7 May 2026, Questions & Answers

116 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.

116 questions  ·  0 topics covered  ·  24 min revision

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This page contains 116 current affairs questions with answers from 7 May 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.

These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.

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7 May 2026, Questions with Answers

116 Qs
Q1.

The article mentions the National Investigation Agency (NIA) in the context of monitoring terror financing. Under which ministry does the NIA primarily function?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Ministry of Defence
  • C.Ministry of External Affairs
  • D.Ministry of Finance
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The National Investigation Agency (NIA) is the central counter-terrorism law enforcement agency in India. It was created after the 2008 Mumbai attacks and functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).

Source: Operation Sindoor 2026: India's Calibrated Multi-Domain Military Doctrine Under Nuclear Overhang →
Q2.

Consider the following statements regarding the strategic lessons from Operation Sindoor:

1. It demonstrated India's ability to conduct large-scale conventional warfare as a primary response to provocation.

2. It highlighted the effective integration of cyber capabilities and electronic warfare with traditional military operations.

3. It underscored the diminishing credibility of nuclear threats when they are invoked repeatedly without corresponding action.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article explicitly states Operation Sindoor was notable for India choosing NOT to be drawn into a wider conventional conflict, opting for calibrated force instead. Statement 2 is correct as the article details the integration of cyber, electronic warfare, and precision systems. Statement 3 is correct as the article notes Pakistan's repeated nuclear invocation appeared 'formulaic' and risks losing salience when overused.

Source: Operation Sindoor 2026: India's Calibrated Multi-Domain Military Doctrine Under Nuclear Overhang →
Q3.

According to the article, what was the primary intended objective of the Pahalgam attack that preceded Operation Sindoor?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To capture Indian territory
  • B.To reinsert Pakistan into the Kashmiri consciousness and project its relevance✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To disrupt India's nuclear command and control
  • D.To assassinate high-ranking military officials
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'The Pahalgam attack that preceded Sindoor was intended to reinsert Pakistan into the Kashmiri consciousness and to project its continuing relevance.' It aimed to disrupt the narrative of normalcy in the region.

Source: Operation Sindoor 2026: India's Calibrated Multi-Domain Military Doctrine Under Nuclear Overhang →
Q4.

What is the broader strategic lesson that Operation Sindoor underscores about the nature of future conflicts, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Future conflicts will be prolonged wars of attrition fought primarily on traditional battlefields.
  • B.Future conflicts will be shorter, sharper, and fought across domains that blur the line between war and peace.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Future conflicts will be decided solely by technological superiority in space and cyber domains.
  • D.Future conflicts will revert to classic interstate warfare with clear frontlines and declarations of war.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core thesis and title emphasize that 'Future conflicts will not resemble the past.' It elaborates that they will be 'shorter, sharper, and fought across domains that blur the line between war and peace,' making urban centres, digital infrastructure, and narrative control critical.

Source: Operation Sindoor 2026: India's Calibrated Multi-Domain Military Doctrine Under Nuclear Overhang →
Q5.

Which statutory provision, as interpreted by the Supreme Court, primarily governs whether a cause of action survives the death of a party in a lawsuit?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Section 13(7) of the Consumer Protection Act
  • B.Order XXII of the Civil Procedure Code
  • C.Section 306 of the Indian Succession Act, 1925✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The Legal Representatives Suits Act, 1855
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Supreme Court held that the substantive question of whether a right to sue survives is governed by Section 306 of the Indian Succession Act, 1925. Order XXII CPC is procedural for substitution, and other acts are historical precursors.

Source: SC Rules Medical Negligence Cases Survive Doctor's Death for Pecuniary Loss Claims Under Section 306, Indian Succession Act →
Q6.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's ruling on medical negligence claims after a doctor's death:

1. All claims, including those for pain and suffering, survive and can be pursued against the legal heirs.

2. The ruling overruled the NCDRC's precedent set in the 'Balbir Singh Makol' case.

3. The continuation of proceedings depends on whether the right to sue survives as per substantive law under Section 306 of the Indian Succession Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Court held that purely personal claims (like pain and suffering) abate upon death. Statement 2 is correct as the judgment explicitly overruled the NCDRC's 2001 ruling. Statement 3 is correct as the Court clarified that substantive survival is determined by Section 306 of the Indian Succession Act.

Source: SC Rules Medical Negligence Cases Survive Doctor's Death for Pecuniary Loss Claims Under Section 306, Indian Succession Act →
Q7.

In the original consumer case discussed in the Supreme Court ruling, what was the total amount of compensation sought under the Consumer Protection Act?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Rs 2.6 lakh
  • B.Rs 4.5 lakh✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Rs 5.0 lakh
  • D.Rs 1.0 lakh
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the complaint sought a total of Rs 4.5 lakh in compensation for treatment expenses, loss of vision, travel, and mental agony. Rs 2.6 lakh was the amount awarded by the district forum, not the amount originally sought.

Source: SC Rules Medical Negligence Cases Survive Doctor's Death for Pecuniary Loss Claims Under Section 306, Indian Succession Act →
Q8.

What is the primary legal distinction drawn by the Supreme Court in its ruling on the survival of medical negligence claims?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Between claims filed before and after the doctor's death.
  • B.Between claims against government and private doctors.
  • C.Between personal claims (pain/suffering) and proprietary claims (pecuniary loss).✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Between claims requiring expert evidence and those based on direct testimony.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Court's core holding is that personal claims (for pain, suffering, loss of reputation) are non-transferable and abate upon death. In contrast, proprietary claims involving pecuniary loss to the estate (like medical bills) are transferable, have economic value, and survive against the inherited estate.

Source: SC Rules Medical Negligence Cases Survive Doctor's Death for Pecuniary Loss Claims Under Section 306, Indian Succession Act →
Q9.

Under which Article of the Constitution is the Election Commission established, as referenced in the Supreme Court's discussion?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 324✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Article 356
  • C.Article 368
  • D.Article 14
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the Supreme Court, in the Anoop Baranwal judgment, referred to Article 324(2) which calls for a law by Parliament to fix appointment criteria for CEC and ECs. Article 324 deals with the Election Commission.

Source: Supreme Court Scrutinizes CEC Appointment Act 2023 and Selection Committee Amid Allegations of 'Tyranny of the Elected' →
Q10.

Consider the following statements regarding the appointment of Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners:

1. The Supreme Court's 2023 Anoop Baranwal judgment directed appointment by a committee comprising the Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition, and Chief Justice of India.

2. The Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023 mandates appointment by a committee comprising the Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition, and a Union Cabinet Minister.

3. The 2024 appointments of Election Commissioners Gyanesh Kumar and Sukhbir Sandhu were challenged on grounds that the selection committee had effectively consulted on a panel of six names recommended by the search committee.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's description of the Anoop Baranwal judgment. Statement 2 is correct as per the description of the 2023 Act. Statement 3 is incorrect; the challenge alleged lack of effective consultation as 200 names were shared just one day before selection, not effective consultation on six names.

Source: Supreme Court Scrutinizes CEC Appointment Act 2023 and Selection Committee Amid Allegations of 'Tyranny of the Elected' →
Q11.

According to the news article, which two individuals were appointed as Election Commissioners in March 2024?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Gyanesh Kumar and Arun Goel
  • B.Sukhbir Sandhu and Adhir Ranjan Chowdhury
  • C.Gyanesh Kumar and Sukhbir Sandhu✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Arun Goel and Vijay Hansaria
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'the selection committee recommended the names of Gyanesh Kumar and Sukhbir Sandhu for appointment as CEC and EC, respectively' and later clarifies they were appointed. Arun Goel resigned, Adhir Ranjan Chowdhury was the LoP, and Vijay Hansaria was a senior advocate.

Source: Supreme Court Scrutinizes CEC Appointment Act 2023 and Selection Committee Amid Allegations of 'Tyranny of the Elected' →
Q12.

What is the primary constitutional concern highlighted by the Supreme Court's description of 'tyranny of the elected' in this context?

MediumUPSC
  • A.The judiciary overstepping its authority into legislative functions.
  • B.The executive's unilateral control over key institutional appointments.
  • C.Parliament's failure to enact a mandated law, leading to executive discretion.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The Election Commission's operational inefficiency in conducting polls.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Court's remark specifically targets Parliament's long delay in making a law under Article 324(2), which it only did after a judicial directive. This inertia allowed the executive to control appointments, raising concerns about institutional independence. The phrase critiques legislative inaction, not judicial overreach or operational inefficiency.

Source: Supreme Court Scrutinizes CEC Appointment Act 2023 and Selection Committee Amid Allegations of 'Tyranny of the Elected' →
Q13.

Under which law was the Siraj-ul-Uloom seminary declared an unlawful entity?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Security Act (NSA)
  • B.Unlawful Activities Prevention Act (UAPA)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (Prevention) Act (TADA)
  • D.Public Safety Act
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the seminary was declared an unlawful entity under the Unlawful Activities Prevention Act (UAPA). NSA, TADA, and PSA are other security laws but not mentioned in this context.

Source: Siraj-ul-Uloom Seminary Declared Unlawful Under UAPA Section 8(1) by J&K Administration, 800 Students Affected →
Q14.

Consider the following statements regarding the closure of Siraj-ul-Uloom:

1. It was declared unlawful under UAPA by the Jammu and Kashmir administration.

2. The order cited its linkages with the banned organization Jamaat-e-Islami.

3. It was the first school, but not the first seminary, to be declared unlawful in J&K.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct as the order cited 'covert linkages' with banned Jamaat-e-Islami. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article says it is the first seminary to be declared unlawful in J&K.

Source: Siraj-ul-Uloom Seminary Declared Unlawful Under UAPA Section 8(1) by J&K Administration, 800 Students Affected →
Q15.

Approximately how many students were enrolled in the Siraj-ul-Uloom school?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Around 500
  • B.Around 800✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Around 1000
  • D.Around 1200
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states 'Around 800 students were enrolled in the school'. The other numbers are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Source: Siraj-ul-Uloom Seminary Declared Unlawful Under UAPA Section 8(1) by J&K Administration, 800 Students Affected →
Q16.

What power does Section 8(1) of the UAPA grant regarding an unlawful association?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Power to arrest its members without warrant
  • B.Power to notify any place used for its purposes✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Power to impose a financial penalty on the association
  • D.Power to ban media coverage of the association
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifies that Section 8(1) empowers the Divisional Commissioner to notify any place used for the purposes of an unlawful association, enabling sealing and freezing of assets. Arrests, penalties, and media bans are other possible outcomes but not the specific power mentioned in Section 8(1) as described.

Source: Siraj-ul-Uloom Seminary Declared Unlawful Under UAPA Section 8(1) by J&K Administration, 800 Students Affected →
Q17.

The report analyzing criminal cases and assets of West Bengal MLAs was published by which organization?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Election Commission of India
  • B.Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Law Commission of India
  • D.National Human Rights Commission
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states the report is by the Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR). ADR is a well-known NGO that routinely analyzes candidate affidavits for electoral transparency. The Election Commission conducts elections but does not publish such analytical reports.

Source: West Bengal Assembly 2026: 65% MLAs Face Criminal Cases, 61% Crorepatis, Average Assets ₹3.73 Cr →
Q18.

Consider the following statements regarding the ADR report on West Bengal's 2026 Assembly polls:

1. The report found that 65% of the winning candidates have declared criminal cases against themselves.

2. Among major parties, the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) MLAs have the highest average declared assets.

3. All winning candidates from the Indian National Congress have declared no criminal cases.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Only 2 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article (65% or 190 out of 292). Statement 2 is incorrect; TMC MLAs have the highest average assets (₹5.36 crore) among major parties, not BJP (₹2.97 crore). Statement 3 is correct as the article states both Congress winners have no criminal cases.

Source: West Bengal Assembly 2026: 65% MLAs Face Criminal Cases, 61% Crorepatis, Average Assets ₹3.73 Cr →
Q19.

According to the ADR report, what is the average declared asset value per MLA in the newly elected West Bengal Assembly (2026)?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹2.53 crore
  • B.₹3.73 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹5.36 crore
  • D.₹17.92 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the average asset per MLA is ₹3.73 crore. ₹2.53 crore was the average in the previous (2021) Assembly. ₹5.36 crore is the average for TMC MLAs specifically, and ₹17.92 crore is the average for the two Congress MLAs.

Source: West Bengal Assembly 2026: 65% MLAs Face Criminal Cases, 61% Crorepatis, Average Assets ₹3.73 Cr →
Q20.

The primary concern highlighted by the ADR report on West Bengal MLAs is most closely associated with which of the following challenges in Indian democracy?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Fragmentation of the party system
  • B.Criminalization and wealth concentration in politics✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Low voter turnout in state elections
  • D.Ineffective functioning of the Upper House
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The report's core findings are the high percentage of MLAs with criminal cases (65%) and crorepatis (61%), directly pointing to the twin challenges of criminalization and wealth-based representation in politics. The other options, while relevant to democracy, are not the central theme of this specific report.

Source: West Bengal Assembly 2026: 65% MLAs Face Criminal Cases, 61% Crorepatis, Average Assets ₹3.73 Cr →
Q21.

The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) is primarily implemented by which Union Ministry?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of Rural Development✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Labour and Employment
  • D.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

MGNREGA is a flagship scheme for rural employment guarantee and falls under the purview of the Ministry of Rural Development. The Ministry of Labour and Employment handles labour codes and industrial relations.

Source: Inequality Debate: New Labour Codes & Viksit Bharat Rozgar Bill Replace MGNREGA Amid Data Comparability Concerns →
Q22.

Consider the following statements regarding the news analysis on inequality:

1. The article discusses the replacement of MGNREGA by the Viksit Bharat-Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) Bill, 2025.

2. It fully endorses the official view that inequality in India is significantly lower today than in the early 2010s.

3. A key concern raised is the welfare of informal workers and those in rural India amidst recent policy changes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly mentions this replacement. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article questions the official view, citing data comparability issues. Statement 3 is correct as the article raises concerns about the welfare of these groups.

Source: Inequality Debate: New Labour Codes & Viksit Bharat Rozgar Bill Replace MGNREGA Amid Data Comparability Concerns →
Q23.

According to the article, which flagship rural employment scheme has been replaced by a new Bill in 2025?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana - Gramin
  • B.Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act✓ Correct Answer
  • C.National Rural Livelihoods Mission
  • D.Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically states that the Viksit Bharat-Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) Bill, 2025 is replacing the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA). The other options are different rural development schemes.

Source: Inequality Debate: New Labour Codes & Viksit Bharat Rozgar Bill Replace MGNREGA Amid Data Comparability Concerns →
Q24.

What is a primary caution raised by the article regarding recent policy changes on labour and employment?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.They will lead to an immediate increase in fiscal deficit.
  • B.They are based on a potentially misleading assumption of reduced inequality.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.They violate the fundamental rights enshrined in the Constitution.
  • D.They have been implemented without parliamentary approval.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core argument is that policies like the new Labour Codes and the Viksit Bharat Rozgar Bill are being framed alongside an official understanding of lower inequality. It warns that this presupposition could be misleading due to data issues, potentially affecting policy outcomes for vulnerable sections.

Source: Inequality Debate: New Labour Codes & Viksit Bharat Rozgar Bill Replace MGNREGA Amid Data Comparability Concerns →
Q25.

According to the article, which state's scheme is cited as a model for classifying areas and providing incentives to address health staff vacancies?

EasyUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Maharashtra
  • B.Kerala
  • C.Chhattisgarh✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Tamil Nadu
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the 'Rural Medical Corps Scheme' implemented in Chhattisgarh as a model for classifying PHCs and CHCs into normal, difficult, and most difficult areas and providing special incentives.

Source: 79.9% Vacancy in Rural CHCs, 43 New Medical Colleges Approved (2025-26) Highlight Health Infrastructure vs. Staffing Crisis →
Q26.

Consider the following statements regarding the health infrastructure situation as per the article:

1. The vacancy rate for specialists in rural Community Health Centres (CHCs) is nearly 80%.

2. A majority of the 43 newly sanctioned medical colleges for 2025-26 are under State governments.

3. The article proposes an 'all or none' principle for posting specialists in a CHC.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the vacancy rate is 79.9%. Statement 2 is incorrect because out of 43 new colleges, only 8 are under State governments, 8 are in the ESI sector, and 27 are private. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly recommends the 'all or none' principle for posting a full team of five specialists.

Source: 79.9% Vacancy in Rural CHCs, 43 New Medical Colleges Approved (2025-26) Highlight Health Infrastructure vs. Staffing Crisis →
Q27.

According to The Health Dynamics of India 2022-23 report cited in the article, what is the approximate number of specialists available against the requirement in rural Community Health Centres?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.About 4,400 against 22,000✓ Correct Answer
  • B.About 10,000 against 25,000
  • C.About 15,000 against 30,000
  • D.About 18,000 against 20,000
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article provides the exact figures: 4,413 specialists are available against a requirement of 21,964 in rural CHCs. Option A is the closest approximation to these numbers.

Source: 79.9% Vacancy in Rural CHCs, 43 New Medical Colleges Approved (2025-26) Highlight Health Infrastructure vs. Staffing Crisis →
Q28.

What is the primary critique of the budgetary focus on health infrastructure, as presented in the article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It leads to over-centralization of health services in metropolitan cities.
  • B.It prioritizes capital expenditure on buildings without matching allocations for operational costs like salaries and drugs.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It encourages the privatization of medical education, making it unaffordable.
  • D.It focuses excessively on medical research at the cost of primary healthcare delivery.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core argument is that merely building more CHCs and medical colleges (capital expenditure) is ineffective without ensuring funds for recurring operational costs like staff salaries, drugs, and diagnostics, which are often left to state budgets.

Source: 79.9% Vacancy in Rural CHCs, 43 New Medical Colleges Approved (2025-26) Highlight Health Infrastructure vs. Staffing Crisis →
Q29.

The article mentions that 'Special Category States' receive a higher proportion of central funding as grants. Which constitutional body historically granted this status?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The Union Cabinet
  • B.The Finance Commission
  • C.The National Development Council (NDC)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The Planning Commission (now defunct)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Special Category Status (SCS) was granted by the National Development Council (NDC), which was the apex body for national development planning. The NDC included the Prime Minister, Union Ministers, and Chief Ministers. While the Planning Commission made recommendations, the formal grant was by the NDC.

Source: State Debt Burden Hits 26-38% of GDP in Tamil Nadu, Kerala, WB; Assam at 25.2% Under Special Category Funding →
Q30.

Consider the following statements regarding state debt as per the article:

1. Tamil Nadu's outstanding debt nearly quadrupled between 2016-17 and 2026-27.

2. The interest payments-to-revenue receipts ratio for all Indian states was lower than that of Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and West Bengal in 2025-26.

3. Assam's debt-to-GDP ratio has declined over the last ten years due to its Special Category status.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Tamil Nadu's debt rose from ₹2.8 lakh crore to ₹10.6 lakh crore. Statement 2 is correct: The all-India interest payments-to-revenue ratio was 12.2%, lower than the mentioned states. Statement 3 is incorrect: Assam's debt-to-GDP ratio increased from 17.1% to 25.2%, not declined.

Source: State Debt Burden Hits 26-38% of GDP in Tamil Nadu, Kerala, WB; Assam at 25.2% Under Special Category Funding →
Q31.

According to the article, what was the approximate interest rate for a six-year Tamil Nadu state government security auctioned on May 5, 2026?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.6.54%
  • B.7.49%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.7.72%
  • D.7.73%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states Tamil Nadu borrowed ₹1,000 crore on May 5 at an average interest rate of 7.49% for six years. Option A (6.54%) was the rate a year ago. Options C and D (7.72-7.73%) are the rates mentioned for general 10-year state borrowings.

Source: State Debt Burden Hits 26-38% of GDP in Tamil Nadu, Kerala, WB; Assam at 25.2% Under Special Category Funding →
Q32.

What is a primary implication of high interest payments consuming over 20% of a state's revenue receipts, as seen in Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and West Bengal?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It leads to an increase in the state's credit rating.
  • B.It reduces the fiscal space available for developmental expenditure.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It automatically triggers assistance from the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
  • D.It forces the Union Government to write off the state's debt.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

High debt servicing costs mean a larger share of the state's income is used to pay past loans, leaving less money for current and capital expenditure on health, education, and infrastructure. This is known as the 'crowding-out' effect. The article highlights this by contrasting interest payments with the need for spending on welfare and development.

Source: State Debt Burden Hits 26-38% of GDP in Tamil Nadu, Kerala, WB; Assam at 25.2% Under Special Category Funding →
Q33.

The newly operationalized grievance system for gig workers in Karnataka is integrated with which state government portal?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Karnataka One
  • B.Integrated Public Grievance Redressal System (IPGRS)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Bangalore Municipal Corporation Portal
  • D.e-District Karnataka
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that gig workers can lodge complaints through the Integrated Public Grievance Redressal System (IPGRS), which is Karnataka's centralised digital platform for citizen grievances.

Source: Karnataka Notifies India's First Gig Worker Grievance Portal: IDRC Must Resolve Complaints in 15-45 Days Under 2025 Act →
Q34.

Consider the following statements regarding Karnataka's gig worker grievance system:

1. The Internal Dispute Resolution Committee (IDRC) must issue a final order within a maximum of 45 days from receiving a complaint.

2. The welfare fee of 1% per transaction collected from platforms will be used solely for providing life insurance to gig workers.

3. The system was operationalized on International Workers' Day (May 1) in 2026.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article says the IDRC is allowed up to 45 days to issue a final order. Statement 2 is incorrect because the welfare fee is for a range of social security benefits (life insurance, accidental benefit, medical benefit, etc.), not just life insurance. Statement 3 is correct as the system was announced on May 1, 2026 – International Workers' Day.

Source: Karnataka Notifies India's First Gig Worker Grievance Portal: IDRC Must Resolve Complaints in 15-45 Days Under 2025 Act →
Q35.

According to the Karnataka government's notification, what is the cap per transaction for the welfare fee collected from food delivery services like Swiggy and Zomato?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹0.25
  • B.₹0.50✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹0.75
  • D.₹1.00
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifies that for food and grocery delivery services such as Swiggy and Zomato, the cap for the 1% welfare fee is ₹0.5 per transaction.

Source: Karnataka Notifies India's First Gig Worker Grievance Portal: IDRC Must Resolve Complaints in 15-45 Days Under 2025 Act →
Q36.

What is the primary objective of establishing the Internal Dispute Resolution Committee (IDRC) under Karnataka's new system?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To replace the Karnataka Gig Workers Welfare Board
  • B.To provide a first-level, platform-specific forum for resolving gig worker complaints within a legal timeframe✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To collect the 1% welfare fee from each transaction
  • D.To register new gig workers on the state portal
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The IDRC is constituted by each aggregator platform to handle grievances filed by their workers. The system routes complaints from the state portal (IPGRS) to the respective platform's IDRC, which must attempt resolution within 15 days and issue a final order within 45 days, providing a structured first level of redressal.

Source: Karnataka Notifies India's First Gig Worker Grievance Portal: IDRC Must Resolve Complaints in 15-45 Days Under 2025 Act →
Q37.

The Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS) is implemented under the oversight of which ministry?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
  • C.Ministry of Civil Aviation
  • D.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The ECLGS is a credit guarantee scheme involving sovereign risk. Such fiscal interventions and guarantees are formulated and overseen by the Ministry of Finance, specifically through its Department of Financial Services.

Source: Cabinet Approves ECLGS 5.0 with ₹2.55 Lakh Cr Credit Guarantee for MSMEs and Aviation Sector →
Q38.

Consider the following statements regarding ECLGS 5.0:

1. It provides a 100% credit guarantee for both MSMEs and the aviation sector.

2. The total additional credit flow targeted under the scheme is ₹2.55 lakh crore.

3. The scheme is specifically aimed at mitigating challenges arising from the conflict in West Asia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. ECLGS 5.0 offers a 100% guarantee for existing standard MSMEs, but for non-MSMEs including the aviation sector, the guarantee is 90%. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is correct as the scheme was approved to help businesses tide over challenges from the West Asia conflict.

Source: Cabinet Approves ECLGS 5.0 with ₹2.55 Lakh Cr Credit Guarantee for MSMEs and Aviation Sector →
Q39.

According to the SBI Research report cited in the article, what is the average additional credit flow expected per eligible MSME account under ECLGS 5.0?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹1 to 1.5 lakh
  • B.₹2 to 2.3 lakh✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹3 to 3.5 lakh
  • D.₹5 to 5.5 lakh
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that SBI Research estimated an average additional credit flow of ₹2 to 2.3 lakh per eligible MSME account. The other options are plausible-sounding but incorrect distractors.

Source: Cabinet Approves ECLGS 5.0 with ₹2.55 Lakh Cr Credit Guarantee for MSMEs and Aviation Sector →
Q40.

What is the primary stated objective of launching ECLGS 5.0, as per the news article?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To permanently nationalize struggling private airlines.
  • B.To provide additional credit to businesses affected by the West Asia conflict.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To replace all existing non-performing assets in public sector banks.
  • D.To directly subsidize the purchase of Aviation Turbine Fuel (ATF).
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly mentions that the Central government approved ECLGS 5.0 "to provide additional credit facility to enable businesses to tide over the challenges arising from the West Asia conflict." The other options describe actions not mentioned in the article.

Source: Cabinet Approves ECLGS 5.0 with ₹2.55 Lakh Cr Credit Guarantee for MSMEs and Aviation Sector →
Q41.

The Himachal Pradesh Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2026, which bars individuals charged under the NDPS Act from panchayat elections, falls under the legislative competence of which body?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Union Parliament
  • B.Himachal Pradesh State Legislature✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Election Commission of India
  • D.Ministry of Panchayati Raj
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Panchayati Raj is primarily governed by state laws under the framework provided by the Constitution. The amendment to the Himachal Pradesh Panchayati Raj Act is enacted by the state legislature.

Source: Himachal Pradesh Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2026 Bars NDPS Act-Charged Individuals from Panchayat Elections →
Q42.

Consider the following statements regarding the Himachal Pradesh Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2026:

1. It disqualifies a person from contesting panchayat elections if an FIR is registered against them under the NDPS Act.

2. It mandates that an elected panchayat member must vacate their seat if charges are framed against them under the NDPS Act during their tenure.

3. The amendment also changes the quorum requirement for Gram Sabha meetings from one-fourth to one-tenth of the total voters.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The amendment disqualifies upon 'framing of charges' by a court, not merely registration of an FIR. Statement 2 is correct as per the notification. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the Governor approved a change in quorum from one-fourth to one-tenth.

Source: Himachal Pradesh Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2026 Bars NDPS Act-Charged Individuals from Panchayat Elections →
Q43.

According to the article, how many Gram Panchayats in Himachal Pradesh are scheduled to go to polls in May 2026?

MediumSSC, State PSC
  • A.3,758
  • B.3,754✓ Correct Answer
  • C.3,750
  • D.3,760
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that about 3,754 Gram Panchayats of the total 3,758 will go to polls in three phases. The other options are close distractors based on the total number.

Source: Himachal Pradesh Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2026 Bars NDPS Act-Charged Individuals from Panchayat Elections →
Q44.

What is the primary rationale behind the Himachal Pradesh government amending its Panchayati Raj law to disqualify individuals charged under the NDPS Act?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase the number of candidates contesting elections
  • B.To address the growing menace of drug trafficking and abuse in the state✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To comply with a directive from the Election Commission of India
  • D.To reduce the administrative burden of conducting elections
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly links the amendment to the 'growing menace of "chitta" in the state' and provides data on drug overdose deaths and registered cases. The other options are not supported by the article's content.

Source: Himachal Pradesh Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2026 Bars NDPS Act-Charged Individuals from Panchayat Elections →
Q45.

The record investment pledge by Indian companies was announced at a summit in which US state?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Texas
  • B.California
  • C.Maryland✓ Correct Answer
  • D.New Jersey
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the commitments were made during an investment summit in Maryland, US. Texas, California, and New Jersey are mentioned as locations for specific company investments, not the summit itself.

Source: Indian Firms Pledge $20.5 Billion US Investment; $19.1 Billion in Pharma, Aims to Double Bilateral Trade to $500 Billion by 2030 →
Q46.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent Indian investment pledges in the US:

1. The total investment pledged is $20.5 billion, with the pharmaceutical sector accounting for over 90% of this amount.

2. The investments are expected to create jobs only in the United States and not in India.

3. A key objective behind these investments is to help double the US-India bilateral trade to $500 billion by the year 2030.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: $19.1 billion out of $20.5 billion is for pharma, which is over 90%. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article says investments are expected to create thousands of jobs 'in both countries'. Statement 3 is correct as per the quote from US Ambassador Sergio Gor.

Source: Indian Firms Pledge $20.5 Billion US Investment; $19.1 Billion in Pharma, Aims to Double Bilateral Trade to $500 Billion by 2030 →
Q47.

What is the value of Sun Pharmaceutical's planned acquisition that anchors the major pharmaceutical investments announced?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.$19.1 billion
  • B.$11.75 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • C.$900 million
  • D.$255 million
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifies that the pharma investments are 'anchored by Sun Pharmaceutical’s planned $11.75 billion acquisition of New Jersey-based Organon & Co.' $19.1 billion is the total pharma investment, $900 million is Abhyuday Group's investment, and $255 million is JSW Steel's project.

Source: Indian Firms Pledge $20.5 Billion US Investment; $19.1 Billion in Pharma, Aims to Double Bilateral Trade to $500 Billion by 2030 →
Q48.

What is a primary strategic implication of the large-scale Indian pharmaceutical investment in the United States, as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce India's trade deficit with the US
  • B.To strengthen the resilience of the US healthcare supply chain✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To shift Indian manufacturing bases entirely to the US
  • D.To bypass US Food and Drug Administration (USFDA) regulations
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states these investments will help 'strengthen the resilience of the US healthcare supply chain', addressing issues like drug shortages. While trade balance may be affected, it is not stated as the primary goal. The investments are expansions, not a complete shift, and they must comply with USFDA regulations.

Source: Indian Firms Pledge $20.5 Billion US Investment; $19.1 Billion in Pharma, Aims to Double Bilateral Trade to $500 Billion by 2030 →
Q49.

Which state agency is primarily responsible for developing Industrial Model Townships (IMTs) in Haryana, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Haryana Shahari Vikas Pradhikaran (HSVP)
  • B.Haryana State Industrial and Infrastructure Development Corporation (HSIIDC)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Urban Local Bodies Department
  • D.Transport Department
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that HSIIDC is 'central to the state's industrial land strategy' and is focusing on developing Industrial Model Townships (IMTs). HSVP is responsible for planned urban sector development.

Source: Haryana e-Bhoomi Portal Drives 1.7-Lakh Acre Land Aggregation for Urban Expansion & Industrial Model Townships (IMTs) →
Q50.

Consider the following statements regarding Haryana's infrastructure blueprint:

1. The e-Bhoomi portal allows for compulsory land acquisition by the government.

2. The total land requirement for the state's planned expansion is around 1.7 lakh acres.

3. IMT Kharkhoda in Sonipat district is being developed as a major automobile and manufacturing hub.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 2
  • B.(B) Only 3
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states the e-Bhoomi portal allows landowners to 'voluntarily register and participate', reducing legal disputes, indicating a consent-based model, not compulsory acquisition. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions 'an estimated total land requirement of around 1.7 lakh acres'. Statement 3 is correct as the article describes IMT Kharkhoda as 'rapidly emerging as a major automobile and manufacturing hub'.

Source: Haryana e-Bhoomi Portal Drives 1.7-Lakh Acre Land Aggregation for Urban Expansion & Industrial Model Townships (IMTs) →
Q51.

According to the article, what is the estimated area of land identified for new urban sectors in Gurugram alone?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Approximately 6,600 acres
  • B.Approximately 17,358 acres✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Approximately 3,217 acres
  • D.Approximately 4,500 acres
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically states: 'In Gurugram alone, approximately 17,358 acres spread across nearly 36 villages have been identified for new urban sectors.' The other figures correspond to Ambala region (6,600 acres), IMT Kharkhoda (3,217 acres), and Faridabad (4,500 acres).

Source: Haryana e-Bhoomi Portal Drives 1.7-Lakh Acre Land Aggregation for Urban Expansion & Industrial Model Townships (IMTs) →
Q52.

What is the primary objective of Haryana's land pooling-based urbanisation model under the e-Bhoomi platform, as described in the article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To increase government revenue through land sales
  • B.To facilitate compulsory acquisition for large projects
  • C.To reduce fragmentation of urban growth and enable mixed-use development✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To promote exclusively residential development in tier-1 cities
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that the land pooling model 'is intended to reduce fragmentation of urban growth, while enabling mixed-use development zones combining residential, commercial, and institutional infrastructure.' It is a voluntary, consent-based model aimed at planned development, not compulsory acquisition or revenue generation.

Source: Haryana e-Bhoomi Portal Drives 1.7-Lakh Acre Land Aggregation for Urban Expansion & Industrial Model Townships (IMTs) →
Q53.

Which article of the Indian Constitution guarantees religious denominations the right to manage their own affairs in matters of religion?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 25
  • B.Article 26✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Article 27
  • D.Article 28
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 26 specifically grants every religious denomination the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion. Article 25 deals with the individual's freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, and propagation of religion. This distinction is central to the Dawoodi Bohra case discussed in the article.

Source: Supreme Court 9-Judge Bench Cautions Against Judicial Intervention in Religious Practices Under Article 25-26 →
Q54.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court hearing mentioned in the news:

1. The 9-judge Constitution Bench is hearing petitions related to discrimination against women at religious places including the Sabarimala temple.

2. The Bench is examining the ambit of religious freedom under Article 28 of the Constitution.

3. The Central Board of Dawoodi Bohra Community filed a PIL in 1986 seeking to set aside a 1962 judgment related to excommunication.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the bench is examining religious freedom under Articles 25 and 26, not Article 28 (which deals with freedom as to attendance at religious instruction or religious worship in certain educational institutions). Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article. Hence, option C is correct.

Source: Supreme Court 9-Judge Bench Cautions Against Judicial Intervention in Religious Practices Under Article 25-26 →
Q55.

In which year did the Supreme Court's Constitution Bench strike down the Bombay Prevention of Excommunication Act, 1949, a judgment that is now under review?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.1949
  • B.1962✓ Correct Answer
  • C.1986
  • D.1995
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 1962 Constitution Bench judgment struck down the Bombay Prevention of Excommunication Act, 1949. The PIL to set aside this judgment was filed in 1986. This specific date is a key factual takeaway from the news.

Source: Supreme Court 9-Judge Bench Cautions Against Judicial Intervention in Religious Practices Under Article 25-26 →
Q56.

What was the primary concern expressed by Supreme Court Justices regarding judicial questioning of religious practices, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It would increase the workload of the courts significantly.
  • B.It could lead to the breaking of religions and the civilization of India.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It would undermine the authority of religious heads and create anarchy.
  • D.It is beyond the technical expertise of the judiciary to interpret religious texts.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Justices Nagarathna and Sundresh were quoted expressing concern that if individuals start questioning every religious practice in court, it would lead to hundreds of petitions and could result in the 'breaking' of religions and the civilization, given the intimate connection between religion and Indian society. This captures the core philosophical dilemma presented in the news.

Source: Supreme Court 9-Judge Bench Cautions Against Judicial Intervention in Religious Practices Under Article 25-26 →
Q57.

The Punchhi Commission report, cited in the article, was headed by which former dignitary?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Former Chief Justice of India M.M. Punchhi✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Former President K.R. Narayanan
  • C.Former Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee
  • D.Former Governor Surjit Singh Barnala
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Commission on Centre-State Relations was 'Headed by former Chief Justice of India M.M. Punchhi'. This is a direct factual recall from the provided content.

Source: Governor's Role in Hung Assembly: Tamil Nadu TVK's 107 Seats, Precedents from 1952 CR, 1999 Narayanan →
Q58.

Consider the following statements regarding precedents for government formation mentioned in the article:

1. In 1952, C. Rajagopalachari was invited to form the government in Madras State despite the Congress not having a clear majority.

2. In 1999, President K.R. Narayanan considered seeking written assurances of support as a well-established precedent during ministry-making.

3. In 1996, President S.D. Sharma insisted on letters of support before appointing H.D. Deve Gowda as Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2
  • D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article mentions the 1952 precedent where Congress under C. Rajagopalachari was invited as the single-largest party. Statement 2 is correct: It states President Narayanan in 1999 sought written assurances, considering it a precedent. Statement 3 is correct: It notes President Sharma in 1996 changed his approach and insisted on letters of support for Deve Gowda's government.

Source: Governor's Role in Hung Assembly: Tamil Nadu TVK's 107 Seats, Precedents from 1952 CR, 1999 Narayanan →
Q59.

According to the article, what is the effective seat count of the Tamilaga Vettri Kazhagam (TVK) in the Tamil Nadu Assembly after the 2026 elections?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.96 seats
  • B.107 seats✓ Correct Answer
  • C.108 seats
  • D.165 seats
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states TVK secured 108 seats, but since its founder was elected from two seats, the 'effective' tally becomes 107. Option C (108) is the initial count, a close distractor. Options A (96) and D (165) refer to historical seat counts of other parties mentioned.

Source: Governor's Role in Hung Assembly: Tamil Nadu TVK's 107 Seats, Precedents from 1952 CR, 1999 Narayanan →
Q60.

As per the article, what is the primary constitutional principle that limits a Governor's action in verifying the majority claim of a party seeking to form government?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The Governor must always invite the single largest party first.
  • B.The Governor should not carry out a physical headcount of MLAs.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Governor must seek prior approval from the President.
  • D.The Governor can only consider pre-poll alliances.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes a former official stating 'there is nothing wrong with the Governor seeking letters of support, but he or she should not carry out a head count. The floor of the House is the best place...'. This directly establishes the principle that verification via headcount is improper, making the floor test supreme.

Source: Governor's Role in Hung Assembly: Tamil Nadu TVK's 107 Seats, Precedents from 1952 CR, 1999 Narayanan →
Q61.

Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is President's Rule imposed in a state?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 352
  • B.Article 356✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Article 360
  • D.Article 370
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 356 of the Indian Constitution deals with the failure of constitutional machinery in a state, commonly known as President's Rule. Article 352 is for National Emergency, Article 360 for Financial Emergency, and Article 370 gave special status to Jammu & Kashmir (now abrogated).

Source: SC Precedent Guides Governor's Role in Government Formation to Prevent President's Rule Under Article 356 →
Q62.

Consider the following statements regarding the role of a Governor in government formation as per Supreme Court precedents:

1. The Governor's first constitutional priority is to ensure the formation of a stable government.

2. A Governor can indefinitely delay inviting a claimant to form government to ensure absolute stability.

3. The Governor can refuse to allow the formation of a government only if convinced that a stable government may not be formed.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as highlighted in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Supreme Court has noted that a Governor is not expected to wait indefinitely. Statement 3 is correct as per the article, which states refusal is an exception where the Governor is of the view that a stable government may not be formed.

Source: SC Precedent Guides Governor's Role in Government Formation to Prevent President's Rule Under Article 356 →
Q63.

As per the news article, what is the primary risk the Supreme Court aims to prevent by guiding the Governor's actions during government formation?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.A situation of complete breakdown of constitutional machinery✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Immediate dissolution of the Legislative Assembly
  • C.Direct intervention by the Central Government
  • D.A constitutional amendment to Article 164
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Governor's duty to ensure stable government formation is to prevent the State from slipping into a 'situation of complete breakdown of constitutional machinery', which is the condition for imposing President's Rule.

Source: SC Precedent Guides Governor's Role in Government Formation to Prevent President's Rule Under Article 356 →
Q64.

What is the underlying constitutional objective behind the Supreme Court's principle that a Governor should not delay government formation indefinitely?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.To ensure the largest party always gets the first chance
  • B.To prevent defections and other objectionable political activities✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To reduce the workload of the Supreme Court in such matters
  • D.To empower the President to dismiss the Governor
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly quotes the Court's observation that indefinite delay by a Governor can 'encourage defections or adoption of other objectionable activities'. The principle aims to uphold political stability and ethical realignments within the legislature.

Source: SC Precedent Guides Governor's Role in Government Formation to Prevent President's Rule Under Article 356 →
Q65.

The former Chinese Defence Ministers sentenced in the news were also former members of which top military body chaired by Xi Jinping?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.People's Liberation Army General Staff Department
  • B.Central Military Commission✓ Correct Answer
  • C.National Defence Mobilisation Commission
  • D.Ministry of National Defence
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that both Wei Fenghe and Li Shangfu were former members of the Central Military Commission headed by Xi Jinping. This is the supreme military command body in China.

Source: China Sentences Two Ex-Defence Ministers to Death Over Graft: Wei Fenghe (2018-23) & Li Shangfu Under Xi's Anti-Corruption Drive →
Q66.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. Both former Defence Ministers were sentenced to death with immediate execution by China's Supreme Court.

2. Wei Fenghe served as the Defence Minister of China from 2018 to 2023.

3. The PLA Rocket Force, which both individuals headed, was established in 2015 as part of a military overhaul.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: They were sentenced to death with a two-year reprieve, not immediate execution, and by a military court, not the Supreme Court. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the Rocket Force was established in 2015.

Source: China Sentences Two Ex-Defence Ministers to Death Over Graft: Wei Fenghe (2018-23) & Li Shangfu Under Xi's Anti-Corruption Drive →
Q67.

According to the article, in which year were the two former Defence Ministers expelled from the ruling Communist Party of China?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2022
  • B.2023
  • C.2024✓ Correct Answer
  • D.2025
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "Wei and his successor Li... were expelled from the ruling Communist Party in 2024." This is a direct factual recall from the provided content.

Source: China Sentences Two Ex-Defence Ministers to Death Over Graft: Wei Fenghe (2018-23) & Li Shangfu Under Xi's Anti-Corruption Drive →
Q68.

What is the primary significance of sentencing former Defence Ministers from the PLA Rocket Force, as highlighted in the news?

MediumUPSC
  • A.It indicates a shift in China's nuclear disarmament policy.
  • B.It showcases the strength and independence of China's judicial system.
  • C.It underscores the depth and political nature of Xi Jinping's anti-corruption campaign within the military.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It signals an impending reduction in China's defence budget.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article connects the sentencing to President Xi's anti-corruption drive that began in 2012, targeting over a million officials. Punishing heads of a critical force like the Rocket Force highlights the campaign's reach and its role in consolidating political control over the military.

Source: China Sentences Two Ex-Defence Ministers to Death Over Graft: Wei Fenghe (2018-23) & Li Shangfu Under Xi's Anti-Corruption Drive →
Q69.

The European Union's comprehensive rules on Artificial Intelligence, amended in 2026, were originally adopted in which year?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.2022
  • B.2023
  • C.2024✓ Correct Answer
  • D.2025
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the new ban on sexualised AI deepfakes will be included in changes to the EU's comprehensive rules on AI, which were adopted in 2024.

Source: EU AI Act Amendment: Explicit Ban on Nudifier Apps & High-Risk AI Rules Delayed to 2027-2028 →
Q70.

Consider the following statements regarding the EU's recent amendments to its AI Act:

1. The amendments explicitly ban artificial intelligence systems generating sexualised deepfakes.

2. The implementation of high-risk AI rules concerning models deemed potentially dangerous has been accelerated.

3. The enforcement powers of the newly established AI Office will start in August 2026.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article confirms the ban on AI generating sexualised deepfakes. Statement 2 is incorrect; the implementation has been delayed, not accelerated, to December 2027 and August 2028. Statement 3 is correct as an EU spokesperson stated the AI Office enforcement powers start in August 2026.

Source: EU AI Act Amendment: Explicit Ban on Nudifier Apps & High-Risk AI Rules Delayed to 2027-2028 →
Q71.

According to the amended EU AI Act rules, when will the high-risk AI rules for AI tools embedded in other products come into force?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.August 2026
  • B.December 2027
  • C.August 2028✓ Correct Answer
  • D.December 2028
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifies that the high-risk AI rules for embedded AI tools, originally due a year later than stand-alone systems (August 2027), have been pushed back to August 2028.

Source: EU AI Act Amendment: Explicit Ban on Nudifier Apps & High-Risk AI Rules Delayed to 2027-2028 →
Q72.

What is a primary reason cited by the EU executive for delaying the implementation of high-risk AI rules under the AI Act?

MediumUPSC
  • A.To completely abandon the regulation of high-risk AI
  • B.To help businesses and avoid stymying innovation✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To align with the timelines of other international regulations
  • D.To conduct further public consultations on the rules
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the EU executive proposed the amendments 'in a bid, it said, to help businesses and avoid stymying innovation'. The other options are not mentioned in the provided content.

Source: EU AI Act Amendment: Explicit Ban on Nudifier Apps & High-Risk AI Rules Delayed to 2027-2028 →
Q73.

Who was the Director General of Military Operations (DGMO) of the Indian Army who played a key role in executing Operation Sindoor?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Lt. Gen. Zubin A Minwalla
  • B.Air Marshal Awadhesh Kumar Bharati
  • C.Lt. Gen. Rajiv Ghai✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Vice Admiral AN Pramod
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, Lt. Gen. Rajiv Ghai, in his capacity as the Army's Director General of Military Operations (DGMO), played a key role in executing Operation Sindoor. The other officials mentioned were part of the joint commanders' conference commemorating the anniversary.

Source: Indian Armed Forces Launch Multi-Domain 'Operation Sindoor' on May 7, 2025, Targeting 9 Terror Infrastructures in Pak/PoK →
Q74.

Consider the following statements regarding Operation Sindoor:

1. It was launched in response to a terror attack in Pahalgam on April 22, 2025.

2. The operation involved airstrikes on nine terror infrastructures located only in Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (PoK).

3. The military hostilities ended on May 10, 2025, following talks over a hotline between the army officials of India and Pakistan.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Defence Exams
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the operation was a response to the Pahalgam terror attack on April 22. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article mentions airstrikes on terror infrastructures in 'Pakistan and Pakistan-occupied Kashmir', not only PoK. Statement 3 is correct as hostilities ended on May 10 after hotline talks.

Source: Indian Armed Forces Launch Multi-Domain 'Operation Sindoor' on May 7, 2025, Targeting 9 Terror Infrastructures in Pak/PoK →
Q75.

According to the news, on how many terror infrastructures did India carry out airstrikes during Operation Sindoor?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.7
  • B.8
  • C.9✓ Correct Answer
  • D.10
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India carried out airstrikes on nine terror infrastructures in Pakistan and Pakistan-occupied Kashmir during Operation Sindoor. The other numbers are close distractors.

Source: Indian Armed Forces Launch Multi-Domain 'Operation Sindoor' on May 7, 2025, Targeting 9 Terror Infrastructures in Pak/PoK →
Q76.

What was the primary strategic signal that Operation Sindoor aimed to send, according to the Indian military leadership?

MediumUPSC, Defence Exams
  • A.India's capability for a full-scale conventional war.
  • B.That no terror sanctuary in Pakistan is safe from Indian military action.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.A shift in focus from counter-terrorism to territorial expansion.
  • D.The superiority of Indian air power over all other military domains.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core message, as stated by Lt. Gen. Rajiv Ghai and highlighted in the article's title, is that Operation Sindoor 'signalled that no terror sanctuary is safe in Pakistan'. This underscores a doctrine of holding terror infrastructure accountable, even across borders, as a deterrent.

Source: Indian Armed Forces Launch Multi-Domain 'Operation Sindoor' on May 7, 2025, Targeting 9 Terror Infrastructures in Pak/PoK →
Q77.

Which government think tank released a 2024 position paper on senior care, highlighting data on chronic conditions and insurance among the elderly?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Planning Commission
  • B.NITI Aayog✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Finance Commission
  • D.National Commission for Senior Citizens
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions "NITI Aayog’s 2024 position paper on senior care notes" the statistics regarding chronic conditions and health insurance among the elderly. NITI Aayog is the premier policy think tank of the Government of India.

Source: India's Elderly to Exceed 300 Million by 2050, NITI Aayog Calls for Shift from Hospital-First to Long-Term Senior Care Ecosystem →
Q78.

Consider the following statements regarding India's ageing population as discussed in the article:

1. According to the UNFPA India Ageing Report 2023, India's population aged 60 and above is expected to reach approximately 347 million by 2050.

2. The NITI Aayog position paper states that less than 50% of India's elderly live with at least one chronic condition.

3. The article cites an ASLI-PwC 2025 report estimating the number of training seats in geriatric medicine in India to be around 80-85.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the UNFPA report cited. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article says "More than 75% of India’s elderly already live with at least one chronic condition," which is greater than 50%. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions "just 80-85 as per the estimates presented by the ASLI-PwC report 2025."

Source: India's Elderly to Exceed 300 Million by 2050, NITI Aayog Calls for Shift from Hospital-First to Long-Term Senior Care Ecosystem →
Q79.

According to the NITI Aayog position paper cited in the article, what percentage of India's elderly population has any form of health insurance?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.10%
  • B.18%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.25%
  • D.40%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly states: "only 18% have any form of health insurance, NITI Aayog’s 2024 position paper on senior care notes." This is a key data point highlighting the financial vulnerability of the elderly.

Source: India's Elderly to Exceed 300 Million by 2050, NITI Aayog Calls for Shift from Hospital-First to Long-Term Senior Care Ecosystem →
Q80.

What is identified in the article as a primary reason for shifting from a 'hospital-first' model to a long-term care ecosystem for India's ageing population?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce the overall number of hospitals in the country.
  • B.To better manage the complexity of layered chronic conditions that unfold over years.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To exclusively increase the number of specialist geriatricians.
  • D.To shift the entire financial burden from the government to private insurance.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article argues that ageing involves multi-layered conditions across specialties over time, which a hospital model designed for acute, episodic treatment cannot coherently manage, leading to preventable crises. The other options are either incorrect or represent only a part of the required solution.

Source: India's Elderly to Exceed 300 Million by 2050, NITI Aayog Calls for Shift from Hospital-First to Long-Term Senior Care Ecosystem →
Q81.

The World Inequality Report 2026, cited in the article, is a publication of which research body?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.World Bank
  • B.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
  • C.World Inequality Lab✓ Correct Answer
  • D.United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The World Inequality Report is produced by the World Inequality Lab, a research center based in Paris. While the World Bank and UNDP also publish inequality indices, the specific report referenced in the article is from this lab.

Source: World Inequality Report 2026: Top 10% Hold 65% Wealth, 58% Income in India; Prescribes Progressive Tax, Land Reforms →
Q82.

Consider the following statements regarding findings of the World Inequality Report 2026 as mentioned in the article:

1. The top 10% of the global population have never captured less than 50% of global income since 1820.

2. In India, the income share of the top 1% in 2022 was lower than its share in 1922.

3. The report identifies the 'financialisation of wealth' as a key driver of rising inequality in India post-liberalisation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states this structural imbalance has persisted since 1820. Statement 2 is incorrect; the top 1% income share was 13% in 1922 and reached an all-time high of 22.6% in 2022, so it is higher, not lower. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly mentions 'financialisation of wealth' increased the wealth share of the top 1%.

Source: World Inequality Report 2026: Top 10% Hold 65% Wealth, 58% Income in India; Prescribes Progressive Tax, Land Reforms →
Q83.

According to the World Inequality Report 2026, what percentage of national income in India is captured by the top 10% of earners?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.53%
  • B.58%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.65%
  • D.75%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that in India, the top 10% of earners capture about 58% of national income. 53% is the global figure for the top 10%, 65% is the wealth share of India's top 10%, and 75% is close to the global wealth share of the top 10%.

Source: World Inequality Report 2026: Top 10% Hold 65% Wealth, 58% Income in India; Prescribes Progressive Tax, Land Reforms →
Q84.

Which of the following is identified as a primary reason for the persistence of high inequality in India, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Excessive focus on agricultural growth
  • B.Lack of quality access to education and healthcare✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Over-reliance on foreign direct investment
  • D.High rates of personal income tax
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly lists the lack of quality access to education and healthcare as key factors behind India's persistent inequality. While other options like the service-dominated growth model (linked to liberalisation) and financialisation are also mentioned, the lack of public service access is presented as a foundational driver.

Source: World Inequality Report 2026: Top 10% Hold 65% Wealth, 58% Income in India; Prescribes Progressive Tax, Land Reforms →
Q85.

The 'Sudarshan Chakra' mission, recently in news, is related to which organisation?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
  • B.Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)
  • D.National Security Council Secretariat (NSCS)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, a panel under the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) recently submitted a pre-feasibility report on the Sudarshan Chakra mission, which aims to establish a comprehensive air defence shield across the country.

Source: Operation Sindoor Lessons, Hantavirus Outbreak, and India's 12 Semiconductor Plants Under ₹76,000 Cr Mission →
Q86.

Consider the following statements regarding the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act, 2016:

1. It recognizes 21 specified categories of disabilities.

2. An 'acid attack victim' as per the Act was originally defined as a person disfigured due to violent assaults by throwing of acid.

3. The Supreme Court has held that survivors of acid attacks who suffered internal injuries without visible scarring are also covered under the Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 1 and 2
  • C.(C) Only 2 and 3
  • D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the RPwD Act, 2016 includes 21 categories of disability. Statement 2 is correct as the original definition under Schedule 2(zc) was limited to disfigurement from 'throwing of acid'. Statement 3 is correct as the Supreme Court, in a recent judgment, expanded this definition to include survivors of forceful acid ingestion, applying it retrospectively.

Source: Operation Sindoor Lessons, Hantavirus Outbreak, and India's 12 Semiconductor Plants Under ₹76,000 Cr Mission →
Q87.

According to the article, what is the total financial outlay for the first leg of the India Semiconductor Mission (ISM 1.0)?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹50,000 crore
  • B.₹76,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹1.10 lakh crore
  • D.₹1.64 lakh crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the India Semiconductor Mission is the government's ambitious Rs 76,000 crore plan to kickstart semiconductor manufacturing. The figure of ₹1.64 lakh crore mentioned is the cumulative investment committed under the scheme, not the government's outlay.

Source: Operation Sindoor Lessons, Hantavirus Outbreak, and India's 12 Semiconductor Plants Under ₹76,000 Cr Mission →
Q88.

What is the primary strategic lesson highlighted from Operation Sindoor, as discussed in the editorial excerpt?

HardUPSC, Defence Exams
  • A.The need for massive troop mobilization along the border.
  • B.The importance of achieving territorial gains in any conflict.
  • C.The maturing of India's ability to employ calibrated force under a nuclear overhang.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The necessity of relying solely on diplomatic measures against terrorism.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The editorial by Syed Ata Hasnain explicitly states that Operation Sindoor marked the maturing of India's ability to employ calibrated force under a nuclear overhang while retaining control over escalation. It demonstrated a doctrine of aggression blended with restraint, rather than seeking territorial ambition or relying solely on diplomacy.

Source: Operation Sindoor Lessons, Hantavirus Outbreak, and India's 12 Semiconductor Plants Under ₹76,000 Cr Mission →
Q89.

The US Navy's 5th Fleet, whose headquarters was relocated due to the conflict, is primarily responsible for operations in which region?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Pacific Ocean
  • B.The Persian Gulf, Red Sea, and Arabian Sea✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Mediterranean Sea
  • D.The North Atlantic Ocean
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The US Navy's 5th Fleet is headquartered in Bahrain and its area of responsibility (AOR) encompasses the Persian Gulf, Red Sea, Arabian Sea, and parts of the Indian Ocean. This makes it a critical command for Middle Eastern security and energy route protection.

Source: US-Iran War 2026: 228 US Structures Damaged, 5th Fleet HQ Relocated to Florida; Operation Epic Fury Concluded →
Q90.

Consider the following statements regarding the 2026 US-Iran war findings:

1. The investigation found that over 200 US military structures were damaged, with no evidence of Iranian strikes missing their targets.

2. The US Navy's 5th Fleet headquarters was temporarily moved to a secure location within Saudi Arabia.

3. Experts attributed the scale of damage to the rapid depletion of US air defence interceptors and a failure to adapt to drone warfare.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Washington Post verified over 100 images and found 228 structures damaged with no missed strikes. Statement 2 is incorrect: The 5th Fleet HQ was permanently relocated to Tampa, Florida, USA, not temporarily within Saudi Arabia. Statement 3 is correct: Analysts cited the depletion of THAAD/Patriot interceptors and failure to adapt to one-way attack drones as key failures.

Source: US-Iran War 2026: 228 US Structures Damaged, 5th Fleet HQ Relocated to Florida; Operation Epic Fury Concluded →
Q91.

According to the Washington Post investigation cited in the article, what was the total number of US military structures damaged across all sites during the US-Iran war?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Over 150
  • B.Exactly 200
  • C.228✓ Correct Answer
  • D.More than 250
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the investigation found 'at least 228 structures across 15 military sites were damaged'. The other options are plausible distractors but not the precise figure reported.

Source: US-Iran War 2026: 228 US Structures Damaged, 5th Fleet HQ Relocated to Florida; Operation Epic Fury Concluded →
Q92.

What was a primary strategic implication of the damage sustained by US bases in the Gulf, as highlighted by military analysts in the report?

MediumUPSC
  • A.It demonstrated the superiority of US satellite intelligence over Iranian capabilities.
  • B.It revealed serious failures in US preparedness and air defence against asymmetric threats like drones.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It proved that traditional naval blockades are ineffective in modern conflicts.
  • D.It led to an immediate and comprehensive peace treaty between the US and Iran.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Experts like Mark Cancian and Kelly Grieco pointed to the precision of Iranian targeting and the depletion of air defence systems as evidence of serious US preparedness failures, particularly in countering low-cost, one-way attack drones—a lesson also seen in Ukraine.

Source: US-Iran War 2026: 228 US Structures Damaged, 5th Fleet HQ Relocated to Florida; Operation Epic Fury Concluded →
Q93.

Which United Nations agency publishes the World Migration Report cited in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
  • B.International Organization for Migration (IOM)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.World Health Organization (WHO)
  • D.United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the World Migration Report 2026 is released by the United Nations migration agency, the International Organization for Migration (IOM). This is a key static GK fact linked to international institutions.

Source: India Receives Highest Global Remittances at $137.67 Billion in 2024 According to UN World Migration Report →
Q94.

Consider the following statements regarding the World Migration Report 2026:

1. India received $137.67 billion in remittances in 2024, becoming the first nation to cross the $100 billion mark.

2. The United States was the largest source of remittances in 2024, sending more than $100 billion abroad.

3. Sub-Saharan Africa had the lowest average cost for sending remittances in 2023, at around 5%.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is also correct as the article states the US remained the world's largest source. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article says Sub-Saharan Africa had the highest cost (8%), while South Asia had the lowest (around 5%).

Source: India Receives Highest Global Remittances at $137.67 Billion in 2024 According to UN World Migration Report →
Q95.

According to the World Migration Report 2026, what was the amount of remittances received by India in 2020?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.$83.15 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • B.$137.67 billion
  • C.$29.60 billion
  • D.$43.98 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The report highlighted the increase in India's remittance inflows from $83.15 billion in 2020 to $137.67 billion in 2024. This precise data point is crucial for Prelims factual questions.

Source: India Receives Highest Global Remittances at $137.67 Billion in 2024 According to UN World Migration Report →
Q96.

What is the primary objective of Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) 10.C, as mentioned in the report on remittances?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase the volume of global remittance flows
  • B.To reduce remittance transaction charges to below 3% for sending $200✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To formalize all informal remittance channels
  • D.To make the United States the top remittance sender
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

SDG 10.C specifically aims to reduce the transaction costs of migrant remittances to less than 3%. The article mentions this target and contrasts it with the current higher global costs. The other options are not the stated primary objective of this SDG target.

Source: India Receives Highest Global Remittances at $137.67 Billion in 2024 According to UN World Migration Report →
Q97.

The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB), which publishes data on accidental deaths, functions under which Union Ministry?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
  • B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
  • D.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The NCRB is an attached office of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). It was established in 1986 to function as a repository of information on crime and criminals.

Source: NCRB 2024 Report: 1.99 Lakh Traffic Deaths, 3.14% GDP Loss, Speeding Causes 58% Road Fatalities →
Q98.

Consider the following statements regarding the NCRB 2024 data on traffic accidents:

1. Traffic accidents accounted for over 40% of all accidental deaths in India.

2. The socio-economic cost of road crashes is estimated to be less than 2% of India's GDP.

3. National highways, despite constituting a minor share of total road length, accounted for the highest share of road accidents.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Traffic deaths accounted for 42.6% of total accidental deaths. Statement 2 is incorrect: The cost is 3.14% of GDP, not less than 2%. Statement 3 is correct: National highways (2.1% of road length) accounted for 29.8% of accidents, the highest share among road categories.

Source: NCRB 2024 Report: 1.99 Lakh Traffic Deaths, 3.14% GDP Loss, Speeding Causes 58% Road Fatalities →
Q99.

According to the NCRB 2024 report, what percentage of road accident deaths were attributed to 'speeding' as the primary cause?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.26.3%
  • B.42.6%
  • C.58.0%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.88.0%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that speeding is the biggest factor, accounting for 58% of total road deaths. 26.3% is for 'dangerous/careless driving', 42.6% is the share of traffic deaths in all accidental deaths, and 88% is the share of road accidents in total traffic deaths.

Source: NCRB 2024 Report: 1.99 Lakh Traffic Deaths, 3.14% GDP Loss, Speeding Causes 58% Road Fatalities →
Q100.

The NCRB report highlighting that national highways account for a disproportionate share of accidents primarily underscores the need for:

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Increasing the total length of national highways across all states.
  • B.Shifting freight transport entirely from road to rail networks.
  • C.Re-engineering highway design and enhancing speed enforcement mechanisms.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Privatizing the maintenance and toll collection on all national highways.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The data shows a critical mismatch: national highways are only 2.1% of road length but cause 29.8% of accidents. This points to inherent flaws in high-speed road design (e.g., lack of pedestrian crossings, poor signage) and lax enforcement of speed limits, which are directly actionable policy areas.

Source: NCRB 2024 Report: 1.99 Lakh Traffic Deaths, 3.14% GDP Loss, Speeding Causes 58% Road Fatalities →
Q101.

The planning for Operation Sindoor was deliberated by which high-level military committee, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Security Council (NSC)
  • B.Defence Acquisition Council (DAC)
  • C.Committee of Service Chiefs (COSC)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Strategic Policy Group (SPG)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Committee of Service Chiefs (COSC), which comprises the CDS and the three service chiefs, deliberated every option for Operation Sindoor. This is a key body for joint military planning in India.

Source: Operation Sindoor: India's Tri-Service Response to Pahalgam Attack (May 7) Sets 'Lethal & Precise' Template for Counter-Terror Ops →
Q102.

Consider the following statements regarding Operation Sindoor:

1. It was a tri-service joint operation integrating land, air, and maritime capabilities.

2. The operation was launched in response to a terror attack in Pulwama.

3. A significant percentage of weapon systems used in the operation were developed and produced in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions it was a joint tri-service effort. Statement 2 is incorrect; the operation was launched in response to the Pahalgam terror attack, not Pulwama. Statement 3 is correct as highlighted in the 'Make in India edge' section of the article.

Source: Operation Sindoor: India's Tri-Service Response to Pahalgam Attack (May 7) Sets 'Lethal & Precise' Template for Counter-Terror Ops →
Q103.

According to the details provided in the article, how many terrorist camps were decimated by Indian forces during Operation Sindoor?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.7
  • B.9✓ Correct Answer
  • C.11
  • D.13
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Air Marshal Bharti is quoted in the article stating, "We struck and decimated their nine terrorist camps on May 7." The other numbers (11 and 13) correspond to airfields struck and aircraft destroyed, respectively.

Source: Operation Sindoor: India's Tri-Service Response to Pahalgam Attack (May 7) Sets 'Lethal & Precise' Template for Counter-Terror Ops →
Q104.

As per the military leadership, what was a key strategic objective achieved by Operation Sindoor, beyond destroying terror infrastructure?

MediumUPSC, Defence Exams
  • A.Formal declaration of war against Pakistan
  • B.Annexation of Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (PoK)
  • C.Altering the enemy's risk appetite and disrupting command & control✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Permanent stationing of troops across the Line of Control (LoC)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Lt Gen Ghai stated that the objectives were achieved through a 'calibrated shot and sharp shock that altered the enemy’s risk appetite and disrupted his command and control'. This highlights the psychological and strategic deterrence objective of the operation, as mentioned in the article.

Source: Operation Sindoor: India's Tri-Service Response to Pahalgam Attack (May 7) Sets 'Lethal & Precise' Template for Counter-Terror Ops →
Q105.

Which constitutional article grants religious denominations the right to manage their own affairs in matters of religion?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 25
  • B.Article 26✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Article 29
  • D.Article 30
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 26 of the Indian Constitution deals with the freedom to manage religious affairs. Specifically, clause (b) states that every religious denomination shall have the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion. This is the core article being debated in the Supreme Court hearing.

Source: Supreme Court's 9-Judge Bench Debates Limits of Judicial Review on Religious Practices Under Articles 25 & 26 →
Q106.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court hearing mentioned in the news:

1. The hearing is being conducted by a 9-judge bench presided over by the Chief Justice of India.

2. The case originates solely from a review of the 2018 Sabarimala temple verdict.

3. The bench is also examining questions related to practices in the Parsi and Dawoodi Bohra communities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions a nine-judge bench presided by Chief Justice of India Surya Kant. Statement 2 is incorrect because while the hearing arises from Sabarimala review petitions, the article states the bench is hearing broader constitutional questions, not solely the Sabarimala review. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly mentions that questions of practices among Parsis and Dawoodi Bohras are tied to the case.

Source: Supreme Court's 9-Judge Bench Debates Limits of Judicial Review on Religious Practices Under Articles 25 & 26 →
Q107.

According to the article, on which date did the Supreme Court deliver its original judgment striking down age restrictions on entry of women to the Sabarimala temple?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.May 07, 2026
  • B.September 28, 2018✓ Correct Answer
  • C.November 09, 2019
  • D.January 22, 2020
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the bench is hearing questions arising from petitions seeking review of the SC's September 28, 2018 judgment on the Sabarimala temple. The other dates are distractors; May 07, 2026 is the publication date of this news article.

Source: Supreme Court's 9-Judge Bench Debates Limits of Judicial Review on Religious Practices Under Articles 25 & 26 →
Q108.

What is the primary constitutional dilemma being expressed by the Supreme Court justices in the news article?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Balancing federal structure with unitary features during emergencies.
  • B.Determining the appropriate tax regime for religious institutions.
  • C.Defining the limits of judicial review over religious practices protected under Articles 25 & 26.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Adjudicating disputes between different religious denominations over holy sites.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core dilemma, as expressed by Justices Nagarathna and Sundresh, is whether and how much the court should intervene in religious matters. They are questioning if adjudicating every religious dispute harms India's civilisational identity and are examining the interplay between Article 26(b) (denominational rights) and state power under Article 25(2). The other options are not the central theme of the article.

Source: Supreme Court's 9-Judge Bench Debates Limits of Judicial Review on Religious Practices Under Articles 25 & 26 →
Q109.

Which government programme is responsible for implementing the 'TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyan 2.0' campaign mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Health Mission
  • B.National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana
  • D.Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the 'Delhi National TB Elimination Programme' launching the 'TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyan 2.0'. NTEP is the central programme for TB control and elimination in India.

Source: Delhi National TB Elimination Programme's 'TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyan 2.0' Detects 12,000 Cases in Six Weeks Using Handheld X-rays →
Q110.

Consider the following statements regarding the TB screening campaign in Delhi:

1. The campaign detected over 12,000 tuberculosis cases between March 24 and May 4.

2. Handheld X-ray machines are the confirmatory diagnostic method for tuberculosis.

3. The campaign specifically targeted asymptomatic patients living in vulnerable and high-density areas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article data. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states microbiological tests remain the confirmatory method, while handheld X-rays help identify suspected cases faster. Statement 3 is correct as the campaign targeted asymptomatic patients in slums, shelter homes, etc.

Source: Delhi National TB Elimination Programme's 'TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyan 2.0' Detects 12,000 Cases in Six Weeks Using Handheld X-rays →
Q111.

According to the official figures from the Delhi TB screening drive, what percentage of the total notified patients were paediatric cases?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.5%
  • B.11%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.15%
  • D.20%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that of the total notified patients, 1,323 (around 11%) were paediatric cases. The other options are distractors.

Source: Delhi National TB Elimination Programme's 'TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyan 2.0' Detects 12,000 Cases in Six Weeks Using Handheld X-rays →
Q112.

What was the primary objective of deploying handheld X-ray machines under the intensified TB screening campaign?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To replace microbiological tests as the confirmatory diagnostic method
  • B.To reduce the cost of TB diagnosis for the government
  • C.To identify suspected cases faster in the field for early detection✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To screen only symptomatic patients in hospital settings
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that handheld X-rays are helping health workers identify suspected cases much faster in the field, aiming to detect infection before symptoms become severe. It explicitly states microbiological tests remain the confirmatory method, so option A is wrong.

Source: Delhi National TB Elimination Programme's 'TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyan 2.0' Detects 12,000 Cases in Six Weeks Using Handheld X-rays →
Q113.

The U.S. Ambassador to India, Sergio Gor, mentioned in the article also holds which additional diplomatic title?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.U.S. Special Envoy for Climate
  • B.U.S. Special Envoy for South and Central Asia✓ Correct Answer
  • C.U.S. Special Representative for Afghanistan
  • D.U.S. Special Coordinator for the Indo-Pacific
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that U.S. Ambassador Sergio Gor is 'also U.S. President Donald Trump’s Special envoy for South and Central Asia.' This is a static fact directly from the source.

Source: U.S. Secretary of State Marco Rubio Visits India May 24-26 for Bilateral Talks & Quad FMM, Reviews $20.5 Bn Investment & BTA →
Q114.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The Quad Foreign Ministers' Meeting (FMM) is scheduled for May 26, 2026, in Delhi.

2. The stalled Bilateral Trade Agreement (BTA) faced delays primarily due to Indian objections over pharmaceutical patents.

3. U.S. naval operations in the Strait of Hormuz have been 'paused' as per the article.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the Quad FMM is on May 26. Statement 2 is incorrect; the BTA delay is attributed to 'uncertainty over the U.S. Supreme Court’s decision to strike down Mr. Trump’s "liberation day tariffs"', not Indian patent objections. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions naval operations have been 'paused' for U.S.-Iran talks.

Source: U.S. Secretary of State Marco Rubio Visits India May 24-26 for Bilateral Talks & Quad FMM, Reviews $20.5 Bn Investment & BTA →
Q115.

According to the article, what is the value of investments promised by Indian businesses in the U.S. during the 'Select USA' initiative, described as a record for 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.$15.2 Billion
  • B.$18.7 Billion
  • C.$20.5 Billion✓ Correct Answer
  • D.$22.1 Billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'investments promised by Indian businesses... unlocked over $20.5 billion in investment. This is a record-breaking moment.' The other figures are plausible distractors but not mentioned.

Source: U.S. Secretary of State Marco Rubio Visits India May 24-26 for Bilateral Talks & Quad FMM, Reviews $20.5 Bn Investment & BTA →
Q116.

What is a primary strategic objective of the Quad Foreign Ministers' Meeting as indicated in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To launch a joint military exercise in the South China Sea
  • B.To formally admit new members like South Korea into the grouping
  • C.To agree on a date for the long-pending Quad Leaders' Summit✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To announce a unified stance on sanctions against Russia
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states, 'All eyes will be on whether the Quad meet agrees on a date for the Summit, which the government hopes to hold later this year, after trying unsuccessfully to host it for the past two years.' This is the key strategic deliverable mentioned.

Source: U.S. Secretary of State Marco Rubio Visits India May 24-26 for Bilateral Talks & Quad FMM, Reviews $20.5 Bn Investment & BTA →

Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?

For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.

  • Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
  • Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
  • Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.

Frequently Asked Questions

What are the important current affairs questions for 7 May 2026?▼

This page contains 116 current affairs questions from 7 May 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.

How to use 7 May 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼

Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.

How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼

Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.

Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼

Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.

What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼

Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.

All Questions in This Set

  1. Q1. The article mentions the National Investigation Agency (NIA) i…
  2. Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the strategic less…
  3. Q3. According to the article, what was the primary intended object…
  4. Q4. is the broader strategic lesson that Operation Sindoor undersc…
  5. Q5. statutory provision, as interpreted by the Supreme Court, prim…
  6. Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
  7. Q7. In the original consumer case discussed in the Supreme Court r…
  8. Q8. is the primary legal distinction drawn by the Supreme Court in…
  9. Q9. Under which Article of the Constitution is the Election Commis…
  10. Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the appointment of…
  11. Q11. According to the news article, which two individuals were appo…
  12. Q12. is the primary constitutional concern highlighted by the Supre…
  13. Q13. Under which law was the Siraj-ul-Uloom seminary declared an un…
  14. Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the closure of Sir…
  15. Q15. Approximately how many students were enrolled in the Siraj-ul-…
  16. Q16. power does Section 8(1) of the UAPA grant regarding an unlawfu…
  17. Q17. The report analyzing criminal cases and assets of West Bengal …
  18. Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the ADR report on …
  19. Q19. According to the ADR report, what is the average declared asse…
  20. Q20. The primary concern highlighted by the ADR report on West Beng…
  21. Q21. The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MG…
  22. Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the news analysis …
  23. Q23. According to the article, which flagship rural employment sche…
  24. Q24. is a primary caution raised by the article regarding recent po…
  25. Q25. According to the article, which state's scheme is cited as a m…
  26. Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the health infrast…
  27. Q27. According to The Health Dynamics of India 2022-23 report cited…
  28. Q28. is the primary critique of the budgetary focus on health infra…
  29. Q29. The article mentions that 'Special Category States' receive a …
  30. Q30. Consider the following statements regarding state debt as per …
  31. Q31. According to the article, what was the approximate interest ra…
  32. Q32. is a primary implication of high interest payments consuming o…
  33. Q33. The newly operationalized grievance system for gig workers in …
  34. Q34. Consider the following statements regarding Karnataka's gig wo…
  35. Q35. According to the Karnataka government's notification, what is …
  36. Q36. is the primary objective of establishing the Internal Dispute …
  37. Q37. The Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS) is implemen…
  38. Q38. Consider the following statements regarding ECLGS 5.0: 1. It …
  39. Q39. According to the SBI Research report cited in the article, wha…
  40. Q40. is the primary stated objective of launching ECLGS 5.0, as per…
  41. Q41. The Himachal Pradesh Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2026, whi…
  42. Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the Himachal Prade…
  43. Q43. According to the article, how many Gram Panchayats in Himachal…
  44. Q44. is the primary rationale behind the Himachal Pradesh governmen…
  45. Q45. The record investment pledge by Indian companies was announced…
  46. Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Indian …
  47. Q47. is the value of Sun Pharmaceutical's planned acquisition that …
  48. Q48. is a primary strategic implication of the large-scale Indian p…
  49. Q49. state agency is primarily responsible for developing Industria…
  50. Q50. Consider the following statements regarding Haryana's infrastr…
  51. Q51. According to the article, what is the estimated area of land i…
  52. Q52. is the primary objective of Haryana's land pooling-based urban…
  53. Q53. article of the Indian Constitution guarantees religious denomi…
  54. Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
  55. Q55. In which year did the Supreme Court's Constitution Bench strik…
  56. Q56. was the primary concern expressed by Supreme Court Justices re…
  57. Q57. The Punchhi Commission report, cited in the article, was heade…
  58. Q58. Consider the following statements regarding precedents for gov…
  59. Q59. According to the article, what is the effective seat count of …
  60. Q60. As per the article, what is the primary constitutional princip…
  61. Q61. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is President's …
  62. Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the role of a Gove…
  63. Q63. As per the news article, what is the primary risk the Supreme …
  64. Q64. is the underlying constitutional objective behind the Supreme …
  65. Q65. The former Chinese Defence Ministers sentenced in the news wer…
  66. Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. Both…
  67. Q67. According to the article, in which year were the two former De…
  68. Q68. is the primary significance of sentencing former Defence Minis…
  69. Q69. The European Union's comprehensive rules on Artificial Intelli…
  70. Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the EU's recent am…
  71. Q71. According to the amended EU AI Act rules, when will the high-r…
  72. Q72. is a primary reason cited by the EU executive for delaying the…
  73. Q73. was the Director General of Military Operations (DGMO) of the …
  74. Q74. Consider the following statements regarding Operation Sindoor:…
  75. Q75. According to the news, on how many terror infrastructures did …
  76. Q76. was the primary strategic signal that Operation Sindoor aimed …
  77. Q77. government think tank released a 2024 position paper on senior…
  78. Q78. Consider the following statements regarding India's ageing pop…
  79. Q79. According to the NITI Aayog position paper cited in the articl…
  80. Q80. is identified in the article as a primary reason for shifting …
  81. Q81. The World Inequality Report 2026, cited in the article, is a p…
  82. Q82. Consider the following statements regarding findings of the Wo…
  83. Q83. According to the World Inequality Report 2026, what percentage…
  84. Q84. of the following is identified as a primary reason for the per…
  85. Q85. The 'Sudarshan Chakra' mission, recently in news, is related t…
  86. Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the Rights of Pers…
  87. Q87. According to the article, what is the total financial outlay f…
  88. Q88. is the primary strategic lesson highlighted from Operation Sin…
  89. Q89. The US Navy's 5th Fleet, whose headquarters was relocated due …
  90. Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the 2026 US-Iran w…
  91. Q91. According to the Washington Post investigation cited in the ar…
  92. Q92. was a primary strategic implication of the damage sustained by…
  93. Q93. United Nations agency publishes the World Migration Report cit…
  94. Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the World Migratio…
  95. Q95. According to the World Migration Report 2026, what was the amo…
  96. Q96. is the primary objective of Sustainable Development Goal (SDG)…
  97. Q97. The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB), which publishes data…
  98. Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the NCRB 2024 data…
  99. Q99. According to the NCRB 2024 report, what percentage of road acc…
  100. Q100. The NCRB report highlighting that national highways account fo…
  101. Q101. The planning for Operation Sindoor was deliberated by which hi…
  102. Q102. Consider the following statements regarding Operation Sindoor:…
  103. Q103. According to the details provided in the article, how many ter…
  104. Q104. As per the military leadership, what was a key strategic objec…
  105. Q105. constitutional article grants religious denominations the righ…
  106. Q106. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
  107. Q107. According to the article, on which date did the Supreme Court …
  108. Q108. is the primary constitutional dilemma being expressed by the S…
  109. Q109. government programme is responsible for implementing the 'TB M…
  110. Q110. Consider the following statements regarding the TB screening c…
  111. Q111. According to the official figures from the Delhi TB screening …
  112. Q112. was the primary objective of deploying handheld X-ray machines…
  113. Q113. The U.S. Ambassador to India, Sergio Gor, mentioned in the art…
  114. Q114. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  115. Q115. According to the article, what is the value of investments pro…
  116. Q116. is a primary strategic objective of the Quad Foreign Ministers…