6 May 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The article explicitly states the ERP doctrine is a judicial standard to determine which religious practices are protected under Article 25 and Article 26 of the Constitution. Articles 25 guarantees freedom of religion, while Article 26 provides rights to religious denominations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states the court 'firmly established' its role in determining essential practices in the 1958 Sri Venkataramana Devaru case. Statement 2 is incorrect: 'Complete autonomy' was held in the earlier 1954 Shirur Mutt case, a principle from which the 1958 case moved away. Statement 3 is correct: The article explicitly mentions the Shayara Bano case held triple talaq would not form part of any essential religious practice.

Explanation

The article directly quotes K. Santhanam's observation from the Constituent Assembly debates on Draft Article 19 (later Article 25) made on December 6, 1948. This is a precise factual recall from the provided content.

Explanation

The article directly highlights this concern, quoting Solicitor General Tushar Mehta's argument during the Sabarimala hearing: 'a secular court can’t decide a religious practice as mere superstition because you don’t have scholarly competence.' This captures the core debate about the judiciary's role as a theological arbiter.

Explanation

The article states the revision was adopted at a March meeting of the Supreme People's Assembly, which is described as Pyongyang's rubber-stamp legislature. This is the correct legislative body per North Korea's constitutional structure.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as explicitly stated by the professor in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article says it codifies leader Kim's nuclear role, not the military's governing role. Statement 3 is incorrect; it defines territory as bordering South Korea, but the article does not mention China in this context.

Explanation

The article clearly states the revision is 'believed to have been adopted at a March meeting of the Supreme People's Assembly.' The news was published in May 2026, reporting on this earlier event.

Explanation

The core implication of removing the unification goal is a doctrinal shift. By defining South Korea as a separate, bordering state in its constitution, North Korea is moving away from the 'one Korea' principle and hardening a posture of permanent division, which has major security ramifications.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the Supreme Court expanded the definition under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act, 2016. The 1995 Act was the predecessor, while POCSO and Juvenile Justice Acts deal with different subjects.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Court expanded the definition to include ingestion. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the clarification applies 'retrospectively from the day the Act came into force'. Statement 3 is correct as the Court 'suggested reversing the burden of proof onto the accused'.

Explanation

The article provides specific data: 'Uttar Pradesh reported the highest backlog at 198 cases, followed by West Bengal with 160 cases and Gujarat with 114.' Therefore, Uttar Pradesh had the highest pendency.

Explanation

The article states the petition argued the law created an 'arbitrary and unreasonable classification' by distinguishing victims based on the method of assault, which has no rational nexus to the law's object. This is a classic Article 14 (equality) challenge. Other articles mentioned are not the primary basis of the petition.

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, Prime Minister Modi stated, 'A decade ago, Vietnam became India's first comprehensive strategic partner in ASEAN.' This is a factual statement directly from the source.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states 'set a $25 billion annual trade target by 2030'. Statement 2 is correct as it mentions '13 agreements...including digital payments, rare earth minerals'. Statement 3 is correct as Mr. Modi said 'India is grateful to Vietnam for its strong condemnation of the Pahalgam terrorist attack'. All facts are present in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states, 'Mr. Modi noted that the bilateral trade between India and Vietnam has doubled in the last decade to reach $16 billion'. The target is $25 billion by 2030, making $16 billion the correct current figure.

Explanation

The article mentions that 'Mr. Modi and Mr. Lam also deliberated on the situation in the Indo-Pacific... and agreed to continue to contribute to the rule-of-law, peace, stability, and prosperity.' This indicates a strategic objective focused on regional stability, not a military alliance, tourism, or bank merger.

Explanation

The Election Commission of India, the constitutional body responsible for conducting elections, is established under Article 324 of the Indian Constitution. This is a fundamental static GK fact for polity.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the 2023 Act's committee comprises the Prime Minister, a Union Minister nominated by the PM, and the Leader of Opposition (not the Speaker). Statement 3 is correct, as mentioned in the article. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the March 2023 Supreme Court verdict directed appointment by a committee comprising the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition, and the Chief Justice of India. This is a key factual takeaway.

Explanation

As per the article, the PILs argued that the exclusion of the Chief Justice of India from the selection panel undermines the independence of the appointment process. The core challenge revolves around preserving institutional autonomy, not financial or tenure-related issues.

Explanation

The Election Commission of India is established under Part XV of the Constitution, which deals with Elections. Articles 324 to 329 in this part cover the powers, composition, and functions of the Election Commission.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per Article 324(2). Statement 2 is incorrect; the SC prescribed a committee (PM, LoP, CJI) for appointments until a law is made, not the Council of Ministers. Statement 3 is incorrect; the 2023 Act replaced the CJI with a Union Cabinet Minister.

Explanation

The Supreme Court's 2023 judgment specified a three-member committee comprising the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha (or leader of the largest opposition party), and the Chief Justice of India. This was a stop-gap arrangement until Parliament enacted a law.

Explanation

The core challenge to the 2023 Act is that by replacing the Chief Justice of India with a Union Cabinet Minister in the selection committee, the law vests the executive with greater influence, potentially compromising the neutrality and independence of the Election Commission, a key constitutional body.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Supreme Court, in a bench of Justices Vikram Nath and Sandeep Mehta, delivered the judgment on April 9, 2026, setting aside the rulings of the Rajasthan High Court and the Kota trial court.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Court ruled that management and ownership are distinct and 'cannot be conflated'. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Court reiterated that the burden of proof lies entirely on the plaintiff, not the defendant.

Explanation

The article states the society instituted a civil suit on October 3, 1977. 1976 is when Kishan Chand allegedly began asserting ownership. 1988 is the year of the trial court decree, and 2007 is the year of the High Court judgment.

Explanation

The Supreme Court found the lower courts' approach flawed because they focused on whether the defendant (Kishan Chand) had proved his chain of adoption, instead of examining whether the plaintiff society had independently proved its ownership through documents like a deed of dedication.

Explanation

While the Ministry of Agriculture focuses on farm productivity, the 'Kasturi Cotton Bharat' initiative for traceability, certification, and branding of lint cotton bales, and the broader 5F (Farm to Foreign) vision for the textile sector's value chain, falls under the purview of the Ministry of Textiles.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The scheme was announced in Budget 2025-26 and has an approved outlay of ₹5,659.22 crore for 2026-27 to 2030-31. Statement 2 is incorrect: 'Kasturi Cotton Bharat' is a certification and branding initiative for lint cotton bales after processing, not for raw seed cotton (kapas) at the farm gate. Statement 3 is correct: The mission targets enhancing lint productivity from 440 kg/ha to 755 kg/ha by 2031.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Centre approved Rs 5,659.22 crore for the Mission for Cotton Productivity for five years (2026–27 to 2030–31). The other figures are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the provided content.

Explanation

The mission's focus on diversifying India’s fibre base by including natural fibres like flax, ramie, sisal, and bamboo aims to complement cotton and align India’s textile sector with evolving global demand patterns. It does not aim to replace cotton or promote synthetics, nor does the article mention over-dependence on imports as a primary challenge addressed by this specific component.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the bench consisted of Justices Vikram Nath and Sandeep Mehta. Knowing the composition of significant benches is static GK relevant for Polity.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The HC granted 'default bail' (statutory bail), not 'regular bail'. Statement 2 is correct as the SC noted the chargesheet was filed on July 7, 2024, before the extended period ended on July 11, 2024. Statement 3 is correct as the SC ruled the accused lost the right by waiting till September 2024 to appeal.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'The High Court granted default bail to the duo on January 8, 2025.' The other dates are distractors: May 4 is the SC order date, July 7 is the chargesheet filing date.

Explanation

The SC's core finding was that the trial court had validly extended the investigation time, and the chargesheet was filed on July 7, 2024, before the extended deadline of July 11, 2024. Therefore, the condition for default bail (non-filing of chargesheet within the permitted time) was not met.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the special court directed framing of charges under the anti-terror Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA). This is India's primary law for dealing with terrorist activities and banned organizations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article mentions Saidulu Singapanga was granted bail by the Bombay High Court in 2021, not that bail was granted to all eight accused by the Special Court. Statement 2 is correct as the article states the arrest was on allegations of raising funds for the banned CPI (Maoist). Statement 3 is correct as the court referred to a panchnama and witness statements in the ATS chargesheet.

Explanation

The article clearly states that 'Singapanga was arrested in February, 2018.' Another accused, Ajay Dasari, was arrested in January 2019, but the question specifically asks about Singapanga's arrest year.

Explanation

The article states the lawyers argued the accused were 'falsely implicated because they were members of a trade union working to improve workers’ conditions' and that 'being a member of a trade union and working for the betterment of workers cannot be termed as an illegal activity.' This was the core defence argument against the UAPA charges.

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, President To Lam is also the General Secretary of the Central Committee of the Communist Party of Vietnam. This dual role is a key feature of Vietnam's political system where the Party holds supreme authority.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: India was Vietnam's first Strategic Partner in ASEAN in 2007. Statement 2 is incorrect; the current trade volume is $16 billion, with a target of $25 billion by 2030. Statement 3 is correct as the article states Vietnam joined the IPOI during the meeting.

Explanation

Prime Minister Modi stated in the article that several decisions were taken to boost bilateral trade to $25 billion by 2030. The current trade volume is $16 billion, making $25 billion the correct future target.

Explanation

The joint statement explicitly reaffirmed the importance of peaceful dispute resolution in accordance with international law, particularly the 1982 UNCLOS, and called for non-militarization. This underscores a commitment to a rules-based maritime order, not unilateral actions or historical claims.

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, the DRDO has been developing Project Kusha. DRDO is India's premier agency under the Ministry of Defence for military research and development.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. Akashteer is the Indian Army's automated Air Defence Control and Reporting System, not the IAF's. The IAF's system is IACCS. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's mention of the Sudarshan Chakra mission. Statement 3 is the correct definition of C4I2SR provided in the article.

Explanation

The article states that the IAF chief disclosed the target was taken down from a distance of about 300 km, describing it as a significant long-range kill. This demonstrates the capability of India's long-range surface-to-air missile systems.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that underground infrastructure (command centers, bunkers, storage) is a key focus for 'force preservation' and to enable commanders to 'lead operations securely during active conflict.' This is a direct lesson in ensuring survivability and continuity of command against modern threats.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change introduced the mandatory emission norms for coal-fired power plants on December 7, 2015. This ministry is the nodal body for environmental regulations in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions 1,24,564 preventable deaths, including 14,777 cardiovascular and 8,476 respiratory deaths. Statement 2 is incorrect because the study found benefits were NOT evenly distributed, with larger gains for OBC, SC, ST, and poorer groups. Statement 3 is correct as the study was published in 'Nature' and used the mentioned framework.

Explanation

The article provides the precise figure of 1,24,564 deaths every year that could be prevented. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors. Accuracy in recalling such specific data points is crucial for prelims.

Explanation

The article directly states that the study argues that 'health-related monetary gains from reduced emissions are likely to outweigh the cost of installing emission-control technologies.' This is the core economic argument presented to counter the claim that FGD is expensive due to India's low sulphur coal.

Explanation

As per the MTP Act, specifically mentioned in the article, the length of pregnancy (24 weeks) shall not apply in cases of substantial fetal abnormalities diagnosed by a Medical Board constituted for that purpose. This is a key static provision of the law.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The court deprecated the medical board of RML Hospital (under ABVIMS), not AIIMS. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's explanation of the MTP Act. Statement 3 is correct; the court had initially directed ABVIMS/RML to examine the woman, though later it directed AIIMS for a fresh opinion.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the woman was seeking termination of her "27-week pregnancy". The 21-week mark was when initial scans were done, and 24 weeks is the standard MTP limit, making them close but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

Justice Kaurav recorded that there was "complete disregard to statutory mandate under the MTP Act and guidelines". The board failed to opine on the feasibility of termination as directed by the court, which is its duty under the Act's framework for cases beyond 24 weeks.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India flagging issues in warship projects. The CAG is India's supreme audit institution, auditing government expenditures, including defence projects.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. Project 17A is for 'Nilgiri'-class frigates, not 'Shivalik'-class. Statement 2 is correct as per the article, which states 75% indigenous components by value. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the delivery of INS Mahendragiri on April 30 (2026).

Explanation

The article clearly states that Project 17A is a ₹45,000-crore programme. This is a key data point for factual recall in prelims-type questions.

Explanation

The article's core argument questions the strategic rationale, stating that a frigate lacking premium sensors to find submarines is 'effectively not responding to China's presence.' It highlights a mismatch between platform acquisition (hulls) and the 'detect' capability needed for the primary threat.

Explanation

The Supreme Court's observation, as per the article, specifically references Article 25 of the Constitution. This article deals with the freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, and propagation of religion, and includes a provision enabling state regulation for social reform.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions Justice B.V. Nagarathna made the observation. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Court explicitly stated Article 25 'enables the state to make a law to end casteist practices', affirming state power. Statement 3 is correct as the article says the observation was made 'in the Sabarimala review case'.

Explanation

The article clearly states that Justice B.V. Nagarathna made the observation 'in the Sabarimala review case'. The other cases are landmark judgments on different constitutional issues but are not mentioned in the provided news content.

Explanation

The core implication of the observation is that for a practice to claim protection as a 'religious practice' under Article 25, it must not be casteist or exclusionary. This narrows the automatic protection and subjects religious practices to the overarching principles of equality and non-discrimination embedded in the Constitution.

Explanation

The article mentions the India Meteorological Department's (IMD) forecast of a below-normal monsoon. IMD, under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, is the principal agency responsible for meteorological observations, weather forecasting, and seismology in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clearly states solar contributed only 0.1% of the evening's needs after sunset on that day. Statement 3 is the core argument of the article, identifying battery storage as the key bottleneck. Hence, both 1 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

The article states that India had to curtail 2.3 terawatt hours (TWh) of solar generation between late May and December 2025. The figure of 0.9 TWh was the amount wasted in October 2025 alone, making it a close distractor.

Explanation

The article's central thesis is that solar capacity without storage is a 'half-built bridge'. Storage allows solar power generated during the day to be used in the evening, bridging the gap between installed capacity and actual, usable generation, thereby preventing curtailment and maintaining grid stability.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that on February 6, the Union Ministry of Home Affairs issued a set of instructions to States and other government bodies regarding the singing of Vande Mataram.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The amendment is to the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971, not the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955. Statement 2 is correct as per the article, which states the Act covers the National Anthem and Constitution. Statement 3 is also correct as it accurately quotes the punishment mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article clearly states that an offence under the Act is punishable by imprisonment of up to three years or a fine or both. The other options are distractors.

Explanation

The core news is that the Cabinet cleared an amendment to specifically include Vande Mataram under the protective ambit of the 1971 Act, thereby making its insult a punishable offence. The other options are either incorrect or not the primary focus of this specific decision.

Explanation

The article directly quotes the Supreme Court ruling stating that 'life imprisonment means imprisonment for the entire life of the prisoner'. The other options reflect common misconceptions that the Court explicitly rejected.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the article states the Court ruled it does NOT automatically end after 20 years. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's line: 'a life convict could not ask to be released as a matter of right'. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions release is possible 'unless the Government chooses to remit the same earlier'.

Explanation

The article's title is 'Fifty years ago | Supreme Court defines life imprisonment' and it is published in 2026. Calculating fifty years back from 2026 gives the year 1976 as the origin of the ruling. The article is an archive piece from May 6, 1976.

Explanation

The core implication, as stated in the article, is that a life convict cannot be released as a right after any fixed period. The only avenue for release before the end of their natural life is if the Government (executive) exercises its constitutional power of remission. The ruling itself is a judicial interpretation, not a transfer of power.

Explanation

The article references the context of the Bill's passage. The Shah Bano case (1985) is the landmark judgment on maintenance for divorced Muslim women that directly precipitated the introduction and passage of this specific Bill in 1986.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article date. Statement 2 is incorrect; the amendment allowed the option to be governed by Sections 125 to 128 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, not the Indian Penal Code (IPC). Statement 3 is correct as per the vote count mentioned (370 to 61).

Explanation

The article explicitly states the Bill was "overwhelmingly voted out (370 to 61)". The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

The article details the amendment (Section 4A) which states that if both parties declare, they can choose to have the application disposed of under Sections 125 to 128 of the CrPC, 1973. This introduced an element of choice between personal law and general law.

Explanation

The Economic Survey is an annual document presented by the Department of Economic Affairs under the Ministry of Finance. It reviews the state of the economy and is presented ahead of the Union Budget.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly draws a parallel between the two eras. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Survey notes India's share is 2%, which is lower than the EU's 21%. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article argues the opposite, stating this infrastructure risks creating lock-in and does not build sovereign capability.

Explanation

The article directly quotes the Economic Survey 2025-26, stating that only 2% of the world's AI training-data startups are based in India. The other options are distractors: 21% is the EU's share and 40% is the USA's share.

Explanation

The core argument is that India is providing infrastructure (land, power) for foreign AI models, which aids diffusion, but is not investing in the foundational R&D, talent, and sovereign compute needed to produce AI. This repeats the 'tenant' model of the IT boom instead of becoming an 'owner' or 'producer'.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the data for the Indian crude oil basket price averaging $114.48 per barrel in April came from the Petroleum Planning and Analysis Cell (PPAC). PPAC is a body under the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas that provides data and analysis for the sector.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'Since the beginning of this year, the currency has fallen by around 5.64 per cent.' Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states FPIs have 'taken out around $21.2 billion', not brought in. Statement 3 is correct: 'There is the possibility of the current account deficit widening to around 2 per cent in 2026-27.'

Explanation

The article provides a specific data point: 'In April, the price of the Indian crude oil basket averaged $114.48 per barrel...'. $113 is the mentioned Brent crude price, $95.36 is the rupee-dollar rate, and $21.2 billion is the FPI outflow amount.

Explanation

The article directly states: 'Higher prices at the pump will push up retail inflation across the country...' This is the primary domestic consequence of transmitting high global oil prices. The other options are not supported by the article's analysis.

Explanation

The FRBM Act, enacted by the Parliament, provides the legal framework for fiscal discipline. It sets targets for the fiscal deficit for both the central and state governments, making it the primary national framework governing state fiscal management.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the ₹1 lakh crore welfare spend equals about one-third of Tamil Nadu's ₹3.31 lakh crore revenue receipts. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article explicitly says the manifesto does NOT propose additional taxes; it aims to increase revenue 'without imposing any additional tax on the people'. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the fiscal deficit could rise from 3% to 3.5-4.0% of GSDP.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the previous DMK government spent ₹65,000 crore on welfare schemes and subsidies in 2025-26. The new government's projected spend of ₹1 lakh crore represents a 52% increase from this base figure.

Explanation

The article's core analysis highlights that the massive welfare spend could 'severely restrict the new government’s room for investments needed to fulfil its biggest promise: job creation for youth.' This directly points to the crowding out of capital expenditure, which is crucial for creating long-term employment opportunities.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the Chhattisgarh Environment Conservation Board as being pulled up by the High Court. This is the State Pollution Control Board (SPCB) for Chhattisgarh, established under the Water Act, 1974, and is the primary agency for enforcing pollution control laws at the state level.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the PIL was filed in 2024 based on a news item. Statement 2 is correct as the article details villagers suffering from itching and respiratory illnesses. Statement 3 is incorrect; the court asked for personal affidavits detailing action taken and mentioned a past temporary shutdown order, but did not order an immediate permanent shutdown in this report.

Explanation

The final paragraph of the article clearly states: 'The next hearing is on May 14.' This is a direct factual recall question testing attention to key dates in current affairs, a common Prelims question type.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions multiple times that villagers did not protest because the factories provided them with employment and, in some cases, daily liquor. This highlights a classic dilemma where immediate economic benefits silence opposition to environmental degradation, a point critically analyzed by the court.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the head of the International Energy Agency (IEA) giving this assessment. The IEA is a Paris-based autonomous intergovernmental organization established in 1974 to coordinate a collective response to major oil supply disruptions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the opposite: GDP growth is projected to slow from 7.4% in FY26 to 6.5% in FY27. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article. Therefore, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'India is projected to see... a projected increase in inflation from 2.3% to 4.4% due to the impact of disruptions observed in the energy supply chains.' 2.3% is the inflation rate for FY26, making it a close distractor.

Explanation

The article's core argument is that 'India’s edge lies not in self-sufficiency but in optionality.' This implies creating multiple options for supply, routes, and reserves to manage risk, rather than the unattainable goal of complete self-sufficiency given India's import dependency.

Explanation

The India Semiconductor Mission is a key initiative under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), which is responsible for policy and promotion of electronics and IT manufacturing in the country.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the first project approved under ISM 1.0 was Micron Technology's plant in Gujarat, not Tata's. Statement 3 is correct as ISM 2.0 is expected to focus on ancillaries and may reduce the ATMP/OSAT subsidy from 50%.

Explanation

The article states that the Tata Electronics semiconductor foundry in Dholera, Gujarat, is being set up at an estimated cost of ₹91,000 crore. ₹1.64 lakh crore is the cumulative investment for all 12 plants, ₹76,000 crore is the ISM 1.0 outlay, and ₹27,000 crore is the cost of Tata's assembly unit in Assam.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India's foray into semiconductor production is a strategic move to insert itself into the global chip supply chain and establish the sector to deepen domestic value addition in its electronics sector. While defense is a user, the objective is broader supply chain integration.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the new agreements come after the Trump administration had earlier adopted a 'hands-off approach to regulation'. This is the specific previous policy being reversed.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article mentions the Trump administration's previous stance but does not specify which administration announced the new policy, making this an assumption. Statement 3 is incorrect; the third company mentioned is xAI, not OpenAI.

Explanation

The article's published date and the announcement date within the text is clearly stated as May 06, 2026. The other options are close distractors based on adjacent days.

Explanation

While not explicitly stated, the core objective of a 'pre-release assessment' policy is inherently to evaluate models for safety, bias, and other societal risks before they are widely deployed. The other options are not supported by the article's context.

Explanation

As per the article, the Supreme Court bench asked the Bar Council of India (BCI) to set up a committee of experts. The BCI is the statutory body established under the Advocates Act, 1961, to regulate the legal profession.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Supreme Court, on February 27, stated that reliance on fake AI-generated judgments "would be a misconduct, and legal consequences shall follow," not a simple error. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions the Court's concern over the absence of sovereign LLMs. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Court appointed Senior Advocate Shyam Divan, not the Attorney General, as amicus curiae.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "The matter has now been listed for further hearing on May 26." May 06 is the publication date, and February 27 is the date of a previous hearing where notice was issued.

Explanation

The article clarifies that the Court asked the BCI to set up a committee to "examine concerns" and later states "the intention is not to prevent the use of AI but to address the associated risks." The bench stressed the need for accountability, making option C correct. The Court explicitly said it was not attempting to ban AI, ruling out option A.

Explanation

The article states the U.S. is trying to persuade China to abstain from vetoing a resolution at the UN Security Council. The UNSC is the only UN body where the five permanent members, including China, possess veto power over substantive resolutions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states China and Russia vetoed an earlier resolution. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions sanctions on April 24, 2026, targeting a Chinese oil refinery and roughly 40 shipping companies and tankers.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that China imports 'almost one-third of its liquefied natural gas from the Middle East,' which transits the Strait of Hormuz. The other options are close distractors based on other data points in the news.

Explanation

The core argument made by U.S. Secretary of State Rubio, as per the article, is that 'Beijing’s export-driven economy depends on shipments going through the strait' and that 'It is in China’s interest that Iran stop closing the strait.' The U.S. is appealing to China's economic self-interest to gain its cooperation.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the case for the 4% target rests partly on the assessment of the RBI's Expert Committee in 2014, which established it as the rate optimizing macroeconomic conditions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article says the framework is notified through March 31, 2031 (end of FY30-31). Statement 2 is incorrect: The framework, as described, includes flexibility and is applied considering global challenges. Statement 3 is correct: The article states that Advanced Economies cluster around a 2% target.

Explanation

The article directly states: "Emerging markets and developed economies (EMDEs) are placed at a higher range between 2.5 % and 4%." India's 4% target is at the upper end of this range.

Explanation

The article details that the case for retaining 4% rests on the 2014 Expert Committee assessment, subsequent re-estimations, and its suitability compared to other inflation-targeting economies, placing India appropriately among EMDEs.

Explanation

The article explicitly draws a comparison between Vijay's electoral success and that of M. G. Ramachandran (MGR), the other superstar who became Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu. While Jayalalithaa was also a film star, the direct comparison made in the text is with MGR.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states TVK was launched in February 2024. Statement 2 is correct as it mentions the fan organization conducted welfare work and gathered data. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states the confrontation over 'Mersal' (2017) was with the BJP at the Centre, not the DMK state government.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that in 2009, Vijay's father helped shape the All India Thalapathy Vijay Makkal Iyakkam. This date is a key factual marker in the timeline of his political mobilization.

Explanation

The article details that unlike rivals who campaigned relentlessly, Vijay campaigned sparingly with barely a dozen major outings. His appearances became events amplified digitally by supporters and influencers, representing a distinct, less physically intensive campaign model.

Explanation

The POCSO Act, 2012, is administered by the Ministry of Women and Child Development (WCD). This ministry is the nodal agency for policies and legislation concerning the safety, welfare, and development of children in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Delhi High Court overturned an acquittal and convicted the accused; it did not acquit. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Court specifically rejected the trial court's view that delayed registration devalues a birth certificate, stating it is common in rural/weaker sections. Statement 3 is correct as per the article: The accused was convicted under POCSO Act Section 6 and IPC Sections 363, 366, and 342.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the prosecution alleged the survivor was 'aged 16 years'. The Delhi High Court relied on the birth certificate which proved she was a minor, leading to the conviction under the POCSO Act.

Explanation

The core principle of the POCSO Act is that a child below 18 cannot legally consent to sexual activity. The HC's ruling reaffirms this 'statutory prohibition', meaning the defence of a consensual relationship is irrelevant and the act remains a criminal offence.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Haryana Prisons Rule No. 268 places the responsibility for providing escort guards on the district police. This was detailed in the affidavit filed by the Jail Superintendent.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the court termed it 'structural violence', not 'direct violence'. Statement 2 is incorrect as the court underscored that incarceration does NOT extinguish a prisoner's fundamental rights. Statement 3 is correct as the article details the inmate's referral to AIIMS, New Delhi.

Explanation

The medical status report detailed that the inmate was referred to AIIMS on April 6, 2026, after an initial referral to Civil Hospital, Gurgaon, on April 4. The other dates correspond to follow-up visits or different referrals mentioned in the timeline.

Explanation

The judgment's core message is that the state, having taken away an individual's liberty, assumes a greater responsibility (a 'heightened duty') to protect their remaining fundamental rights, especially the right to health under Article 21. The court explicitly stated that incarceration does not extinguish these rights.

Explanation

Article 164(1) of the Constitution explicitly states that 'the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor'. This is a foundational feature of the state executive structure in India's parliamentary system.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. While Article 164(1) uses the phrase 'during the pleasure of the Governor', the Constituent Assembly debates and Supreme Court interpretations clarify this is not an absolute power but is conditioned by the convention of the Council of Ministers enjoying the confidence of the Legislative Assembly. Statement 2 is correct as per the text of Article 172. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article regarding the Supreme Court's 2022 observation.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that an election petition may be filed before the High Court 'within forty-five days from the declaration of the results'. This is a key procedural timeline under the election law framework.

Explanation

The article clearly explains that a 'floor test' is the constitutional mechanism used to determine whether the executive (Chief Minister) enjoys the confidence of the legislature. It involves proving majority support in the House. While a no-confidence motion is a related procedure, the specific term used in the context of proving majority upon gubernatorial invitation is a floor test.

Explanation

The Ministry of Commerce and Industry is the nodal agency for formulating India's trade policy and releasing official trade data, including export and import figures. The article mentions 'commerce ministry data'.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Total exports grew 4.6% to $863.11 billion, an all-time high. Statement 2 is incorrect: Services exports grew 8.71%, while merchandise exports grew only 0.93%. Statement 3 is correct: Services exports reached $421.32 billion, crossing $400 billion.

Explanation

The article states that merchandise exports grew to $441.78 billion in 2025-26. $387.55 billion is the previous year's services exports, $421.32 billion is the current year's services exports, and $437.70 billion is the previous year's merchandise exports.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the sharp rise in services exports 'underscores the expanding global demand for services such as IT, business solutions, and professional expertise, reinforcing the country's strength in the services sector.' The other options are interpretations not supported by the article's content.

Explanation

Vietnam is a central partner in India's Act East Policy, which aims to deepen economic and strategic relations with Southeast Asian nations. The other policies focus on different geographical regions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the news. Statement 2 is incorrect; the trade target is $25 billion, not $50 billion. Statement 3 is correct as the partnership strengthening is consistent with India's approach of strategic autonomy and multi-alignment in the Indo-Pacific region.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India and Vietnam have set a bilateral trade target of $25 billion. The other options are plausible distractors representing different figures.

Explanation

A key strategic objective for India is to strengthen its role and presence in the Indo-Pacific region. Deepening ties with Vietnam, a key ASEAN nation with its own tensions in the South China Sea, helps in creating a balanced regional architecture, which is a core tenet of India's foreign policy.

Explanation

Article 164 of the Constitution explicitly states that 'The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor'. This is a fundamental static GK point regarding state polity.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'latest scheme has an estimated outlay of Rs 18,000 crore'. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article states guarantee coverage is '100% for MSMEs and 90% for non-MSMEs as well as airline sector', meaning airline sector gets 90%, not 100%. Statement 3 is correct: 'scheme will apply to all loans sanctioned... upto March 31, 2027'.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'The amendment increases that to 37 judges, excluding the CJI.' The current maximum is 33 as per the 2019 amendment. This is a precise data point from the news.

Explanation

As explained in the article, if the Governor asks a CM to step down and invites another candidate while the Assembly's tenure is still on, 'there has to be a floor test, where each side tries to prove their majority'. This is the established constitutional practice to determine who has the support of more than half the MLAs.

Explanation

The Strait of Hormuz is a narrow channel that links the Persian Gulf (where major oil producers like Saudi Arabia are located) with the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea, making it a vital global energy transit route.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article clarifies the MoU sets a 'framework for detailed negotiations' and that 'nothing has been agreed... yet', indicating it is not a final treaty. Statement 2 is correct as a 'moratorium on nuclear enrichment' is a reported provision. Statement 3 is correct as the MoU would 'initiate a 30-day negotiation window'.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Strait of Hormuz 'handles about one-fifth of global oil supply'. This is a critical data point for understanding the geopolitical and economic significance of the waterway.

Explanation

The article states that 'Project Freedom' was 'meant to guide ships through the Strait of Hormuz'. Its pause signals diplomatic progress. The other options describe different military or humanitarian missions not mentioned in the context.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the petition sought directions to declare a structure as a protected monument under the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act of 1958 (AMASR Act). This is the primary central legislation for protecting monuments of national importance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the court directed the Commissioner of Police, Delhi, and held both the Commissioner and DCP personally liable. Statement 2 is incorrect because the report was by heritage conservator Dr. Swapna Liddle, not the Archaeological Survey of India. Statement 3 is correct as the court directed the NDMC Chairperson to appear physically.

Explanation

The article specifically states: 'the Delhi government was asked to explain under what circumstances the Kharbooze Ka Gumbad in Sheikh Sarai, built in the year 1397, was settled with a private school.' The other options are years associated with other Delhi monuments listed in the article (Qutub Minar 1193, Humayun's Tomb 1570, Red Fort 1648).

Explanation

The core of the order is to fix direct, personal responsibility on specific officers (Police Commissioner, DCP, NDMC Chairperson) for failures in protecting public heritage. This moves beyond institutional responsibility to individual accountability for the discharge of assigned statutory and functional duties, acting as a deterrent against negligence.

Explanation

Education is a subject in the Concurrent List (List III) of the Seventh Schedule. This means both the central and state governments have the power to legislate on it, though central law prevails in case of a conflict.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's description of PM-SHRI. Statement 2 is correct as the article states the scheme was approved in 2022. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article explicitly mentions that Congress-ruled states like Karnataka and Telangana HAVE implemented PM-SHRI. The non-participating states are West Bengal, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu.

Explanation

The article states: 'these states have seen their central funding for school education withheld or only partially released since the 2023-24 fiscal year.' The other options are incorrect as they are not mentioned in the provided text.

Explanation

The article's headline and content explicitly state that the Centre is making a 'fresh move' for PM-SHRI 'after political shifts' and 'Amid the changes of guard... after the Assembly poll results.' The other options are not mentioned as reasons in the provided text.

Explanation

CORSIA is a market-based measure adopted by the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) to address CO2 emissions from international aviation. The article mentions CORSIA in the context of global SAF compliance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. SAF is a 'drop-in' fuel, meaning it can be blended with conventional jet fuel WITHOUT requiring modifications to existing aircraft or infrastructure. Statement 2 is correct, as defined for a Customs Union. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article's 'UPSC Twist Points' explicitly state that ocean acidification and climate change are two separate planetary boundaries.

Explanation

The article states India's blending targets as "1% SAF blending in 2027 and 2% in 2028 for international flights." The other options are plausible distractors but not the specified target.

Explanation

The article lists 'Energy security' as a key benefit, stating it "Reduces import dependence and shields aviation from global crude oil price volatility." The other options are either incorrect (SAF is a blend, not an immediate full replacement; it helps with CORSIA compliance, not bypassing it) or not the primary benefit mentioned.