10 May 2026, Questions & Answers
60 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
60 questions · 0 topics covered · 12 min revision
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This page contains 60 current affairs questions with answers from 10 May 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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60 QsUnder which Article of the Indian Constitution does the Governor appoint the Chief Minister of a State?
- A.Article 155
- B.Article 164✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 356
- D.Article 75
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Governor appoints the Chief Minister under Article 164 of the Constitution. Article 155 deals with the appointment of the Governor, Article 356 with President's Rule, and Article 75 with the appointment of the Prime Minister.
Consider the following statements regarding the Governor's role in a hung Assembly:
1. The Sarkaria Commission recommended inviting the single largest party as the first option.
2. The Supreme Court in the S.R. Bommai case held that the floor test is the most objective way to ascertain majority.
3. The Governor can recommend President's Rule under Article 356 only after exploring all possibilities for government formation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Sarkaria Commission's first preference is the pre-poll alliance with a majority, not the single largest party. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is correct as the article states President's Rule is a last resort after exploring all alternatives.
As per the Sarkaria Commission's order of preference for inviting a party to form government in a hung Assembly, what is the second option after the pre-poll alliance?
- A.Post-poll alliance
- B.Single largest party✓ Correct Answer
- C.Largest coalition
- D.Party with external support
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Explanation
The article clearly states the hierarchy: first is the pre-poll alliance with a majority, the next option is to invite the single largest party that could demonstrate majority support, and the third is a post-poll alliance.
What is the primary objective of the Governor, as a constitutional head, in a situation of a hung Assembly?
- A.To invite the party favoured by the Central government
- B.To ensure the formation of a stable government✓ Correct Answer
- C.To indefinitely explore possibilities with all parties
- D.To immediately recommend President's Rule
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'The primary objective of the Governor, as a constitutional head of the State, is to ensure the formation of a stable government.' The other options are either incorrect actions or distortions of the Governor's duty.
The Government of India Act 1858, which transferred power from the East India Company to the British Crown, was passed by which governing body?
- A.The British Cabinet
- B.The British Parliament✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Viceroy's Council
- D.The Board of Control
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Explanation
The article states 'The British parliament passed an Act on August 2, 1858, transferring all powers of the Company to the Crown.' The British Parliament is the supreme legislative body of the United Kingdom.
Consider the following statements regarding the Revolt of 1857:
1. Mangal Pandey was hanged on April 8, 1857, after his mutiny at Barrackpore.
2. The revolt led to the immediate independence of India from British rule.
3. The Queen's Proclamation, announcing the new policy of the British Crown in India, was made on November 1, 1858.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'He was overpowered and hanged on April 8, 1857.' Statement 2 is incorrect; the revolt ended Company rule but did not grant independence, it transferred control to the British Crown. Statement 3 is correct: 'The Queen’s Proclamation made by Lord Canning on November 1, 1858.'
According to the article, on which date did Mangal Pandey mutiny and fire at his Sergeant Major, triggering a key event of the 1857 Revolt?
- A.March 28, 1857
- B.March 29, 1857✓ Correct Answer
- C.April 8, 1857
- D.May 11, 1857
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'On March 29, 1857, Pandey mutinied and fired at his Senior Sergeant Major.' April 8 is the date of his hanging, and May 11 is the date the revolt broke out in Meerut.
What was the primary and immediate consequence of the Revolt of 1857 on the structure of British rule in India?
- A.Introduction of the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms
- B.Transfer of power from the East India Company to the British Crown✓ Correct Answer
- C.Partition of Bengal
- D.Formation of the Indian National Congress
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Explanation
The article states: 'With the Revolt ended the rule of the East India Company over India...' and details the Act of 1858 that transferred power to the Crown. The other options were later developments in the Indian freedom struggle.
Which ministry conducts the Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises (ASUSE), as per the news?
- A.Ministry of Labour and Employment
- B.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
- D.Ministry of Finance
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises (ASUSE) is conducted by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). This ministry is responsible for national statistical data.
Consider the following statements regarding developments mentioned in the news:
1. The Gross Value Added (GVA) of India's unincorporated sector is estimated at Rs 20 lakh crore, which is 6.4% of the country's total GVA.
2. The Agni missile recently tested with MIRV technology has a range of over 7,000 kilometres.
3. The four new Labour Codes have replaced a total of 29 central labour laws.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the ASUSE 2025 survey data. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the Agni-5 missile has a range up to 5,000 km, placing it in the intercontinental range, not specifically over 7,000 km. Statement 3 is correct as the four Labour Codes replaced 29 fragmented laws.
According to the MoSPI's ASUSE 2025 survey, what is the estimated number of unincorporated enterprises in India?
- A.7.34 crore
- B.7.92 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.8.50 crore
- D.6.70 crore
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Explanation
The article states the 2025 ASUSE survey estimates the total number of unincorporated enterprises at 7.92 crore, up from 7.34 crore in 2023-24. Option A is the previous year's figure, and option D is the number of establishments actually surveyed.
What is a key implication of the Centre dropping the criteria for calculating minimum wage from the final Code on Wages Rules, as per experts cited in the news?
- A.It will lead to higher and more uniform wages across all states.
- B.It will simplify the wage calculation process for small businesses.
- C.It is likely to result in lower minimum wages and higher wage disparities across states.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It delegates the wage-fixing power completely to the state governments.
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Explanation
The article quotes labour economist K R Shyam Sundar stating that removing the formula for fixing minimum wage is likely to result in lower-than-potential wages and higher disparities for the same worker category across different states, as the criteria will be separately specified.
The Scramjet Connect Pipe Test (SCPT) facility, mentioned in the news, is located at which DRDO laboratory?
- A.Aeronautical Development Establishment (ADE), Bengaluru
- B.Defence Research and Development Laboratory (DRDL), Hyderabad✓ Correct Answer
- C.Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE), Pune
- D.Vehicle Research and Development Establishment (VRDE), Ahmednagar
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the test was conducted at the SCPT facility at the DRDL in Hyderabad. DRDL is the premier DRDO facility for missile systems.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent DRDO hypersonic technology test:
1. The test achieved a 1,200-second ground run for a scramjet combustor, improving upon a previous test of over 700 seconds.
2. The scramjet engine utilises a solid propellant fuel developed indigenously by ISRO.
3. A key achievement is the development of a Thermal Barrier Coating (TBC) capable of operating beyond the melting point of steel.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the fuel is an indigenous liquid hydrocarbon endothermic fuel, not a solid propellant, and it was developed by DRDL with industry partners, not specifically by ISRO. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the TBC was developed to withstand extreme temperatures beyond steel's melting point.
According to the news, what was the duration (in seconds) of the successful scramjet combustor ground test conducted by DRDO?
- A.700 seconds
- B.900 seconds
- C.1,000 seconds
- D.1,200 seconds✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article's headline and content clearly state that DRDO achieved a 1,200-second runtime. The 700-second option refers to the previous test conducted in January, making it a close distractor.
What is a primary strategic advantage of hypersonic weapons, as indicated in the article?
- A.They are significantly cheaper to produce than conventional ballistic missiles.
- B.They can be launched from a wider variety of platforms, including small naval vessels.
- C.They have the potential to defeat existing air defence systems of major military powers.✓ Correct Answer
- D.They primarily serve as a deterrent in nuclear warfare doctrine only.
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Explanation
The article directly states that 'Hypersonic weapons have the potential to beat existing air defence systems available with major military powers across the world...' This is their defining tactical and strategic advantage, enabling rapid, high-impact strikes.
The Calcutta High Court judgment quashing a POCSO conviction invoked which fundamental right under the Constitution?
- A.Right to Equality (Article 14)
- B.Right to Freedom of Speech (Article 19)
- C.Right to Life and Personal Liberty (Article 21)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Right against Exploitation (Article 23)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the Court relied on Article 21 of the Constitution, asserting that the fundamental right to a happy married life overrides statutory provisions. Article 21 encompasses the right to life with dignity, which includes family life.
Consider the following statements regarding the Calcutta High Court judgment on the POCSO case:
1. The Court quashed the conviction citing that the relationship was consensual and had led to marriage and a family.
2. The judgment stated that the POCSO Act, 2012, is unconstitutional and should be repealed.
3. The bench used the analogy of 'a Ferrari without an engine' to describe law without justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article details the consensual relationship, marriage, and family. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court criticized the Act's rigidity in this specific case but did not declare it unconstitutional. Statement 3 is correct as the article quotes the 'Ferrari without engine' analogy used by the bench.
What was the sentence awarded by the trial court that was quashed by the Calcutta High Court in the POCSO case?
- A.5 years rigorous imprisonment
- B.7 years rigorous imprisonment
- C.10 years rigorous imprisonment✓ Correct Answer
- D.Life imprisonment
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Explanation
The article clearly states the man was sentenced to 'rigorous imprisonment for a period of ten years' under the POCSO Act, and the High Court quashed this conviction and sentence.
What was the primary rationale of the Calcutta High Court for quashing the POCSO conviction, as per the article?
- A.To reduce the backlog of cases in the judiciary.
- B.To uphold the statutory mandate of the POCSO Act without exception.
- C.To prevent the disintegration of a family and protect the right to a happy married life.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To set a precedent for reducing the age of consent under Indian law.
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Explanation
The article repeatedly emphasizes the Court's focus on saving the family from 'annihilation' and 'disintegration'. It invoked Article 21 to protect the right to a happy married life, stating upholding the conviction would destroy the family.
Under which Act is the Sub-Divisional Level Committee (SDLC), which examines Gram Sabha resolutions on forest rights, constituted?
- A.The Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996
- B.The Forest Rights Act, 2006
- C.The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
- D.The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The Sub-Divisional Level Committee (SDLC) is a statutory committee constituted under the provisions of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, commonly known as the Forest Rights Act (FRA). Its role is to examine the claims and resolutions forwarded by the Gram Sabha.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The Gram Sabha resolutions cited for the Great Nicobar project were held on the same day at three different venues.
2. The petitioner alleged that the Sub-Divisional Level Committee (SDLC) was constituted 14 years after the Forest Rights Act came into force.
3. The tribal council of the Little and Great Nicobar Island had given a no-objection to the denotification of the tribal reserve in 2022.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The three Gram Sabha meetings were held on August 12, 2022, at Campbell Bay (10:30 am), Govind Nagar (11 am), and Laxmi Nagar (11:30 am). Statement 2 is correct: The petition underscored that FRA committees were constituted only two months before the Gram Sabhas, 14 years after the FRA came into force in 2006. Statement 3 is incorrect: The article states the tribal council had 'revoked' its no-objection in 2022, not given it.
According to the petitioner's affidavit, what was the minimum number of common names/signatures found in the three Gram Sabha resolutions for the Great Nicobar project?
- A.40
- B.50
- C.60✓ Correct Answer
- D.70
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the petitioner's counter-affidavit revealed 'at least 60 names and signatures appeared in two or more of the three gram sabha proceedings.' This is a key factual allegation challenging the authenticity of the consent process.
What is the primary legal contention raised by the petitioner regarding the Gram Sabha resolutions for the Great Nicobar project?
- A.The resolutions were not passed by a simple majority of the village members.
- B.The resolutions were conducted in a language not understood by the tribal communities.
- C.The resolutions were passed by settlers who have no rights under the Forest Rights Act.✓ Correct Answer
- D.The resolutions were not forwarded to the District Level Committee in time.
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Explanation
The core legal argument is that consent under the Forest Rights Act must come from Gram Sabhas of forest-dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers. The petitioner alleges the cited resolutions were from meetings of 'settlers' (mainland ex-servicemen), who lack standing under the FRA, making the consent legally invalid.
The European Central Bank (ECB) is the central bank for which of the following?
- A.The European Union (all 27 member states)
- B.The Eurozone (EU countries using the euro)✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Schengen Area countries
- D.The G7 member states in Europe
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Explanation
As stated in the article, the ECB is the central bank of the euro area, which comprises EU countries that have adopted the euro as their currency. It does not cover all EU members (like Sweden or Poland) or other groupings like Schengen or G7.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the European Central Bank (ECB) signed a revised MoU on the margins of a G20 meeting.
2. The MoU provides a framework for technical cooperation and regular exchange of information.
3. The primary task of the ECB, as mentioned in the article, is to ensure financial stability in the European Union.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states the signing took place on the margins of the Bank for International Settlements (BIS) meetings in Basel, not a G20 meeting. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's description of the MoU. Statement 3 is incorrect. The article explicitly states the ECB's main task is to maintain 'price stability', not 'financial stability'.
The revised MoU signed between RBI and ECB updates the previous agreement from which year?
- A.2010
- B.2015✓ Correct Answer
- C.2018
- D.2020
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the newly signed MoU 'updates the previous MoU of 2015'. This is a direct factual recall question.
What is the primary significance of such MoUs between central banks, as highlighted in the news?
- A.To facilitate direct lending between the central banks
- B.To establish a framework for information exchange and policy dialogue✓ Correct Answer
- C.To merge the monetary policies of the participating countries
- D.To create a common currency for trade settlements
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Explanation
The article defines the MoU's purpose as providing 'a framework for a regular exchange of information, policy dialogue and technical cooperation'. The other options are extreme or incorrect interpretations; central banks maintain independent monetary policies and do not merge them or create common currencies through such agreements.
Which statutory organization under the Ministry of Power is responsible for the long-term resource adequacy plan mentioned in the article, projecting India's energy storage needs?
- A.Central Electricity Authority (CEA)✓ Correct Answer
- B.National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC)
- C.Power Grid Corporation of India (PGCIL)
- D.Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA)
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions the 'Central Electricity Authority (CEA) plan' that projects the country's storage capacity. CEA is the statutory body under the Ministry of Power responsible for power system planning.
Consider the following statements regarding energy storage in India:
1. Pumped Hydro Storage (PHS) is considered suitable for long-duration storage, while Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS) are suitable for short-duration storage.
2. India's current installed Battery Energy Storage System (BESS) capacity is approximately 7.2 GW.
3. According to the CEA plan, the total energy storage capacity requirement by 2035-36 is projected to be 80 GW for BESS and 94 GW for PHS.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'BESS is suitable for short-duration storage, and PSPs are suitable for long-duration storage.' Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states current BESS capacity is 0.27 GW, while PHS capacity is 7.2 GW. Statement 3 is correct; the CEA plan projects 80 GW of BESS and 94 GW of PHS by 2035-36.
According to the article, what is India's current installed capacity of Pumped Hydro Storage (PHS)?
- A.0.27 GW
- B.7.2 GW✓ Correct Answer
- C.13.12 GW
- D.94 GW
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Explanation
The article provides the exact figure: 'PHS capacity stands at about 7.2 GW.' 0.27 GW is the current BESS capacity, 13.12 GW is the PHS capacity under construction, and 94 GW is the projected PHS requirement by 2035-36.
What is the primary concern flagged by the CEA regarding India's expansion of Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS)?
- A.High capital cost compared to Pumped Hydro Storage
- B.Technological inefficiency of Lithium-ion batteries
- C.Heavy dependence on imports for critical components like Lithium-ion cells✓ Correct Answer
- D.Lack of skilled manpower for installation and maintenance
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Explanation
The article states that the CEA's plan 'flagged a major concern: India's heavy dependence on imports for battery storage systems.' It specifies that India imports nearly 75-80% of its lithium-ion cells, exposing the country to geopolitical risks and price volatility.
Which ministry conducts the Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises (ASUSE)?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
- D.Ministry of Labour and Employment
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the ASUSE report is from the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). MoSPI is the nodal agency for official statistics in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the ASUSE 2025 findings:
1. Outstanding loans per informal establishment fell by 20%, while annual interest payable reduced by 16%.
2. The Gross Value Added (GVA) of the unincorporated sector was estimated to be over 15% of India's total GVA.
3. The survey found that over 80% of the outstanding loans of unincorporated establishments were owed to institutional sources.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the GVA share is 6.4%, not over 15%. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions 81% of loans were from institutional sources.
According to the ASUSE 2025 report, what was the estimated Gross Value Added (GVA) of India's unincorporated sector?
- A.₹10 lakh crore
- B.₹15 lakh crore
- C.₹20 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹25 lakh crore
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the 2025 survey estimates the total GVA of the unincorporated sector at Rs 20 lakh crore. This is a key data point for factual recall.
What is a key concern emerging from the ASUSE 2025 findings, as highlighted in the article?
- A.A rapid increase in informal sector wages leading to inflation.
- B.A decline in net investment in fixed assets despite reduced indebtedness.✓ Correct Answer
- C.A significant rise in the number of new informal establishments.
- D.A complete shift from institutional to non-institutional borrowing.
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Explanation
The core analysis of the article points to the paradox of falling debt (improved financial health) coinciding with a 14% fall in net addition to fixed assets, which signals weak capital formation and future growth potential in the informal sector.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for formulating and implementing India's Free Trade Agreement (FTA) utilisation plan?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of External Affairs
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
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Explanation
The article mentions Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal holding meetings on FTA utilisation. The Department of Commerce, which handles trade policy and FTAs, operates under this ministry.
Consider the following statements regarding India's FTA utilisation plan:
1. The plan aims to help Indian businesses leverage FTAs signed with 38 countries.
2. The combined import market size of all FTA partner countries is about $2 trillion.
3. Indian missions abroad have been tasked with expediting the resolution of non-tariff barriers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states FTAs cover 38 countries. Statement 2 is incorrect; the combined import market is $12 trillion, not $2 trillion ($2 trillion is India's export target). Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly mentions the role of Indian missions includes expediting resolution of non-tariff barriers.
What was the value of India's total goods and services exports during the fiscal year 2025-26, as per the article?
- A.$825.26 billion
- B.$841.32 billion
- C.$863.11 billion✓ Correct Answer
- D.$441.78 billion
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Explanation
The article states: "The country's goods and services exports rose 4.6% to an all-time high of $863.11 billion during 2025-26". $825.26 billion is the 2024-25 figure. $841.32 billion and $441.78 billion are distractors based on services exports and merchandise exports figures respectively.
According to the expert cited in the article, what should be the real value of FTAs for Indian businesses, beyond just tariff cuts?
- A.Increasing government revenue from export duties
- B.Reducing the cost of imports for domestic consumers
- C.Integrating into global value chains and diversifying supply chains✓ Correct Answer
- D.Focusing exclusively on exporting raw materials and commodities
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Explanation
The article quotes Shishir Priyadarshi stating that the real value of FTAs lies in "helping firms integrate into global value chains, diversify supply chains, and position themselves as trusted partners". The other options are either not mentioned or contradict the expert's view of moving beyond basic exports.
Under which central government mission is Uttar Pradesh integrating solar energy with rural water supply?
- A.Swachh Bharat Mission
- B.Jal Jeevan Mission✓ Correct Answer
- C.PM-KISAN
- D.National Rural Livelihood Mission
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the integration is happening under the Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM). This is a flagship central scheme for rural water supply.
Consider the following statements regarding Uttar Pradesh's solar-powered water initiative:
1. It is implemented by the State Water and Sanitation Mission (SWSM).
2. The schemes are designed for a 25-year lifecycle with a capital expenditure of around ₹5,000 crore.
3. The initiative has won the 'Prime Minister's Excellence Award' for the Namami Gange Department of Uttar Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article mentions the initiative is implemented by the State Water and Sanitation Mission (SWSM). Statement 2 is incorrect: The schemes are designed for a 30-year (not 25-year) lifecycle with a capital expenditure of around ₹7,812 crore (not ₹5,000 crore). Statement 3 is correct: The article confirms the initiative secured the 'Prime Minister's Excellence Award' for the Namami Gange Department.
According to the news, what is the estimated annual reduction in carbon emissions (CO₂) from Uttar Pradesh's solar-powered water schemes?
- A.About 5 lakh metric tonnes
- B.About 8 lakh metric tonnes
- C.About 13 lakh metric tonnes✓ Correct Answer
- D.About 20 lakh metric tonnes
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Explanation
The article states: "The solar-powered schemes are estimated to reduce carbon emissions by about 13 lakh metric tonnes (MT) of CO₂ annually." The other options are close distractors.
What is a key technical and operational advantage of using solar-powered systems for rural water supply in Uttar Pradesh, as highlighted in the article?
- A.They require larger land acquisition for solar plants.
- B.They ensure operational continuity in remote and power-deficient regions.✓ Correct Answer
- C.They increase dependency on the National Power Grid.
- D.They necessitate multiple statutory approvals like No Objection Certificates (NOCs).
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Explanation
The article quotes the Additional Chief Secretary saying these systems "ensure operational continuity in remote and power-deficient regions, where uninterrupted electricity supply has traditionally been a constraint." The other options are opposite to the facts given: the schemes minimize land needs, reduce grid dependency, and eliminate the need for multiple NOCs.
Under which Section of the Code on Wages, 2019, does the central government have the power to fix a floor wage?
- A.Section 6
- B.Section 7
- C.Section 8
- D.Section 9✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "Under Section 9 of the Code on Wages, 2019, the central government has the power to fix the floor wage..." This is a direct factual recall from the provided news content.
Consider the following statements regarding the new labour code rules:
1. The final rules specify a normal working day of eight hours and a weekly cap of 48 working hours.
2. The criteria for calculating the minimum wage, as per the draft rules, included provisions for children's education expenses amounting to 20% of the minimum wage.
3. The National Social Security Board for gig workers will include members from both houses of Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states children's education expense was 25% of minimum wage, not 20%. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the board includes members from Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
According to the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions (Central) Rules, 2026, within how many days must the approval or disapproval for a single licence for contractors working in multiple states be granted?
- A.30 days
- B.45 days✓ Correct Answer
- C.60 days
- D.90 days
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Explanation
The article clearly states: "The approval or disapproval has to be granted within 45 days." This is a specific data point mentioned in the news content.
What is a key potential consequence, as highlighted by experts in the article, of removing the scientific criteria for minimum wage calculation from the Code on Wages Rules?
- A.It will lead to a uniform minimum wage across all states.
- B.It will simplify the wage calculation process for employers.
- C.It may result in lower wages and higher wage disparities for the same worker category across states.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It will strengthen the collective bargaining power of trade unions.
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Explanation
The article quotes labour economist K R Shyam Sundar stating that the removal will lead to "unscientific and inconsistent criteria" and "exacerbate the differential in wages for the same category of worker." This directly points to increased interstate wage disparity as a primary consequence.
Which of the following is NOT one of the three major state-owned Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) mentioned in the article?
- A.Indian Oil Corporation (IOC)
- B.Bharat Petroleum Corporation Ltd (BPCL)
- C.Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Ltd (HPCL)
- D.Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC)✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article explicitly names IOC, BPCL, and HPCL as the three OMCs incurring under-recoveries. ONGC is an upstream exploration and production company, not a downstream marketing company.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The combined daily under-recovery for OMCs on petrol, diesel, and LPG is between ₹1,600-1,700 crore.
2. To provide relief, the government increased the excise duty on petrol and diesel.
3. The West Asia conflict has disrupted India's import of approximately 40% of its crude oil requirements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the government cut excise duties, not increased them (special additional excise duty on petrol was cut to ₹3 from ₹13, and on diesel to zero from ₹10). Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article.
According to the article, what is the approximate monthly revenue loss to the government due to cuts in excise duty on fuel?
- A.₹1,400 crore
- B.₹14,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹1,40,000 crore
- D.₹1.4 lakh crore
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Explanation
The article states: "The government has taken a hit of ₹14,000 crore a month in cutting the excise duty." Options C and D represent the same, much larger figure (1.4 lakh crore = 1,40,000 crore).
What is the primary immediate risk to India's energy security highlighted in the article due to the sustained financial stress on OMCs?
- A.An immediate shortage of fuel at retail outlets.
- B.Increased dependence on foreign direct investment in the energy sector.
- C.A potential slowdown in strategic investments in refining, pipelines, and clean energy transition.✓ Correct Answer
- D.A mandatory shift to complete privatization of the oil and gas sector.
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Explanation
The article explicitly warns that sustained stress on OMC balance sheets "could affect future investments in refining, pipelines, strategic reserves, clean fuels, and energy transition initiatives," which are critical for long-term energy security. It does not mention immediate shortages, FDI dependence, or privatization as primary risks.
Which Indian government department is primarily responsible for the nation's nuclear power programme, including the development of thorium-based reactors?
- A.Department of Science and Technology
- B.Department of Atomic Energy✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
- D.Ministry of Power
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Explanation
The Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) is the nodal agency for all nuclear power research, development, and implementation in India, including the three-stage nuclear programme aimed at utilising thorium.
Consider the following statements regarding India's nuclear energy strategy:
1. The first stage of India's three-stage nuclear power programme is based on Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) using natural uranium.
2. The Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) is designed to use thorium as its primary fuel to produce electricity.
3. A key advantage of the thorium fuel cycle, as mentioned in the article, is its higher proliferation resistance compared to the uranium-plutonium cycle.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: PHWRs using natural uranium form the first stage. Statement 2 is incorrect: The PFBR primarily breeds plutonium from uranium; its role in the thorium cycle is to produce U-233 from thorium, but it is not its primary fuel. Statement 3 is correct: The article explicitly states that proliferation resistance of the thorium-U-233 fuel cycle is an advantage.
According to the article, what is the electric capacity target for India's nuclear energy mission to be achieved by 2047?
- A.50 GWe
- B.75 GWe
- C.100 GWe✓ Correct Answer
- D.150 GWe
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the Government has launched a '100 GWe (gigawatt electric) nuclear energy mission' to be realised by 2047. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned.
What is the primary strategic reason, as discussed in the article, for India's need to shift from uranium to thorium in its nuclear programme?
- A.To reduce the construction cost of nuclear power plants.
- B.To address the long-term security of nuclear fuel supply and achieve energy independence.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To immediately replace all existing Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors.
- D.To gain a technological edge over other countries in fusion reactor research.
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Explanation
The article identifies the 'uranium demand-supply mismatch' and geopolitical complexities as risks to fuel supply security in 10-15 years. Therefore, shifting to abundant domestic thorium is deemed 'critical to India's energy security' and energy independence.
Which is the supreme military command body in China, of which the recently sentenced former Defence Ministers were members?
- A.Ministry of National Defense
- B.People's Liberation Army (PLA) Headquarters
- C.Central Military Commission (CMC)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Standing Committee of the Political Bureau
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Explanation
The article mentions that both former Defence Ministers, Wei Fenghe and Li Shangfu, served in the 'all-important military decision-making body, the Central Military Commission.' The CMC is the highest national defense organization in China.
Consider the following statements regarding the developments mentioned in the article:
1. China has publicly admitted for the first time to providing direct military support to Pakistan during the 2025 India-Pakistan conflict.
2. The US President's visit to China in May 2026 was extended from its original schedule due to positive diplomatic developments.
3. Former Chinese Defence Ministers Wei Fenghe and Li Shangfu were sentenced to death for charges related to corruption.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article, which calls it the 'first admission from China'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the visit was 'curtailed and delayed', not extended. Statement 3 is incorrect; their death sentences were 'commuted to life imprisonment', not carried out.
In which year did Pakistan acquire the J-10CE fighter jets from China, as mentioned in the article?
- A.2019
- B.2020
- C.2021✓ Correct Answer
- D.2022
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: '...J-10CE fighter jets, which Pakistan acquired in 2021 as a response to India’s acquisition of the Rafale fighter jets from France.' This is a direct factual recall from the news.
What is the primary strategic implication of China's first admission of direct military support to Pakistan during Operation Sindoor, as analyzed in the article?
- A.It signals a shift towards complete diplomatic isolation of India.
- B.It reveals the depth of military interoperability and could be a deterrence signal to India.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It indicates China's intention to mediate directly in the Kashmir dispute.
- D.It shows China's reduced reliance on Pakistan as a strategic partner.
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Explanation
The article's analysis suggests the admission 'point(s) to the closeness of the defence relationship, including military interoperability' and is a strategic signal. It complicates India's security calculus, aligning with the concept of deterrence. There is no mention of diplomatic isolation, direct mediation on Kashmir, or reduced reliance on Pakistan.
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For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.
- Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
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What are the important current affairs questions for 10 May 2026?▼
This page contains 60 current affairs questions from 10 May 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
How to use 10 May 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼
Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.
How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼
Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.
Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼
Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.
What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼
Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.
All Questions in This Set
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- Q7. According to the article, on which date did Mangal Pandey muti…
- Q8. was the primary and immediate consequence of the Revolt of 185…
- Q9. ministry conducts the Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector E…
- Q10. Consider the following statements regarding developments menti…
- Q11. According to the MoSPI's ASUSE 2025 survey, what is the estima…
- Q12. is a key implication of the Centre dropping the criteria for c…
- Q13. The Scramjet Connect Pipe Test (SCPT) facility, mentioned in t…
- Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the recent DRDO hy…
- Q15. According to the news, what was the duration (in seconds) of t…
- Q16. is a primary strategic advantage of hypersonic weapons, as ind…
- Q17. The Calcutta High Court judgment quashing a POCSO conviction i…
- Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the Calcutta High …
- Q19. was the sentence awarded by the trial court that was quashed b…
- Q20. was the primary rationale of the Calcutta High Court for quash…
- Q21. Under which Act is the Sub-Divisional Level Committee (SDLC), …
- Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q23. According to the petitioner's affidavit, what was the minimum …
- Q24. is the primary legal contention raised by the petitioner regar…
- Q25. The European Central Bank (ECB) is the central bank for which …
- Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q27. The revised MoU signed between RBI and ECB updates the previou…
- Q28. is the primary significance of such MoUs between central banks…
- Q29. statutory organization under the Ministry of Power is responsi…
- Q30. Consider the following statements regarding energy storage in …
- Q31. According to the article, what is India's current installed ca…
- Q32. is the primary concern flagged by the CEA regarding India's ex…
- Q33. ministry conducts the Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector E…
- Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the ASUSE 2025 fin…
- Q35. According to the ASUSE 2025 report, what was the estimated Gro…
- Q36. is a key concern emerging from the ASUSE 2025 findings, as hig…
- Q37. ministry is primarily responsible for formulating and implemen…
- Q38. Consider the following statements regarding India's FTA utilis…
- Q39. was the value of India's total goods and services exports duri…
- Q40. According to the expert cited in the article, what should be t…
- Q41. Under which central government mission is Uttar Pradesh integr…
- Q42. Consider the following statements regarding Uttar Pradesh's so…
- Q43. According to the news, what is the estimated annual reduction …
- Q44. is a key technical and operational advantage of using solar-po…
- Q45. Under which Section of the Code on Wages, 2019, does the centr…
- Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the new labour cod…
- Q47. According to the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Condi…
- Q48. is a key potential consequence, as highlighted by experts in t…
- Q49. of the following is NOT one of the three major state-owned Oil…
- Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q51. According to the article, what is the approximate monthly reve…
- Q52. is the primary immediate risk to India's energy security highl…
- Q53. Indian government department is primarily responsible for the …
- Q54. Consider the following statements regarding India's nuclear en…
- Q55. According to the article, what is the electric capacity target…
- Q56. is the primary strategic reason, as discussed in the article, …
- Q57. is the supreme military command body in China, of which the re…
- Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the developments m…
- Q59. In which year did Pakistan acquire the J-10CE fighter jets fro…
- Q60. is the primary strategic implication of China's first admissio…