. It states: 'In J&K, against 61 terrorism-related incidents reported in 2024, 35 incidents were reported in 2025, and only nine had been reported up to May 2, 2026.'

Source: NIA Chargesheets 10 Accused for Nov 10 Delhi Bomb Blast Linked to AQIS/AGuH, Terror Incidents Decline in J&K 61 in 2024 to 9 in 2026 →
Q11.

According to the article, how many security personnel were killed in terrorism-related incidents in Jammu and Kashmir in 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.9
  • C.17
  • D.35
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article provides the exact data: 'One security personnel was killed in the incidents in 2026'. The other options are distractors: 9 is the number of incidents in 2026, 17 is the number killed in 2025, and 35 is the number of incidents in 2025.

Source: NIA Chargesheets 10 Accused for Nov 10 Delhi Bomb Blast Linked to AQIS/AGuH, Terror Incidents Decline in J&K 61 in 2024 to 9 in 2026 →
Q12.

What is a key challenge highlighted by the Red Fort attack chargesheet, as per the analysis in the article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The resurgence of large-scale cross-border infiltration.
  • B.The serious consequences of 'silent radicalisation' among professionals.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The failure of India's diplomatic outreach to Pakistan.
  • D.The inefficiency of local police in handling terror cases.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The Red Fort attack has unequivocally demonstrated the serious consequences of "silent radicalisation" among a section of Kashmiris, including professionals.' This is identified as a core challenge emerging from the incident.

Source: NIA Chargesheets 10 Accused for Nov 10 Delhi Bomb Blast Linked to AQIS/AGuH, Terror Incidents Decline in J&K 61 in 2024 to 9 in 2026 →
Q13.

Which central department's 1998 notification is cited by the Maharashtra government as the basis for its new recruitment rule?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
  • B.Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • D.Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Maharashtra government referred to a 1998 notification of the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) of the Union government. The DoPT is the nodal agency for policies related to recruitment and reservations in central government jobs.

Source: Maharashtra Govt Bars Reserved Candidates Using Relaxations From Open Category Posts, Cites 72% Reservation & 1998 DoPT Rule →
Q14.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent Maharashtra government decision on recruitment:

1. It bars SC/ST/OBC candidates who avail relaxations in age or attempts from being selected under the open category.

2. The decision was taken citing that reservation in government jobs in the state has exceeded 50%.

3. The Supreme Court, in the 2026 Chaya and Ors. case, held that migration of reserved candidates to the general merit list is never permissible.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the government cited that reservation has touched 72%, not that it exceeded 50%. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Supreme Court in the Chaya case (2026) held that migration was permissible under the specific facts of that case where the relaxed criterion was not essential.

Source: Maharashtra Govt Bars Reserved Candidates Using Relaxations From Open Category Posts, Cites 72% Reservation & 1998 DoPT Rule →
Q15.

What percentage of reservation in government jobs did the Maharashtra government's cabinet note cite as a reason for its new rule?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.50%
  • B.62%
  • C.72%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.85%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: "The government’s Cabinet note stated that reservation in government jobs in the state has touched 72 per cent." This is a direct factual data point from the news.

Source: Maharashtra Govt Bars Reserved Candidates Using Relaxations From Open Category Posts, Cites 72% Reservation & 1998 DoPT Rule →
Q16.

What is the primary constitutional argument made by opponents of the Maharashtra government's decision, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.It violates the federal structure by overriding central guidelines.
  • B.It infringes upon the right to privacy of the candidates.
  • C.It denies meritorious reserved candidates their right to open category seats, violating equality of opportunity.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It unfairly benefits economically advanced sections within reserved categories.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes former minister Nitin Raut stating the decision is a "direct assault on the constitutional rights" and that the Constitution entitles a reserved category candidate securing marks equivalent to the open category to be selected under it. This relates to the principle of equality of opportunity under Article 16.

Source: Maharashtra Govt Bars Reserved Candidates Using Relaxations From Open Category Posts, Cites 72% Reservation & 1998 DoPT Rule →
Q17.

Under which ministry does the National Testing Agency (NTA) function?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  • B.Ministry of Education✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Science and Technology
  • D.Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The National Testing Agency (NTA) is an autonomous body established under the Ministry of Education (formerly Ministry of Human Resource Development). It is responsible for conducting major national entrance exams.

Source: NTA Scrutinized After NEET 2026 Paper Leak: 22.79 Lakh Candidates Affected, CBI Probe Ordered →
Q18.

Consider the following statements regarding the NEET-UG 2026 paper leak incident:

1. The exam was scrapped after a handwritten 'guess paper' matching the actual questions was recovered.

2. The initial investigation was conducted by the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI).

3. The National Testing Agency (NTA) had assured students that full security protocols were observed.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article, which mentions the recovery of a handwritten 'guess paper'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the initial recovery was made by the Rajasthan Special Operations Group (SOG), and the CBI was later brought in. Statement 3 is correct as the NTA had given assurances about security protocols.

Source: NTA Scrutinized After NEET 2026 Paper Leak: 22.79 Lakh Candidates Affected, CBI Probe Ordered →
Q19.

According to the news, how many students were reported to have sat for the NEET-UG 2026 examination before it was scrapped?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Approximately 15 lakh
  • B.Approximately 20 lakh
  • C.22.79 lakh✓ Correct Answer
  • D.25.5 lakh
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'twenty-two lakh seventy-nine thousand students' sat for the NEET-UG 2026 exam. This precise figure is a key data point from the report.

Source: NTA Scrutinized After NEET 2026 Paper Leak: 22.79 Lakh Candidates Affected, CBI Probe Ordered →
Q20.

What is the primary governance issue highlighted by the repeated controversies surrounding the National Testing Agency (NTA)?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Inadequate funding for examination infrastructure.
  • B.Lack of technical expertise in conducting computer-based tests.
  • C.Systemic failure in ensuring transparency and institutional credibility.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Political interference in the setting of question papers.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core issue, as highlighted in the article's title and content, is the questioning of NTA's credibility and the need for a thorough examination of its functioning. This points to a systemic failure in governance, transparency, and maintaining trust, which is more fundamental than just funding or technical glitches.

Source: NTA Scrutinized After NEET 2026 Paper Leak: 22.79 Lakh Candidates Affected, CBI Probe Ordered →
Q21.

Which national agency is responsible for conducting the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
  • B.National Statistical Office (NSO)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.NITI Aayog
  • D.Ministry of Labour and Employment
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) is conducted by the National Statistical Office (NSO), which is the central statistical agency of India. While the Ministry of Labour and Employment uses the data, the survey's execution falls under the NSO's mandate.

Source: PLFS 2025: Labour Force Participation Rate at 59%, Unemployment at 3% Amid Skills and Gender Gap Challenges →
Q22.

Consider the following statements regarding findings from the PLFS 2025 report:

1. The unemployment rate in India was reported to be 3%.

2. The share of employment in the agriculture sector has increased compared to previous years.

3. Only about 4% of individuals aged 15-59 have received formal vocational or technical training.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the PLFS 2025 reports an unemployment rate of 3%. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states agriculture's share of employment has declined to 43%, not increased. Statement 3 is correct as it directly quotes the article's data point on formal vocational training.

Source: PLFS 2025: Labour Force Participation Rate at 59%, Unemployment at 3% Amid Skills and Gender Gap Challenges →
Q23.

According to the PLFS 2025 data mentioned in the article, what percentage of youth aged 15-29 falls into the NEET (Not in Employment, Education or Training) category?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.15%
  • B.20%
  • C.25%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.30%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that around 25% of those aged 15-29 fall into the NEET category. This is a critical data point highlighting the challenge of youth disengagement from the labour market.

Source: PLFS 2025: Labour Force Participation Rate at 59%, Unemployment at 3% Amid Skills and Gender Gap Challenges →
Q24.

What is identified as a primary structural reason for women's lower sustained workforce participation in India, as per the PLFS 2025 analysis?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Lack of access to higher education
  • B.Childcare and household responsibilities (unequal distribution of unpaid work)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Discriminatory hiring practices in the private sector
  • D.Insufficient number of jobs in the manufacturing sector
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly states that while men cited education as a primary reason for being outside the labour force, women pointed to childcare and household responsibilities. This reveals the structural constraint of the unequal distribution of unpaid care work, which creates a double burden for women.

Source: PLFS 2025: Labour Force Participation Rate at 59%, Unemployment at 3% Amid Skills and Gender Gap Challenges →
Q25.

The article mentions a historical episode of capital flight from emerging markets known as the 'Taper Tantrum'. Which central bank's policy announcement triggered this event?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
  • B.The U.S. Federal Reserve (Fed)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The European Central Bank (ECB)
  • D.The Bank of Japan (BoJ)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The 'Taper Tantrum' of 2013 was triggered by the U.S. Federal Reserve's announcement regarding the potential end of its quantitative easing program, leading to massive capital outflows from emerging markets like India.

Source: Capital Flight Depresses Rupee Amid Persian Gulf Conflict, Widening CAD and Rising Oil Prices in 2026 →
Q26.

Consider the following statements regarding the economic situation described in the article:

1. Capital flight and rupee depreciation are occurring despite interest rates in the U.S. and U.K. remaining unchanged.

2. The widening current account deficit is solely attributed to a decline in software services exports.

3. The RBI has intervened by imposing restrictions on certain foreign exchange derivative contracts to manage the situation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states outflows happened "even though interest rates in the U.S. and the U.K. have not changed". Statement 2 is incorrect; the widening CAD is due to rising oil prices, not a decline in software exports. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article's policy response section.

Source: Capital Flight Depresses Rupee Amid Persian Gulf Conflict, Widening CAD and Rising Oil Prices in 2026 →
Q27.

According to the article, at what level have the U.S. Federal Reserve and the Bank of England maintained their interest rates since December 2025?

MediumBanking, UPSC
  • A.3.25%
  • B.3.50%
  • C.3.75%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.4.00%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "The U.S. Federal Reserve and the Bank of England have maintained interest rates at 3.75% since December 2025." The other options are close distractors.

Source: Capital Flight Depresses Rupee Amid Persian Gulf Conflict, Widening CAD and Rising Oil Prices in 2026 →
Q28.

What is the primary dilemma faced by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in responding to capital flight and rupee depreciation, as explained in the article?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Choosing between defending the rupee and controlling domestic inflation.
  • B.Choosing between defending the rupee through interest rate hikes and supporting domestic investment.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Choosing between imposing capital controls and seeking an IMF bailout package.
  • D.Choosing between direct forex market intervention and moral suasion on citizens.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains the policy bind: raising domestic interest rates can help arrest the rupee's slide but would "negatively affect domestic investment." This captures the core trade-off between external stability and internal growth.

Source: Capital Flight Depresses Rupee Amid Persian Gulf Conflict, Widening CAD and Rising Oil Prices in 2026 →
Q29.

The Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Limited (ISPRL), mentioned in the context of the India-UAE energy pact, operates under which Union Ministry?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of External Affairs
  • B.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  • D.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, ISPRL is a specialized Indian public sector company under the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas. It is responsible for maintaining the country's strategic crude oil reserves.

Source: India-UAE Strengthen Strategic Partnership: Sign Defence Framework & $5 Billion Infra Investment Amid West Asia Turmoil →
Q30.

Consider the following statements regarding the India-UAE relations as discussed in the news:

1. The UAE is the largest source of LPG for India, meeting nearly 40 per cent of India’s requirement.

2. The UAE was the first country to partner with India in the 'Strategic Petroleum Reserves' program.

3. A 'Framework for the Strategic Defence Partnership' was signed, which includes a pact for setting up a Ship Repair Cluster at Kandla.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Only 2 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct as the article states 'UAE has been the first country to partner with India in the "Strategic Petroleum Reserves"'. Statement 3 is incorrect because the pact is for a Ship Repair Cluster at Vadinar, not Kandla.

Source: India-UAE Strengthen Strategic Partnership: Sign Defence Framework & $5 Billion Infra Investment Amid West Asia Turmoil →
Q31.

According to the article, what approximate percentage of India's crude oil requirement was met by the UAE last year?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.About 8%
  • B.About 11%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.About 15%
  • D.About 20%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'last year, the UAE was the 4th largest source of crude oil meeting nearly 11 percent of our requirement.' The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned.

Source: India-UAE Strengthen Strategic Partnership: Sign Defence Framework & $5 Billion Infra Investment Amid West Asia Turmoil →
Q32.

What was a key strategic objective underlined by PM Modi during his UAE visit, as per the news article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Promoting the use of the Indian Rupee for bilateral trade settlements.
  • B.Ensuring the Strait of Hormuz remains 'free, open and safe' for navigation.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Initiating a joint space exploration mission with the UAE.
  • D.Forming a military alliance to counter terrorism in the region.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article begins by stating that PM Modi stressed 'the Strait of Hormuz should be "free, open and safe"'. This is a direct quote and a primary strategic objective related to securing energy supply routes. The other options, while possible areas of cooperation, are not mentioned in the provided text.

Source: India-UAE Strengthen Strategic Partnership: Sign Defence Framework & $5 Billion Infra Investment Amid West Asia Turmoil →
Q33.

Which agency is responsible for conducting the NEET-UG examination?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.University Grants Commission (UGC)
  • B.National Testing Agency (NTA)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Medical Council of India (MCI)
  • D.Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The National Testing Agency (NTA) is the autonomous body established by the Government of India to conduct entrance examinations like NEET-UG, JEE Main, and UGC-NET. The article mentions the NTA cancelled and rescheduled the NEET-UG exam.

Source: NEET-UG 2027 Shifts to Computer-Based Test; 2026 Re-exam on June 21 After Paper Leak; CBI Probe Initiated →
Q34.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent NEET-UG developments:

1. The NEET-UG 2026 examination was originally conducted on May 3 and later cancelled.

2. The government has decided to shift NEET-UG to a Computer-Based Test format starting from the 2026 session itself.

3. The investigation into the alleged paper leak has been handed over to the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the exam was conducted on May 3 and cancelled. Statement 2 is incorrect: the shift to CBT is from 2027, not 2026. Statement 3 is correct: the case has been handed over to the CBI. Hence, option C is correct.

Source: NEET-UG 2027 Shifts to Computer-Based Test; 2026 Re-exam on June 21 After Paper Leak; CBI Probe Initiated →
Q35.

According to the article, how many questions from the NEET-UG 2026 paper reportedly appeared in the circulated 'guess paper'?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.90 out of 410
  • B.120 out of 410✓ Correct Answer
  • C.150 out of 410
  • D.180 out of 410
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states, as seen in the sub-headline, that '120 of 410 questions from NEET UG appeared in ‘guess paper’'. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Source: NEET-UG 2027 Shifts to Computer-Based Test; 2026 Re-exam on June 21 After Paper Leak; CBI Probe Initiated →
Q36.

What is the primary objective behind the government's decision to shift NEET-UG to a Computer-Based Test (CBT) format from 2027?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce the overall cost of conducting the examination
  • B.To increase the difficulty level of the question paper
  • C.To reduce the possibility of paper leaks and strengthen security✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To allow students to take the exam from home
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states the move to CBT 'is aimed at reducing the possibility of leaks and strengthening the overall security architecture'. While other options might be secondary effects or misconceptions, the primary objective stated is enhancing security.

Source: NEET-UG 2027 Shifts to Computer-Based Test; 2026 Re-exam on June 21 After Paper Leak; CBI Probe Initiated →
Q37.

Which statutory body, mentioned in the article, deals with children in need of care and protection, including placement of rescued minors?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR)
  • B.Child Welfare Committee (CWC)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.State Legal Services Authority
  • D.District Child Protection Unit
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions the rescued girl was placed in the Child Welfare Committee's custody. The CWC is a statutory body under the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015, responsible for the care and protection of children.

Source: Orissa HC Allows 16-Year-Old Rape Survivor to Continue 31-week Pregnancy Citing POCSO Act & Medical Risk →
Q38.

Consider the following statements regarding the Orissa High Court case:

1. The minor rape survivor was kidnapped twice by the same accused in June and August 2025.

2. The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act generally allows termination up to 24 weeks of gestation.

3. The court allowed continuation of pregnancy solely based on the survivor's wish, disregarding medical opinion.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is a static GK fact about the MTP Act. Statement 3 is incorrect; the court considered the medical board's opinion against termination due to high risk, along with the survivor and mother's choice.

Source: Orissa HC Allows 16-Year-Old Rape Survivor to Continue 31-week Pregnancy Citing POCSO Act & Medical Risk →
Q39.

According to the article, at what stage of pregnancy (in weeks) was the minor rape survivor when the medical board examined her?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.30 weeks and 4 days✓ Correct Answer
  • B.31 weeks
  • C.28 weeks
  • D.32 weeks
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The medical board report stated the pregnancy was in an advanced stage of 30 weeks and 4 days with a viable fetus. The other options are close distractors.

Source: Orissa HC Allows 16-Year-Old Rape Survivor to Continue 31-week Pregnancy Citing POCSO Act & Medical Risk →
Q40.

What was the primary legal consideration highlighted by Justice B P Routray in allowing the minor to continue her pregnancy?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The absolute right of a minor to decide under the MTP Act.
  • B.The opinion of parents/legal guardian matters for minors, subject to health risks.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The mandatory requirement of court approval for any termination beyond 20 weeks.
  • D.The precedence of medical opinion over all other factors.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The order pointed out that for a minor, the opinion of her parents or legal guardian 'matters' in choosing the legal route, even at an advanced stage, subject to risk to the mother's health and life. This balances guardianship consent with medical risk assessment.

Source: Orissa HC Allows 16-Year-Old Rape Survivor to Continue 31-week Pregnancy Citing POCSO Act & Medical Risk →
Q41.

Which ministry is primarily responsible for the oversight of Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) like Indian Oil, BPCL, and HPCL?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  • D.Ministry of Heavy Industries
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas is the nodal ministry for the exploration, production, refining, distribution, and marketing of petroleum products and natural gas in India, which includes overseeing the public sector OMCs.

Source: OMCs Hike Petrol & Diesel by ₹3/L After 4 Years Amid West Asia Crisis, Facing ₹14-42/L Loss on Sales →
Q42.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent fuel price hike:

1. The hike of ₹3 per litre is the first increase in petrol and diesel prices in over four years.

2. The Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) were incurring higher losses on the sale of diesel compared to petrol before the price hike.

3. The government had increased excise duty on fuels in March 2026 to provide relief to the OMCs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as prices were last hiked in April 2022. Statement 2 is correct as OMCs were losing ₹42/litre on diesel versus ₹14/litre on petrol. Statement 3 is incorrect; the government had slashed excise duty by ₹10/litre in late March 2026, not increased it.

Source: OMCs Hike Petrol & Diesel by ₹3/L After 4 Years Amid West Asia Crisis, Facing ₹14-42/L Loss on Sales →
Q43.

According to the article, what was the projected combined loss for the three major OMCs (IOC, BPCL, HPCL) for the April-June 2026 quarter?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.₹50,000 crore
  • B.₹75,000 crore
  • C.₹1 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
  • D.₹1.5 lakh crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Petroleum Minister Hardeep Singh Puri stated that the combined losses of the three refiners-cum-fuel retailers are projected at ₹1 lakh crore in the April-June quarter at the current price levels.

Source: OMCs Hike Petrol & Diesel by ₹3/L After 4 Years Amid West Asia Crisis, Facing ₹14-42/L Loss on Sales →
Q44.

What is the primary reason cited in the article for the government and OMCs opting for a staggered approach to the fuel price hike, rather than a one-time steep increase?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To comply with World Trade Organization regulations on subsidy limits
  • B.To allow time for renewable energy alternatives to gain market share
  • C.To mitigate political backlash and manage inflationary impact gradually✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To synchronize with the global quarterly crude oil price cycle
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that a staggered approach was chosen because a one-shot steep hike would not be politically palatable and would have a shock factor. Calibrated hikes allow the government to pass on higher prices gradually while monitoring public reaction and inflation.

Source: OMCs Hike Petrol & Diesel by ₹3/L After 4 Years Amid West Asia Crisis, Facing ₹14-42/L Loss on Sales →
Q45.

As per the article, which ministry currently has ownership of the physical Gazette of India?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Law and Justice
  • B.Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
  • D.Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that consolidation of legal repositories would involve transferring ownership of the physical gazette from the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs to a merged entity. This is a specific administrative detail mentioned in the text.

Source: Jan Vishwas Siddhant Aims to Cull 10,000+ Non-Act Instruments, Proposes India Code as Single Source of Truth →
Q46.

Consider the following statements regarding the issues discussed in the article:

1. The Supreme Court has held that laws must be promulgated or published for citizens to have an opportunity to know them.

2. The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act alone removed over 12,500 jail provisions from various laws.

3. The article estimates that regulatory complexity has cost India approximately $10,000 in total GDP since 1991.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's reference to the Supreme Court's principle. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article says 12,500 jail provisions were removed by the Jan Vishwas Bill combined with the Labour Codes, not by Jan Vishwas alone. Statement 3 is incorrect; the $10,000 loss is estimated in per capita GDP, not total GDP.

Source: Jan Vishwas Siddhant Aims to Cull 10,000+ Non-Act Instruments, Proposes India Code as Single Source of Truth →
Q47.

According to the article, how many types of 'Non-act/Non-rule instruments' has the administrative state invented to implement compliances?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.12
  • B.19✓ Correct Answer
  • C.41
  • D.70
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: "our administrative state has invented 19 Non-act/Non-rule instruments". The number 41 refers to the different types of compliances created, and 70+ refers to the number of central ministries.

Source: Jan Vishwas Siddhant Aims to Cull 10,000+ Non-Act Instruments, Proposes India Code as Single Source of Truth →
Q48.

What is the primary objective of the proposed 'single-source of truth' guarantee as per the article?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To increase government revenue by penalizing non-compliance more effectively.
  • B.To provide citizens and entrepreneurs certainty that only compliances listed on India Code are mandatory.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To transfer all legislative powers from Parliament to the executive for faster law-making.
  • D.To digitize all historical legal documents for archival purposes.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the guarantee would mean if a compliance is listed on the India Code website, it must be complied with, and if it's not, it can be safely ignored. This aims to eliminate confusion and reduce corruption, not increase revenue or change legislative powers.

Source: Jan Vishwas Siddhant Aims to Cull 10,000+ Non-Act Instruments, Proposes India Code as Single Source of Truth →
Q49.

Which state department is mentioned as having framed the new reservation policy in Maharashtra?

EasyUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Department of Social Justice
  • B.General Administration Department (GAD)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Department of Personnel and Training
  • D.State Election Commission
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the policy was framed by the General Administration Department (GAD) following recommendations from multiple authorities. This department handles administrative rules and procedures for the state government.

Source: Maharashtra Cabinet Approves New Reservation Policy Barring Candidates Using Relaxations From Open Category Seats →
Q50.

Consider the following statements regarding the new reservation policy in Maharashtra:

1. Reserved category candidates using any relaxation except examination fee concessions cannot compete for open category seats.

2. The total reservation in Maharashtra, including the Maratha quota, is 72%, which is below the Supreme Court's ceiling.

3. The policy aims to remove ambiguity and ensure uniform implementation of reservation norms across departments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: candidates using relaxations (age, qualification, etc.) except fee concessions are barred from open category. Statement 2 is incorrect; the 72% reservation is above the Supreme Court's 50% ceiling. Statement 3 is correct as the government stated the move was aimed at removing ambiguity and ensuring uniform implementation.

Source: Maharashtra Cabinet Approves New Reservation Policy Barring Candidates Using Relaxations From Open Category Seats →
Q51.

According to the article, what is the total percentage of reservation currently in Maharashtra?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.50%
  • B.62%
  • C.72%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.82%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that with the inclusion of the Maratha quota under SEBC, total reservation in Maharashtra has climbed to 72%. The Supreme Court ceiling is 50%, making 72% a key data point.

Source: Maharashtra Cabinet Approves New Reservation Policy Barring Candidates Using Relaxations From Open Category Seats →
Q52.

What is the primary objective of Maharashtra's new reservation policy as described in the article?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.To increase the overall reservation percentage beyond 72%
  • B.To clarify and uniformly implement reservation norms in recruitment processes✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To reduce the number of attempts allowed for all candidates
  • D.To merge the open and reserved categories for all posts
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The state government stated the move was aimed at removing ambiguity in recruitment processes and ensuring uniform implementation of reservation norms across departments. The policy does not aim to increase reservation percentage or merge categories.

Source: Maharashtra Cabinet Approves New Reservation Policy Barring Candidates Using Relaxations From Open Category Seats →
Q53.

Under which Act did the Gandhinagar court appoint an administrator to access the deceased's digital data?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Information Technology Act, 2000
  • B.Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023
  • C.Indian Succession Act, 1925✓ Correct Answer
  • D.General Clauses Act, 1897
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the family approached the court under the Indian Succession Act, 1925, seeking 'letters of administration'. The court appointed the daughter as administrator under this Act, which governs inheritance when a person dies without a will.

Source: Gandhinagar Court Declares Digital Data as Inheritable 'Property' Under Succession Act, 1925, Citing DPDP Act, 2023 →
Q54.

Consider the following statements regarding the Gandhinagar court ruling on digital inheritance:

1. The court declared that the fundamental right to privacy of a deceased person can be claimed by their legal heirs.

2. The court relied on the definition of 'movable property' in the General Clauses Act to include digital data.

3. The court directed Apple to provide access to the data citing Section 14 of the DPDP Act, 2023, as the sole legal basis.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The court held that the right to privacy 'extinguishes with the individual' and 'no claim in respect of the right to privacy of the deceased can be sustained'. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions the court found merit in arguments using definitions from the General Clauses Act and other statutes. Statement 3 is incorrect; the court directed Apple based on the succession law order, while the DPDP Act's nomination (Section 14) was discussed as a gap-filler, not the sole basis.

Source: Gandhinagar Court Declares Digital Data as Inheritable 'Property' Under Succession Act, 1925, Citing DPDP Act, 2023 →
Q55.

Which section of the Income Tax Act, 1961, was cited in the article as already recognizing certain digital assets for taxation?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Section 2(14)
  • B.Section 2(22)
  • C.Section 2(47A)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Section 80C
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The Income Tax Act... already taxes cryptocurrencies and NFTs as virtual digital assets under Section 2(47A).' This shows existing statutory recognition of some digital assets, which the court used to support its reasoning.

Source: Gandhinagar Court Declares Digital Data as Inheritable 'Property' Under Succession Act, 1925, Citing DPDP Act, 2023 →
Q56.

What is the primary legal gap highlighted by the Gandhinagar court ruling on digital data inheritance?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.The lack of cybercrime provisions in the IT Act, 2000.
  • B.The absence of a comprehensive digital inheritance law in India.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The inability of courts to interpret old laws for new technology.
  • D.The conflict between state and central laws on property rights.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article repeatedly emphasizes that while the DPDP Act allows nomination, it 'does not comprehensively regulate digital inheritance.' It also notes the IT Act 'does not create inheritance rights over digital accounts' and the Indian Succession Act 'predates the internet entirely.' This clearly identifies the lack of a dedicated legal framework as the core gap.

Source: Gandhinagar Court Declares Digital Data as Inheritable 'Property' Under Succession Act, 1925, Citing DPDP Act, 2023 →
Q57.

Which organization, mentioned in the article, is the premier body for archaeological conservation in India and was granted management control of the Bhojshala complex?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Museum Institute
  • B.Archaeological Survey of India (ASI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Indian Council of Historical Research
  • D.Ministry of Culture
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the court directed the ASI to have full supervisory control over the Bhojshala complex. The ASI is the primary government organization responsible for archaeological research and conservation of cultural heritage in India.

Source: Madhya Pradesh HC Declares Bhojshala Complex as Saraswati Temple, Directs ASI Management Under AMASR Act 1958 →
Q58.

Consider the following statements regarding the Madhya Pradesh High Court verdict on the Bhojshala complex:

1. The court declared the site to be a temple of Goddess Vagdevi (Saraswati) and dismissed the petitions of the Muslim and Jain communities.

2. The court upheld the validity of a 2003 order by the Archaeology Survey of India that permitted both Hindu and Muslim worship at the site.

3. The court suggested that the Muslim community could approach the State Government for alternate land in Dhar district for constructing a mosque.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the court 'impugned' (challenged and set aside) the 2003 ASI order, it did not uphold it. Statement 3 is correct as the court suggested the Muslim community could seek alternate land.

Source: Madhya Pradesh HC Declares Bhojshala Complex as Saraswati Temple, Directs ASI Management Under AMASR Act 1958 →
Q59.

From which date, as per the Madhya Pradesh High Court order, has the Bhojshala complex been held as a protected monument under the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains (AMASR) Act?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.March 18, 1904✓ Correct Answer
  • B.April 1, 1937
  • C.August 15, 1947
  • D.January 26, 1950
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court order specifically stated that the disputed area is held to be a protected monument under the AMASR Act, 1958, with effect from March 18, 1904. This is a key factual date mentioned in the article.

Source: Madhya Pradesh HC Declares Bhojshala Complex as Saraswati Temple, Directs ASI Management Under AMASR Act 1958 →
Q60.

What was a primary reason cited by the Madhya Pradesh High Court for dismissing the Muslim side's argument based on a 1935 proclamation (Ailan) by the princely State of Dhar?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The proclamation was not signed by the British Resident.
  • B.The Government of India Act, 1935, was not yet enforced at that time.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The princely state lacked the authority to make such proclamations.
  • D.The proclamation was contradicted by earlier archaeological records.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'The court rejected the Muslim side's argument... The court noted that the Act was only enforced in April, 1937 while rejecting the validity of the Ailan.' This indicates the timing of the Act's enforcement was the legal ground for dismissal.

Source: Madhya Pradesh HC Declares Bhojshala Complex as Saraswati Temple, Directs ASI Management Under AMASR Act 1958 →
Q61.

Which ministry/department is primarily responsible for negotiating and implementing the India-U.K. CETA mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of External Affairs
  • B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Finance
  • D.Ministry of Steel
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Ministry of Commerce and Industry, through its Department of Commerce, handles India's international trade agreements, including FTAs like the CETA. The Commerce Secretary, mentioned in the article, is a senior official of this ministry.

Source: India-U.K. Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement (CETA) Faces Steel Import Regulation Sticking Points Before May 2026 Implementation →
Q62.

Consider the following statements regarding the India-U.K. trade deal:

1. The India-U.K. Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement (CETA) was signed in July 2025.

2. The implementation of the CETA has been delayed due to a new Indian regulation on steel exports.

3. The UK's new Steel Strategy will reduce duty-free steel import quotas by 60% and impose a 50% tariff on above-quota imports from July 1, 2026.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the delay is due to a new UK regulation on steel imports, not an Indian regulation on exports. Statement 3 is correct as explicitly mentioned in the article. Hence, option C is correct.

Source: India-U.K. Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement (CETA) Faces Steel Import Regulation Sticking Points Before May 2026 Implementation →
Q63.

According to the article, what is the percentage of tariff that the UK will impose on steel imports exceeding the new quota limits from July 1, 2026?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.25%
  • B.40%
  • C.50%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.60%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: "Once the reduced quotas are exhausted, imports will be subject to a 50% tariff, an increase from the current 25% above-quota tariff." Therefore, the correct percentage is 50%.

Source: India-U.K. Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement (CETA) Faces Steel Import Regulation Sticking Points Before May 2026 Implementation →
Q64.

What is the primary cause of the 'sticking points' delaying the implementation of the India-U.K. CETA, as per the news article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Disagreements over intellectual property rights clauses
  • B.A new UK regulation on steel imports not factored into the negotiations✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Indian objections regarding service sector access
  • D.Political opposition within the UK Parliament
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Commerce Secretary Rajesh Agrawal explicitly stated that the UK has come ahead with a steel measure recently which was not factored in while negotiating the FTA, creating a sticking point. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Source: India-U.K. Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement (CETA) Faces Steel Import Regulation Sticking Points Before May 2026 Implementation →
Q65.

The India Meteorological Department (IMD), which forecasts the monsoon onset, operates under which Union Ministry?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
  • B.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
  • C.Ministry of Earth Sciences✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Ministry of Science and Technology
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The India Meteorological Department (IMD) is the principal agency for meteorology and is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Earth Sciences, Government of India.

Source: IMD Forecasts Early Monsoon Onset Over Kerala on May 26, Projects Below-Normal Rainfall (80 cm) Due to El Niño →
Q66.

Consider the following statements regarding the Southwest Mononset forecast for 2026:

1. The IMD has forecast its onset over Kerala on May 26 with a model error of ± 4 days.

2. The normal date for the monsoon onset over Kerala is June 1.

3. The IMD has projected above-normal seasonal rainfall for India due to the emergence of La Niña conditions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct as it states the normal onset date. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article states the IMD projected below-normal rainfall (80 cm) and attributed it to El Niño conditions, not La Niña.

Source: IMD Forecasts Early Monsoon Onset Over Kerala on May 26, Projects Below-Normal Rainfall (80 cm) Due to El Niño →
Q67.

According to the IMD forecast mentioned in the article, what is the projected total rainfall for the 2026 monsoon season?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.80 cm✓ Correct Answer
  • B.84 cm
  • C.87 cm
  • D.90 cm
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The country is likely to get 80 cm of rainfall in the monsoon months.' 87 cm is the Long Period Average (LPA), not the projection.

Source: IMD Forecasts Early Monsoon Onset Over Kerala on May 26, Projects Below-Normal Rainfall (80 cm) Due to El Niño →
Q68.

What is the primary climatological reason cited by the IMD for the projection of below-normal monsoon rainfall in 2026?

MediumUPSC
  • A.A strong positive Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)
  • B.The emergence of El Niño conditions✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Reduced snowfall over the Himalayas
  • D.Weakening of the Mascarene High
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly links the forecast of below-normal rainfall to El Niño, stating: 'The IMD said this could be due to the emergence of the El Niño conditions, which cause less rainfall in the country.'

Source: IMD Forecasts Early Monsoon Onset Over Kerala on May 26, Projects Below-Normal Rainfall (80 cm) Due to El Niño →
Q69.

The 'One-China Policy', a key context for the Taiwan issue discussed in the summit, is primarily associated with the foreign policy of which country?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.United States
  • B.China✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Japan
  • D.United Kingdom
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The 'One-China Policy' is a principle held by the People's Republic of China (PRC) asserting that Taiwan is an inalienable part of China. Other countries, including the US, may 'acknowledge' or 'recognize' this position as part of their diplomatic relations with Beijing.

Source: US-China Summit 2026: $100B+ Boeing & Soybean Deals, Taiwan & Iran Talks Highlight Geopolitical Rivalry →
Q70.

Consider the following statements regarding the outcomes of the 2026 US-China Summit as per the article:

1. China agreed to an immediate purchase of 750 Boeing aircraft.

2. The US President expressed support for a 20-year suspension of Iran's nuclear program.

3. A firm commitment was made by the US regarding the defense of Taiwan.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The deal was for 200 aircraft with a potential future expansion to 750, not an immediate purchase of 750. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect because the US President explicitly said, "I made no commitment on Taiwan."

Source: US-China Summit 2026: $100B+ Boeing & Soybean Deals, Taiwan & Iran Talks Highlight Geopolitical Rivalry →
Q71.

According to the news, what was the initial number of Boeing aircraft China agreed to purchase, with a potential for expansion?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.100 aircraft, expandable to 500
  • B.200 aircraft, expandable to 750✓ Correct Answer
  • C.300 aircraft, expandable to 1000
  • D.150 aircraft, expandable to 600
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "He announced that China had agreed to purchase 200 Boeing aircraft, with a potential commitment that could eventually expand to 750 planes." The quiz section also confirms this fact.

Source: US-China Summit 2026: $100B+ Boeing & Soybean Deals, Taiwan & Iran Talks Highlight Geopolitical Rivalry →
Q72.

What was a primary strategic outcome, or lack thereof, from the discussions on Taiwan during the summit?

MediumUPSC
  • A.The US reaffirmed its defense treaty with Taiwan.
  • B.The US and China agreed to a new framework for Taiwan's status.
  • C.The US made no new security commitments regarding Taiwan.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.China agreed to reduce military exercises near Taiwan.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core takeaway on Taiwan was the absence of a US commitment. President Trump's direct quote was "I made no commitment on Taiwan." This highlights the US strategy of maintaining strategic ambiguity while engaging with China, a key aspect of their complex relationship.

Source: US-China Summit 2026: $100B+ Boeing & Soybean Deals, Taiwan & Iran Talks Highlight Geopolitical Rivalry →
Q73.

Which institution is responsible for setting the investment cap for Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) in government securities, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, Banking
  • A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
  • B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Finance
  • D.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The Reserve Bank of India has kept the FPI investment cap in government securities at 6% of outstanding stock.' Therefore, the RBI is the nodal body for this regulation.

Source: Govt Considers Slashing Withholding Tax from 20% to 5% Under Section 194LD to Boost FPI Inflows Amid Forex Pressures →
Q74.

Consider the following statements regarding the withholding tax (WHT) mentioned in the article:

1. It is a tax deducted at source on income earned by foreign investors from Indian bonds.

2. The concessional WHT rate of 5% under Section 194LD of the Income Tax Act is currently in force.

3. A high withholding tax is considered a deterrent for foreign capital inflows into India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article defines WHT as 'tax deducted at source, is paid by foreign investors on the interest they earn.' Statement 2 is incorrect: The article states the concessional 5% regime 'expired in July 2023.' Statement 3 is correct: The article calls a high WHT 'a major deterrent for foreign capital inflows.'

Source: Govt Considers Slashing Withholding Tax from 20% to 5% Under Section 194LD to Boost FPI Inflows Amid Forex Pressures →
Q75.

According to the article, by how much had India's foreign exchange reserves eroded since March 2026, prompting the government's policy consideration?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.$25 billion
  • B.$38 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • C.$45 billion
  • D.$50 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'With capital outflows eroding India’s foreign exchange reserves by nearly $38 billion since March this year...' This is the key data point triggering the proposed tax cut.

Source: Govt Considers Slashing Withholding Tax from 20% to 5% Under Section 194LD to Boost FPI Inflows Amid Forex Pressures →
Q76.

What is the primary objective of the government's consideration to reduce the withholding tax rate on FPI interest income, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To increase direct tax revenue from foreign entities
  • B.To simplify the Goods and Services Tax (GST) structure
  • C.To revive overseas capital inflows and stabilise forex reserves✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To promote domestic retail investment in stock markets
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core thesis is that reducing the WHT will 'revive overseas inflows' and 'help stabilise forex reserves' by making Indian debt more attractive to foreign investors, thereby countering the $38 billion reserve erosion.

Source: Govt Considers Slashing Withholding Tax from 20% to 5% Under Section 194LD to Boost FPI Inflows Amid Forex Pressures →
Q77.

The principle of collective defence, where an attack on one member is considered an attack on all, is enshrined in which article of the NATO treaty?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 4
  • B.Article 5✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Article 6
  • D.Article 7
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 5 of the North Atlantic Treaty establishes the principle of collective defence, a cornerstone of the NATO alliance. This is a fundamental static GK fact in International Relations.

Source: Europe Reviews US Nuclear Umbrella Amid Troop Withdrawals, France Proposes 'Forward Deterrence' for Strategic Autonomy →
Q78.

Consider the following statements regarding the news on European security review:

1. The US recently announced the withdrawal of approximately 14% of its troops stationed in Germany.

2. France's 'forward deterrence' proposal is envisioned as a complete replacement for the NATO nuclear umbrella.

3. Under NATO's nuclear sharing arrangements, the United States deploys B61 nuclear bombs in several European countries, including Italy and Turkey.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article (5,000 troops, ~14%). Statement 2 is incorrect; Macron's proposal is a complement, not a replacement, for NATO's umbrella. Statement 3 is correct; the article lists the five host nations as Germany, Belgium, Netherlands, Italy, and Turkey.

Source: Europe Reviews US Nuclear Umbrella Amid Troop Withdrawals, France Proposes 'Forward Deterrence' for Strategic Autonomy →
Q79.

According to the article, what is the size of the special defence fund announced by Germany under its 'Zeitenwende' (turning point) policy?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.€50 billion
  • B.€75 billion
  • C.€100 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • D.€150 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions Germany's historic Zeitenwende policy and its €100 billion special defence fund aimed at modernising its armed forces. This is a key data point highlighting Europe's conventional defence spending increase.

Source: Europe Reviews US Nuclear Umbrella Amid Troop Withdrawals, France Proposes 'Forward Deterrence' for Strategic Autonomy →
Q80.

What is the primary strategic objective behind European states, particularly France, reconsidering security arrangements and proposing initiatives like 'forward deterrence'?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To completely decouple European security from the United States and NATO.
  • B.To reduce defence spending and reallocate funds to social welfare programs.
  • C.To enhance strategic autonomy and reduce excessive dependence on external security guarantees.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To form a new military alliance exclusively with Asian partners to counter China.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core debate revived in Europe is about 'strategic autonomy' – the idea that Europe should ensure its own security without excessive dependence. France's proposal is a step in this direction, aiming to complement, not replace, existing structures like NATO.

Source: Europe Reviews US Nuclear Umbrella Amid Troop Withdrawals, France Proposes 'Forward Deterrence' for Strategic Autonomy →
Q81.

Under which Act was the National Green Tribunal (NGT) established?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
  • B.The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
  • D.The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The NGT is a specialized judicial body established under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, for the effective disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation. The article references the NGT's mandate.

Source: ₹72,000 Crore Great Nicobar Transhipment Port Project in Sundaland Biodiversity Hotspot Raises Ecological and Seismic Concerns →
Q82.

Consider the following statements regarding the Great Nicobar Island project:

1. The project involves building an international transhipment port, an airport, and a township with an estimated cost of ₹72,000 crore.

2. Great Nicobar Island is part of the Sundaland Biodiversity Hotspot and was declared a UNESCO Biosphere Reserve in 2013.

3. The Shompen tribe, a Scheduled Tribe with a population of about 1,200, is the indigenous community primarily affected by the project.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct; Great Nicobar is part of Sundaland Hotspot and a UNESCO Biosphere Reserve since 2013. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Shompen are a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) with a population of 229, not a Scheduled Tribe of 1,200 (that is the Southern Nicobarese).

Source: ₹72,000 Crore Great Nicobar Transhipment Port Project in Sundaland Biodiversity Hotspot Raises Ecological and Seismic Concerns →
Q83.

According to the 2011 Census mentioned in the article, what is the population of the Shompen tribe, a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) on Great Nicobar Island?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.229✓ Correct Answer
  • B.1,200
  • C.650
  • D.1,000
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Shompen, a PVTG, number just 229 according to the 2011 Census. The Southern Nicobarese, a Scheduled Tribe, number about 1,200. 650 refers to plant species, and 1,000 is a distractor.

Source: ₹72,000 Crore Great Nicobar Transhipment Port Project in Sundaland Biodiversity Hotspot Raises Ecological and Seismic Concerns →
Q84.

What is the primary ecological risk highlighted by critics of the Great Nicobar project, beyond the direct destruction of forests?

MediumUPSC
  • A.Increased air pollution from port operations
  • B.Disruption of monsoon patterns due to loss of moisture-rich forests✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Introduction of invasive species from international shipping
  • D.Overexploitation of marine fisheries
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that a million trees marked for felling in these tropical forests 'play a critical role as moisture-rich precursors to the southwest monsoon'. This indicates a direct impact on regional climate patterns, a significant ecological risk.

Source: ₹72,000 Crore Great Nicobar Transhipment Port Project in Sundaland Biodiversity Hotspot Raises Ecological and Seismic Concerns →
Q85.

Under which ministry does the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), probing the Haryana bank scam, primarily function?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • B.Ministry of Finance
  • C.Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Ministry of Law and Justice
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The CBI functions under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions (Department of Personnel and Training). This is a key static fact about India's premier investigative agency.

Source: Haryana Govt Approves CBI Probe Against 5 IAS Officers in ₹590 Crore IDFC First Bank Scam Under Section 17A PCA →
Q86.

Consider the following statements regarding the Haryana bank scam case:

1. The State Vigilance and Anti-Corruption Bureau registered the initial case on February 23.

2. The CBI probe was approved under Section 17A of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA).

3. The Enforcement Directorate (ED) is conducting a parallel probe into the money laundering aspects.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the approval was under Section 17A of the Prevention of Corruption Act (PCA), not PMLA. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions a parallel ED probe. Hence, option C is correct.

Source: Haryana Govt Approves CBI Probe Against 5 IAS Officers in ₹590 Crore IDFC First Bank Scam Under Section 17A PCA →
Q87.

What is the total amount involved in the IDFC First Bank fraud case for which the CBI probe against IAS officers was approved by the Haryana government?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.₹490 crore
  • B.₹590 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹690 crore
  • D.₹790 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the scam amount is Rs 590-crore. This is a direct factual recall question, testing attention to numerical detail in news.

Source: Haryana Govt Approves CBI Probe Against 5 IAS Officers in ₹590 Crore IDFC First Bank Scam Under Section 17A PCA →
Q88.

What is the primary significance of the Haryana government granting permission under Section 17A of the Prevention of Corruption Act for the CBI probe?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It allows the CBI to make arrests without a warrant.
  • B.It fulfills a mandatory legal requirement for investigating serving public servants.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It transfers the case from the state police to the central agency.
  • D.It initiates a parallel investigation by the Enforcement Directorate.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Section 17A of the PCA mandates prior approval from the competent authority (government) before any police inquiry or investigation can be initiated against a public servant for actions taken in official capacity. This approval is a procedural safeguard, not about arrest powers or case transfer.

Source: Haryana Govt Approves CBI Probe Against 5 IAS Officers in ₹590 Crore IDFC First Bank Scam Under Section 17A PCA →
Q89.

The concept of 'Thucydides Trap' in international relations is primarily associated with the analysis of which ancient war?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Trojan War
  • B.The Peloponnesian War✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Punic Wars
  • D.The Macedonian Wars
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Thucydides Trap is traced to the work of Greek historian Thucydides, 'The History of the Peloponnesian War', which details the conflict between Athens and Sparta from 431-404 BC.

Source: Thucydides Trap Explained: Power Transition Theory, Peloponnesian War, Graham Allison's Destined for War, and China-US Relations →
Q90.

Consider the following statements regarding the Thucydides Trap:

1. It is a concept popularized by Graham Allison's book 'Destined for War'.

2. It refers to the inevitable conflict when a rising power challenges an established one.

3. The concept is derived from Thucydides' account of the war between Athens and Persia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as Graham Allison's 2017 book is credited with popularizing the term. Statement 2 is correct as it describes the trap's core premise. Statement 3 is incorrect; Thucydides wrote about the war between Athens and Sparta, not Persia.

Source: Thucydides Trap Explained: Power Transition Theory, Peloponnesian War, Graham Allison's Destined for War, and China-US Relations →
Q91.

Graham Allison's book, which popularized the term 'Thucydides Trap' in modern discourse, was published in which year?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2015
  • B.2016
  • C.2017✓ Correct Answer
  • D.2018
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Graham Allison's book 'Destined for War: Can America and China Escape Thucydides Trap?' was published in 2017.

Source: Thucydides Trap Explained: Power Transition Theory, Peloponnesian War, Graham Allison's Destined for War, and China-US Relations →
Q92.

In the context of the article, Chinese President Xi Jinping's reference to the 'Thucydides Trap' during talks with the US primarily serves to highlight what?

HardUPSC
  • A.The historical inevitability of war between Athens and Sparta.
  • B.The need for both nations to avoid the historical pattern of conflict during power transitions.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The superiority of Chinese strategic culture over Western realism.
  • D.The application of the Melian Dialogue principles to modern trade wars.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Xi Jinping asked, "Can China and the United States transcend the so-called 'Thucydides Trap' and forge a new paradigm for major-power relations?" This directly frames the current US-China dynamic within the trap theory and questions its inevitability, implying a desire to avoid that pattern.

Source: Thucydides Trap Explained: Power Transition Theory, Peloponnesian War, Graham Allison's Destined for War, and China-US Relations →
Q93.

Under which ministry does the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), which conducted the survey of the Bhojshala complex, operate?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • B.Ministry of Culture✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Law and Justice
  • D.Ministry of Education
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) is the premier organization for archaeological research and protection of cultural heritage in India. It functions under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India.

Source: MP High Court Rules Bhojshala Complex a Saraswati Temple, Sets Aside 2003 ASI Order on Worship Rights Under Article 25 →
Q94.

Consider the following statements regarding the Bhojshala case:

1. The Madhya Pradesh High Court ordered an ASI survey of the site in the year 2025.

2. The ASI report concluded the site's religious character was that of a mosque.

3. The court set aside an ASI order from April 7, 2003, that regulated worship at the site.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states the MP High Court ordered the ASI survey 'last year', which is 2025 relative to the 2026 article date. Statement 2 is incorrect: The ASI report and the court's conclusion was that the character was of a Saraswati temple, not a mosque. Statement 3 is correct: The court set aside portions of the April 7, 2003, ASI order.

Source: MP High Court Rules Bhojshala Complex a Saraswati Temple, Sets Aside 2003 ASI Order on Worship Rights Under Article 25 →
Q95.

As per the 2003 arrangement mentioned in the article, on which day of the week were Muslims permitted to offer namaz at the Bhojshala complex?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Tuesday
  • B.Wednesday
  • C.Thursday
  • D.Friday✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Under an arrangement made in 2003, Hindus perform puja at the complex on Tuesdays while Muslims offer namaz on Fridays.' This factual detail is a classic target for a Prelims question.

Source: MP High Court Rules Bhojshala Complex a Saraswati Temple, Sets Aside 2003 ASI Order on Worship Rights Under Article 25 →
Q96.

What was a primary legal argument raised by the Muslim side's lawyers against the ASI survey in the Bhojshala case?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.The survey was conducted without the High Court's permission.
  • B.The ASI altered the monument's structure during the survey, violating its preservation mandate.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The survey team was not qualified in archaeology.
  • D.The findings were based solely on mythological texts.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Senior advocate Salman Khurshid argued that the ASI removed stairs and platforms during the survey, which he claimed violated Section 16 of the 1958 Act that mandates preservation of the monument's character. This argument centers on the interpretation of the ASI's legal duties.

Source: MP High Court Rules Bhojshala Complex a Saraswati Temple, Sets Aside 2003 ASI Order on Worship Rights Under Article 25 →
Q97.

According to the article, which university is Deepa M. Ollapally, a Research Professor of International Affairs, affiliated with?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.University of Pennsylvania
  • B.The George Washington University✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Harvard University
  • D.Christ University
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Deepa M. Ollapally is a Research Professor of International Affairs at The George Washington University, U.S. CHRIST University is the affiliation of the co-author N. Manoharan.

Source: India's Strategic Autonomy Challenged by US Pressure on Iran, Russia Oil & BRICS De-dollarization Under Trump Presidency 2026 →
Q98.

Consider the following statements regarding India's strategic autonomy as discussed in the article:

1. India's ability to maintain good relations simultaneously with the U.S., Russia, China, Iran, and Israel is cited as an expression of its strategic autonomy.

2. The India-EU Free Trade Agreement (FTA) was finalized after 20 years of negotiations.

3. The article suggests that the Rafale fighter jet deal with France ensures complete technology transfer, including source codes and algorithms, to India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly mentions India's ability to maintain good relations with these powers without taking sides as the clearest expression of strategic autonomy. Statement 2 is correct as the article states the FTA denouement came after 20 years of slow negotiations. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article points out doubts about tech transfer and notes that source codes and algorithms will remain under French control.

Source: India's Strategic Autonomy Challenged by US Pressure on Iran, Russia Oil & BRICS De-dollarization Under Trump Presidency 2026 →
Q99.

According to the article, in which year did the United States overtake China to become India's largest trading partner?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2019-20
  • B.2020-21
  • C.2021-22✓ Correct Answer
  • D.2022-23
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states, "Indeed, the U.S. overtook China as India's largest trading partner in 2021-22." The other options are close distractors based on recent fiscal years.

Source: India's Strategic Autonomy Challenged by US Pressure on Iran, Russia Oil & BRICS De-dollarization Under Trump Presidency 2026 →
Q100.

What is identified as the biggest challenge to India's strategic autonomy in the article?

MediumUPSC
  • A.The Ukraine war and its impact on energy supplies.
  • B.European reluctance to finalize the Rafale fighter jet deal.
  • C.U.S. demands to align with American geoeconomic and geopolitical interests, including discontinuing Russian oil imports and foregoing the Iran Chabahar partnership.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.China's rising economic dominance in the region.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that Mr. Trump's arbitrary demands (to discontinue crude oil imports from Russia, forego the strategic partnership with Iran on Chabahar port, etc.) pose the biggest challenge to India's strategic autonomy in decades. The other options are either secondary or not the primary challenge highlighted.

Source: India's Strategic Autonomy Challenged by US Pressure on Iran, Russia Oil & BRICS De-dollarization Under Trump Presidency 2026 →
Q101.

The Uniform Civil Code, recently invoked in an Uttarakhand FIR, is a directive principle mentioned under which article of the Indian Constitution?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 25
  • B.Article 39
  • C.Article 44✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Article 51A
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 44 of the Constitution, under the Directive Principles of State Policy, states that 'The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.' This is the constitutional basis for UCC initiatives like the one in Uttarakhand.

Source: Uttarakhand Police Files First FIR Under UCC Provisions for Nikah Halala, Invokes Sections 32(1)(ii) and (iii) →
Q102.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The first FIR under Uttarakhand's Uniform Civil Code was registered at the Bhagwanpur police station.

2. The case involves allegations under the Dowry Prohibition Act but no allegations under the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act.

3. During investigation, provisions of the Indian Penal Code were added to the chargesheet.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article explicitly states the FIR was registered under Sections 3 and 4 of the Muslim Women Act. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article mentions the addition of UCC Sections 32(1)(ii) and (iii), not the IPC (it mentions BNS - Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, which replaced IPC).

Source: Uttarakhand Police Files First FIR Under UCC Provisions for Nikah Halala, Invokes Sections 32(1)(ii) and (iii) →
Q103.

According to the news, how many accused were finally named in the chargesheet filed by Uttarakhand police in the first UCC-based nikah halala case?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Five
  • B.Seven
  • C.Nine✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Eleven
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'After over a month-long investigation, police named nine accused in the chargesheet.' This is a direct factual recall from the provided content.

Source: Uttarakhand Police Files First FIR Under UCC Provisions for Nikah Halala, Invokes Sections 32(1)(ii) and (iii) →
Q104.

What is the primary legal significance of the Uttarakhand police invoking the Uniform Civil Code in the mentioned FIR?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It simplifies the procedural aspects of filing an FIR for dowry cases.
  • B.It sets a precedent for applying a secular civil code to override contentious personal law practices.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It transfers the jurisdiction of the case from state police to a central agency.
  • D.It automatically guarantees a conviction without the need for a trial.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As highlighted in the article, this is the first instance of UCC provisions being invoked for allegations like nikah halala. Its significance lies in testing how the new uniform law interacts with and potentially supersedes existing personal matrimonial laws, setting a judicial precedent.

Source: Uttarakhand Police Files First FIR Under UCC Provisions for Nikah Halala, Invokes Sections 32(1)(ii) and (iii) →
Q105.

Which institution in India is primarily responsible for controlling inflation through monetary policy and targets the CPI within a specific band?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
  • B.Ministry of Finance
  • C.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.NITI Aayog
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), through its Monetary Policy Committee (MPC), is mandated by the Government of India to target Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation within a specified band, as mentioned in the article.

Source: India's WPI Soars to 8.3% (42-Month High) as CPI Hits 3.48%, RBI's 2-6% Tolerance Band Under Pressure →
Q106.

Consider the following statements regarding the inflation data for April 2026 as mentioned in the article:

1. The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) inflation more than doubled compared to March 2026.

2. The surge in WPI was primarily led by a sharp increase in food and beverage prices.

3. The Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation reached a 13-month high.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: WPI rose to 8.3% in April from 3.88% in March, which is more than double. Statement 2 is incorrect: The spike in WPI was led by soaring fuel and power prices (24.71%), not food. Statement 3 is correct: CPI inflation was at a 13-month high of 3.48%.

Source: India's WPI Soars to 8.3% (42-Month High) as CPI Hits 3.48%, RBI's 2-6% Tolerance Band Under Pressure →
Q107.

According to the article, what was the rate of inflation for the 'Fuel and Power' category within the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) for April 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.18.5%
  • B.24.71%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.32.4%
  • D.67.2%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the spike in WPI was led by soaring fuel and power prices, which rose by 24.71%. The 67.2% figure is for the 'Petroleum and natural gas' sub-component, which is a part of this broader category.

Source: India's WPI Soars to 8.3% (42-Month High) as CPI Hits 3.48%, RBI's 2-6% Tolerance Band Under Pressure →
Q108.

What is the primary implication of the sharp divergence between the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) and Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation, as discussed in the article?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.It signals an immediate increase in consumer disposable income.
  • B.It indicates that producers are absorbing a significant share of rising costs, which is unsustainable.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It suggests that the government will increase subsidies across all sectors.
  • D.It shows that the RBI will immediately cut interest rates to boost demand.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the sharp divergence between CPI and WPI suggests producers are absorbing costs, a situation that is unlikely to remain sustainable. This absorption creates imminent risks of these costs being passed on to consumers, leading to higher retail inflation in the future.

Source: India's WPI Soars to 8.3% (42-Month High) as CPI Hits 3.48%, RBI's 2-6% Tolerance Band Under Pressure →
Q109.

As per the news, which constitutional body has recommended notifying heatwaves as a national disaster?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.NITI Aayog
  • B.16th Finance Commission✓ Correct Answer
  • C.National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)
  • D.Ministry of Home Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the '16th Finance Commission' has recommended that heatwaves be notified as a national disaster. The NDMA implements action plans but did not make this specific recommendation.

Source: 16th Finance Commission Recommends Declaring Heatwaves a National Disaster; Calls for National Cooling Doctrine →
Q110.

Consider the following statements regarding the challenges in India's heat response discussed in the article:

1. The quality of existing Heat Action Plans is uneven, with several being imitations of plans drafted elsewhere.

2. India's power grid, even on its best days, can reliably supply over 80% of its installed capacity for cooling needs.

3. A major limitation is that Western cooling solutions are designed for dry heat and assume energy bills most Indians cannot afford.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions uneven quality and imitation. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states the grid can supply 'at most 60%' of its installed capacity, not over 80%. Statement 3 is correct as it highlights the inappropriateness of Western solutions for India's wetter heat and their high cost.

Source: 16th Finance Commission Recommends Declaring Heatwaves a National Disaster; Calls for National Cooling Doctrine →
Q111.

According to the article, what is the maximum percentage of its installed capacity that India's power grid can supply on its best days?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.50%
  • B.60%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.70%
  • D.80%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'the grid in India, even on its best days, can supply at most 60% of its installed capacity.' This is a critical data point highlighting infrastructure constraints for scaling up mechanical cooling.

Source: 16th Finance Commission Recommends Declaring Heatwaves a National Disaster; Calls for National Cooling Doctrine →
Q112.

What is the core argument presented in the article for moving beyond current Heat Action Plans?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase international funding for climate adaptation projects.
  • B.To treat sustained access to safe indoor temperatures as a public-health entitlement.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To decentralize the implementation of all disaster management plans to municipal corporations.
  • D.To focus exclusively on developing cheaper air conditioning units for household use.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's central proposal is a 'national cooling doctrine' that frames safe indoor cooling not as a luxury but as a 'public-health entitlement to be guaranteed'. The other options are either not mentioned (international funding, decentralization to municipal corps) or are only one part of the suggested technological solution (cheaper ACs).

Source: 16th Finance Commission Recommends Declaring Heatwaves a National Disaster; Calls for National Cooling Doctrine →
Q113.

As per the news, which national-level entrance exam for undergraduate medical courses was cancelled in 2026?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET-UG)✓ Correct Answer
  • B.All India Pre Medical Test (AIPMT)
  • C.Joint Entrance Examination (JEE Main)
  • D.Common Medical Entrance Test (CMET)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the cancellation of 'NEET-UG 2026'. NEET-UG is the single national entrance test for MBBS/BDS admissions in India, conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA).

Source: Medical Education Reform: MBBS Seats Rise to 1.29 Lakh, NEET-UG 2026 Cancelled, Focus on AI and Faculty Shortages →
Q114.

Consider the following statements regarding medical education in India as discussed in the article:

1. The number of MBBS seats has nearly doubled from around 83,000 in 2021-22 to approximately 1.29 lakh in 2025-26.

2. A major challenge highlighted is the surplus of qualified faculty in pre-clinical disciplines across both government and private medical institutions.

3. The article suggests reforms like creating a national faculty pool and integrating 'Professors of Practice' to address faculty shortages.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the data in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article highlights a critical 'shortage' of qualified faculty, not a surplus. Statement 3 is correct as the article proposes a 'national faculty pool' and integrating 'Professors of Practice' as innovative measures to mitigate faculty shortages.

Source: Medical Education Reform: MBBS Seats Rise to 1.29 Lakh, NEET-UG 2026 Cancelled, Focus on AI and Faculty Shortages →
Q115.

According to the article, approximately how many medical aspirants were affected by the cancellation of NEET-UG 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Over 10 lakh
  • B.Over 18 lakh
  • C.Over 22 lakh✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Over 25 lakh
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the cancellation 'has not only left over 22 lakh medical aspirants in the lurch'. The other options are plausible distractors but the specific figure mentioned is 'over 22 lakh'.

Source: Medical Education Reform: MBBS Seats Rise to 1.29 Lakh, NEET-UG 2026 Cancelled, Focus on AI and Faculty Shortages →
Q116.

What is a key proposed solution in the article to address the shortage of faculty in medical colleges?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Mandating longer working hours for existing faculty
  • B.Creating a centralised national faculty pool for shared teaching resources✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Reducing the number of MBBS seats to match faculty availability
  • D.Privatising all faculty recruitment processes
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly suggests 'A national faculty pool: A centralised pool of qualified faculty... can be created to deliver teaching across institutions, either physically or through digital platforms.' This is presented as an innovative approach to optimise faculty utilisation. The other options are not mentioned as solutions.

Source: Medical Education Reform: MBBS Seats Rise to 1.29 Lakh, NEET-UG 2026 Cancelled, Focus on AI and Faculty Shortages →
Q117.

Which ministry/department in Sri Lanka is primarily involved in addressing the fisheries conflict with India as mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of External Affairs
  • B.Ministry of Fisheries✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Environment
  • D.Ministry of Defence
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions Sri Lanka's Fisheries Minister Ramalingam Chandrasekar making the statement and urging the ban. While the Navy enforces the law, the policy and diplomatic outreach on fisheries issues falls under the Fisheries Ministry.

Source: Sri Lanka Arrests 346 TN Fishermen in 2026, Urges Ban on Bottom Trawling Amid Palk Strait Conflict →
Q118.

Consider the following statements regarding the fisheries conflict mentioned in the news:

1. Bottom trawling has been banned in Sri Lanka since 2017.

2. The Sri Lankan Minister stated that the arrests of Indian fishermen are arbitrary actions.

3. Around 25% of the population in Sri Lanka's north and east depend on fisheries for livelihood.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only, 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'a practice prohibited in Sri Lanka since 2017.' Statement 2 is incorrect; the Minister explicitly said 'The arrests are not arbitrary.' Statement 3 is correct as mentioned: 'Around 25 % of the people on the island’s north and east depend on fisheries for livelihood.' Hence, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Source: Sri Lanka Arrests 346 TN Fishermen in 2026, Urges Ban on Bottom Trawling Amid Palk Strait Conflict →
Q119.

According to the data published by the Sri Lankan Navy mentioned in the article, how many Indian fishermen were arrested in 2026 on charges of illegal fishing?

EasySSC
  • A.240
  • B.346✓ Correct Answer
  • C.412
  • D.500
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'According to data published by the Sri Lankan Navy, a total of 346 Indian fishermen were arrested in 2026, on charges of illegal fishing in the island’s territorial waters.' The other numbers are not mentioned.

Source: Sri Lanka Arrests 346 TN Fishermen in 2026, Urges Ban on Bottom Trawling Amid Palk Strait Conflict →
Q120.

What is the primary reason cited by Sri Lanka's Fisheries Minister for arresting Tamil Nadu fishermen in Sri Lankan waters?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Violating the annual fishing ban period in Tamil Nadu.
  • B.Entering Sri Lankan waters without proper visas.
  • C.Using the destructive bottom trawling fishing method.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Catching endangered species protected under Sri Lankan law.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Minister directly links the arrests to the fishing method: 'The arrests are not arbitrary. Authorities detain fishermen from Tamil Nadu because they pursue an illegal fishing method in our territorial waters. Bottom trawling destroys marine resources...' While the annual ban is mentioned, it is a separate Tamil Nadu regulation; the core reason for Sri Lanka's action is the illegal fishing method within its waters.

Source: Sri Lanka Arrests 346 TN Fishermen in 2026, Urges Ban on Bottom Trawling Amid Palk Strait Conflict →
Q121.

Which autonomous organization conducts the NEET-UG examination?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.University Grants Commission (UGC)
  • B.National Testing Agency (NTA)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)
  • D.Indian Institute of Technology (IIT)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The National Testing Agency (NTA) is the autonomous body under the Ministry of Education responsible for conducting the NEET-UG examination, as mentioned in the article. It was established to centralize entrance test administration.

Source: CBI Probe into NEET-UG Paper Leak for 22 Lakh Candidates Focuses on Radhakrishnan Committee Recommendations →
Q122.

Consider the following statements regarding the NEET-UG paper leak investigation:

1. The CBI probe is focusing on identifying the breach point in the sequence from paper setting to exam centre.

2. The security protocols being examined were recommended by a committee headed by former ISRO chief K Kasturirangan.

3. The previous NEET-UG paper leak, which prompted the committee's formation, occurred in 2024.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's focus. Statement 2 is incorrect; the committee was headed by former ISRO chief K Radhakrishnan, not K Kasturirangan. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the 2024 leak led to the committee's recommendations. Hence, option C is correct.

Source: CBI Probe into NEET-UG Paper Leak for 22 Lakh Candidates Focuses on Radhakrishnan Committee Recommendations →
Q123.

According to the article, how many examination centres were used for the NEET-UG exam in the current year?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.4,500
  • B.5,432✓ Correct Answer
  • C.5,800
  • D.6,000
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the exam was conducted at 5,432 centres in the current year. This is a precise data point for factual recall.

Source: CBI Probe into NEET-UG Paper Leak for 22 Lakh Candidates Focuses on Radhakrishnan Committee Recommendations →
Q124.

What was the primary principle behind the security protocol recommendations made by the high-level committee after the 2024 NEET leak?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase the number of people involved for better oversight.
  • B.To ensure that as few people as possible have access to the final question paper.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To decentralize the printing process across multiple presses.
  • D.To eliminate the need for police escort during transport.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As stated in the article, committee members emphasized that the principle was to minimize the number of people accessing the question paper file to reduce the chance of a weak link. This is a core governance and security concept.

Source: CBI Probe into NEET-UG Paper Leak for 22 Lakh Candidates Focuses on Radhakrishnan Committee Recommendations →
Q125.

Which constitutional body is primarily responsible for conducting delimitation of parliamentary constituencies in India?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Election Commission of India
  • B.The Delimitation Commission✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Parliament Standing Committee on Home Affairs
  • D.The Ministry of Law and Justice
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Delimitation is carried out by a Delimitation Commission constituted under the Delimitation Act. The ECI conducts elections but does not redraw boundaries. This static GK linkage is essential for polity questions.

Source: Phase Transition from Doubtful to Dubious Elections in West Bengal and Assam; Calls for People's Commission →
Q126.

Consider the following statements regarding electoral integrity as discussed in the article:

1. The article describes a 'phase transition' from isolated electoral scandals to systemic manipulation.

2. It cites the assembly elections in Punjab (1992) and Jammu & Kashmir (1987) as historical examples of dubious elections.

3. The author argues that the Supreme Court has been an active intervenor in recent cases of electoral manipulation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the core thesis of the article is a shift from doubtful to dubious elections. Statement 2 is correct as Punjab 1992 and J&K 1987 are listed as historical exceptions. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states the Supreme Court has been a 'spectator so far'.

Source: Phase Transition from Doubtful to Dubious Elections in West Bengal and Assam; Calls for People's Commission →
Q127.

According to the article's analysis of the Systematic Inclusion Review (SIR) in West Bengal, how many assembly seats were considered suspect due to voter list deletions?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.91 seats
  • B.105 seats
  • C.158 seats✓ Correct Answer
  • D.26 seats
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that treating all 91 lakh deletions as suspect casts doubt on the final outcome in 158 seats. The other options are distractors: 91 is the lakh of deletions, 105 is the number of seats BJP won among those 158, and 26 is the number of seats the BJP may have won due to the most dubious deletions.

Source: Phase Transition from Doubtful to Dubious Elections in West Bengal and Assam; Calls for People's Commission →
Q128.

What is the primary institutional concern raised by the author regarding the Election Commission's role in the recent elections?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Its inability to update voter lists efficiently.
  • B.Its failure to enforce the Model Code of Conduct on all parties equally.
  • C.Its transformation from an impartial umpire to an arm of the ruling party.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Its excessive focus on technological solutions over grassroots monitoring.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core institutional critique is that the ECI can 'act as an arm of the ruling party' and that 'yesterday's umpire can overnight become the winning team's player'. This reflects a deep concern about the erosion of its constitutional neutrality.

Source: Phase Transition from Doubtful to Dubious Elections in West Bengal and Assam; Calls for People's Commission →
Q129.

Which major legislation governs the land acquisition and rehabilitation process for the Ken-Betwa project mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Land Acquisition Act, 1894
  • B.The Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Forest Rights Act, 2006
  • D.The Environmental Protection Act, 1986
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that officials say compensation has been awarded according to the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013. This is the current law governing such processes.

Source: Ken-Betwa River Linking Project Triggers ₹44,000 Cr Dam Dispute & Stone-Pelting Involving 22 Villages In MP →
Q130.

Consider the following statements regarding the Ken-Betwa River Linking Project:

1. It is India's first major inter-basin river linking project and was formally cleared by the Union Cabinet in December 2021.

2. The project involves constructing a dam on the Betwa river and a canal to transfer water to the Ken basin.

3. The Daudhan dam, core of the project, is expected to submerge 22 villages and displace over 7,000 families in Chhatarpur and Panna districts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'The project was formally cleared by the Union Cabinet in December 2021.' Statement 2 is incorrect; the article says the dam is on the Ken river and the canal transfers water to the Betwa basin. Statement 3 is correct: 'Official estimates indicate that 22 villages will be affected and over 7,000 families displaced.'

Source: Ken-Betwa River Linking Project Triggers ₹44,000 Cr Dam Dispute & Stone-Pelting Involving 22 Villages In MP →
Q131.

According to the article, what is the estimated cost of the Ken-Betwa River Linking Project?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.₹18,000 crore
  • B.₹25,000 crore
  • C.₹44,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • D.₹60,000 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'The project was formally cleared by the Union Cabinet in December 2021 at an estimated cost of over Rs 44,000 crore.' The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned.

Source: Ken-Betwa River Linking Project Triggers ₹44,000 Cr Dam Dispute & Stone-Pelting Involving 22 Villages In MP →
Q132.

What is a primary demand of the tribal communities protesting against the Ken-Betwa project's displacement, as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Increased cash compensation only
  • B.Immediate arrest of the district collector
  • C.'Land for land' rehabilitation within similar forested terrain✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Complete cancellation of the project
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'Protesters have demanded "land for land" rehabilitation within similar forested terrain instead of one-time cash settlements.' This reflects their concern that cash cannot replace their access to forest and river ecosystems.

Source: Ken-Betwa River Linking Project Triggers ₹44,000 Cr Dam Dispute & Stone-Pelting Involving 22 Villages In MP →
Q133.

Which international grouping hosted the meeting where India's External Affairs Minister called for UNSC reform?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.G20
  • B.BRICS✓ Correct Answer
  • C.G4
  • D.SCO
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the remarks were made at a conclave of the Foreign Ministers of the BRICS nations in New Delhi. BRICS is the grouping mentioned.

Source: India Demands UNSC Reform Including Permanent & Non-Permanent Seat Expansion at BRICS Ministers' Conclave →
Q134.

Consider the following statements regarding the call for UNSC reform:

1. India's External Affairs Minister argued that the UNSC structure reflects an earlier era and needs expansion.

2. He stated that reform should include expansion only in the non-permanent category.

3. The effectiveness and credibility of the UN will remain constrained without meaningful reform.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as Jaishankar noted the UNSC continues to reflect an earlier era. Statement 2 is incorrect as he called for expansion in both permanent and non-permanent categories. Statement 3 is correct as he said UN effectiveness and credibility will remain constrained without reform.

Source: India Demands UNSC Reform Including Permanent & Non-Permanent Seat Expansion at BRICS Ministers' Conclave →
Q135.

On which date did External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar make the remarks calling for UNSC expansion at the BRICS meeting?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.May 10, 2026
  • B.May 15, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.May 20, 2026
  • D.May 25, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states the date as "India on Friday (May 15, 2026) strongly called for expansion..." and the published date is May 15, 2026.

Source: India Demands UNSC Reform Including Permanent & Non-Permanent Seat Expansion at BRICS Ministers' Conclave →
Q136.

According to the remarks made, what is the primary reason cited for needing UNSC reform?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase the UN's budget
  • B.To reflect the current interconnected and multipolar world✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To reduce the number of permanent members
  • D.To give more power to the UN Secretary-General
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Jaishankar stated, "The world today is more interconnected, complex, and multipolar than when many of our current institutions were created. Yet, the structures that underpin global governance have not kept pace with these changes." This is the core reason for reform.

Source: India Demands UNSC Reform Including Permanent & Non-Permanent Seat Expansion at BRICS Ministers' Conclave →
Q137.

Which autonomous organization conducts the NEET UG examination?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.University Grants Commission (UGC)
  • B.National Testing Agency (NTA)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Medical Council of India (MCI)
  • D.Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The National Testing Agency (NTA) is the autonomous body under the Ministry of Education responsible for conducting national-level entrance exams like NEET and JEE. This is directly mentioned in the article where the NTA announced the cancellation and re-exam.

Source: NEET UG 2026 Re-exam on June 21; NTA Shifts Exam Format to Computer-Based Test (CBT) from 2027 →
Q138.

Consider the following statements regarding the NEET UG paper leak incident:

1. The National Testing Agency (NTA) announced the cancellation of NEET UG 2026 on May 12, 2026.

2. The re-examination for NEET UG 2026 will be conducted on June 21, 2026, and students will have to pay fees again.

3. The Union Education Minister stated that the main root of the leak was the Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) sheets.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'The NTA on Tuesday (May 12, 2026) announced the cancellation of NEET-UG'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states: 'fees paid by students would be refunded, and there would be zero fees for students sitting in the re-exam'. Statement 3 is correct as the Minister said: 'The main root of the leak is the Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) sheets.'

Source: NEET UG 2026 Re-exam on June 21; NTA Shifts Exam Format to Computer-Based Test (CBT) from 2027 →
Q139.

According to the announcement, from which year will the NEET UG exam be conducted in a fully computer-based format?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2026
  • B.2027✓ Correct Answer
  • C.2028
  • D.2029
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Union Education Minister explicitly stated: 'From next year, the NEET exam will be conducted in a computer-based format.' Since the announcement was made in 2026, 'next year' refers to 2027.

Source: NEET UG 2026 Re-exam on June 21; NTA Shifts Exam Format to Computer-Based Test (CBT) from 2027 →
Q140.

What is the primary objective behind shifting the NEET UG exam to a Computer-Based Test (CBT) format?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce the examination duration and make it shorter.
  • B.To increase the difficulty level of the questions.
  • C.To ensure transparency and prevent paper leaks.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To allow students to choose their preferred exam city online.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Minister stated the shift to CBT is to 'ensure transparency' and directly linked it to addressing the 'main root of the leak', which is the OMR sheets. While other benefits like city choice or duration extension are mentioned, the core objective cited is enhancing security and transparency.

Source: NEET UG 2026 Re-exam on June 21; NTA Shifts Exam Format to Computer-Based Test (CBT) from 2027 →
Q141.

The Supreme Court, in the Aravalli case, asked which ministry to suggest names of domain experts for a panel?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Mines
  • B.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Earth Sciences
  • D.Ministry of Jal Shakti
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the Supreme Court had asked the 'environment ministry' to suggest names. This ministry, officially the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), is the nodal agency for environmental protection and forest conservation in India.

Source: Supreme Court Halts Mining in Aravallis, Seeks Expert Panel to Define 100m Elevation & 500m Gap Criteria →
Q142.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's recent hearing on the Aravalli hills:

1. The Court refused to grant any interim relief to existing mining lease holders.

2. It accepted the recommendations of a committee to define an 'Aravalli Range' as a collection of two or more hills within 1 kilometre of each other.

3. The Court is hearing the matter as a suo motu case titled "In Re: Definition of Aravalli hills and ranges and ancillary issue".

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Bench clearly stated, 'We will not pass any order in favour of the mining lease holders now.' Statement 2 is incorrect; the committee recommended the gap as 500 metres, not 1 kilometre. Statement 3 is correct as per the article. Hence, both 1 and 3 are correct.

Source: Supreme Court Halts Mining in Aravallis, Seeks Expert Panel to Define 100m Elevation & 500m Gap Criteria →
Q143.

As per the committee recommendations mentioned in the article, what is the minimum elevation required for a landform to be defined as an 'Aravalli Hill'?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.50 metres
  • B.100 metres✓ Correct Answer
  • C.150 metres
  • D.200 metres
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifies the committee's recommendation: 'any landform... with an elevation of 100 metres or more above its local relief' should be defined as an 'Aravalli Hill'. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Source: Supreme Court Halts Mining in Aravallis, Seeks Expert Panel to Define 100m Elevation & 500m Gap Criteria →
Q144.

What was the primary reason cited by the Supreme Court for keeping its November 2025 directions on the Aravalli definition in abeyance?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Pressure from mining industry lobbyists
  • B.Lack of funds for the expert committee
  • C.Need to resolve critical ambiguities that might strip areas of protection✓ Correct Answer
  • D.A request from the state governments for more time
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the Court took note of the outcry and kept the order in abeyance because there was a need to resolve 'critical ambiguities', including whether the 100m/500m criteria would 'strip a significant portion of the range of environmental protection'. This reflects the Court's concern for ecological integrity over procedural haste.

Source: Supreme Court Halts Mining in Aravallis, Seeks Expert Panel to Define 100m Elevation & 500m Gap Criteria →

Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?

For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.

  • Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
  • Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
  • Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.

Frequently Asked Questions

What are the important current affairs questions for 15 May 2026?▼

This page contains 144 current affairs questions from 15 May 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.

How to use 15 May 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼

Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.

How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼

Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.

Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼

Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.

What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼

Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.

All Questions in This Set

  1. Q1. As per Article 145(3) of the Constitution, what is the minimum…
  2. Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the Sabarimala ref…
  3. Q3. For how many days did the nine-judge Constitution Bench of the…
  4. Q4. was a central constitutional concern raised by the Supreme Cou…
  5. Q5. The India-EFTA Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA)…
  6. Q6. Consider the following statements regarding PM Modi's Europe v…
  7. Q7. According to the article, what was the approximate value of bi…
  8. Q8. is a primary strategic objective of India's enhanced engagemen…
  9. Q9. Indian agency filed the chargesheet against the accused in the…
  10. Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the terrorism inci…
  11. Q11. According to the article, how many security personnel were kil…
  12. Q12. is a key challenge highlighted by the Red Fort attack chargesh…
  13. Q13. central department's 1998 notification is cited by the Maharas…
  14. Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Maharas…
  15. Q15. percentage of reservation in government jobs did the Maharasht…
  16. Q16. is the primary constitutional argument made by opponents of th…
  17. Q17. Under which ministry does the National Testing Agency (NTA) fu…
  18. Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the NEET-UG 2026 p…
  19. Q19. According to the news, how many students were reported to have…
  20. Q20. is the primary governance issue highlighted by the repeated co…
  21. Q21. national agency is responsible for conducting the Periodic Lab…
  22. Q22. Consider the following statements regarding findings from the …
  23. Q23. According to the PLFS 2025 data mentioned in the article, what…
  24. Q24. is identified as a primary structural reason for women's lower…
  25. Q25. The article mentions a historical episode of capital flight fr…
  26. Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the economic situa…
  27. Q27. According to the article, at what level have the U.S. Federal …
  28. Q28. is the primary dilemma faced by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI…
  29. Q29. The Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Limited (ISPRL), menti…
  30. Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the India-UAE rela…
  31. Q31. According to the article, what approximate percentage of India…
  32. Q32. was a key strategic objective underlined by PM Modi during his…
  33. Q33. agency is responsible for conducting the NEET-UG examination?
  34. Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the recent NEET-UG…
  35. Q35. According to the article, how many questions from the NEET-UG …
  36. Q36. is the primary objective behind the government's decision to s…
  37. Q37. statutory body, mentioned in the article, deals with children …
  38. Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the Orissa High Co…
  39. Q39. According to the article, at what stage of pregnancy (in weeks…
  40. Q40. was the primary legal consideration highlighted by Justice B P…
  41. Q41. ministry is primarily responsible for the oversight of Oil Mar…
  42. Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the recent fuel pr…
  43. Q43. According to the article, what was the projected combined loss…
  44. Q44. is the primary reason cited in the article for the government …
  45. Q45. As per the article, which ministry currently has ownership of …
  46. Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the issues discuss…
  47. Q47. According to the article, how many types of 'Non-act/Non-rule …
  48. Q48. is the primary objective of the proposed 'single-source of tru…
  49. Q49. state department is mentioned as having framed the new reserva…
  50. Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the new reservatio…
  51. Q51. According to the article, what is the total percentage of rese…
  52. Q52. is the primary objective of Maharashtra's new reservation poli…
  53. Q53. Under which Act did the Gandhinagar court appoint an administr…
  54. Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the Gandhinagar co…
  55. Q55. section of the Income Tax Act, 1961, was cited in the article …
  56. Q56. is the primary legal gap highlighted by the Gandhinagar court …
  57. Q57. organization, mentioned in the article, is the premier body fo…
  58. Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the Madhya Pradesh…
  59. Q59. From which date, as per the Madhya Pradesh High Court order, h…
  60. Q60. was a primary reason cited by the Madhya Pradesh High Court fo…
  61. Q61. ministry/department is primarily responsible for negotiating a…
  62. Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the India-U.K. tra…
  63. Q63. According to the article, what is the percentage of tariff tha…
  64. Q64. is the primary cause of the 'sticking points' delaying the imp…
  65. Q65. The India Meteorological Department (IMD), which forecasts the…
  66. Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the Southwest Mono…
  67. Q67. According to the IMD forecast mentioned in the article, what i…
  68. Q68. is the primary climatological reason cited by the IMD for the …
  69. Q69. The 'One-China Policy', a key context for the Taiwan issue dis…
  70. Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the outcomes of th…
  71. Q71. According to the news, what was the initial number of Boeing a…
  72. Q72. was a primary strategic outcome, or lack thereof, from the dis…
  73. Q73. institution is responsible for setting the investment cap for …
  74. Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the withholding ta…
  75. Q75. According to the article, by how much had India's foreign exch…
  76. Q76. is the primary objective of the government's consideration to …
  77. Q77. The principle of collective defence, where an attack on one me…
  78. Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the news on Europe…
  79. Q79. According to the article, what is the size of the special defe…
  80. Q80. is the primary strategic objective behind European states, par…
  81. Q81. Under which Act was the National Green Tribunal (NGT) establis…
  82. Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the Great Nicobar …
  83. Q83. According to the 2011 Census mentioned in the article, what is…
  84. Q84. is the primary ecological risk highlighted by critics of the G…
  85. Q85. Under which ministry does the Central Bureau of Investigation …
  86. Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the Haryana bank s…
  87. Q87. is the total amount involved in the IDFC First Bank fraud case…
  88. Q88. is the primary significance of the Haryana government granting…
  89. Q89. The concept of 'Thucydides Trap' in international relations is…
  90. Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the Thucydides Tra…
  91. Q91. Graham Allison's book, which popularized the term 'Thucydides …
  92. Q92. In the context of the article, Chinese President Xi Jinping's …
  93. Q93. Under which ministry does the Archaeological Survey of India (…
  94. Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the Bhojshala case…
  95. Q95. As per the 2003 arrangement mentioned in the article, on which…
  96. Q96. was a primary legal argument raised by the Muslim side's lawye…
  97. Q97. According to the article, which university is Deepa M. Ollapal…
  98. Q98. Consider the following statements regarding India's strategic …
  99. Q99. According to the article, in which year did the United States …
  100. Q100. is identified as the biggest challenge to India's strategic au…
  101. Q101. The Uniform Civil Code, recently invoked in an Uttarakhand FIR…
  102. Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  103. Q103. According to the news, how many accused were finally named in …
  104. Q104. is the primary legal significance of the Uttarakhand police in…
  105. Q105. institution in India is primarily responsible for controlling …
  106. Q106. Consider the following statements regarding the inflation data…
  107. Q107. According to the article, what was the rate of inflation for t…
  108. Q108. is the primary implication of the sharp divergence between the…
  109. Q109. As per the news, which constitutional body has recommended not…
  110. Q110. Consider the following statements regarding the challenges in …
  111. Q111. According to the article, what is the maximum percentage of it…
  112. Q112. is the core argument presented in the article for moving beyon…
  113. Q113. As per the news, which national-level entrance exam for underg…
  114. Q114. Consider the following statements regarding medical education …
  115. Q115. According to the article, approximately how many medical aspir…
  116. Q116. is a key proposed solution in the article to address the short…
  117. Q117. ministry/department in Sri Lanka is primarily involved in addr…
  118. Q118. Consider the following statements regarding the fisheries conf…
  119. Q119. According to the data published by the Sri Lankan Navy mention…
  120. Q120. is the primary reason cited by Sri Lanka's Fisheries Minister …
  121. Q121. autonomous organization conducts the NEET-UG examination?
  122. Q122. Consider the following statements regarding the NEET-UG paper …
  123. Q123. According to the article, how many examination centres were us…
  124. Q124. was the primary principle behind the security protocol recomme…
  125. Q125. constitutional body is primarily responsible for conducting de…
  126. Q126. Consider the following statements regarding electoral integrit…
  127. Q127. According to the article's analysis of the Systematic Inclusio…
  128. Q128. is the primary institutional concern raised by the author rega…
  129. Q129. major legislation governs the land acquisition and rehabilitat…
  130. Q130. Consider the following statements regarding the Ken-Betwa Rive…
  131. Q131. According to the article, what is the estimated cost of the Ke…
  132. Q132. is a primary demand of the tribal communities protesting again…
  133. Q133. international grouping hosted the meeting where India's Extern…
  134. Q134. Consider the following statements regarding the call for UNSC …
  135. Q135. On which date did External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar make…
  136. Q136. According to the remarks made, what is the primary reason cite…
  137. Q137. autonomous organization conducts the NEET UG examination?
  138. Q138. Consider the following statements regarding the NEET UG paper …
  139. Q139. According to the announcement, from which year will the NEET U…
  140. Q140. is the primary objective behind shifting the NEET UG exam to a…
  141. Q141. The Supreme Court, in the Aravalli case, asked which ministry …
  142. Q142. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
  143. Q143. As per the committee recommendations mentioned in the article,…
  144. Q144. was the primary reason cited by the Supreme Court for keeping …