8 May 2026, Questions & Answers

148 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.

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This page contains 148 current affairs questions with answers from 8 May 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.

These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.

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8 May 2026, Questions with Answers

148 Qs
Q1.

Who is the head of the Department of Defence under the Ministry of Defence, as mentioned in the context of the security summit?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Defence Minister
  • B.Defence Secretary✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Chief of Defence Staff
  • D.National Security Advisor
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions Defence Secretary R K Singh speaking at a security summit. The Defence Secretary is the administrative head of the Department of Defence, which is part of the Ministry of Defence.

Source: Operation Sindoor Spurs ₹30,000 Cr Emergency Procurement for Drones, Loitering Munitions, and Standoff Weapons →
Q2.

Consider the following statements regarding India's defence modernisation post-Operation Sindoor:

1. A major part of the ₹30,000 crore emergency procurement is for acquiring drones, counter-drone systems, and loitering munitions.

2. The Indian Army is raising 'Ashni battalions' as high-mobility light commando units.

3. India is looking to raise a conventional missile force, shifting from its earlier doctrine of using missiles only for strategic purposes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because 'Ashni platoons' are specialised drone platoons, not commando battalions; 'Bhairav battalions' are the high-mobility commando units. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the paradigm shift towards a conventional missile force.

Source: Operation Sindoor Spurs ₹30,000 Cr Emergency Procurement for Drones, Loitering Munitions, and Standoff Weapons →
Q3.

What was the approximate value of the emergency procurement contracts signed by the Indian armed forces after Operation Sindoor?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹15,000 crore
  • B.₹22,500 crore
  • C.₹30,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • D.₹45,000 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Defence Secretary R K Singh stated that the majority of the Rs 30,000-crore emergency procurement contracts were intended to acquire modern weaponry like drones and counter-drone systems.

Source: Operation Sindoor Spurs ₹30,000 Cr Emergency Procurement for Drones, Loitering Munitions, and Standoff Weapons →
Q4.

What is the primary strategic objective behind the Indian Army's reorganization into units like Ashni platoons and Rudra brigades, as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase the total number of personnel in the infantry
  • B.To create larger, more centralized command structures
  • C.To form smaller, integrated, and lethal units equipped with modern weaponry✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To reduce dependency on imported defence equipment
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the military is reorganizing into 'smaller, lethal functional units equipped with modern weaponry for future wars.' Units like Ashni (drone platoons) and Rudra (integrated brigades) are examples of this restructuring aimed at creating a more agile and technologically advanced force.

Source: Operation Sindoor Spurs ₹30,000 Cr Emergency Procurement for Drones, Loitering Munitions, and Standoff Weapons →
Q5.

Under which Article of the Constitution is the Election Commission of India established?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 324✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Article 352
  • C.Article 368
  • D.Article 14
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Election Commission of India is a constitutional body established under Article 324, which deals with the superintendence, direction, and control of elections.

Source: SC Critiques 2023 EC Appointment Act for Replacing CJI with Minister, Cites 'Tyranny of the Elected' →
Q6.

Consider the following statements regarding the appointment of Election Commissioners:

1. The Supreme Court's 2023 ruling in *Anoop Baranwal vs Union of India* prescribed a selection committee consisting of the Prime Minister, the Leader of Opposition, and the Chief Justice of India.

2. The Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023, replaced the Union Cabinet Minister in the selection committee with the Chief Justice of India.

3. Article 324(2) of the Constitution states that the appointment of Election Commissioners is subject to the provisions of any law made by Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the 2023 Act did the opposite—it replaced the CJI with a Union Cabinet Minister. Statement 3 is correct as it is the exact wording of Article 324(2) mentioned in the article.

Source: SC Critiques 2023 EC Appointment Act for Replacing CJI with Minister, Cites 'Tyranny of the Elected' →
Q7.

As per the article, which non-governmental organization (NGO) challenged the 2023 Act on Election Commission appointments in 2024?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Common Cause
  • B.Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.People's Union for Civil Liberties (PUCL)
  • D.Transparency International India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that in 2024, petitioners such as the NGO Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR) challenged the 2023 law. The other organizations are not mentioned in the provided content.

Source: SC Critiques 2023 EC Appointment Act for Replacing CJI with Minister, Cites 'Tyranny of the Elected' →
Q8.

What was the primary reason cited in the article for challenging the 2023 Act on Election Commission appointments?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It increased the financial burden on the Consolidated Fund of India.
  • B.It reduced the tenure of the Election Commissioners.
  • C.It restored the executive's power and dominance over appointments.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It made the appointment process overly complex and time-consuming.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that petitioners argued the 2023 law 'restores the executive’s power and dominance over appointments and defeats the principle held in *Anoop Baranwal* — that the EC must be insulated from executive interference.' The other options describe potential impacts not highlighted as the primary challenge in the article.

Source: SC Critiques 2023 EC Appointment Act for Replacing CJI with Minister, Cites 'Tyranny of the Elected' →
Q9.

The Aviation Industry Corporation of China (AVIC), mentioned in the news, is primarily involved in which sector?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Banking and Financial Services
  • B.Aerospace and Defence Manufacturing✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Telecommunications and Networking
  • D.Renewable Energy Infrastructure
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

AVIC is a Chinese state-owned conglomerate specializing in the design, development, and manufacture of aircraft, including military fighters like the J-10 and commercial aircraft, placing it squarely in the aerospace and defence sector.

Source: AVIC Engineer Confirms On-Site Technical Support to Pakistan Air Force During May 2025 Four-Day War with India →
Q10.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. China confirmed providing on-site technical support to Pakistan during a conflict in May 2025.

2. The support was provided for Pakistan's fleet of Russian-made Sukhoi fighter jets.

3. An Indian Army Lieutenant General stated that India faced three adversaries during 'Operation Sindoor'.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's core news. Statement 2 is incorrect; the support was for Chinese-made J-10CE jets, not Russian Sukhoi jets. Statement 3 is correct as Lt. Gen. Rahul R. Singh mentioned Pakistan, China, and Türkiye as adversaries.

Source: AVIC Engineer Confirms On-Site Technical Support to Pakistan Air Force During May 2025 Four-Day War with India →
Q11.

According to the news, during which month and year did the four-day war between India and Pakistan occur?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.April 2024
  • B.May 2025✓ Correct Answer
  • C.June 2025
  • D.July 2025
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the 'four-day war last May', and the publication date is May 2026, confirming the reference is to May 2025. Other options are close distractors based on other potential conflict timelines.

Source: AVIC Engineer Confirms On-Site Technical Support to Pakistan Air Force During May 2025 Four-Day War with India →
Q12.

What is a primary strategic implication of China's confirmed technical support to Pakistan, as highlighted in the news?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It promotes economic cooperation under the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC).
  • B.It validates India's assessment of a multi-front threat scenario involving China.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It signals a reduction in military ties between China and Türkiye.
  • D.It indicates Pakistan's shift towards indigenous defence production.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The confirmation directly supports the Indian military's earlier statement about facing three adversaries (Pakistan, China, Türkiye) during Operation Sindoor. This reinforces the strategic challenge of a potential two-front or coordinated threat, a key concern in India's defence planning.

Source: AVIC Engineer Confirms On-Site Technical Support to Pakistan Air Force During May 2025 Four-Day War with India →
Q13.

Which international organization acted as the facilitator and is the acknowledged third party in the procedural role of the Indus Waters Treaty?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.International Court of Justice (ICJ)
  • B.United Nations Security Council (UNSC)
  • C.World Bank✓ Correct Answer
  • D.United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the World Bank acted as the facilitator of the 1960 Indus Waters Treaty and is the acknowledged third party in a procedural role, as per India's position.

Source: India Holds Indus Waters Treaty in Abeyance Since April 2025, Pakistan Seeks ICJ & UNSC Intervention Over Water Dispute →
Q14.

Consider the following statements regarding the Indus Waters Treaty dispute:

1. India's decision to hold the Treaty 'in abeyance' was triggered by a terrorist attack in Pahalgam in April 2025.

2. The Treaty allocates the three eastern rivers—Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab—to India for unrestricted use.

3. Pakistan is currently a non-permanent member of the United Nations Security Council.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Treaty allocates the three eastern rivers (Ravi, Sutlej, Beas) to India, not the western ones (Indus, Jhelum, Chenab). Statement 3 is correct as Pakistan's non-permanent UNSC membership began in January 2025.

Source: India Holds Indus Waters Treaty in Abeyance Since April 2025, Pakistan Seeks ICJ & UNSC Intervention Over Water Dispute →
Q15.

According to the article, what percentage of Pakistan's irrigation requirements are fulfilled by the Indus river system?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.More than 50%
  • B.More than 60%
  • C.More than 70%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.More than 80%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'The bulk of its irrigation requirements — more than 70% — is fulfilled by the Indus river system.' This highlights Pakistan's critical dependence as the downstream state.

Source: India Holds Indus Waters Treaty in Abeyance Since April 2025, Pakistan Seeks ICJ & UNSC Intervention Over Water Dispute →
Q16.

What is India's stated primary condition for ending the suspension ('abeyance') of the Indus Waters Treaty?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Completion of all its water infrastructure projects on the eastern rivers.
  • B.A ruling from the International Court of Justice on the dispute.
  • C.Pakistan credibly and irrevocably abjuring its support for cross-border terrorism.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Renegotiation of the Treaty terms to include climate change provisions.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes India's Ministry of External Affairs: 'the IWT would continue to be held in abeyance till Pakistan "credibly and irrevocably abjures its support for cross-border terrorism".' This links water sharing directly to Pakistan's action on terrorism.

Source: India Holds Indus Waters Treaty in Abeyance Since April 2025, Pakistan Seeks ICJ & UNSC Intervention Over Water Dispute →
Q17.

Under which Article of the Constitution does the Governor of a state have the power to dissolve the Legislative Assembly?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 85
  • B.Article 174✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Article 356
  • D.Article 163
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 174 of the Constitution specifically deals with sessions of the State Legislature, prorogation and dissolution. Clause (2)(b) grants the Governor the power to dissolve the Legislative Assembly, as exercised in this news.

Source: West Bengal Governor R. N. Ravi Dissolves Assembly Under Article 174(2)(b) After BJP Wins 207 Seats →
Q18.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The West Bengal Legislative Assembly was dissolved by the Governor using powers under Article 174(2)(b).

2. The BJP won a majority by securing 250 seats in the 294-member assembly.

3. The swearing-in of the new government is scheduled to take place at the Brigade Parade Grounds.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the gazette notification citing Article 174(2)(b). Statement 2 is incorrect; the BJP won 207 seats, not 250. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the swearing-in at Brigade Parade Grounds on Saturday (May 9).

Source: West Bengal Governor R. N. Ravi Dissolves Assembly Under Article 174(2)(b) After BJP Wins 207 Seats →
Q19.

According to the article, how many seats did the Trinamool Congress (TMC) secure in the recently concluded West Bengal Assembly polls?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.70
  • B.80✓ Correct Answer
  • C.90
  • D.100
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'The Trinamool was reduced to 80 seats.' The other options are close distractors.

Source: West Bengal Governor R. N. Ravi Dissolves Assembly Under Article 174(2)(b) After BJP Wins 207 Seats →
Q20.

What is the primary constitutional significance of the Governor dissolving the State Legislative Assembly as reported?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It marks the end of the term of the current government and legislators.✓ Correct Answer
  • B.It allows the Governor to assume direct control of the state administration.
  • C.It necessitates the immediate imposition of President's Rule in the state.
  • D.It enables the Election Commission to conduct fresh polls within 30 days.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Dissolution under Article 174(2)(b) formally ends the life of the existing Legislative Assembly. The members cease to be MLAs, and the government (Council of Ministers) also ends, paving the way for a new assembly and government to be constituted. The other options describe different constitutional scenarios not applicable here.

Source: West Bengal Governor R. N. Ravi Dissolves Assembly Under Article 174(2)(b) After BJP Wins 207 Seats →
Q21.

Which law in India primarily provides the conditional legal framework for abortion?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act
  • B.The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act
  • D.The Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (PCPNDT) Act
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The MTP Act, 1971 is the primary legislation that sets the conditions under which a pregnancy can be legally terminated in India. While other laws like POCSO and PCPNDT interact with it, the MTP Act provides the core legal framework for abortion.

Source: Abortion Law Debate: SC Recognises Reproductive Decisional Autonomy as Fundamental Right in 2022 →
Q22.

Consider the following statements regarding abortion laws in India:

1. The Supreme Court, in a 2022 judgement, recognised reproductive decisional autonomy as a fundamental right.

2. The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act provides for abortion on demand without any gestational limits.

3. A conflict arises as mandatory reporting under the POCSO Act can deter minor rape victims from seeking abortion under the MTP Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as mentioned in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the MTP Act does not provide for abortion on demand; it has conditions and a general gestational limit of 24 weeks. Statement 3 is correct as experts highlight that mandatory reporting under POCSO creates a barrier for minors seeking abortion.

Source: Abortion Law Debate: SC Recognises Reproductive Decisional Autonomy as Fundamental Right in 2022 →
Q23.

What is the general outer gestational limit for termination of pregnancy under the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, as discussed in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.20 weeks
  • B.24 weeks✓ Correct Answer
  • C.28 weeks
  • D.No limit
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the MTP Act sets out general outer limits of 24 weeks, with exceptions for substantial foetal anomalies or to save the life of the pregnant woman. This is a key factual data point from the news.

Source: Abortion Law Debate: SC Recognises Reproductive Decisional Autonomy as Fundamental Right in 2022 →
Q24.

According to the experts in the article, what is a primary reason for advocating a shift in India's abortion law framework?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To increase government control over reproductive health decisions.
  • B.To move from a criminalized, conditional framework to a rights-based reproductive justice model.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To impose stricter gestational limits to protect foetal life.
  • D.To make abortion services exclusively available through private healthcare providers.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core argument presented by experts like Dipika Jain and Alka Barua is that the current framework, where abortion is criminalized under BNS and access is conditional under MTP, creates barriers. They advocate for a shift towards a rights-based framework centered on the pregnant person's decisional autonomy and reproductive justice.

Source: Abortion Law Debate: SC Recognises Reproductive Decisional Autonomy as Fundamental Right in 2022 →
Q25.

Under which Union Ministry is the office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
  • B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
  • D.Ministry of Rural Development
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, responsible for conducting the decennial census, operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.

Source: Census 2027 Launched as India's First Digital Census, Includes Caste Enumeration and Forest Villages for First Time →
Q26.

Consider the following statements regarding the recently launched first phase of Census 2027 in Uttar Pradesh:

1. It is being conducted as India's first digital census, allowing for online self-enumeration.

2. The second phase of this census will involve the enumeration of individuals and will include caste enumeration.

3. For the first time, the census process will cover forest villages.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states it is India's first digital census with online self-enumeration. Statement 2 is correct as the Chief Minister stated the second phase involves individual and caste enumeration. Statement 3 is correct as forest villages are mentioned to be covered for the first time. Hence, all three statements are correct.

Source: Census 2027 Launched as India's First Digital Census, Includes Caste Enumeration and Forest Villages for First Time →
Q27.

According to the news, what is the total number of personnel deployed for the Census 2027 exercise in Uttar Pradesh?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Approximately 4.5 lakh
  • B.Approximately 5.35 lakh
  • C.Approximately 5.47 lakh✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Approximately 6.00 lakh
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that "Around 5.47 lakh personnel have been deployed for the exercise." The figure of 4.5 lakh refers specifically to enumerators, and 5.35 lakh refers to trained personnel.

Source: Census 2027 Launched as India's First Digital Census, Includes Caste Enumeration and Forest Villages for First Time →
Q28.

What is the stated primary objective of conducting the census, as highlighted in the launch event?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To determine electoral constituencies and political representation.
  • B.To serve as a strong foundation for holistic, inclusive, and well-planned development.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To assess the success of existing government welfare schemes.
  • D.To create a national database for security and surveillance purposes.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Chief Minister emphasized that the census was "not merely a count of population, but a strong foundation for holistic, inclusive and well-planned development." Accurate data is intended to improve the implementation of infrastructure, education, healthcare, and welfare schemes.

Source: Census 2027 Launched as India's First Digital Census, Includes Caste Enumeration and Forest Villages for First Time →
Q29.

Which part of the Indian Constitution contains provisions regarding disqualification on grounds of defection?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ninth Schedule
  • B.Tenth Schedule✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Eleventh Schedule
  • D.Twelfth Schedule
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, added by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985, contains provisions for disqualification of members on grounds of defection. This is directly relevant to the article's discussion on party mergers under Paragraph 4(2).

Source: SC Reaffirms Limits of Legal Fiction, Key for Tenth Schedule Defection Cases →
Q30.

Consider the following statements regarding legal fictions in Indian law:

1. The Supreme Court in the Bengal Immunity case (1955) held that a legal fiction must be limited to its definite purpose.

2. Paragraph 4(2) of the Tenth Schedule states that a merger is deemed to have taken place solely upon a resolution by two-thirds of the legislators of a party.

3. The Supreme Court, in Rajendra Singh Rana vs Swami Prasad Maurya (2007), held that the Speaker has independent power under the Tenth Schedule to recognize a merger.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; Paragraph 4(2) deems a merger to have taken place 'if, and only if' two-thirds agree, but this verifies a substantive merger in the original party, it is not the merger itself. Statement 3 is incorrect; the 2007 Constitution Bench held that the Speaker has no independent power to recognize a split or merger.

Source: SC Reaffirms Limits of Legal Fiction, Key for Tenth Schedule Defection Cases →
Q31.

In which year did the Supreme Court deliver the landmark judgment in Bengal Immunity Co. Ltd. vs State of Bihar, which laid down the principle governing legal fictions?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.1950
  • B.1955✓ Correct Answer
  • C.1961
  • D.1973
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Bengal Immunity Co. Ltd. vs State of Bihar case was decided in 1955 by a seven-judge Constitution Bench. This is the foundational case on the limits of legal fictions in Indian constitutional law.

Source: SC Reaffirms Limits of Legal Fiction, Key for Tenth Schedule Defection Cases →
Q32.

According to the article, what is the primary danger when a deeming clause (like Paragraph 4(2) of the Tenth Schedule) is misread as constitutive rather than verificative?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It increases the workload of the judiciary.
  • B.It grants a faction of legislators the power to declare a merger unauthorized by the parent party.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It leads to the dissolution of the original political party.
  • D.It automatically triggers fresh elections for the affected constituencies.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that reading the deeming clause as constitutive (creating the merger) instead of verificative (verifying it) transforms it into a substantive grant of power. This allows a legislative faction to effect a merger that the original political party has not authorized, undermining party democracy and the intent of the anti-defection law.

Source: SC Reaffirms Limits of Legal Fiction, Key for Tenth Schedule Defection Cases →
Q33.

Which state department is primarily responsible for managing human-wildlife conflict mitigation measures as discussed in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Department of Revenue
  • B.Forest Department✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Department of Animal Husbandry
  • D.Department of Environment
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article repeatedly mentions the Forest Department as the agency receiving complaints, deploying task forces, and implementing mitigation strategies like fencing and tracking in conflict zones.

Source: Karnataka Proposes ₹1,500 Cr Man-Animal Conflict Programme as Deaths Reach 259 Over 5 Years →
Q34.

Consider the following statements regarding the human-animal conflict in Karnataka:

1. The state has recorded over 250 human fatalities due to animal attacks in the last five years.

2. The Karnataka government has proposed a new conflict mitigation programme with an outlay of ₹2,000 crore.

3. Experts identify habitat loss and fragmentation as the primary drivers of the escalating conflict.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states 259 deaths over five years. Statement 2 is incorrect: The proposed outlay is ₹1,500 crore, not ₹2,000 crore. Statement 3 is correct: Experts point to habitat loss and fragmentation as root causes.

Source: Karnataka Proposes ₹1,500 Cr Man-Animal Conflict Programme as Deaths Reach 259 Over 5 Years →
Q35.

According to the article, how many people lost their lives due to animal attacks in Kodagu district over the past five years?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.37
  • B.47✓ Correct Answer
  • C.57
  • D.67
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that official data shows 47 people have lost their lives due to animal attacks over the past five years in Kodagu district.

Source: Karnataka Proposes ₹1,500 Cr Man-Animal Conflict Programme as Deaths Reach 259 Over 5 Years →
Q36.

What is the primary objective of the proposed 'Aane Dhama' (Elephant Reserve) as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To create a new national park for tourism revenue
  • B.To rehabilitate elephants currently moving outside forest areas✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To serve as a breeding centre for endangered elephant species
  • D.To act as a research facility for studying elephant behavior
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Forest Minister Eshwar Khandre stated that the proposed Aane Dhama aims to rehabilitate the around 300 wild elephants currently outside forest areas, which are a major source of conflict.

Source: Karnataka Proposes ₹1,500 Cr Man-Animal Conflict Programme as Deaths Reach 259 Over 5 Years →
Q37.

The Resistance Front (TRF) was designated as a Foreign Terrorist Organization (FTO) by which country in July 2025, as per the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.United Kingdom
  • B.United States of America✓ Correct Answer
  • C.United Nations Security Council
  • D.European Union
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that on July 18, 2025, the TRF was designated as a Foreign Terrorist Organisation (FTO) and as a Specially Designated Global Terrorist (SDGT) by the US.

Source: Operation Sindoor (May 2025) Establishes India's 'New Normal' Policy Against Terrorism, US Designates TRF as FTO →
Q38.

Consider the following statements regarding Operation Sindoor and its aftermath:

1. It established a 'new normal' policy for India that includes guaranteed response to terror and rejects nuclear blackmail as a hurdle.

2. The United Nations Security Council unanimously passed a resolution condemning Pakistan for the Pahalgam terror attack.

3. India's diplomatic outreach after the operation involved sending all-party delegations to 33 countries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's description of the three pillars of the 'new normal'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article mentions the UNSC 1267 Committee's report mentioned TRF, not a unanimous resolution condemning Pakistan. Statement 3 is correct as seven all-party delegations travelled to 33 countries.

Source: Operation Sindoor (May 2025) Establishes India's 'New Normal' Policy Against Terrorism, US Designates TRF as FTO →
Q39.

According to the article, how many all-party delegations did India send to foreign countries for diplomatic outreach after Operation Sindoor?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Five
  • B.Seven✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Nine
  • D.Ten
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that 'seven all-party delegations travelled to a total of 33 countries' immediately after Operation Sindoor to shape public opinion in India's favour.

Source: Operation Sindoor (May 2025) Establishes India's 'New Normal' Policy Against Terrorism, US Designates TRF as FTO →
Q40.

What was a primary lesson for India from the diplomatic fallout following Operation Sindoor, as highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC
  • A.The need to increase its nuclear arsenal to deter Pakistan.
  • B.The necessity to isolate Pakistan completely in all international forums.
  • C.The importance of improving strategic communication and amplifying its voice internationally.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The requirement to reduce military expenditure and focus on soft power.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's 'Hard realisations' section identifies that India needed to be better in its strategic communication, from the profile of spokespersons to perceived transparency, to be more credible internationally. This was a key gap compared to Pakistan's high-level messaging.

Source: Operation Sindoor (May 2025) Establishes India's 'New Normal' Policy Against Terrorism, US Designates TRF as FTO →
Q41.

Which constitutional article governs the appointment of the Chief Minister and other ministers in a state?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 163
  • B.Article 164✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Article 165
  • D.Article 166
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 164 of the Constitution specifically deals with the appointment of the Chief Minister by the Governor and other ministers on the advice of the Chief Minister. Article 163 deals with the Council of Ministers to aid and advise the Governor, while Articles 165 and 166 deal with the Advocate-General and conduct of business, respectively.

Source: Tamil Nadu Governor Delays CM Swearing-In, Demands Proof for 118 MLAs Under Article 164 →
Q42.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent controversy in Tamil Nadu:

1. The Governor asked for proof of support from a simple majority of the total Assembly strength.

2. The Supreme Court, in the 2018 Karnataka case, advanced the floor test to 36 hours.

3. Article 164 states that ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Chief Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Governor asked for proof from 118 MLAs, which is an absolute majority (more than half of 234), not a simple majority. Statement 2 is correct as per the article, which mentions the SC advanced the floor test to 36 hours in the 2018 Karnataka case. Statement 3 is incorrect; Article 164 states ministers hold office during the pleasure of the Governor, not the Chief Minister.

Source: Tamil Nadu Governor Delays CM Swearing-In, Demands Proof for 118 MLAs Under Article 164 →
Q43.

According to the news, what was the total strength of the Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly mentioned in the context of the majority mark?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.230 members
  • B.232 members
  • C.234 members✓ Correct Answer
  • D.236 members
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Governor asked for proof of support from at least 118 legislators, which is the majority mark in the 234-member Assembly. The other options are close distractors.

Source: Tamil Nadu Governor Delays CM Swearing-In, Demands Proof for 118 MLAs Under Article 164 →
Q44.

What is the primary constitutional principle underscored by the Supreme Court's past rulings, as mentioned in the article, for resolving disputes over government formation?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The Governor's absolute discretion in appointment
  • B.The primacy of the single largest party convention
  • C.The floor test as the ultimate option✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Immediate presidential rule under Article 356
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article cites Supreme Court rulings, including the 2018 Karnataka and 2016 Uttarakhand cases, which underline that the floor test on the floor of the house is the ultimate method to determine the majority and resolve such disputes. While the single largest party convention exists, the Court has emphasized the floor test as the definitive mechanism.

Source: Tamil Nadu Governor Delays CM Swearing-In, Demands Proof for 118 MLAs Under Article 164 →
Q45.

Which constitutional article was primarily invoked by the Rajasthan High Court to prohibit police media trials?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 14
  • B.Article 19
  • C.Article 21✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Article 32
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The judgment stressed that Article 21 guarantees not merely life but the right to live with dignity, honour and self-respect, and this right does not evaporate upon arrest.

Source: Rajasthan HC Prohibits Police Media Trials Citing Article 21 & BNSS Sections 170 & 126 →
Q46.

Consider the following statements regarding the Rajasthan High Court judgment:

1. The court prohibited police from sharing photographs or videos of accused persons on social media.

2. The judgment was delivered by Justice Farjand Ali on May 5, 2026.

3. The court cited the Law Commission of India's 200th report on 'Trial by Media'.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court specifically prohibited sharing such content. Statement 2 is correct: Justice Farjand Ali delivered the judgment on May 5 (the article mentions May 5, 2026). Statement 3 is correct: the judgment referred to the Law Commission's 200th report on 'Trial by Media'.

Source: Rajasthan HC Prohibits Police Media Trials Citing Article 21 & BNSS Sections 170 & 126 →
Q47.

Under which sections of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) were the petitioners in the Rajasthan High Court case booked?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Section 144 & Section 151
  • B.Section 126 & Section 170✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Section 41 & Section 167
  • D.Section 302 & Section 307
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the petitioners were booked under sections 170 and 126 of the BNSS. Section 126 allows Executive Magistrates to demand security/bonds for keeping peace, while Section 170 enables police to arrest individuals to prevent cognisable offences.

Source: Rajasthan HC Prohibits Police Media Trials Citing Article 21 & BNSS Sections 170 & 126 →
Q48.

What is the primary philosophical analogy used by the Rajasthan High Court to explain the impact of public shaming?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The Prisoner's Dilemma
  • B.The Ship of Theseus✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Trolley Problem
  • D.The Veil of Ignorance
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The judgment began with the famous 'ship of Theseus' paradox, questioning whether an object remains the same after all its parts are replaced. The court used it to explain that a person, once exposed to such degradation, does not remain the same thereafter.

Source: Rajasthan HC Prohibits Police Media Trials Citing Article 21 & BNSS Sections 170 & 126 →
Q49.

In which state did the Tadmetla (Chintalnar) Maoist ambush, which is the subject of the news article, take place?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Jharkhand
  • B.Odisha
  • C.Chhattisgarh✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Madhya Pradesh
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The incident occurred in the forest of Tadmetla village in Dantewada district, which is in the state of Chhattisgarh. The article explicitly mentions Dantewada and Sukma districts, both in Chhattisgarh.

Source: Chhattisgarh HC Upholds Acquittal of All 10 Accused in 2010 Tadmetla Ambush (76 Killed) Citing Lack of Admissible Evidence →
Q50.

Consider the following statements regarding the Chhattisgarh High Court judgment on the Tadmetla ambush case:

1. The Court upheld the conviction of the accused, citing strong circumstantial evidence.

2. One of the reasons for acquittal was the failure to conduct a Test Identification Parade (TIP).

3. The prosecution had successfully obtained the mandatory sanction under the Arms Act against the accused.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the HC upheld the acquittal, not conviction. Statement 2 is correct as the court noted the lack of TIP as a procedural lapse. Statement 3 is incorrect as the judgment explicitly states there was 'no record of the prosecution sanction required under the Arms Act'.

Source: Chhattisgarh HC Upholds Acquittal of All 10 Accused in 2010 Tadmetla Ambush (76 Killed) Citing Lack of Admissible Evidence →
Q51.

How many security personnel were killed in the 2010 Tadmetla Maoist ambush, as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.70
  • B.76✓ Correct Answer
  • C.80
  • D.84
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that a total of 76 security personnel were killed, comprising 75 CRPF jawans and one policeman. This is a key factual data point from the news.

Source: Chhattisgarh HC Upholds Acquittal of All 10 Accused in 2010 Tadmetla Ambush (76 Killed) Citing Lack of Admissible Evidence →
Q52.

What was the primary legal principle invoked by the Chhattisgarh High Court to justify upholding the acquittal in the Tadmetla ambush case?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.The principle of double jeopardy
  • B.The principle of guilt beyond reasonable doubt✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The principle of sovereign immunity
  • D.The principle of act of God
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court emphasized that a conviction cannot be sustained 'in the absence of clear, cogent, and legally admissible evidence establishing guilt beyond reasonable doubt.' This is the cornerstone of criminal jurisprudence, as highlighted in the judgment.

Source: Chhattisgarh HC Upholds Acquittal of All 10 Accused in 2010 Tadmetla Ambush (76 Killed) Citing Lack of Admissible Evidence →
Q53.

The author of the article on Operation Sindoor was previously the GOC-in-C of which Army Command?

EasyUPSC, CDS
  • A.Northern Command
  • B.Western Command✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Southern Command
  • D.Eastern Command
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's byline explicitly states "The writer was GOC-in-C Western Command during Operation Sindoor." This is a direct fact from the source material.

Source: Operation Sindoor 2025: India's Precision Strikes on 9 Terror Bases in Pakistan and Strategy for Sindoor 2.0 →
Q54.

Consider the following statements regarding Operation Sindoor as described in the article:

1. It was launched in response to the killing of 26 civilians in Pahalgam.

2. The operation involved precision strikes on nine military bases of the Pakistan Army.

3. India accepted a ceasefire on May 10, 2025, as its stated objectives were met.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, CDS
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's opening line. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article says strikes were on "nine terrorist bases," not military bases. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article. Hence, option C is correct.

Source: Operation Sindoor 2025: India's Precision Strikes on 9 Terror Bases in Pakistan and Strategy for Sindoor 2.0 →
Q55.

According to the article, on which date was Operation Sindoor launched?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.May 7, 2024
  • B.May 7, 2025✓ Correct Answer
  • C.May 10, 2025
  • D.May 8, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "On May 7, 2025 at 0105 hours, India launched Operation Sindoor..." The other dates are distractors: May 10, 2025, is the ceasefire date, and May 8, 2026, is the article's publication date.

Source: Operation Sindoor 2025: India's Precision Strikes on 9 Terror Bases in Pakistan and Strategy for Sindoor 2.0 →
Q56.

What is the proposed strategic shift for a potential 'Sindoor 2.0', as argued in the article?

MediumUPSC
  • A.From compellence to deterrence to manage nuclear risks.
  • B.From limited strikes to a full-scale conventional war.
  • C.From deterrence to compellence to force a change in Pakistan's policy.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.From kinetic action to solely relying on diplomatic isolation.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core argument of the article is that future responses must "enable a graduated shift from deterrence to compellence" and aim "to compel a durable change in Pakistan’s calculus." The other options either reverse the proposed shift or suggest extremes not advocated in the text.

Source: Operation Sindoor 2025: India's Precision Strikes on 9 Terror Bases in Pakistan and Strategy for Sindoor 2.0 →
Q57.

Which branch of the Indian Armed Forces conducted Operation Sindoor?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Indian Army
  • B.Indian Navy
  • C.Indian Air Force✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Indian Coast Guard
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Indian Air Force struck the nine key terror targets during Operation Sindoor. This is a direct factual recall from the provided content.

Source: Operation Sindoor: India Launched 9 Strikes in PoK Post-Pahalgam Attack, PM Modi Announced New Normal Against Terror →
Q58.

Consider the following statements regarding Operation Sindoor:

1. It was launched in response to a terror attack near Pahalgam in April 2025.

2. The operation successfully ended all cross-border terrorism from Pakistan.

3. It expanded the space for military action against Pakistan under the nuclear overhang.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Defence Exams
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's opening. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article details continued terror activities post-operation, like the Lal Qila attack. Statement 3 is correct, directly quoted from the article's analysis of the operation's tactical success.

Source: Operation Sindoor: India Launched 9 Strikes in PoK Post-Pahalgam Attack, PM Modi Announced New Normal Against Terror →
Q59.

How many key terror targets did the Indian Air Force strike in Pakistan and PoK during Operation Sindoor?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.5
  • B.7
  • C.9✓ Correct Answer
  • D.11
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article provides the exact number: 'The Indian Air Force struck nine key terror targets in Pakistan and PoK'. The other numbers are plausible distractors but not mentioned.

Source: Operation Sindoor: India Launched 9 Strikes in PoK Post-Pahalgam Attack, PM Modi Announced New Normal Against Terror →
Q60.

According to the article, what is a primary critique of India's approach following Operation Sindoor?

MediumUPSC
  • A.Lack of sufficient military force used during the operation.
  • B.Failure to define a clear strategic endgame for its Pakistan policy.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Over-reliance on diplomatic outreach without military backing.
  • D.Inability to develop precision-strike weapon systems.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's central argument is that while Operation Sindoor was a tactical success, India lacks a 'clearly defined endgame concerning Pakistan'. The other options contradict the article, which states the operation validated weapon systems and used force but lacked strategic follow-up.

Source: Operation Sindoor: India Launched 9 Strikes in PoK Post-Pahalgam Attack, PM Modi Announced New Normal Against Terror →
Q61.

Which industry body has raised concerns against Delhi's proposed EV Policy 2.0 mandate, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Society of Indian Automobile Manufacturers (SIAM)✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Confederation of Indian Industry (CII)
  • C.Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce & Industry (FICCI)
  • D.National Association of Software and Service Companies (NASSCOM)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that SIAM, along with other industry bodies, has raised concerns over the EV mandates proposed by the Delhi government. SIAM is the apex body representing the Indian automobile industry.

Source: Delhi EV Policy 2.0 Mandates Electric Two-Wheeler Registrations from April 2028, Opposed by Industry Citing 65% Market Disruption and China Supply Chain Risks →
Q62.

Consider the following statements regarding the opposition to Delhi's proposed EV Policy 2.0:

1. The industry argues the mandate would affect 65% of two-wheeler buyers, many of whom depend on these vehicles for livelihood.

2. Stakeholders claim that China controls 95% of the global production of Heavy Rare Earth magnets required for EV motors.

3. Experts point out that India's electricity generation is predominantly from renewable sources, making EVs environmentally beneficial.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions that 65% of consumers buying motorcycles would be affected. Statement 2 is correct as the article states China controls 95% of HRE magnet production globally. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article highlights that 71% of India's electricity comes from coal-based power generation (fossil fuels), limiting the environmental benefit.

Source: Delhi EV Policy 2.0 Mandates Electric Two-Wheeler Registrations from April 2028, Opposed by Industry Citing 65% Market Disruption and China Supply Chain Risks →
Q63.

According to the article, what percentage of India's electricity generation comes from coal-based power plants?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.65%
  • B.71%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.85%
  • D.90%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically states that around 71% of India's electricity comes from coal-based power generation (fossil fuels). This data point is used by industry representatives to question the net environmental benefit of EV adoption at current energy mix levels.

Source: Delhi EV Policy 2.0 Mandates Electric Two-Wheeler Registrations from April 2028, Opposed by Industry Citing 65% Market Disruption and China Supply Chain Risks →
Q64.

What is a primary concern raised by industry stakeholders regarding the proposed ban on ICE two-wheelers in Delhi?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It will increase government revenue through higher vehicle taxes.
  • B.It will promote foreign direct investment in the automobile sector.
  • C.It will disrupt the livelihoods of micro-entrepreneurs like mechanics and workshop owners.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It will reduce fiscal deficit by cutting subsidies on petrol.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article highlights that Delhi-NCR is home to many independent workshops and mechanics who may not afford the transition to EV-specific tools and software. A sudden transition could cause widespread business failures in the informal sector, which is a primary socio-economic concern.

Source: Delhi EV Policy 2.0 Mandates Electric Two-Wheeler Registrations from April 2028, Opposed by Industry Citing 65% Market Disruption and China Supply Chain Risks →
Q65.

According to the news, which vaccine is being used in Gujarat's HPV vaccination campaign?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Cervarix
  • B.Gardasil-4✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Sputnik V
  • D.Covishield
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India is using Gardasil-4, a quadrivalent HPV vaccine by MSD India. Cervarix is a bivalent HPV vaccine, while Sputnik V and Covishield are COVID-19 vaccines.

Source: Gujarat Achieves 90% HPV Vaccination Coverage for 5 Lakh Adolescent Girls Under National Programme →
Q66.

Consider the following statements regarding the HPV vaccination campaign in Gujarat:

1. The campaign achieved 90% coverage of the identified eligible teenage girls.

2. Gardasil-4 vaccine protects against HPV types that cause only cervical cancer.

3. The vaccination drive was conducted across more than 2,200 health centres.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions 90% target achieved. Statement 2 is incorrect because Gardasil-4 is quadrivalent and protects against HPV types 16 & 18 (cervical cancer) AND types 6 & 11 (genital warts). Statement 3 is correct as the drive was conducted in more than 2,200 health centres.

Source: Gujarat Achieves 90% HPV Vaccination Coverage for 5 Lakh Adolescent Girls Under National Programme →
Q67.

What was the total number of eligible teenage girls identified for HPV vaccination in Gujarat?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.500,000
  • B.543,483✓ Correct Answer
  • C.550,000
  • D.600,000
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The health department identified 5,43,483 eligible teenage girls, as stated in the article. 500,000 is the number vaccinated, not identified. 550,000 and 600,000 are close distractors.

Source: Gujarat Achieves 90% HPV Vaccination Coverage for 5 Lakh Adolescent Girls Under National Programme →
Q68.

What is the primary public health objective of vaccinating 14-year-old girls against HPV, as highlighted in the news?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To prevent the spread of seasonal influenza
  • B.To reduce the future incidence of cervical cancer✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To boost overall immunity against viral infections
  • D.To meet international vaccination targets
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Gardasil-4 vaccine specifically protects against HPV types 16 and 18, which are known to cause cervical cancer. Vaccinating adolescent girls is a preventive strategy aimed at reducing the risk of developing cervical cancer in their adult life.

Source: Gujarat Achieves 90% HPV Vaccination Coverage for 5 Lakh Adolescent Girls Under National Programme →
Q69.

The TARA weapon system was primarily designed and developed by which DRDO laboratory?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA)
  • B.Research Centre Imarat (RCI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Defence Electronics Research Laboratory (DLRL)
  • D.Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, the TARA weapon system was designed and developed by Research Centre Imarat (RCI), Hyderabad, along with other DRDO laboratories. RCI is a key DRDO lab focused on guided missiles and strategic systems.

Source: DRDO, IAF Test Indigenous TARA Glide Weapon System Off Odisha Coast to Convert Unguided Warheads →
Q70.

Consider the following statements regarding the TARA weapon system:

1. It is India's first indigenous glide weapon system.

2. It is designed to convert guided missiles into ballistic missiles.

3. Its maiden flight trial was conducted jointly by DRDO and the Indian Navy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Defence Exams
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states TARA is India's first indigenous glide weapon system. Statement 2 is incorrect; it is designed to convert unguided warheads into precision-guided weapons, not guided missiles into ballistic ones. Statement 3 is incorrect; the trial was conducted jointly by DRDO and the Indian Air Force (IAF), not the Navy.

Source: DRDO, IAF Test Indigenous TARA Glide Weapon System Off Odisha Coast to Convert Unguided Warheads →
Q71.

According to the news, on which date was the maiden flight trial of the TARA weapon system conducted?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.May 6, 2026
  • B.May 7, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.May 8, 2026
  • D.May 9, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Tactical Advanced Range Augmentation (TARA) system was tested on Thursday (May 7, 2026). May 8 is the article's publication date, making it a close distractor.

Source: DRDO, IAF Test Indigenous TARA Glide Weapon System Off Odisha Coast to Convert Unguided Warheads →
Q72.

What is the primary strategic objective of developing the TARA glide weapon system as per the news article?

MediumUPSC, Defence Exams
  • A.To achieve air superiority in dogfights.
  • B.To convert unguided warheads into precision-guided weapons.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To serve as an intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM).
  • D.To provide point-defence against incoming aircraft.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core point is that TARA is developed "to convert unguided warheads into precision guided weapons" to enhance lethality and accuracy at low cost. The other options describe roles for different types of weapon systems not mentioned in the context of TARA.

Source: DRDO, IAF Test Indigenous TARA Glide Weapon System Off Odisha Coast to Convert Unguided Warheads →
Q73.

Which international organization issued the warning about AI-powered threats to the global financial system?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.World Bank
  • B.World Trade Organization (WTO)
  • C.International Monetary Fund (IMF)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Bank for International Settlements (BIS)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the warning was issued by the International Monetary Fund (IMF). The World Bank focuses on long-term development projects, the WTO on trade, and the BIS on central bank cooperation, making the IMF the correct answer.

Source: IMF Warns of AI-Powered Cyber Threats to Financial Stability, Calls for International Cooperation →
Q74.

Consider the following statements regarding the IMF's warning on AI-powered cyber threats:

1. AI tools can dramatically reduce the time and cost of exploiting vulnerabilities in the financial system.

2. The risks are systemic and can lead to contagion across markets due to interconnectedness.

3. Advanced economies are disproportionately more exposed to these AI-powered threats than emerging countries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article which states AI models 'dramatically reduce' exploitation time/cost. Statement 2 is correct as the article highlights systemic risks and contagion. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article specifically warns that emerging and developing countries, which often have weaker defenses, may be disproportionately exposed.

Source: IMF Warns of AI-Powered Cyber Threats to Financial Stability, Calls for International Cooperation →
Q75.

According to the IMF report discussed in the article, what type of cybersecurity vulnerability is considered particularly dangerous in the hands of hackers using AI?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Phishing vulnerabilities
  • B.Denial-of-service vulnerabilities
  • C.Zero-day vulnerabilities✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Malware injection vulnerabilities
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly states that 'zero-day' vulnerabilities are considered particularly dangerous when exploited by hackers using advanced AI models like Anthropic's "Mythos".

Source: IMF Warns of AI-Powered Cyber Threats to Financial Stability, Calls for International Cooperation →
Q76.

What is the primary implication highlighted by the IMF regarding defenses against AI-powered cyber threats?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.Defenses can be made completely impregnable with international cooperation.
  • B.Investment in AI for defensive purposes will outpace offensive uses.
  • C.Defenses will inevitably be breached, making resilience and recovery priorities.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The threat is overstated and primarily concerns only non-interconnected systems.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes the IMF report saying, "Defenses will inevitably be breached, so resilience must also be a priority, specifically to limit how far incidents spread and ensure rapid recovery." This is the core strategic implication, shifting focus from perfect prevention to managing breaches.

Source: IMF Warns of AI-Powered Cyber Threats to Financial Stability, Calls for International Cooperation →
Q77.

The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB), which publishes the 'Crime in India' report, functions under which Union Ministry?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
  • B.Ministry of Law and Justice
  • C.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) is an attached office of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). It is responsible for collecting and analyzing crime data to assist in policy formulation.

Source: NCRB Report 2024: 58.86 Lakh Cognizable Crimes, Cybercrime Rises 17.9%, Suicides at 1.7 Lakh →
Q78.

Consider the following statements regarding the findings of the NCRB's Crime in India 2024 report:

1. There was a 6% decline in the total number of cognizable crimes registered in 2024 compared to the previous year.

2. Cases registered under cybercrimes saw a decline of approximately 18% in 2024.

3. The Accidental Deaths & Suicides in India (ADSI) 2024 report recorded over 1.7 lakh suicide cases.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 3
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states a 6% decline in cognizable crimes. Statement 2 is incorrect because cybercrime cases increased by 17.9%, not declined. Statement 3 is correct as the ADSI report recorded 1,70,746 (over 1.7 lakh) suicides.

Source: NCRB Report 2024: 58.86 Lakh Cognizable Crimes, Cybercrime Rises 17.9%, Suicides at 1.7 Lakh →
Q79.

According to the NCRB's Accidental Deaths & Suicides in India (ADSI) 2024 report, what was the percentage increase in deaths due to drug overdose in 2024 compared to the previous year?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.25%
  • B.40%
  • C.50%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.75%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that deaths due to drug overdose saw a 50% increase in 2024 compared with the previous year. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Source: NCRB Report 2024: 58.86 Lakh Cognizable Crimes, Cybercrime Rises 17.9%, Suicides at 1.7 Lakh →
Q80.

What is the primary significance of the annual 'Crime in India' report published by the NCRB for governance and policy making?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It serves as an international ranking of India's safety and security.
  • B.It provides the official, aggregated data on crime trends essential for evidence-based policy and policing strategies.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It is mainly used to allocate funds to state governments based on crime rates.
  • D.Its primary purpose is to name and shame states with high crime rates.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The NCRB report is the authoritative source of national crime statistics. It helps identify trends (like the rise in cybercrime), assess the effectiveness of law enforcement, and formulate data-driven policies and resource allocation for internal security and crime prevention.

Source: NCRB Report 2024: 58.86 Lakh Cognizable Crimes, Cybercrime Rises 17.9%, Suicides at 1.7 Lakh →
Q81.

Under which Article of the Constitution is the administration of Union Territories like Jammu & Kashmir governed?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 239✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Article 240
  • C.Article 241
  • D.Article 242
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 239 of the Constitution deals with the administration of Union Territories. The notification mentioned in the article is issued 'in pursuance of clause (1) of article 239 of the Constitution'.

Source: J&K LG Authorized Under Telecommunications Act, 2023 Section 20(2) for Telecom Control in Public Emergency →
Q82.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent notification for Jammu & Kashmir:

1. The President directed the Lieutenant Governor to exercise powers under Sub-Section 20(2) of the Telecommunications Act, 2023.

2. These powers include the ability to block transmission and suspend telecom services only during a national emergency.

3. The notification was published in the gazette on May 7, 2026.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the powers can be invoked 'in the event of any public emergency or in the interest of public safety', not only during a 'national emergency'. Statement 3 is correct as the notification date is mentioned.

Source: J&K LG Authorized Under Telecommunications Act, 2023 Section 20(2) for Telecom Control in Public Emergency →
Q83.

According to the notification, which specific section of the Telecommunications Act, 2023 empowers the Lieutenant Governor of Jammu & Kashmir?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Section 10(2)
  • B.Section 15(1)
  • C.Section 20(2)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Section 25(3)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the President directed the LG to exercise powers under 'Sub-Section (2) of Section 20 of the Telecommunications Act, 2023 (44 of 2023)'.

Source: J&K LG Authorized Under Telecommunications Act, 2023 Section 20(2) for Telecom Control in Public Emergency →
Q84.

What is the primary objective of delegating Section 20(2) powers of the Telecommunications Act to the J&K Lieutenant Governor?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To boost telecom infrastructure investment in the UT
  • B.To streamline the licensing process for telecom operators
  • C.To enable swift telecom control during public safety events✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To transfer regulatory oversight from the Central Government to the UT permanently
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states these powers allow the LG to block, intercept, decrypt, and suspend telecom services 'in the event of any public emergency or in the interest of public safety'. The core objective is operational control during emergencies.

Source: J&K LG Authorized Under Telecommunications Act, 2023 Section 20(2) for Telecom Control in Public Emergency →
Q85.

Which ministry has been issued notice by the Supreme Court in the AAP plea regarding blocking of Meta accounts?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • B.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Law and Justice
  • D.Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the Supreme Court issued notice to the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). MeitY is the nodal ministry for the Information Technology Act, under which the blocking order was issued.

Source: SC Issues Notice to MeitY on AAP's Plea Against Geo-Blocking of Meta Handles Under IT Act Section 69A →
Q86.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court case on blocking of AAP's Meta accounts:

1. The petition challenges the action as a violation of the freedom of speech and expression under Article 19.

2. The blocking was done under Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000.

3. The petitioner argued that the action fails the test of proportionality as it blocked entire accounts instead of specific content.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the petition argues the blocking violates Article 19 protections. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article mentions Section 69A of the IT Act, not Section 66A (which was struck down). Statement 3 is correct as the petition claims the action is disproportionate by blocking whole accounts.

Source: SC Issues Notice to MeitY on AAP's Plea Against Geo-Blocking of Meta Handles Under IT Act Section 69A →
Q87.

The Aam Aadmi Party's petition, as mentioned in the news, specifically challenged the blocking of its social media accounts in which state?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Punjab
  • B.Delhi
  • C.Gujarat✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Goa
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the petition challenges the order to geo-block the Meta handles of the AAP's Gujarat unit. This is a factual detail directly from the content.

Source: SC Issues Notice to MeitY on AAP's Plea Against Geo-Blocking of Meta Handles Under IT Act Section 69A →
Q88.

What is the primary constitutional principle invoked by AAP in its petition against the blocking of its Meta accounts?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Right to Equality (Article 14)
  • B.Protection of Life and Personal Liberty (Article 21)
  • C.Freedom of Speech and Expression (Article 19)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes the petition stating that the platforms were used for 'political speech and democratic engagement, which fall squarely within the protection of Article 19 of the Constitution.' This is the core constitutional challenge.

Source: SC Issues Notice to MeitY on AAP's Plea Against Geo-Blocking of Meta Handles Under IT Act Section 69A →
Q89.

The Strait of Hormuz, a critical chokepoint mentioned in the news, connects which two water bodies?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden
  • B.The Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Mediterranean Sea and the Black Sea
  • D.The South China Sea and the Java Sea
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Strait of Hormuz is a narrow channel that connects the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea. This geographical fact is a key piece of static GK for mapping and international relations.

Source: Strait of Hormuz Blockade Halts 20% Global Oil Flow; Brent Crude Breaches $101, US Launches Operation Project Freedom →
Q90.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent US-Iran conflict in the Strait of Hormuz:

1. The conflict began on February 28, leading to a virtual halt in trade through the Strait.

2. In response, Iran established the 'Arabian Gulf Strait Authority' to formalize toll collection.

3. The US initiative 'Operation Project Freedom' to escort vessels was halted as Gulf partners like Saudi Arabia restricted access to bases.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the conflict began on February 28. Statement 2 is incorrect because Iran established the 'Persian Gulf Strait Authority', not the 'Arabian Gulf Strait Authority'. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions Saudi Arabia and Kuwait restricted access, halting the US operation.

Source: Strait of Hormuz Blockade Halts 20% Global Oil Flow; Brent Crude Breaches $101, US Launches Operation Project Freedom →
Q91.

According to the news, what was the price level breached by the global oil benchmark Brent Crude following the escalation in the Strait of Hormuz?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.$95 per barrel
  • B.$101 per barrel✓ Correct Answer
  • C.$110 per barrel
  • D.$125 per barrel
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "global oil benchmark Brent Crude breached $101 a barrel". The price of $125 per barrel was mentioned as a level breached earlier, not immediately after this specific incident.

Source: Strait of Hormuz Blockade Halts 20% Global Oil Flow; Brent Crude Breaches $101, US Launches Operation Project Freedom →
Q92.

What is the primary strategic significance of the Strait of Hormuz, as highlighted by the recent conflict?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It is a major route for global natural gas shipments.
  • B.It is a critical chokepoint for maritime trade between Europe and Asia.
  • C.It accounts for a significant share of global energy (oil) supplies.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It is the site of major underwater oil and gas reserves.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core point is that the strait "accounted for a fifth of global energy supplies." Its strategic importance derives from this role as a vital oil transit route, making it a geopolitical flashpoint. While it is also a trade route, its defining feature for energy security is the volume of oil transiting through it.

Source: Strait of Hormuz Blockade Halts 20% Global Oil Flow; Brent Crude Breaches $101, US Launches Operation Project Freedom →
Q93.

Which body is being asked to pass a resolution under Chapter VII to address the crisis in the Strait of Hormuz?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.United Nations General Assembly (UNGA)
  • B.United Nations Security Council (UNSC)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.International Court of Justice (ICJ)
  • D.International Maritime Organization (IMO)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the US has drafted a 'Security Council resolution'. The UNSC is the primary body responsible for maintaining international peace and security and is the only UN body that can authorize enforcement actions under Chapter VII of the UN Charter.

Source: US Seeks UN Chapter VII Resolution on Strait of Hormuz, Demands Iran Cease Attacks Within 30 Days →
Q94.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The Strait of Hormuz is a chokepoint through which roughly one-fifth of the world's oil and natural gas supplies pass during peacetime.

2. The draft UN Security Council resolution explicitly authorizes the use of military force against Iran.

3. Russia and China had vetoed an earlier Bahraini-backed resolution related to the Strait of Hormuz crisis.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's data. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the new draft 'avoids explicit language authorising force'. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions an earlier resolution was vetoed by Russia and China.

Source: US Seeks UN Chapter VII Resolution on Strait of Hormuz, Demands Iran Cease Attacks Within 30 Days →
Q95.

According to the draft UN resolution mentioned in the article, within how many days must the UN Secretary-General report back on Iran's compliance?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.15 days
  • B.30 days✓ Correct Answer
  • C.45 days
  • D.60 days
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'Under its terms, the UN Secretary-General would report back within 30 days on Iran’s compliance...'. The other options are common timeframes used as distractors in exam questions.

Source: US Seeks UN Chapter VII Resolution on Strait of Hormuz, Demands Iran Cease Attacks Within 30 Days →
Q96.

What is the primary strategic reason cited in the article for the US turning to the United Nations regarding the Strait of Hormuz crisis, despite its recent skepticism of the body?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To bypass the need for Congressional approval for military action.
  • B.To legitimize potential unilateral military action against Iran.
  • C.To pressure Iran through multilateral diplomacy and possible UN sanctions.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To transfer the financial burden of maritime security to the UN.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article frames the US action as seeking UN pressure on Iran to cease attacks, remove mines, and allow humanitarian relief. The draft resolution operates under Chapter VII, which can lead to sanctions. While military action is a potential outcome, the primary stated objective is multilateral diplomatic pressure.

Source: US Seeks UN Chapter VII Resolution on Strait of Hormuz, Demands Iran Cease Attacks Within 30 Days →
Q97.

As per the Indian Constitution, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to which body?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The President of India
  • B.The Legislative Assembly✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Governor of the State
  • D.The Supreme Court of India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 164(2) of the Constitution states that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the State. This principle of collective responsibility to the lower house is a cornerstone of the parliamentary system.

Source: Governor's Role in Hung Assembly: Sarkaria & Punchhi Commission Guidelines, SR Bommai Judgment & Floor Test Mandate →
Q98.

Consider the following statements regarding the Sarkaria Commission's recommendations for government formation in a hung assembly:

1. The first preference must go to a pre-poll alliance that commands a majority.

2. The second preference is for the single largest party, provided it can demonstrate a credible claim to majority support.

3. The Governor's personal satisfaction in assessing majority support can override the need for an immediate floor test.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct as per the Sarkaria Commission guidelines detailed in the article. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Supreme Court in SR Bommai held that the Governor's subjective satisfaction cannot replace the objective test of majority on the floor of the House.

Source: Governor's Role in Hung Assembly: Sarkaria & Punchhi Commission Guidelines, SR Bommai Judgment & Floor Test Mandate →
Q99.

In the hung assembly scenario discussed, what was the majority mark for the 234-member Tamil Nadu Assembly?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.108
  • B.113
  • C.118✓ Correct Answer
  • D.123
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the majority mark in the 234-member Assembly is 118 seats. TVK had 108 seats, and with Congress's 5 seats, their claim stood at 113, which was short of the majority mark.

Source: Governor's Role in Hung Assembly: Sarkaria & Punchhi Commission Guidelines, SR Bommai Judgment & Floor Test Mandate →
Q100.

What is the primary constitutional risk highlighted in the article when a Governor delays inviting a claimant to form government in a hung assembly?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It leads to automatic dissolution of the assembly by the President.
  • B.It shifts the power to appoint ministers from the Governor to the Supreme Court.
  • C.It creates space for horse-trading and undermines the democratic process.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It mandates the imposition of President's Rule under Article 356.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article argues that delay 'manufactures the very instability it claims to prevent' by shifting incentives and creating opportunities for inducements and tactical realignments outside the assembly, as seen in the Karnataka (2018) and Bihar (2005) precedents cited. This undermines the democratic forum of the House.

Source: Governor's Role in Hung Assembly: Sarkaria & Punchhi Commission Guidelines, SR Bommai Judgment & Floor Test Mandate →
Q101.

Under which section of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) did the Allahabad High Court remand the matter for fresh determination of maintenance?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Section 498A
  • B.Section 125✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Section 377
  • D.Section 302
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the matter was remanded for fresh determination under Section 125 of the CrPC. This section deals with maintenance of wives, children, and parents.

Source: Allahabad High Court Sets ₹15,000 Maintenance Aside, Rules Husband's Status Decides Alimony Under Section 125 CrPC →
Q102.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent Allahabad High Court judgment on maintenance:

1. The court held that a wife's entitlement to maintenance must be assessed primarily from her past earnings and educational qualifications.

2. The court found inconsistencies in the husband's financial disclosures regarding his share in an educational consultancy firm.

3. The court set aside a maintenance amount of ₹25,000 per month awarded by the family court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the court ruled the opposite—maintenance is based on the husband's status, not the wife's past earnings. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions inconsistencies in the husband's financial disclosures. Statement 3 is incorrect; the court set aside ₹15,000 per month, not ₹25,000.

Source: Allahabad High Court Sets ₹15,000 Maintenance Aside, Rules Husband's Status Decides Alimony Under Section 125 CrPC →
Q103.

What was the monthly maintenance amount set aside by the Allahabad High Court in the recent judgment?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹10,000
  • B.₹15,000✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹20,000
  • D.₹25,000
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'Setting aside the maintenance amount of Rs 15,000 per month by the family court...' The wife had sought ₹25,000, but the amount set aside was ₹15,000.

Source: Allahabad High Court Sets ₹15,000 Maintenance Aside, Rules Husband's Status Decides Alimony Under Section 125 CrPC →
Q104.

What is the primary legal significance of the Allahabad High Court's ruling as discussed in the article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It mandates that all maintenance cases must be decided within six months.
  • B.It establishes that a wife's educational degree automatically disqualifies her from claiming maintenance.
  • C.It clarifies that the husband's socio-economic status is the key determinant for maintenance, not the wife's potential to earn.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It introduces a new ceiling for maintenance amounts under Hindu personal law.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core ruling of the court, as per the article, is that 'entitlement to maintenance must be assessed in light of the social and economic status of the husband and not merely on the basis of the wife’s past earnings or educational qualifications.' This is its primary legal significance.

Source: Allahabad High Court Sets ₹15,000 Maintenance Aside, Rules Husband's Status Decides Alimony Under Section 125 CrPC →
Q105.

Which premier institute conducted the study on Uttarakhand's flood hazard maps mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Indian Institute of Technology, Roorkee
  • B.Malaviya National Institute of Technology, Jaipur✓ Correct Answer
  • C.National Institute of Hydrology
  • D.Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the study was led by researchers at the Malaviya National Institute of Technology, Jaipur (MNIT Jaipur). IIT Roorkee is also a premier institute in Uttarakhand but is not mentioned in this context.

Source: MNIT Jaipur Study: Uttarakhand Flood Hazard Maps Underestimate Risk by Using Average Rainfall, Not Extreme Downpours →
Q106.

Consider the following statements regarding the study on Uttarakhand's flood maps:

1. The study found that using long-term average rainfall data leads to an underestimation of flood hazard zones.

2. The researchers used only three primary factors: slope, elevation, and land use for their GIS-based hazard mapping.

3. The study period for tracking flood hazard zone intensification was from 2017 to 2021.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the core finding is that average rainfall data gives a false sense of safety. Statement 2 is incorrect; the six factors used were elevation, slope, drainage density, topographic wetness, land use, and rainfall. The primary ones were slope, elevation, and rainfall. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the study tracked zones from 2017-2021.

Source: MNIT Jaipur Study: Uttarakhand Flood Hazard Maps Underestimate Risk by Using Average Rainfall, Not Extreme Downpours →
Q107.

According to the MNIT Jaipur study cited in the article, what percentage of Uttarakhand's area fell within moderate or high flood-hazard categories across the examined years?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.More than 75%
  • B.More than 85%
  • C.More than 90%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.More than 95%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically states: "Across all the years examined, more than 90% of Uttarakhand fell within moderate or high-hazard categories." The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Source: MNIT Jaipur Study: Uttarakhand Flood Hazard Maps Underestimate Risk by Using Average Rainfall, Not Extreme Downpours →
Q108.

What is the primary methodological recommendation made by the study authors to improve the accuracy of Uttarakhand's flood hazard maps?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Increase the number of rainfall monitoring stations across the state.
  • B.Redraw maps using extreme rainfall scenarios instead of long-term averages.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Focus mapping efforts solely on urban and built-up areas.
  • D.Use satellite imagery exclusively instead of GIS technology.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's conclusion clearly states the authors recommend "flood maps be redrawn around extreme rainfall scenarios rather than long-term averages." The other options, while possibly beneficial, are not the core recommendation derived from the study's findings about the flaw in using average data.

Source: MNIT Jaipur Study: Uttarakhand Flood Hazard Maps Underestimate Risk by Using Average Rainfall, Not Extreme Downpours →
Q109.

As per the news, which ministry does Sujata Sharma, the Joint Secretary who provided the under-recovery figures, belong to?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  • D.Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Sujata Sharma is the Joint-Secretary at the Union Petroleum Ministry, which is formally known as the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. This ministry oversees the oil and gas sector, including OMCs.

Source: OMCs Incur ₹30,000 Cr Monthly Under-recovery on Petrol, Diesel, LPG as Brent Crude Hits $100.75 →
Q110.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The under-recovery for Oil Marketing Companies is solely due to the government's refusal to reduce excise duties.

2. The Strait of Hormuz is a critical maritime passage through which about 20% of global energy trade passes.

3. The Petroleum Planning and Analysis Cell (PPAC) data showed a year-on-year decline in diesel consumption in April.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the government HAS reduced excise duties, foregoing ₹14,000 crore revenue, but OMCs still face under-recoveries. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect; PPAC data showed a 0.25% rise (not decline) in diesel consumption in April compared to the previous year.

Source: OMCs Incur ₹30,000 Cr Monthly Under-recovery on Petrol, Diesel, LPG as Brent Crude Hits $100.75 →
Q111.

According to the article, what is the approximate monthly financial impact (under-recovery) on Oil Marketing Companies from the sale of petrol, diesel, and LPG combined?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.₹14,000 crore
  • B.₹20,000 crore
  • C.₹30,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • D.₹44,000 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Joint Secretary at the Petroleum Ministry clearly stated that the under-recovery for petrol, diesel, and LPG combined is about ₹30,000 crore per month. ₹14,000 crore is the government's monthly revenue loss from excise duty cuts, and ₹44,000 crore is the combined total of both figures.

Source: OMCs Incur ₹30,000 Cr Monthly Under-recovery on Petrol, Diesel, LPG as Brent Crude Hits $100.75 →
Q112.

What is the primary reason cited in the article for the government and OMCs absorbing losses instead of raising retail fuel prices?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase the profit margins of private refiners
  • B.To protect consumers from inflationary pressures✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To comply with directives from the World Trade Organization
  • D.To reduce India's dependence on crude oil imports
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The official, Sujata Sharma, explicitly stated that OMCs are not selling at corresponding higher rates 'to protect our consumers'. This is a direct measure to shield the public from the immediate inflationary impact of high global crude prices, which is a key policy objective.

Source: OMCs Incur ₹30,000 Cr Monthly Under-recovery on Petrol, Diesel, LPG as Brent Crude Hits $100.75 →
Q113.

Which national-level board of education is implementing the two-tier Science and Mathematics system discussed in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
  • B.Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.University Grants Commission (UGC)
  • D.All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly discusses reforms by the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE). NCERT is a research body, UGC regulates universities, and AICTE regulates technical education.

Source: CBSE Introduces Two-Tier Science & Mathematics (Standard/Advanced) from 2026-27 to Shift from 'One Size Fits All' Approach →
Q114.

Consider the following statements regarding the CBSE's two-level system:

1. The Standard level for Science and Mathematics will be optional for students from Grade IX.

2. The CBSE admitted that its 'one size fits all' approach followed since 1963 was erroneous.

3. According to a word analysis, the term 'Learning' appears more frequently than 'Assessment' in the new curriculum document.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Standard level is compulsory for all, while Advanced is optional. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect: 'Assessment' (171 times) appears more than 'Learning' (154 times).

Source: CBSE Introduces Two-Tier Science & Mathematics (Standard/Advanced) from 2026-27 to Shift from 'One Size Fits All' Approach →
Q115.

From which academic year is the CBSE's two-tier Science and Mathematics system scheduled for implementation?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2024-25
  • B.2025-26
  • C.2026-27✓ Correct Answer
  • D.2027-28
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that CBSE's new curriculum will be implemented 'from 2026-27 onwards'. The other options are plausible distractors for future policy timelines.

Source: CBSE Introduces Two-Tier Science & Mathematics (Standard/Advanced) from 2026-27 to Shift from 'One Size Fits All' Approach →
Q116.

What is identified as a major social challenge that could undermine the intended benefits of the CBSE's two-level choice system?

MediumUPSC, Teaching
  • A.Lack of qualified teachers for the Advanced level.
  • B.High cost of textbooks for the new curriculum.
  • C.Psycho-social meritocracy treating the choice as a status marker.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Technological infrastructure gap in rural schools.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article details that deep-rooted social hierarchy may lead families to view the 'Standard' option as a demotion and the 'Advanced' option as a ticket to elite institutes, converting subject anxiety into status anxiety. Other options, while potential issues, are not the primary social challenge highlighted.

Source: CBSE Introduces Two-Tier Science & Mathematics (Standard/Advanced) from 2026-27 to Shift from 'One Size Fits All' Approach →
Q117.

Under which article of the Constitution did the Supreme Court base its ruling on the violation of personal liberty in the 'mechanical extension' case?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 14
  • B.Article 19
  • C.Article 21✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Article 32
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Supreme Court held that the mechanical extension of custody without hearing the accused was 'violative of the fundamental right of liberty of the appellant as guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution of India,' as stated in the article.

Source: SC Grants Default Bail Under UAPA, Rules 90-Day Custody Extension Illegal Without Hearing Accused →
Q118.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court judgment on UAPA custody extensions:

1. The Court held that the accused must be informed and heard before any extension of the investigation period is granted.

2. The judgment stated that the right to default bail under CrPC Section 167(2) is a discretionary right of the court.

3. The bench relied on its earlier ruling in the case of Jigar vs State of Gujarat (2023) to reinforce the procedural safeguard.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the SC criticized the 'mechanical' order passed without informing the accused. Statement 2 is incorrect; the right to default bail is described as an 'indefeasible right,' not a discretionary one. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the Court 'reiterated' the precedent from Jigar vs State of Gujarat (2023).

Source: SC Grants Default Bail Under UAPA, Rules 90-Day Custody Extension Illegal Without Hearing Accused →
Q119.

What is the statutory period, in days, for filing a chargesheet in cases under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), as referenced in the Supreme Court judgment?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.60 days
  • B.90 days✓ Correct Answer
  • C.120 days
  • D.180 days
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the Supreme Court held extensions illegal 'beyond the statutory 90-day period' for filing the chargesheet under UAPA. The other options are standard periods for other categories of offences under CrPC.

Source: SC Grants Default Bail Under UAPA, Rules 90-Day Custody Extension Illegal Without Hearing Accused →
Q120.

What is the primary legal consequence established by the Supreme Court if an extension of custody under UAPA is granted without hearing the accused?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.The chargesheet filed thereafter becomes inadmissible as evidence.
  • B.The accused automatically gets acquitted from all charges.
  • C.The extension order is illegal, and the accused's right to default bail crystallizes.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The investigating officer is held in contempt of court.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Supreme Court's core ruling was that the 'mechanical' extension order itself was 'grossly illegal,' making subsequent custody unlawful. Since the accused had applied for default bail before the chargesheet was filed, his right to statutory bail had 'crystallised,' leading to his release.

Source: SC Grants Default Bail Under UAPA, Rules 90-Day Custody Extension Illegal Without Hearing Accused →
Q121.

Which ministry is the nodal ministry for the policy oversight of Oil Marketing Companies like Indian Oil, BPCL, and HPCL, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  • D.Ministry of Power
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions a senior official from the Petroleum Ministry discussing the under-recoveries of OMCs. The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas is the nodal ministry responsible for exploration, production, refining, and marketing of petroleum products in India.

Source: OMCs Incur ₹30,000 Cr Monthly Under-Recovery on Fuel Price Freeze; Petrol & Diesel Prices Unchanged for Over 4 Years →
Q122.

Consider the following statements regarding the news about fuel under-recoveries:

1. The combined monthly under-recovery for Indian Oil, BPCL, and HPCL is estimated at about ₹30,000 crore on the sale of petrol, diesel, and LPG.

2. The government has announced a plan to fully compensate the OMCs for their losses on the sale of petrol and diesel below market prices.

3. The closure of the Strait of Hormuz, a chokepoint for one-fifth of global oil and gas flows, is a key factor behind the surge in global energy prices.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clearly states the government has no plan at present to compensate OMCs for losses on petrol and diesel. Statement 3 is correct, as the article mentions the Strait of Hormuz closure impacted global supplies.

Source: OMCs Incur ₹30,000 Cr Monthly Under-Recovery on Fuel Price Freeze; Petrol & Diesel Prices Unchanged for Over 4 Years →
Q123.

According to the article, what was the approximate under-recovery per litre on petrol and diesel in April, as per industry sources?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Petrol: ₹15, Diesel: ₹20
  • B.Petrol: ₹18, Diesel: ₹25✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Petrol: ₹20, Diesel: ₹28
  • D.Petrol: ₹22, Diesel: ₹30
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states, "According to industry sources, the OMCs’ under-recoveries in April stood at about Rs 18 per litre on petrol and Rs 25 per litre on diesel." The other options are close distractors.

Source: OMCs Incur ₹30,000 Cr Monthly Under-Recovery on Fuel Price Freeze; Petrol & Diesel Prices Unchanged for Over 4 Years →
Q124.

What is the primary reason cited in the article for the government and OMCs maintaining a freeze on retail fuel prices despite rising global costs?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase the profitability of public sector oil companies
  • B.To protect the domestic consumer from price volatility and inflationary pressure✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To comply with directives from international energy agencies
  • D.To reduce India's dependence on crude oil imports
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the price freeze is "to protect the domestic consumer from this volatility" arising from the West Asia crisis. While other options might be desirable outcomes, the immediate and stated objective, as per the article, is consumer protection against inflation.

Source: OMCs Incur ₹30,000 Cr Monthly Under-Recovery on Fuel Price Freeze; Petrol & Diesel Prices Unchanged for Over 4 Years →
Q125.

Which entity was responsible for circulating the model scheme for compassionate appointment in public sector banks as per a 2014 government order?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
  • B.Indian Bankers' Association✓ Correct Answer
  • C.National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
  • D.Banking Codes and Standards Board of India (BCSBI)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Ministry of Finance, via an order dated August 7, 2014, approved a scheme and called upon the Indian Bankers' Association to circulate it to all public sector banks. RBI is the regulator, NABARD focuses on rural credit, and BCSBI deals with customer service codes.

Source: Chhattisgarh HC Dismisses Married Daughters' Compassionate Appointment Plea, Upholds 2023 Bank Policy as 'Privilege, Not Right' →
Q126.

Consider the following statements regarding the Chhattisgarh High Court judgment on compassionate appointment:

1. The court ruled that compassionate appointment is a fundamental right of dependent family members.

2. The judgment was based on the Chhattisgarh Rajya Gramin Bank's 2023 policy which excludes 'married daughters' from the definition of dependent family members.

3. The court cited Supreme Court precedents which state that compassionate appointment cannot be granted in the absence of a governing policy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The court explicitly stated that compassionate appointment is a 'privilege, not a right'. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is correct, as the judgment references Supreme Court cases like Bhawani Prasad Sonkar v Union of India which held that appointment cannot be made without a policy.

Source: Chhattisgarh HC Dismisses Married Daughters' Compassionate Appointment Plea, Upholds 2023 Bank Policy as 'Privilege, Not Right' →
Q127.

As per the Chhattisgarh High Court judgment, within how many years prior to the adoption of a compassionate appointment scheme can the death of an employee occur for the scheme to be applied retrospectively?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.3 years
  • B.5 years✓ Correct Answer
  • C.7 years
  • D.10 years
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions that the bank's 2023 policy was amended to apply retrospectively to deaths occurring within five years prior to the policy's adoption. This was also referenced in the Central Government's letter dated September 14, 2023.

Source: Chhattisgarh HC Dismisses Married Daughters' Compassionate Appointment Plea, Upholds 2023 Bank Policy as 'Privilege, Not Right' →
Q128.

What is the primary legal rationale, as reiterated by the Chhattisgarh High Court, for allowing compassionate appointments?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To reward the family of a deceased employee for their service.
  • B.To provide hereditary rights to government jobs.
  • C.To relieve the family from sudden financial distress caused by the death of the breadwinner.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To ensure representation of the deceased employee's community in government service.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court's order, as quoted in the article, states that compassionate appointment is 'a narrowly drawn exception... justified only by the need to relieve a family from sudden financial distress caused by the death in harness of its breadwinner.' It is not a reward, a hereditary right, or a tool for community representation.

Source: Chhattisgarh HC Dismisses Married Daughters' Compassionate Appointment Plea, Upholds 2023 Bank Policy as 'Privilege, Not Right' →
Q129.

Which strategic waterway is the focus of the US 'Project Freedom' operation mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Strait of Malacca
  • B.Strait of Hormuz✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Suez Canal
  • D.Panama Canal
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'Project Freedom' aims to reopen movement across the Strait of Hormuz. This strait is a critical chokepoint for global oil shipments located between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman.

Source: US to Restart 'Project Freedom' in Strait of Hormuz After Saudi Arabia, Kuwait Grant Airbase Access →
Q130.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. 'Project Freedom' is a US operation to guide commercial ships through the Strait of Hormuz with naval and air support.

2. Saudi Arabia and Kuwait had imposed restrictions on US military use of their airbases due to the US downplaying Iranian attacks.

3. The pause in 'Project Freedom' was based solely on a request from Pakistan.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions restrictions were imposed after US officials downplayed Iranian attacks. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states the pause was based on Pakistan's request 'and other countries', and also due to progress in talks with Iran.

Source: US to Restart 'Project Freedom' in Strait of Hormuz After Saudi Arabia, Kuwait Grant Airbase Access →
Q131.

According to the article, for how long was 'Project Freedom' paused before the planned restart?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.24 hours
  • B.36 hours✓ Correct Answer
  • C.48 hours
  • D.72 hours
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that the Trump administration is looking to restart the operation 'after a 36-hour pause this week'. The other options are close distractors not mentioned in the text.

Source: US to Restart 'Project Freedom' in Strait of Hormuz After Saudi Arabia, Kuwait Grant Airbase Access →
Q132.

What is the primary strategic objective of the US 'Project Freedom' operation as described in the news?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To establish a permanent US military base in the Persian Gulf
  • B.To reopen the Strait of Hormuz for commercial shipping and ensure freedom of navigation✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To launch a direct military offensive against Iranian forces
  • D.To mediate a peace treaty between Iran and Saudi Arabia
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core theme is that 'Project Freedom' aims 'to reopen movement across the Strait of Hormuz' and guide commercial vessels. It involves creating a protected corridor, not establishing a base, launching an offensive, or mediating peace, which are actions not described in the text.

Source: US to Restart 'Project Freedom' in Strait of Hormuz After Saudi Arabia, Kuwait Grant Airbase Access →
Q133.

Under which ministry does the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) function?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
  • C.Ministry of Law and Justice
  • D.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the NCRB was established in 1986 and functions under the Union Home Ministry. It is responsible for compiling crime data, which is a function aligned with internal security and law enforcement.

Source: NCRB 2024 Report Shows 6% Dip in Crime Rate to 418.9 Cases/Lakh, Cyber Crimes Jump 17.9% →
Q134.

Consider the following statements regarding the NCRB 2024 data:

1. The overall crime rate in India increased from 448.3 cases per lakh population in 2023 to 418.9 in 2024.

2. Cases of crimes against Scheduled Tribes showed a sharper decline compared to crimes against Scheduled Castes.

3. Telangana recorded the highest crime rate against women in the country in 2024.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the crime rate decreased from 448.3 to 418.9. Statement 2 is correct: ST crimes declined by 23.1% (sharp), while SC crimes fell only 3.6%. Statement 3 is correct: Telangana reported a crime rate of 128.6 per lakh, the highest.

Source: NCRB 2024 Report Shows 6% Dip in Crime Rate to 418.9 Cases/Lakh, Cyber Crimes Jump 17.9% →
Q135.

According to the NCRB 2024 report, how many cases of cyber crimes were registered in 2024?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.86,420
  • B.1,01,928✓ Correct Answer
  • C.2,14,379
  • D.58.85 lakh
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 1,01,928 cases were registered under cyber crimes in 2024, showing an increase of 17.9% from 86,420 cases in 2023. Option A is the 2023 figure, C is economic offences, and D is total overall cases.

Source: NCRB 2024 Report Shows 6% Dip in Crime Rate to 418.9 Cases/Lakh, Cyber Crimes Jump 17.9% →
Q136.

What is the primary utility of the NCRB's annual 'Crime in India' report, as highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To provide live updates on ongoing criminal investigations.
  • B.To compile crime data that informs policymaking and law enforcement priorities.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To act as a judicial repository for court case records.
  • D.To publish weekly crime statistics for media consumption.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the annual report provides crucial data on various crimes that informs policymaking and law enforcement priorities. It is a compilation of annual data, not live updates or judicial records.

Source: NCRB 2024 Report Shows 6% Dip in Crime Rate to 418.9 Cases/Lakh, Cyber Crimes Jump 17.9% →
Q137.

According to the expert analysis, which university does Professor Biswanath Chakraborty belong to?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.University of Calcutta
  • B.Jadavpur University
  • C.Rabindra Bharati University, Kolkata✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Presidency University
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions Biswanath Chakraborty as a professor of political science at Rabindra Bharati University, Kolkata. This is a direct factual extraction from the news content.

Source: Political Violence in West Bengal: Structural Evolution from 1950s Left Rule to TMC's Economic Control and 100+ Deaths in 2023 Panchayat Polls →
Q138.

Consider the following statements regarding political violence in West Bengal as per the expert analysis:

1. It started as ideological violence during the early Left period but turned into an economic tool under TMC rule.

2. Unlike other states, it primarily originates from caste and religious identity conflicts, with politics being a secondary factor.

3. A key manifestation includes the use of 'kangaroo courts' by political parties to settle local disputes and extract money.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article details the evolution from ideological to economic violence. Statement 2 is incorrect; the expert states the opposite - in Bengal, violence starts from political rivalry, unlike other states where caste/identity comes first. Statement 3 is correct as kangaroo courts are mentioned as a form of manifestation. Hence, option C is correct.

Source: Political Violence in West Bengal: Structural Evolution from 1950s Left Rule to TMC's Economic Control and 100+ Deaths in 2023 Panchayat Polls →
Q139.

According to the article, how many people died in political violence during the 2023 panchayat elections in West Bengal?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.More than 50 people
  • B.More than 100 people✓ Correct Answer
  • C.More than 150 people
  • D.More than 200 people
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically states: 'In the 2023 panchayat election, more than 100 people died...'. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Source: Political Violence in West Bengal: Structural Evolution from 1950s Left Rule to TMC's Economic Control and 100+ Deaths in 2023 Panchayat Polls →
Q140.

What does the expert identify as the PRIMARY reason for the persistence of political violence in West Bengal, according to the analysis?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Lack of stringent laws against political parties.
  • B.High levels of unemployment and poverty in the state.
  • C.Politicization of the administration and absence of the rule of law.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Historical legacy of the Naxalite movement in the region.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The expert's core argument is that the administration has become highly politicized, eroding the separation between politics and governance, and the rule of law is absent. While unemployment is mentioned as a contributing factor, the primary structural reason identified is the politicized administration and weak rule of law.

Source: Political Violence in West Bengal: Structural Evolution from 1950s Left Rule to TMC's Economic Control and 100+ Deaths in 2023 Panchayat Polls →
Q141.

In the context of India-Pakistan relations, what is the primary function of the DGMO hotline?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.To coordinate joint military exercises
  • B.To prevent escalation and manage border crises✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To negotiate trade agreements
  • D.To facilitate cultural exchanges
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The DGMO hotline is a dedicated military communication channel between India and Pakistan, established primarily for crisis management, preventing misunderstandings, and de-escalating tensions along the border, as mentioned in the article regarding its weekly use.

Source: India-Pakistan 'Track-II' Talks in Qatar; NSA Doval's Office Informed Amid Post-Operation Sindoor Crisis Management Imperative →
Q142.

Consider the following statements regarding the news on India-Pakistan engagements:

1. The recent unofficial meetings involved former Army generals and retired diplomats.

2. The National Security Council Secretariat has been made aware of Pakistan's willingness for communication.

3. The DGMO hotline between India and Pakistan is operational on a daily basis.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly mentions meetings of ex-Army generals and retired diplomats. Statement 2 is correct as the NSCS was made aware of Pakistan's 'willingness'. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article states the DGMOs speak once a week, usually on Tuesdays, not daily.

Source: India-Pakistan 'Track-II' Talks in Qatar; NSA Doval's Office Informed Amid Post-Operation Sindoor Crisis Management Imperative →
Q143.

According to the article, how many unofficial meetings have former Indian and Pakistani officials held in the last three months?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.One
  • B.Two✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Three
  • D.Four
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's headline and content clearly state that there have been 'two meetings in the last 3 months' involving former Army generals and retired diplomats from both countries, held in Qatar and another Asian capital.

Source: India-Pakistan 'Track-II' Talks in Qatar; NSA Doval's Office Informed Amid Post-Operation Sindoor Crisis Management Imperative →
Q144.

What is identified as a key strategic reason for India's current rethink on engagement with Pakistan, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To jointly combat climate change in South Asia
  • B.To secure Pakistan's support for a UN Security Council seat
  • C.To manage escalation risks in case of another terror attack✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To form a military alliance against a common third-country threat
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article emphasizes that a key reason for considering back-channel communication is the 'imperative to "manage" escalation in case of another attack,' highlighting the need for a crisis-management mechanism in the absence of other established protocols.

Source: India-Pakistan 'Track-II' Talks in Qatar; NSA Doval's Office Informed Amid Post-Operation Sindoor Crisis Management Imperative →
Q145.

The Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, which deals with disqualification on grounds of defection, was added by which Constitutional Amendment Act?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.42nd Amendment Act, 1976
  • B.52nd Amendment Act, 1985✓ Correct Answer
  • C.61st Amendment Act, 1988
  • D.73rd Amendment Act, 1992
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Tenth Schedule was inserted into the Constitution by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 to curb the evil of political defections. The other amendments introduced different changes: the 42nd is known for its wide-ranging changes, the 61st lowered the voting age, and the 73rd pertained to Panchayati Raj.

Source: SC Reaffirms Legal Fiction Limits in Bengal Immunity (1955) Case, Applies to Tenth Schedule Party Mergers →
Q146.

Consider the following statements regarding legal fictions and the Tenth Schedule:

1. The Supreme Court in the 'Bengal Immunity' case (1955) held that a legal fiction must be limited to its definite purpose.

2. Paragraph 4(2) of the Tenth Schedule states that a merger of a political party is deemed to have taken place solely when two-thirds of its legislators agree to it.

3. The Supreme Court, in 'Rajendra Singh Rana vs Swami Prasad Maurya' (2007), ruled that the Speaker has independent power under the Tenth Schedule to recognize a split or merger.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because Paragraph 4(2) deems a merger to have taken place 'if, and only if' the two-thirds threshold is met, but this verifies a merger that has substantively happened at the party level; it is not the sole condition. Statement 3 is incorrect as the 2007 Constitution Bench held that the Speaker has no independent power to recognize a split or merger.

Source: SC Reaffirms Legal Fiction Limits in Bengal Immunity (1955) Case, Applies to Tenth Schedule Party Mergers →
Q147.

In which year did the Supreme Court deliver the landmark judgment in 'Bengal Immunity Co. Ltd. vs State of Bihar', which is the leading authority on legal fictions in Indian constitutional law?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.1947
  • B.1950
  • C.1955✓ Correct Answer
  • D.1973
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the case 'Bengal Immunity Co. Ltd. vs State of Bihar' was decided in 1955 by a seven-judge Constitution Bench. 1950 is the year of the Constitution's adoption, 1973 is known for the Kesavananda Bharati case, and 1947 is the year of independence.

Source: SC Reaffirms Legal Fiction Limits in Bengal Immunity (1955) Case, Applies to Tenth Schedule Party Mergers →
Q148.

According to the article, what is the primary danger when a deeming clause, like the one in Paragraph 4(2) of the Tenth Schedule, is read as 'constitutive' rather than as a legal fiction?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It leads to excessive judicial activism in economic matters.
  • B.It grants a faction of legislators the power to declare a merger unauthorized by the parent party.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It invalidates all previous mergers recognized by the Election Commission.
  • D.It automatically triggers the dissolution of the legislative assembly.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that reading the deeming clause as constitutive transforms it from a verifying fiction into a substantive grant of power. This empowers a legislative faction to effect a merger that the original political party has not authorized, which is the danger highlighted by legal scholars like Lon Fuller and addressed in the Bengal Immunity case.

Source: SC Reaffirms Legal Fiction Limits in Bengal Immunity (1955) Case, Applies to Tenth Schedule Party Mergers →

Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?

For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.

  • Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
  • Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
  • Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.

Frequently Asked Questions

What are the important current affairs questions for 8 May 2026?▼

This page contains 148 current affairs questions from 8 May 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.

How to use 8 May 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼

Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.

How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼

Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.

Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼

Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.

What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼

Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.

All Questions in This Set

  1. Q1. is the head of the Department of Defence under the Ministry of…
  2. Q2. Consider the following statements regarding India's defence mo…
  3. Q3. was the approximate value of the emergency procurement contrac…
  4. Q4. is the primary strategic objective behind the Indian Army's re…
  5. Q5. Under which Article of the Constitution is the Election Commis…
  6. Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the appointment of…
  7. Q7. As per the article, which non-governmental organization (NGO) …
  8. Q8. was the primary reason cited in the article for challenging th…
  9. Q9. The Aviation Industry Corporation of China (AVIC), mentioned i…
  10. Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. Chin…
  11. Q11. According to the news, during which month and year did the fou…
  12. Q12. is a primary strategic implication of China's confirmed techni…
  13. Q13. international organization acted as the facilitator and is the…
  14. Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the Indus Waters T…
  15. Q15. According to the article, what percentage of Pakistan's irriga…
  16. Q16. is India's stated primary condition for ending the suspension …
  17. Q17. Under which Article of the Constitution does the Governor of a…
  18. Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  19. Q19. According to the article, how many seats did the Trinamool Con…
  20. Q20. is the primary constitutional significance of the Governor dis…
  21. Q21. law in India primarily provides the conditional legal framewor…
  22. Q22. Consider the following statements regarding abortion laws in I…
  23. Q23. is the general outer gestational limit for termination of preg…
  24. Q24. According to the experts in the article, what is a primary rea…
  25. Q25. Under which Union Ministry is the office of the Registrar Gene…
  26. Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the recently launc…
  27. Q27. According to the news, what is the total number of personnel d…
  28. Q28. is the stated primary objective of conducting the census, as h…
  29. Q29. part of the Indian Constitution contains provisions regarding …
  30. Q30. Consider the following statements regarding legal fictions in …
  31. Q31. In which year did the Supreme Court deliver the landmark judgm…
  32. Q32. According to the article, what is the primary danger when a de…
  33. Q33. state department is primarily responsible for managing human-w…
  34. Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the human-animal c…
  35. Q35. According to the article, how many people lost their lives due…
  36. Q36. is the primary objective of the proposed 'Aane Dhama' (Elephan…
  37. Q37. The Resistance Front (TRF) was designated as a Foreign Terrori…
  38. Q38. Consider the following statements regarding Operation Sindoor …
  39. Q39. According to the article, how many all-party delegations did I…
  40. Q40. was a primary lesson for India from the diplomatic fallout fol…
  41. Q41. constitutional article governs the appointment of the Chief Mi…
  42. Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the recent controv…
  43. Q43. According to the news, what was the total strength of the Tami…
  44. Q44. is the primary constitutional principle underscored by the Sup…
  45. Q45. constitutional article was primarily invoked by the Rajasthan …
  46. Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the Rajasthan High…
  47. Q47. Under which sections of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita…
  48. Q48. is the primary philosophical analogy used by the Rajasthan Hig…
  49. Q49. In which state did the Tadmetla (Chintalnar) Maoist ambush, wh…
  50. Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the Chhattisgarh H…
  51. Q51. many security personnel were killed in the 2010 Tadmetla Maois…
  52. Q52. was the primary legal principle invoked by the Chhattisgarh Hi…
  53. Q53. The author of the article on Operation Sindoor was previously …
  54. Q54. Consider the following statements regarding Operation Sindoor …
  55. Q55. According to the article, on which date was Operation Sindoor …
  56. Q56. is the proposed strategic shift for a potential 'Sindoor 2.0',…
  57. Q57. branch of the Indian Armed Forces conducted Operation Sindoor?
  58. Q58. Consider the following statements regarding Operation Sindoor:…
  59. Q59. many key terror targets did the Indian Air Force strike in Pak…
  60. Q60. According to the article, what is a primary critique of India'…
  61. Q61. industry body has raised concerns against Delhi's proposed EV …
  62. Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the opposition to …
  63. Q63. According to the article, what percentage of India's electrici…
  64. Q64. is a primary concern raised by industry stakeholders regarding…
  65. Q65. According to the news, which vaccine is being used in Gujarat'…
  66. Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the HPV vaccinatio…
  67. Q67. was the total number of eligible teenage girls identified for …
  68. Q68. is the primary public health objective of vaccinating 14-year-…
  69. Q69. The TARA weapon system was primarily designed and developed by…
  70. Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the TARA weapon sy…
  71. Q71. According to the news, on which date was the maiden flight tri…
  72. Q72. is the primary strategic objective of developing the TARA glid…
  73. Q73. international organization issued the warning about AI-powered…
  74. Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the IMF's warning …
  75. Q75. According to the IMF report discussed in the article, what typ…
  76. Q76. is the primary implication highlighted by the IMF regarding de…
  77. Q77. The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB), which publishes the …
  78. Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the findings of th…
  79. Q79. According to the NCRB's Accidental Deaths & Suicides in India …
  80. Q80. is the primary significance of the annual 'Crime in India' rep…
  81. Q81. Under which Article of the Constitution is the administration …
  82. Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the recent notific…
  83. Q83. According to the notification, which specific section of the T…
  84. Q84. is the primary objective of delegating Section 20(2) powers of…
  85. Q85. ministry has been issued notice by the Supreme Court in the AA…
  86. Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
  87. Q87. The Aam Aadmi Party's petition, as mentioned in the news, spec…
  88. Q88. is the primary constitutional principle invoked by AAP in its …
  89. Q89. The Strait of Hormuz, a critical chokepoint mentioned in the n…
  90. Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the recent US-Iran…
  91. Q91. According to the news, what was the price level breached by th…
  92. Q92. is the primary strategic significance of the Strait of Hormuz,…
  93. Q93. body is being asked to pass a resolution under Chapter VII to …
  94. Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  95. Q95. According to the draft UN resolution mentioned in the article,…
  96. Q96. is the primary strategic reason cited in the article for the U…
  97. Q97. As per the Indian Constitution, the Council of Ministers is co…
  98. Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the Sarkaria Commi…
  99. Q99. In the hung assembly scenario discussed, what was the majority…
  100. Q100. is the primary constitutional risk highlighted in the article …
  101. Q101. Under which section of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) did …
  102. Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Allahab…
  103. Q103. was the monthly maintenance amount set aside by the Allahabad …
  104. Q104. is the primary legal significance of the Allahabad High Court'…
  105. Q105. premier institute conducted the study on Uttarakhand's flood h…
  106. Q106. Consider the following statements regarding the study on Uttar…
  107. Q107. According to the MNIT Jaipur study cited in the article, what …
  108. Q108. is the primary methodological recommendation made by the study…
  109. Q109. As per the news, which ministry does Sujata Sharma, the Joint …
  110. Q110. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  111. Q111. According to the article, what is the approximate monthly fina…
  112. Q112. is the primary reason cited in the article for the government …
  113. Q113. national-level board of education is implementing the two-tier…
  114. Q114. Consider the following statements regarding the CBSE's two-lev…
  115. Q115. From which academic year is the CBSE's two-tier Science and Ma…
  116. Q116. is identified as a major social challenge that could undermine…
  117. Q117. Under which article of the Constitution did the Supreme Court …
  118. Q118. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
  119. Q119. is the statutory period, in days, for filing a chargesheet in …
  120. Q120. is the primary legal consequence established by the Supreme Co…
  121. Q121. ministry is the nodal ministry for the policy oversight of Oil…
  122. Q122. Consider the following statements regarding the news about fue…
  123. Q123. According to the article, what was the approximate under-recov…
  124. Q124. is the primary reason cited in the article for the government …
  125. Q125. entity was responsible for circulating the model scheme for co…
  126. Q126. Consider the following statements regarding the Chhattisgarh H…
  127. Q127. As per the Chhattisgarh High Court judgment, within how many y…
  128. Q128. is the primary legal rationale, as reiterated by the Chhattisg…
  129. Q129. strategic waterway is the focus of the US 'Project Freedom' op…
  130. Q130. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. 'Pro…
  131. Q131. According to the article, for how long was 'Project Freedom' p…
  132. Q132. is the primary strategic objective of the US 'Project Freedom'…
  133. Q133. Under which ministry does the National Crime Records Bureau (N…
  134. Q134. Consider the following statements regarding the NCRB 2024 data…
  135. Q135. According to the NCRB 2024 report, how many cases of cyber cri…
  136. Q136. is the primary utility of the NCRB's annual 'Crime in India' r…
  137. Q137. According to the expert analysis, which university does Profes…
  138. Q138. Consider the following statements regarding political violence…
  139. Q139. According to the article, how many people died in political vi…
  140. Q140. does the expert identify as the PRIMARY reason for the persist…
  141. Q141. In the context of India-Pakistan relations, what is the primar…
  142. Q142. Consider the following statements regarding the news on India-…
  143. Q143. According to the article, how many unofficial meetings have fo…
  144. Q144. is identified as a key strategic reason for India's current re…
  145. Q145. The Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, which deals wit…
  146. Q146. Consider the following statements regarding legal fictions and…
  147. Q147. In which year did the Supreme Court deliver the landmark judgm…
  148. Q148. According to the article, what is the primary danger when a de…