3 May 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the SHANTI Act repealed both the Atomic Energy Act, 1962 and the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010. This marks a fundamental legislative shift in governing India's nuclear sector.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: Cell Broadcast is a one-to-many system, unlike SMS which is one-to-one. Statement 2 is correct: The article states the Integrated Alert System (SACHET) is based on the Common Alerting Protocol. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions Cell Broadcast technology was introduced by C-DOT.

Explanation

The article provides the specific figure: "assets worth around Rs 2,178.34 crore confiscated" under the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

The article states the move allows "greater participation from global investors and eliminating the need for an Indian joint venture partner." Option A is false as LIC's FDI remains capped at 20%. Option B is false as IRDAI approval is still required. Option D is false as LIC has a separate 20% cap.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Operation Black Thunder I was an NSG-police operation led by NSG Major Generals Naresh Kumar and P C Mankotia, with no direct involvement of the Army.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states there was no direct Army involvement, it was an NSG-police operation. Statement 3 is correct as the Punjab Chief Minister stipulated no entry into the sanctum sanctorum.

Explanation

The article provides the specific figure: 'Around 300 NSG commandos took part in the operation.' The other options are distractors; 1,200 refers to the CAPF personnel ferried, not NSG commandos.

Explanation

The article states that due to the fresh memories of Operation Blue Star's fallout, Black Thunder I was 'significantly lower in scale and violence.' This was its defining strategic objective, focusing on a restrained, police-NSG led action.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the U.S. Supreme Court struck down Louisiana's second majority-Black congressional district on April 29, 2026. This is the highest judicial body in the United States.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the ruling actually rewrites and likely makes the legal standard stricter, not stronger, for creating such districts. Statement 3 is correct as the date is explicitly mentioned. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article's 'Story so far' section clearly states the ruling was delivered on April 29, 2026. May 03, 2026 is the article's publication date, making it a close distractor.

Explanation

The article's headline questions ask how Louisiana's situation brought 'two legal problems into direct collision.' The analysis clarifies this as the collision between the Voting Rights Act (requiring minority representation) and the constitutional principle of colorblindness (prohibiting race-based classifications).

Explanation

The Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK) is a health screening program for children and falls under the purview of the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, as mentioned in the article context.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as RBSK 2.0 adds mental health screening. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect because the program provides a preventive, promotive, and curative continuum of care for children from birth (0 years) to 18 years, not just curative care for 6-18 years.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the revised guidelines introduce care for children 'from birth to 18 years of age'. This is a key factual update from the news.

Explanation

The core update in RBSK 2.0 is the expansion of its scope to include screening for mental health conditions and risk factors for Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs) like diabetes and hypertension. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The Tenth Schedule, added by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985, contains the anti-defection law provisions. The Speaker or Chairman of the House decides on disqualification under this schedule.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Supreme Court upheld the validity of the Tenth Schedule. Statement 2 is correct as it struck down Paragraph 7 which barred judicial review. Statement 3 is incorrect as the case was decided by a five-judge constitution bench, not a seven-judge bench.

Explanation

The Supreme Court delivered the Kihoto Hollohan vs. Zachillhu judgment in 1992. The year 1985 is when the Tenth Schedule was added, 1991 is when the SC quashed the Manipur Speaker's decision, and 1993 is when the enforcement crisis occurred.

Explanation

The Supreme Court clarified that it was summoning Dr. Singh not in his capacity as the Speaker, but as the administrative head of the legislature, thus his constitutional immunity under Article 212 did not provide a blanket shield against court orders enforcing a judicial verdict.

Explanation

The IAEA is the international organization responsible for verifying compliance with the NPT's safeguards agreements. While the UNSC can act on non-compliance, the day-to-day monitoring and inspection of nuclear facilities for peaceful use is the core mandate of the IAEA.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The NPT does NOT prohibit the development of nuclear technology; it explicitly allows for the peaceful use of nuclear energy. Statement 2 is correct as the NPT establishes a safeguards system, implemented by the IAEA, to verify that nuclear energy is not diverted to weapons. Statement 3 is correct; one of the three pillars of the NPT is the pursuit of nuclear disarmament.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that examples of safeguards include closely monitoring the use of technologies like uranium enrichment and plutonium reprocessing. Uranium enrichment is a dual-use process critical for both nuclear fuel and weapons development, making it a focal point for non-proliferation monitoring.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the NPT does not prevent countries from developing the ability to make nuclear weapons because some of the same technologies and processes are necessary for a civilian nuclear programme, such as generating power or making medical isotopes. This inherent dual-use nature of nuclear technology is the core challenge the treaty addresses through safeguards.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Supreme Court directed the All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) to set up a panel of experts. AIIMS is India's premier medical institute and research center.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the petition was moved by Dr. Sadanandan Ganapathy. Statement 2 is incorrect; the petitioner argued the opposite—that the apnea test is unreliable and tests like cerebral angiogram and EEG are better. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article that the Kerala High Court closed his PIL in 2017.

Explanation

The article states that Dr. Ganapathy found the number of brain death cases rose sharply from 9 in 2012 to 79 in 2015. The figure 400 is his speculative claim about what the number might have reached without his court intervention.

Explanation

The core of Dr. Ganapathy's petition, as per the article, was flagging 'a lack of transparency and alleged malpractices in declaring patients brain dead before their organs are used for transplantation.' He specifically mentioned issues with the apnea test not being reliably conducted or recorded.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that a shipping document listed state-run Indian Oil Corp. as the buyer of the cargo. The other options are major public sector oil and gas companies in India but are not mentioned in the article in this context.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states domestic LPG production was increased by 60% (not 80%) to 54,000 tonnes. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the report.

Explanation

Oil Minister Hardeep Singh Puri stated that domestic LPG production has been increased by 60% to 54,000 tonnes. The other options are close distractors not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states that India, as the world's third-largest oil importer and second-largest LPG consumer, faces supply disruptions leading to shortages. This vulnerability drives the need for proactive measures. The other options are not mentioned as primary reasons in the article.

Explanation

The Enforcement Directorate (ED) is a law enforcement agency under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. It is responsible for investigating economic crimes and enforcing laws like FEMA, PMLA, and FEOA.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The threshold is ₹100 crore or more, not ₹500 crore. Statement 2 is correct as per the article: a director/deputy director (appointed under PMLA) files the application before a Special Court (PMLA). Statement 3 is correct as the Act disallows an FEO from filing or defending civil claims.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that assets worth around Rs 2,178.34 crore have been confiscated under the FEOA proceedings. The other options are close but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

The core objective of the FEOA is to deter economic offences by allowing authorities to confiscate the properties (proceeds of crime, benami, and any other property) of individuals who flee to avoid prosecution. While extradition may be a related process, the Act's direct legal consequence is confiscation.

Explanation

The Airports Authority of India (AAI) is a statutory body established under the Airports Authority of India Act, 1994, and it operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Civil Aviation, Government of India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The builders had obtained AAI NOCs. The violation was due to a discrepancy in ground elevation data. Statement 2 is correct as per the judgment. Statement 3 is incorrect: The court held that ADSAC guidelines cannot override the statutory provisions of GSR 751(E).

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the petitioning developers had obtained AAI No Objection Certificates (NOC) permitting construction up to 102.7 metres above mean sea level.

Explanation

The court held that denying the petitioners a survey, when granted to neighbouring projects, was arbitrary and discriminatory, leading to a violation of Article 14 of the Constitution. This article guarantees equality before the law and prohibits arbitrary state action.

Explanation

IN-SPACe is the single-window, autonomous nodal agency under the Department of Space, created to promote, authorize, and supervise non-government private entities (NGPEs) in the space sector. ISRO focuses on R&D and missions, NSIL commercializes ISRO tech, and DST is a separate ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because Mission Drishti was launched aboard SpaceX's Falcon 9, not an ISRO vehicle. Statement 3 is correct as it is highlighted as the world's first OptoSAR satellite combining EO and SAR sensors.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Mission Drishti weighs 190 kilograms. The other options are close distractors to test precise factual recall, a common trend in prelims questions.

Explanation

The article states that integrating EO and SAR sensors addresses the limitations of conventional systems, enabling reliable data acquisition across diverse environmental conditions. The core advantage is overcoming the dependency on clear weather and daylight, which hinders standalone optical sensors.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the National Internship Portal operates under the National Educational Alliance for Technology (NEAT) and the National Educational Technology Forum (NETF). These are specific initiatives mentioned in the content.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the portal is run by the All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE), which is under the Ministry of Education, not Skill Development. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the vetting of over 2.9 crore students.

Explanation

The article provides the specific figure: "79.57 lakh internship opportunities offered." The other options are close distractors: 32.78 lakh is the number of internships completed, 2.9 crore is the number of students vetted, and 4.7 crore is the total registrations.

Explanation

As per the article's quote from AICTE's CCO, the vetting process is in place "to ensure those students who have registered for internships are attached to a college or an academic institution." This is to maintain the portal's credibility and target genuine students.

Explanation

The World Press Freedom Index is compiled and published annually by Reporters Without Borders (RSF), an international NGO focused on defending freedom of information. The other organizations work on different aspects of human rights and governance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the index recorded its lowest average score in 25 years. Statement 2 is incorrect because India's rank slipped from 151 to 157 and it remains in the 'very serious' category. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states India's global score for 2026 is 31.96. The other numbers are close distractors; 29.12 and 28.75 are typical low scores, while 34.50 is a plausible but incorrect figure.

Explanation

The article states that among the five key areas measured, 'the legal environment has worsened the most this year,' with governments using 'restrictive legal arsenals,' especially national security laws. While other options are mentioned as concerns, the legal aspect is highlighted as the primary driver of decline.

Explanation

DMRC is a state-owned company established as a 50:50 joint venture between the Government of India and the Government of Delhi. This structure is common for major urban metro projects in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the cost is ₹48,204.56 crore, not 'over ₹50,000 crore'. Statement 3 is incorrect as the focus is on Outer Delhi and rural belts like Narela and Najafgarh, not the core city areas.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the completion target for the four priority corridors is 2029. This is a specific data point that examiners can test in a Prelims-style question.

Explanation

The Chief Minister's statement quoted in the article explicitly mentions that the project will play a key role in 'ensuring balanced and inclusive urban development across Delhi'. This is the stated primary objective, focusing on integrating underserved outer and rural areas.

Explanation

As per the article, the UAE officially exited the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) and OPEC+ on May 1, 2026. The other organizations, while related to trade or regional cooperation, are not mentioned in the context of this exit.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states the UAE exited both OPEC and OPEC+. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article clarifies OPEC is a 'permanent intergovernmental organisation' founded in 1960, while OPEC+ is a broader 'alliance' formed in 2016. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions the exit dealt a blow 'at a time when the Iran war has caused a historic energy shock'.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that OPEC is 'a permanent intergovernmental organisation founded in 1960'. The other options are incorrect years not associated with OPEC's founding as per the provided content.

Explanation

The article directly states that 'The UAE’s decision dealt a heavy blow to the oil exporting groups and their de facto leader, Saudi Arabia'. The other options are not supported: the exit weakens, not strengthens, Saudi leadership; dissolution is not mentioned; and the exit is a consequence of the war's timing, not a cause for its end.