4 May 2026, Questions & Answers
108 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
108 questions · 0 topics covered · 22 min revision
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This page contains 108 current affairs questions with answers from 4 May 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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108 QsUnder which Article of the Indian Constitution has the Supreme Court grounded the fundamental right to reproductive autonomy?
- A.Article 14
- B.Article 19
- C.Article 21✓ Correct Answer
- D.Article 32
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that reproductive autonomy is grounded in dignity and bodily integrity, which are integral to the right to life and personal liberty guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution.
Consider the following statements regarding the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act:
1. The original MTP Act was enacted in 1971 and was amended in 2021.
2. The 2021 amendment removed all gestational limits for abortions in India.
3. The landmark Supreme Court case 'X v. Principal Secretary, Health and Family Welfare Dept' in 2022 broadened the categories of women under the Act's ambit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the 2021 amendment expanded limits for certain categories but did not remove all limits. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article.
In the case discussed in the article, what was the gestational period of the pregnancy for which the Supreme Court allowed termination for the 15-year-old rape survivor?
- A.20 weeks
- B.26 weeks
- C.30 weeks✓ Correct Answer
- D.32 weeks
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Explanation
The article clearly mentions that the Supreme Court allowed the termination of a 30-week pregnancy for the 15-year-old rape survivor, which is beyond the standard gestational limits, highlighting the exceptional circumstances.
What is the core shift in legal framework advocated by the Supreme Court in the article regarding abortion laws?
- A.Moving from a rights-based framework to a stricter medical permission model.
- B.Shifting from a permission-based exception to a rights-based framework grounded in autonomy.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Prioritizing foetal viability over all other considerations in later stages of pregnancy.
- D.Devolving the regulation of abortion entirely to state governments.
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Explanation
The article emphasizes the Court's call to move away from the MTP Act's current structure as a 'conditional permission' and 'exception to criminality' towards a framework where reproductive autonomy is the presumption. This is a shift from permission-based to rights-based.
Which constitutional article, guaranteeing equality before the law, was central to the Supreme Court's reasoning in striking down the bail conditions?
- A.Article 15
- B.Article 19
- C.Article 21
- D.Article 14✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The Supreme Court emphasized the judiciary's duty to safeguard constitutional guarantees of equality, directly invoking the principle of equality before the law enshrined in Article 14 of the Constitution.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's judgment on Odisha bail orders:
1. The Court took suo motu cognisance of bail orders requiring accused to clean police stations.
2. The Court noted that such conditions were imposed only on accused belonging to privileged sections of society.
3. The Court directed its Registry to circulate the order to every High Court for compliance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Supreme Court took suo motu cognisance. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Court observed the opposite, that such conditions seemed to target Dalit and Adivasi communities, not the privileged. Statement 3 is correct: The Registry was directed to circulate the order to all High Courts.
According to the news, for how many months and during what hours did a specific Odisha High Court bail order require an applicant to clean a police station?
- A.1 month, 8 AM to 10 AM
- B.2 months, 6 AM to 9 AM✓ Correct Answer
- C.3 months, 7 AM to 11 AM
- D.1 month, 9 AM to 12 PM
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Explanation
The article specifies the order directed the applicant to clean the premises of the Kashipur police station every morning between 6 am and 9 am for two months.
What was the primary constitutional principle the Supreme Court invoked to declare the bail conditions mandating cleaning as void?
- A.Protection against self-incrimination
- B.Right to freedom of speech and expression
- C.Right to equality and protection of dignity✓ Correct Answer
- D.Right to constitutional remedies
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Explanation
The Court held that the conditions struck at the dignity of the accused and reflected bias, violating the constitutional guarantee of equality under Article 14. It emphasized the judiciary's duty to protect the vulnerable, linking dignity directly to equality.
The Special TADA Court that convicted the 12 individuals is located in which Indian city?
- A.Mumbai
- B.Ahmedabad
- C.Jamnagar✓ Correct Answer
- D.Porbandar
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Special TADA Court in Jamnagar delivered the verdict convicting the 12 individuals. Jamnagar is a city in Gujarat.
Consider the following statements regarding the verdict on the 1993 Mumbai blasts case:
1. The conviction was based solely on a confessional statement recorded in 1994.
2. The arms and explosives used in the conspiracy were sourced from Bangladesh.
3. The conspiracy meeting was held at Dawood Ibrahim's residence in Dubai in January 1993.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) Both 1 and 3
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the conviction was based on the confessional statement and other evidence; the court used it as a 'key reference' but not the sole basis. Statement 2 is incorrect as the article clearly states the weapons were 'sourced from Pakistan'. Statement 3 is correct as per the details of the meeting in the article.
According to the confessional statement, during which dates in January 1993 was the key conspiracy meeting held in Dubai?
- A.January 5-8, 1993
- B.January 11-15, 1993✓ Correct Answer
- C.January 20-25, 1993
- D.January 30-31, 1993
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Explanation
The article directly quotes the confessional statement of Usmangani, who said he attended the meeting at Dawood Ibrahim's Dubai residence 'between January 11 and 15' where the revenge was planned.
What was the primary judicial significance of the confessional statement of Usmangani Noor Mohammad Merchant in this case?
- A.It led to the immediate extradition of Dawood Ibrahim.
- B.It was recorded after the accused was granted a pardon.
- C.It was admitted as evidence despite the death of the accused during the trial.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It directly implicated a serving minister in the conspiracy.
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Explanation
The court held that although Usmangani died during the trial, his confessional statement was recorded without force and following due process, and thus 'can be utilised in evidence'. This highlights a procedural aspect of the TADA Act regarding confessional statements.
The Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) is a policy initiative of which major economic bloc?
- A.Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)
- B.European Union (EU)✓ Correct Answer
- C.North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA)
- D.Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC)
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Explanation
As clearly stated in the article, CBAM is a mechanism implemented by the European Union (EU) which came into full effect on January 1, 2026.
Consider the following statements regarding the EU's Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM):
1. It came into full effect on January 1, 2026.
2. It aims to ensure Indian producers pay a carbon price while EU producers do not.
3. EU producers will continue to receive free emission allowances under the EU ETS until 2034.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; CBAM's stated aim is to make importers pay a carbon price equivalent to what EU producers pay domestically, not to exempt EU producers. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions free allowances are being phased out from 2026 to 2034.
According to the article, over which period will the free allowances under the EU Emissions Trading System (ETS) be phased out?
- A.2024 to 2030
- B.2025 to 2035
- C.2026 to 2034✓ Correct Answer
- D.2027 to 2033
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that free allowances under the EU ETS 'will be phased out gradually from 2026 to 2034'. The other options are close distractors with different start or end years.
What is the primary concern for Indian exporters highlighted in the article regarding the EU's CBAM?
- A.Increased competition from other Asian countries.
- B.Facing the full CBAM charges without equivalent state support available to EU producers.✓ Correct Answer
- C.A ban on the export of carbon-intensive goods to the EU.
- D.The need to adopt EU production standards immediately.
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Explanation
The article's core argument is that Indian exporters face the 'full weight of CBAM charges' while EU producers benefit from 'large decarbonisation subsidies' and 'free allowances', creating an unlevel playing field. This is the central concern raised.
The administration of the Information Technology Act, 2000, primarily falls under which Union Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Law and Justice
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs
- C.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Communications
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Explanation
The Information Technology Act, 2000, which is central to the news on online takedowns, is administered by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). This ministry formulates policies related to IT, electronics, and the internet.
Consider the following statements regarding the online content takedown mechanism discussed in the news:
1. The government uses amendments to the IT Rules, 2021 to enforce a three-hour timeline for platforms to comply with takedown orders.
2. The 'Sahyog' portal has been opened to officials of the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) to expedite takedown requests.
3. The editorial cites the Supreme Court precedent in the 'Shreya Singhal vs Union of India' case in its critique.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the use of IT Rules amendments to pressure platforms with a three-hour timeline. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the Sahyog portal was opened to 'police officials around the country', not specifically to CBI officials. Statement 3 is correct as the Shreya Singhal case is explicitly mentioned as a binding precedent.
According to the editorial, what is the stipulated timeline within which social media platforms like Meta and X are pressured to take down content under the amended IT Rules?
- A.1 hour
- B.3 hours✓ Correct Answer
- C.24 hours
- D.48 hours
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the government has pressured platforms 'to take down content within three-hour timelines'. The other options are plausible distractors for different compliance deadlines that exist in various global regulations.
The editorial primarily argues that the government's use of IT Rules and the Sahyog portal for content takedowns poses a threat to which core constitutional principle?
- A.The principle of federalism and state autonomy.
- B.The fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The directive principle related to securing a social order for the promotion of welfare.
- D.The constitutional scheme for the independence of the judiciary.
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Explanation
The central thesis of the editorial is that the expansive takedown regime is 'a threat to the fundamental right to free expression' (Article 19(1)(a)). While other principles like judicial independence might be indirectly affected, the primary argument focuses on the chilling effect on free speech.
The authors of the article, Professor Tiwari and Chairman Pai, are members of which advisory body?
- A.NITI Aayog
- B.UP CM's Economic Advisory Group✓ Correct Answer
- C.Finance Commission of India
- D.National Infrastructure Pipeline Committee
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Explanation
The article's footnote explicitly states that Tiwari is the coordinator and Pai is a member of the UP Chief Minister's Economic Advisory Group. This is a direct static fact from the source.
Consider the following statements regarding the Noida International Airport (NIA):
1. It was inaugurated by the Prime Minister on March 28.
2. When fully developed, it will handle 11.6 crore passengers and 7.3 lakh flights annually.
3. Its annual cargo handling capacity at inauguration was 28 lakh metric tonnes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct as it quotes the ultimate capacity. Statement 3 is incorrect; 28 lakh MT is the ultimate cargo capacity, while the initial capacity is 2.55 lakh MT. Hence, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
According to the article, what is the estimated cost of the Noida International Airport (NIA) project in Jewar?
- A.₹8,500 crore
- B.₹10,000 crore
- C.₹11,200 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹15,000 crore
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Explanation
The article clearly states the project was built at a cost of around ₹11,200 crore. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What is identified as a primary economic benefit of developing the Noida International Airport into a major air cargo hub?
- A.Primarily increasing domestic tourism revenue
- B.Facilitating over 35% of global trade by value and attracting FDI✓ Correct Answer
- C.Reducing the fiscal deficit of the Uttar Pradesh government
- D.Replacing seaports as the main conduit for international trade
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Explanation
The article states that air cargo hubs are economic engines that facilitate over 35% of global trade by value (about $8 trillion annually), drive GDP growth, create jobs, and play a pivotal role in drawing FDI and generating forex.
The International Energy Agency (IEA) was established as a direct response to the oil crisis triggered by which event?
- A.The Iranian Revolution of 1979
- B.The Russia-Ukraine conflict of 2022
- C.The Yom Kippur War of 1973✓ Correct Answer
- D.The Gulf War of 1990
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the IEA was established as a result of the Yom Kippur War, following a conference convened by US Secretary of State Henry Kissinger in January 1974 to counter OAPEC.
Consider the following statements regarding the proposed Asian Energy Collaborative Compact (AECC):
1. Its threefold purpose includes safeguarding free navigation, countering Middle East pricing power, and accelerating the green energy transition.
2. It is proposed to be modeled directly on the Organisation of Arab Petroleum Exporting Countries (OAPEC).
3. A key function would be to provide real-time market intelligence, a role currently performed solely by the International Energy Agency (IEA).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's description of the AECC's purpose. Statement 2 is incorrect; the AECC is proposed to be modeled on the IEA's post-1973 response, not on OAPEC. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the IEA currently provides this intelligence but Asia should have its own agency.
According to the article, what percentage of the petroleum trapped in the Strait of Hormuz due to its closure was destined for Asian markets?
- A.60%
- B.75%
- C.85%✓ Correct Answer
- D.90%
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the bulk of the 13 million barrels trapped, approximately 85 per cent, was destined for the Asian markets, highlighting the region's acute vulnerability.
What is identified as a primary reason for the steep hike in the 'Asian Premium' on crude oil after the Strait of Hormuz crisis, according to the article's analysis?
- A.A sudden global recession reducing demand
- B.Asymmetric bargaining and failure of Asian importers to leverage collective purchasing power✓ Correct Answer
- C.Strict new environmental regulations on shipping
- D.A coordinated output cut by all OPEC member countries
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Explanation
The article questions whether the price spike was due entirely to supply-demand mechanics or also because of 'asymmetric bargaining', implying Asian importers did not use their aggregate purchasing strength effectively, which is a core rationale for the proposed AECC.
Which ministry has issued the draft notification proposing the recognition of E85 and E100 as automotive fuels?
- A.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
- B.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
- C.Ministry of Road Transport and Highways✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the 'ministry of Road Transport and Highways' has issued the draft notification. This ministry is responsible for motor vehicle regulations in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the ethanol blending news:
1. The draft notification proposes amendments to the Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989.
2. All vehicles manufactured since April 2023 are compliant with E100 fuel.
3. Ethanol is cheaper than petrol derived from crude oil at current prices.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions 'draft amendments to the Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989'. Statement 2 is incorrect; vehicles since April 2023 are E20-compliant, not E100-compliant. Statement 3 is correct as the article states ethanol (₹60.73-₹71.86/litre) is cheaper than petrol (requiring ~₹89/litre ex-refinery price).
According to the article, what is the price range (in ₹ per litre) that distilleries are fetching for the ethanol they supply to Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs)?
- A.₹55.50 - ₹65.20
- B.₹60.73 - ₹71.86✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹75.00 - ₹85.00
- D.₹89.00 - ₹95.00
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Explanation
The article specifically states that distilleries are fetching 'Rs 60.73-71.86 per litre' for the ethanol supplied to OMCs. This data point is crucial for the economic argument favoring ethanol blending.
What is a primary technical challenge mentioned for using higher ethanol blends (like E85/E100) in existing internal combustion engines?
- A.Lower energy density reducing mileage
- B.Engine corrosion due to ethanol's hygroscopic property✓ Correct Answer
- C.Incompatibility with catalytic converters
- D.Increased particulate matter emissions
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Explanation
The article states that compatibility with higher blends 'will require major overhaul of internal combustion engines and auto parts to withstand any potential corrosion from the hygroscopic (moisture-absorbing) property of ethanol.' This is the direct technical challenge identified.
Which ministry is reported to have proposed examining an EU-like blocking statute for India?
- A.Ministry of External Affairs
- B.Ministry of Finance✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
- D.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
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Explanation
The article states that after Nayara Energy made representations, the Finance Ministry pointed to the EU statute example and proposed a similar domestic law. MeitY was involved later in seeking Microsoft's response but was not the proposer of the law.
Consider the following statements regarding the EU Blocking Statute:
1. It was introduced in 1996 and considers the extraterritorial application of third-country sanctions a breach of international law.
2. It was originally aimed specifically at American sanctions against Iran and Cuba.
3. It allows EU-based companies to recover damages caused by third-country sanctions in EU courts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per Regulation No 2271/96. Statement 2 is correct; the article mentions it was aimed at American sanctions against Cuba and later Iran. Statement 3 is correct; one of the three ways the statute works is by allowing recovery of damages in court.
According to the article, what percentage of stake does Russian oil giant Rosneft hold in Nayara Energy?
- A.Over 40%
- B.Over 49%✓ Correct Answer
- C.51%
- D.Over 60%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Russian oil giant Rosneft holds over 49% stake in Nayara Energy. The other options are close distractors not mentioned in the text.
What is the primary objective of India's consideration of an EU-like blocking statute, as per the news article?
- A.To increase tariffs on imports from sanctioning countries
- B.To safeguard Indian firms from disruption of services due to third-country sanctions✓ Correct Answer
- C.To join the European Union's common foreign and security policy
- D.To impose retaliatory sanctions on companies like Microsoft
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Explanation
The core objective, as stated in the article's title and content, is to create a legal shield to protect Indian companies from critical service disruptions when foreign companies cite sanctions from other jurisdictions. The other options are not the primary aims discussed.
Which ministry is responsible for communicating India's official position on the Lipulekh pass dispute, as per the article?
- A.Ministry of Home Affairs
- B.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Defence
- D.Ministry of Culture
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Explanation
The article mentions the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) official spokesperson, Randhir Jaiswal, issuing India's statement rejecting Nepal's claims. The MEA is the nodal body for handling India's foreign relations and diplomatic communications.
Consider the following statements regarding the Lipulekh pass dispute mentioned in the article:
1. Nepal's claim is based on the Sugauli Treaty of 1816 which defines the Mahakali River as the boundary.
2. India states that the Lipulekh pass has been used for the Kailash Mansarovar Yatra since its inception in 1947.
3. Nepal had also objected to India-China trade resuming through the Lipulekh pass in August 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as Nepal's Foreign Ministry cited the Sugauli Treaty of 1816. Statement 2 is incorrect; India stated the yatra has been ongoing via Lipulekh since 1954, not 1947. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions Nepal's objection to trade resumption in August 2025. Hence, option C is correct.
According to India's statement in the article, since which year has the Lipulekh pass been used as a route for the Kailash Mansarovar Yatra?
- A.1947
- B.1950
- C.1954✓ Correct Answer
- D.1971
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Explanation
The MEA spokesperson, Randhir Jaiswal, explicitly stated that "Lipulekh pass has been a long standing route for the Kailash Mansarovar Yatra since 1954." The other options are significant years in Indian history but are not mentioned in the context of this pilgrimage route.
What is the primary reason cited by Nepal for objecting to the Kailash Mansarovar Yatra via the Lipulekh pass?
- A.Environmental concerns over increased pilgrimage traffic.
- B.Security risks associated with the mountainous terrain.
- C.Sovereignty claim over the Lipulekh area based on a historical treaty.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Economic losses due to bypassing of Nepalese tourism infrastructure.
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Explanation
Nepal's objection is fundamentally territorial. Its Foreign Ministry asserted that Limpiyadhura, Lipulekh and Kalapani are integral parts of Nepal since the Sugauli Treaty of 1816. The other options, while plausible in other contexts, are not the core reason presented in the article.
As per the existing structure mentioned in the article, which department is the administrative authority for matters related to nuclear power in India?
- A.Ministry of Power
- B.Department of Atomic Energy (DAE)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Science and Technology
- D.NITI Aayog
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Explanation
The article clearly states that currently, the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE), under the Prime Minister's Office, is the administrative authority for matters related to nuclear power. This is a key static fact about India's nuclear governance.
Consider the following statements regarding the SHANTI Act and India's nuclear sector:
1. The SHANTI Act paves the way for private sector participation in civil nuclear power generation.
2. The Act omitted a liability clause that previously exposed equipment vendors to long-term risk in case of an accident.
3. The Act transferred the administrative control of all existing nuclear power plants from DAE to the Ministry of Power.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the SHANTI Act allows private participation. Statement 2 is correct as it mentions the Act omitted a key liability clause. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article discusses a future debate on jurisdiction for *new* private projects, but legacy projects continue under DAE. The Act did not transfer existing plants.
According to the article, what is India's target for installed nuclear power capacity by the year 2047?
- A.50 GW
- B.75 GW
- C.100 GW✓ Correct Answer
- D.125 GW
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'India aims to achieve 100 GW of nuclear power by 2047.' This is a critical data point for prelims factual recall. The other figures are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What is a primary reason cited in the article for the debate on shifting administrative control of some new nuclear projects away from the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE)?
- A.To reduce the fiscal burden on the central government
- B.To allow greater foreign direct investment in the sector
- C.To address potential conflict of interest due to DAE's control over the entire supply chain✓ Correct Answer
- D.To accelerate the environmental clearance process for new projects
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Explanation
The article directly links the jurisdictional debate to 'rising concern over potential conflict of interest due to DAE’s full control over the entire nuclear power supply chain — from research and development to fuel supply and spent fuel management.' This is the core analytical reason presented.
Which U.S. military command is conducting the 'Project Freedom' operation in the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.U.S. Indo-Pacific Command (INDOPACOM)
- B.U.S. Central Command (CENTCOM)✓ Correct Answer
- C.U.S. European Command (EUCOM)
- D.U.S. Africa Command (AFRICOM)
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Explanation
The article states the operation is expected to begin Monday morning in the Middle East and is being handled by the U.S. Central Command (CENTCOM), which is responsible for U.S. military operations in the Middle East, including the Persian Gulf region.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The U.S. operation 'Project Freedom' involves guided-missile destroyers and is described as a humanitarian effort.
2. The Strait of Hormuz has been closed since late January 2026, disrupting global trade.
3. Indirect talks between the U.S. and Iran currently include discussions on Iran's nuclear programme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the strait has been closed since late February 2026, not January. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article explicitly states that talks do not include Iran's nuclear programme for now. Hence, only statement 1 is correct.
According to the news, approximately how many U.S. service personnel are involved in the 'Project Freedom' operation?
- A.Around 5,000
- B.Around 10,000
- C.Around 15,000✓ Correct Answer
- D.Around 20,000
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Explanation
The article states that the operation will involve 'around 15,000 service personnel' according to the U.S. Central Command. The other options are close but incorrect distractors.
What is the primary reason cited by the U.S. for launching the 'Project Freedom' operation in the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.To enforce sanctions against Iran
- B.To conduct a military exercise with allied nations
- C.To guide stranded ships safely out of the waterway on humanitarian grounds✓ Correct Answer
- D.To establish a permanent naval base in the region
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Explanation
The article quotes the U.S. President describing the stranded crews as 'victims of circumstance' and frames the move as a humanitarian effort to help 'neutral and innocent' countries get their ships out safely. While the operation has strategic dimensions, the primary stated reason is humanitarian.
The bilateral meeting discussed in the news was between the Prime Ministers of Japan and Australia. Which of the following is the primary forum for such high-level diplomatic engagements between the two countries?
- A.Japan-Australia Economic Partnership Agreement (JAEPA) Committee
- B.Japan-Australia Foreign and Defence Ministerial Consultations (2+2)
- C.Japan-Australia Annual Leaders' Meeting✓ Correct Answer
- D.Quad (Quadrilateral Security Dialogue) Summit
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Explanation
While the Quad and 2+2 dialogues are important, the article describes a bilateral meeting between the two Prime Ministers. Such summit-level engagements are typically held under the framework of annual leaders' meetings, which are the highest mechanism for bilateral strategic dialogue.
Consider the following statements regarding the Japan-Australia cooperation mentioned in the news:
1. The agreement aims to deepen cooperation specifically in the areas of space technology, cybersecurity, and maritime security.
2. Australia is the largest supplier of refined petroleum products like gasoline and diesel to Japan.
3. The partnership is partly motivated by securing supply chains for critical minerals essential for advanced technologies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) None of the above
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the article mentions cooperation in energy, defence, and critical minerals, not specifically space tech or cybersecurity. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states Japan is one of Australia's top five suppliers of refined products, not the other way around. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly links the cooperation to securing critical mineral supply chains amid global threats.
According to the news article, what approximate proportion of Japan's liquefied natural gas (LNG) imports does Australia supply?
- A.Nearly one-third
- B.Almost half✓ Correct Answer
- C.About two-thirds
- D.Over three-quarters
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "Australia provides almost half of Japan’s liquefied natural gas." This is a direct factual data point from the content, making it a potential Prelims question.
What is a primary strategic objective behind the Japan-Australia agreement to cooperate on critical minerals, as indicated by the news article?
- A.To reduce the cost of consumer electronics in both countries
- B.To mitigate supply chain risks posed by geopolitical conflicts like the Iran war✓ Correct Answer
- C.To establish a joint military base in the South China Sea
- D.To exclude other Quad members from mineral supply agreements
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Explanation
The article directly links the deepened cooperation to the threat the Iran war poses to global supply chains. The core objective is risk mitigation and building resilient supply chains for essential resources, which is a key aspect of economic and national security strategy.
Under which Act is the Central Information Commission (CIC) established?
- A.The Information Technology Act, 2000
- B.The Right to Information Act, 2005✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985
- D.The Consumer Protection Act, 2019
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Explanation
The Central Information Commission (CIC) is a statutory body established under Section 12 of the Right to Information Act, 2005. Its primary function is to adjudicate appeals and complaints related to the RTI Act.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The Allahabad High Court directed the disclosure of evaluated answer sheets under the RTI Act.
2. The court held that the Higher Judicial Services Examination is sacrosanct and its confidentiality must be maintained.
3. The order of the Central Information Commission was passed in the year 2013.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Allahabad High Court refused to direct disclosure and actually quashed the CIC order. Statement 2 is correct as per the court's ruling. Statement 3 is correct as the CIC order was dated 04.04.2013.
In which year was the UP Higher Judicial Service Examination, which was the subject of the RTI plea, conducted?
- A.2005
- B.2009✓ Correct Answer
- C.2013
- D.2026
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the RTI application sought the evaluated answer sheets of the UP Higher Judicial Service Examination, 2009. The year 2005 is when the RTI Act was passed, 2013 is when the CIC gave its order, and 2026 is when the High Court gave its judgment.
What was the primary legal principle invoked by the Allahabad High Court to refuse the disclosure of answer sheets?
- A.The principle of official secrecy under the Official Secrets Act.
- B.The principle of maintaining the sanctity and confidentiality of judicial service examinations.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The principle that the examination was conducted too long ago (2009).
- D.The principle that the applicant did not have a proper legal motive.
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Explanation
The court explicitly held that the Higher Judicial Services Examination is 'sacrosanct' and its confidentiality must be maintained, balancing it with the RTI Act's transparency mandate. The other options are either not mentioned (Official Secrets Act) or were arguments by the petitioner's counsel, not the court's final ruling.
The Online Gaming Authority of India (OGAI) operates under which Union Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
- B.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
- D.Ministry of Home Affairs
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Explanation
As per the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Rules, 2026, the Online Gaming Authority of India (OGAI) is housed under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). This ministry oversees digital economy regulations, making it the nodal body for online gaming.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) 2.0 assessed Gram Panchayats based on their performance during the 2022-23 financial year.
2. The United Arab Emirates (UAE) was a founding member of the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC).
3. The Peacock Tarantula (Poecilotheria metallica) is classified as 'Critically Endangered' by the IUCN.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) Both 1 and 3
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. PAI 2.0 assessed panchayats for the 2023-24 financial year, not 2022-23. Statement 2 is incorrect. UAE joined OPEC in 1967; the founding members in 1960 were Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, and Venezuela. Statement 3 is correct as explicitly mentioned in the article.
According to the Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) 2.0, how many Gram Panchayats were ranked as 'Performer'?
- A.3,635
- B.13,689
- C.1,18,824✓ Correct Answer
- D.1,23,719
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Explanation
PAI 2.0 data states that 1,18,824 Gram Panchayats were ranked as 'Performer'. The other options are distractors: 3,635 were 'Front Runner', 13,689 were 'Beginner', and 1,23,719 were 'Aspirant'.
What is a primary implication of the United Arab Emirates (UAE) exiting the OPEC+ alliance?
- A.It will lead to an immediate global decrease in oil prices.
- B.It strengthens the collective bargaining power of OPEC+ in managing oil supply.
- C.It challenges the group's influence over global oil supply management.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It mandates India to increase its strategic petroleum reserves.
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Explanation
OPEC+ derives power by coordinating production limits among members to influence oil prices. The exit of a major producer like the UAE reduces the alliance's control over total supply, potentially weakening its collective influence on the global market, as noted in the article.
Which constitutional body is responsible for conducting the West Bengal Assembly elections and declaring the results mentioned in the news?
- A.State Election Commission of West Bengal
- B.Election Commission of India✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Home Affairs
- D.Supreme Court of India
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Explanation
The Election Commission of India (ECI) is the autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering election processes for Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of the President and Vice-President. The article states results are 'As per the Election Commission of India (ECI)'.
Consider the following statements regarding the West Bengal Assembly Election 2026 as per the article:
1. The Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) is leading in 194 seats.
2. The All India Trinamool Congress (AITMC) is leading in 92 seats.
3. The state recorded a voter turnout of over 95%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states 'BJP is ahead in 194 seats'. Statement 2 is correct as it states 'TMC is leading in 92 seats'. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article mentions the voter turnout was '92.84 per cent', not over 95%.
According to the Election Commission data in the article, what was the recorded voter turnout percentage for the West Bengal Assembly elections 2026?
- A.90.50%
- B.91.75%
- C.92.84%✓ Correct Answer
- D.93.25%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'the state recorded its highest-ever voter turnout of 92.84 per cent.' The other options are close distractors but do not match the precise figure provided in the source.
What is the primary significance of the high voter turnout of 92.84% recorded in the West Bengal Assembly elections, as per the context of the news?
- A.It indicates a decline in the use of electronic voting machines.
- B.It reflects intense political competition and high voter engagement.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It suggests the elections were conducted over a single day.
- D.It means the Election Commission introduced a new voting method.
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Explanation
A record high voter turnout, as described in the article ('highest-ever'), typically signifies heightened political awareness, competitive electoral contests, and strong mobilization efforts by political parties to bring voters to the polls.
Under which Act did the Supreme Court expand the definition of 'acid attack victims'?
- A.The Persons with Disabilities Act, 1995
- B.The Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act, 2016✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012
- D.The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989
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Explanation
The news article explicitly mentions that the Supreme Court's ruling pertains to the definition under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016. The 1995 Act was its predecessor, while POCSO and SC/ST Acts deal with different subject matters.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent Supreme Court ruling:
1. The Court expanded the definition of 'acid attack victims' to include survivors of forcible acid ingestion under the RPwD Act.
2. The 2016 Act originally recognized both acid-throwing and acid ingestion as forms of acid attack.
3. The Court's order is operative with prospective effect only, from the date of the judgment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states the 2016 law 'recognised only victims of acid-throwing, and not forcible acid ingestion.' Statement 3 is incorrect as the article clearly mentions the order is 'operative retrospectively from the inception of the Act.'
From when is the Supreme Court's order on acid attack victims under the RPwD Act operative?
- A.From the date of the judgment in 2026
- B.Retrospectively from the year 2010
- C.Retrospectively from the inception of the Act in 2016✓ Correct Answer
- D.From the date the victim files an application
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'the order is operative retrospectively from the inception of the Act.' The Act in question is the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, which was enacted in 2016.
What is the primary implication of the Supreme Court's ruling on the RPwD Act definition?
- A.It increases the punishment for acid attackers under the Indian Penal Code.
- B.It allows survivors of forcible acid ingestion to claim disability benefits under the Act.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It mandates the creation of special fast-track courts for acid attack cases.
- D.It transfers the nodal responsibility for acid attack victims from the Ministry of Home Affairs to the Ministry of Social Justice.
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Explanation
The core implication, as stated in the article, is that the 'deemed recognition would aid victims of forcible acid ingestion to claim disability benefits due under the 2016 Act.' The other options, while possibly related to acid attack jurisprudence, are not mentioned as direct outcomes of this specific ruling.
Which constitutional authority is responsible for conducting elections to the Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly?
- A.Supreme Court of India
- B.President of India
- C.Election Commission of India✓ Correct Answer
- D.Governor of Tamil Nadu
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Explanation
The Election Commission of India (ECI) is the autonomous constitutional authority established under Article 324. It is responsible for administering the election process for the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, and the offices of the President and Vice President of India.
Consider the following statements regarding the 2026 Tamil Nadu Assembly Election:
1. The election witnessed a historic voter turnout of approximately 85.1%.
2. The Tamilaga Vettri Kazhagam (TVK) contested as part of the AIADMK-BJP alliance.
3. The total number of seats in the Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly is 234.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions a historic voter turnout of approximately 85.1%. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article clearly states that TVK 'chose to contest solo across all 234 constituencies' and was not part of any alliance. Statement 3 is correct as the election was contested on a total of 234 seats.
According to the Election Commission of India data mentioned in the article, in how many seats was the Tamilaga Vettri Kazhagam (TVK) leading in the 2026 Tamil Nadu Assembly election?
- A.68 seats
- B.98 seats
- C.108 seats✓ Correct Answer
- D.118 seats
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'the TVK is ahead in 108 seats'. AIADMK was leading in 68 seats, which is a close distractor. The other options are not mentioned in the provided content.
What was the primary strategic significance of the AIADMK-BJP alliance reuniting in April 2025 for the 2026 Tamil Nadu elections, as per the article?
- A.To introduce a new election symbol for the coalition
- B.To project a unified chief ministerial candidate, Edappadi K. Palaniswami✓ Correct Answer
- C.To reduce the number of polling stations required
- D.To ensure a single-phase polling process
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Explanation
The article states the AIADMK-BJP alliance 'reunited in April 2025 with Edappadi K Palaniswami as the chief ministerial candidate.' Projecting a clear CM face is a key electoral strategy to consolidate votes and present a stable alternative to the incumbent. The other options are administrative details not linked to the strategic alliance reunion.
Who is the Chairman of the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM), as mentioned in the news?
- A.Bibek Debroy
- B.S. Mahendra Dev✓ Correct Answer
- C.Arvind Panagariya
- D.Rathin Roy
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM) Chairman S. Mahendra Dev. Bibek Debroy and Arvind Panagariya are former chairmen, and Rathin Roy is a former member.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent statement by the EAC-PM Chairman:
1. He called for mapping economic vulnerabilities specifically in sectors like energy and food.
2. He suggested that reliance on foreign exchange reserves alone is sufficient for economic security.
3. The ongoing West Asia conflict was cited as a context highlighting the need for such measures.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions mapping vulnerabilities in energy, food, fertilizers, metals, and critical minerals. Statement 2 is incorrect; he argued for going BEYOND conventional reliance on forex reserves. Statement 3 is correct as the West Asia conflict is explicitly mentioned as the context.
According to the news, on which date did EAC-PM Chairman S. Mahendra Dev make the statement about mapping economic vulnerabilities?
- A.May 2, 2026
- B.May 3, 2026
- C.May 4, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- D.May 5, 2026
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Explanation
The article states the statement was made on Monday, May 4, 2026. The other dates are close distractors to test attention to detail.
What is the primary objective behind the EAC-PM Chairman's call for expanding strategic petroleum reserves and creating essential commodity stockpiles?
- A.To increase government revenue through commodity trading
- B.To promote exports of surplus food grains
- C.To mitigate the impact of future supply disruptions and price volatility✓ Correct Answer
- D.To reduce the fiscal deficit by selling reserves
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Explanation
The article clearly states the need is to 'proactively address both supply disruptions and price volatility to mitigate the impact of future West Asia-like crisis.' The other options are not mentioned as objectives.
The Supreme Court judgment cited a specific section of a new evidence law. Which law replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
- A.The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
- B.The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
- C.The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023✓ Correct Answer
- D.The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2023
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions Section 118 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023. This is the law that replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, as part of the recent criminal law reforms.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court judgment mentioned in the news:
1. The Court cancelled the bail granted by the Allahabad High Court to an accused in a dowry death case.
2. The Court held that a delay in lodging an FIR is a valid and sufficient ground for granting bail in serious crimes.
3. The judgment made reference to the rising instances of dowry deaths specifically in the state of Uttar Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the Supreme Court set aside the High Court's bail order. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court explicitly questioned whether delay in FIR should be a ground for bail in serious crimes like dowry death and criticized the High Court for using it. Statement 3 is correct as the bench expressed concern over rising dowry deaths in Uttar Pradesh.
According to the Supreme Court order mentioned in the article, on what date was the FIR lodged in the dowry death case?
- A.11 July 2024
- B.12 July 2024✓ Correct Answer
- C.30 April 2026
- D.04 May 2026
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Explanation
The article states: 'The deceased died on 11.07.2024 and... on the very next date, i.e., on 12.07.2024 the FIR came to be lodged.' The other dates are distractors: 11 July is the death date, 30 April is the SC order date, and 04 May is the article publication date.
What was the primary legal principle the Supreme Court emphasized regarding the granting of bail in serious crimes like dowry death?
- A.Bail should be granted liberally to reduce prison overcrowding.
- B.Courts must consider the financial status of the accused while granting bail.
- C.Bail orders should not create a perception that courts are taking serious crimes lightly.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Delay in trial is the most important factor for granting bail.
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Explanation
The core message from the Court, as quoted, is that bail courts must ensure their orders 'should not be seen or read by the society at large that the courts are taking serious crimes against women very lightly.' The other options are either contrary to the judgment's spirit or not mentioned as primary principles.
Which Indian government department is the current administrative authority for matters related to nuclear power, as per the article?
- A.Ministry of Power
- B.Department of Atomic Energy (DAE)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB)
- D.NITI Aayog
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Explanation
The article states that the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE), under the Prime Minister's Office, is currently the administrative authority for matters related to nuclear power. The AERB is the regulator, and the Ministry of Power's role is under discussion.
Consider the following statements regarding developments mentioned in the article:
1. The Treaty of Sugauli, signed in 1816, established the Mahakali River as the western boundary of Nepal.
2. The European Union Blocking Statute prohibits EU companies from complying with any sanctions imposed by non-EU countries.
3. The 'Drishti' satellite launched by GalaxEye can take only Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) images for all-weather reliability.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's details on the Treaty of Sugauli. Statement 2 is incorrect; the EU Blocking Statute prohibits compliance only with listed foreign sanctions, not all sanctions. Statement 3 is incorrect because Drishti uses Opto-SAR technology for simultaneous optical and SAR imaging, not SAR alone.
According to the article, in which year was the European Union Blocking Statute (Regulation 2271/96) introduced?
- A.1986
- B.1996✓ Correct Answer
- C.2006
- D.2016
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that the European Union Blocking Statute was introduced by Brussels in 1996. This is a key factual detail for Prelims questions on international economic law.
What is the primary strategic advantage of India developing a domestic law similar to the EU Blocking Statute, as discussed in the article?
- A.To increase tariffs on imported digital services
- B.To shield Indian companies from the extraterritorial impact of third-country sanctions✓ Correct Answer
- C.To mandate the use of Indian cloud services by all government departments
- D.To simplify the process for Indian startups to list on foreign stock exchanges
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Explanation
The article discusses India's study of the EU Blocking Statute following Microsoft's suspension of services to Nayara Energy due to EU sanctions. The primary objective of such a law is to protect Indian entities from being forced to comply with foreign sanctions that have extraterritorial application, thereby safeguarding critical services and economic sovereignty.
Which Indian law primarily governs the conditions for a valid marriage among Hindus, as referenced in the Chhattisgarh High Court ruling?
- A.The Special Marriage Act, 1954
- B.The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Indian Christian Marriage Act, 1872
- D.The Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, as the governing law under which the marriage was challenged. The court's analysis revolves around Sections 5(iv) and 3(a) of this specific Act.
Consider the following statements regarding the Chhattisgarh High Court ruling:
1. The court declared the marriage void as it fell within the prohibited degrees of relationship under the Hindu Marriage Act.
2. The court accepted the 'Brahma marriage' custom of the Patel community as a valid exception to the prohibited relationship rule.
3. The court held that for a custom to be valid, it must be pleaded and proved to be ancient, continuous, uniform, and have obtained the force of law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The court declared the marriage void under Section 5(iv). Statement 2 is incorrect: The court specifically rejected the 'Brahma marriage' custom claim. Statement 3 is correct: The court detailed these exact legal requirements for proving a custom under Section 3(a) of the Act.
According to the news, on which date was the customary divorce granted to the couple by a societal meeting?
- A.April 20, 2018
- B.March, 2020
- C.January 14, 2022✓ Correct Answer
- D.January 3, 2024
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Explanation
The article states: "...on January 14, 2022, a customary divorce was granted to them in a societal meeting." April 20, 2018, is the marriage date. March 2020 is when the wife left home. January 3, 2024, is the family court decision date.
What was the primary legal reason the Chhattisgarh High Court gave for rejecting the 'Brahma marriage' custom defense?
- A.The custom was against modern secular values.
- B.The custom was not mentioned in any ancient Hindu scripture.
- C.The respondents failed to legally prove the custom met the criteria under the Hindu Marriage Act.✓ Correct Answer
- D.The custom was only practiced by a small minority within the Patel community.
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Explanation
The court's core reasoning was that the wife failed to plead and establish that the custom was continuously and uniformly observed for a long time and had obtained the force of law as required by Section 3(a) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955. The judgment did not base its decision on secular values, scriptures, or the size of the practicing group.
Under which ministry is the newly formed Online Gaming Authority of India (OGAI) established?
- A.Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
- B.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
- D.Ministry of Home Affairs
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the OGAI is a unified regulator under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). While other ministries have joint secretaries as members, the parent ministry and chairperson (Additional Secretary) are from MeitY.
Consider the following statements regarding the Online Gaming Authority of India (OGAI):
1. It is a statutory body established under the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act, 2025.
2. It has the power to classify online games and impose penalties on non-compliant platforms.
3. Its chairperson is the Joint Secretary of the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as OGAI is established by the 2025 Act. Statement 2 is correct as the article lists its powers to classify games and impose penalties. Statement 3 is incorrect; the chairperson is the Additional Secretary of MeitY, not a Joint Secretary from Youth Affairs.
As per the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Rules, 2026, how many members constitute the Online Gaming Authority of India (OGAI)?
- A.3 members
- B.5 members
- C.6 members✓ Correct Answer
- D.8 members
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the OGAI comprises six members, all of whom are government nominees. This includes the Chairperson (Additional Secretary, MeitY) and five Joint Secretaries from other ministries.
What is a key enforcement mechanism introduced by the new online gaming rules, making financial institutions crucial for regulation?
- A.Mandating a special gaming tax on all transactions.
- B.Requiring banks to verify a game's regulatory status before facilitating transactions.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ordering banks to provide low-interest loans to gaming startups.
- D.Directing banks to invest a percentage of profits in gaming infrastructure.
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Explanation
The article explains that the rules 'expanded the compliance perimeter by bringing financial institutions directly into the regulatory net.' Banks and payment gateways must verify a game's regulatory status, and for banned 'Online Money Games,' they must act on OGAI's directions to restrict payments, making them a key enforcement tool.
The Strait of Hormuz, a critical chokepoint mentioned in the news, is located between which two countries?
- A.Iran and Saudi Arabia
- B.Iran and Oman✓ Correct Answer
- C.Saudi Arabia and United Arab Emirates
- D.Oman and Yemen
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Explanation
The article explicitly states 'The strait sits between Iranian and Omani territory.' This is a key geographical fact about one of the world's most important maritime chokepoints.
Consider the following statements regarding the US-led 'Project Freedom' mentioned in the article:
1. It involves guiding stranded commercial ships from the Strait of Hormuz due to risks from un-surveyed mines.
2. The initiative is being conducted under a United Nations Security Council mandate for humanitarian assistance.
3. Iran's military has warned that any foreign force entering the strait will be seen as a ceasefire violation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's core description. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article describes it as a US-led initiative announced by President Trump, with no mention of a UN mandate. Statement 3 is correct as Iran's Major General Ali Abdollahi and parliamentarian Ebrahim Azizi issued such warnings.
According to the article, approximately what percentage of the world's oil typically passes through the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.About 10%
- B.About 15%
- C.Roughly one-fifth (20%)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Nearly one-third (30%)
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Explanation
The article specifically states: 'The disruption of the waterway through which roughly one-fifth of the world’s oil typically passes...' This is a critical data point for understanding the strategic importance of the strait.
What is described as one of the most 'enduring consequences' of the war that began on February 28, according to the news article?
- A.The humanitarian crisis for stranded seafarers.
- B.The disruption of the Strait of Hormuz for global oil transit.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The imposition of US sanctions on Iranian oil revenue.
- D.The review of Iran's 14-point proposal by the US.
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Explanation
The article directly states: 'The disruption of the waterway... has become one of the most enduring consequences of the war.' This highlights the long-term strategic and economic impact of the conflict on global energy supplies, beyond immediate military or humanitarian aspects.
Which constitutional body delivered the judgment denying bail in the massive crypto-MLM fraud case?
- A.Supreme Court of India
- B.Himachal Pradesh High Court✓ Correct Answer
- C.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- D.Enforcement Directorate (ED)
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the Himachal Pradesh High Court, with Justice Sushil Kukreja presiding, dismissed the bail plea. The Supreme Court, SEBI, and ED are not mentioned as the adjudicating body in this specific bail denial.
Consider the following statements regarding the crypto-MLM fraud case:
1. The fraud involved platforms named Korvio, Voscrow, and Hypenext.
2. The Himachal Pradesh High Court granted bail, noting the investigation was incomplete.
3. The estimated loss to investors from the fraud is around ₹500 crore.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions Korvio, Voscrow, and Hypenext. Statement 2 is incorrect; the HC denied bail, and the chargesheet was already filed (investigation was complete). Statement 3 is correct as the court noted an estimated loss of ₹500 crores to investors.
According to the Himachal Pradesh High Court's observation, approximately how many investors were victims of the cryptocurrency-based MLM fraud?
- A.Over 50,000 investors
- B.Over 80,000 investors✓ Correct Answer
- C.Over 1,00,000 investors
- D.Over 1,20,000 investors
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the fraudulent scheme defrauded 'over 80,000 investors.' The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What was the primary reason cited by the Himachal Pradesh High Court for denying bail to the accused in the crypto-MLM fraud case?
- A.The accused was a flight risk and had attempted to flee the country.
- B.Economic offences of such magnitude are grave as they affect the economy of the country as a whole.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The accused failed to provide a satisfactory explanation for the cryptocurrency transactions.
- D.The larger interest of the public and the state outweighs the individual's right to bail in such cases.
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Explanation
While other options are factually mentioned in the article (like unsatisfactory explanation and larger public interest), the court's core reasoning, as directly quoted, is that 'Economic offences are considered grave offences as they affect the economy of the country as a whole.' This is the primary legal principle applied.
Which constitutional article was primarily referenced by the Supreme Court bench while examining the Transgender Act amendment in light of the NALSA judgment?
- A.Article 14
- B.Article 19
- C.Article 21✓ Correct Answer
- D.Article 32
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Explanation
Justice Bagchi explicitly stated the amendment should be examined 'in the light of Article 21'. The NALSA judgment anchored the right to self-identification of gender as an aspect of dignity, which is a component of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution.
Consider the following statements regarding the 2026 amendment to the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act:
1. It does away with the provision for self-identification of gender.
2. It mandates that a certificate of transgender identity will be issued by a Chief Medical Officer.
3. The Supreme Court granted an interim stay on the implementation of this amendment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the amendment 'did away with self-identification of gender'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the certificate is issued by a District Magistrate after examining a medical board's recommendation, not directly by a Chief Medical Officer. Statement 3 is incorrect as the Supreme Court explicitly refused to grant any interim stay, saying 'no question of interim stay'.
According to the news, who heads the designated medical board whose recommendation is examined for issuing a transgender identity certificate under the amended Act?
- A.District Magistrate
- B.Chief Medical Officer✓ Correct Answer
- C.Solicitor-General
- D.A Supreme Court Judge
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Explanation
The article specifically states that the certificate is issued by a district magistrate 'after examining the recommendation of a designated medical board, headed by a chief medical officer'. The District Magistrate is the issuing authority, but the medical board is headed by the Chief Medical Officer.
What was a primary concern raised by the Chief Justice of India regarding the right to self-identification of gender?
- A.That it would lead to a shortage of medical professionals.
- B.That it could be misused to avail reservations and welfare measures.✓ Correct Answer
- C.That it violates the federal structure of the Constitution.
- D.That it is not recognized under any international convention.
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Explanation
CJI Surya Kant asked, 'In this country of 140 crore people, some can masquerade this facility for the grant of reservations also, isn't it?' This directly highlights the concern about potential misuse of self-identification for availing benefits like reservations, which was a key argument during the hearing.
Which Iranian body stated that U.S. interference in the Strait of Hormuz would be considered a ceasefire violation?
- A.Supreme National Security Council
- B.Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps (IRGC)
- C.Parliament's National Security Commission✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Foreign Affairs
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that the Iranian parliament's national security commission made the statement regarding the ceasefire violation. This is a specific institutional fact from the news.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. Iran threatened to attack U.S. forces if they escort ships through the Strait of Hormuz.
2. The U.S. plan was announced by the U.S. Secretary of Defense.
3. Iran's blockade has impacted the global flow of oil, gas, and fertiliser.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the plan was announced by U.S. President Donald Trump, not the Secretary of Defense. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the blockade choked flows of oil, gas, and fertiliser.
According to the news, on which date did Iran issue the warning regarding U.S. forces in the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.May 3, 2026
- B.May 4, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.May 5, 2026
- D.May 6, 2026
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Explanation
The article's published date and the text of the warning specify the date as May 4, 2026 ('Iran warned on Monday (May 4, 2026)'). This is a precise factual recall.
What is the primary strategic implication of Iran's threat and the U.S. response regarding the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.It signals a long-term shift in global trade routes away from the Middle East.
- B.It escalates a local naval standoff into a potential regional diplomatic crisis linked to a ceasefire.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It demonstrates the declining importance of maritime chokepoints in the age of pipelines.
- D.It primarily aims to boost domestic arms manufacturing in both countries.
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Explanation
The core implication is the escalation risk. By framing U.S. action as a 'ceasefire violation', Iran connects a tactical naval issue to the broader, fragile West Asia ceasefire, raising the stakes for a wider conflict.
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What are the important current affairs questions for 4 May 2026?▼
This page contains 108 current affairs questions from 4 May 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
How to use 4 May 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼
Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.
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Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.
All Questions in This Set
- Q1. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution has the Supreme…
- Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the Medical Termin…
- Q3. In the case discussed in the article, what was the gestational…
- Q4. is the core shift in legal framework advocated by the Supreme …
- Q5. constitutional article, guaranteeing equality before the law, …
- Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
- Q7. According to the news, for how many months and during what hou…
- Q8. was the primary constitutional principle the Supreme Court inv…
- Q9. The Special TADA Court that convicted the 12 individuals is lo…
- Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the verdict on the…
- Q11. According to the confessional statement, during which dates in…
- Q12. was the primary judicial significance of the confessional stat…
- Q13. The Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) is a policy init…
- Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the EU's Carbon Bo…
- Q15. According to the article, over which period will the free allo…
- Q16. is the primary concern for Indian exporters highlighted in the…
- Q17. The administration of the Information Technology Act, 2000, pr…
- Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the online content…
- Q19. According to the editorial, what is the stipulated timeline wi…
- Q20. The editorial primarily argues that the government's use of IT…
- Q21. The authors of the article, Professor Tiwari and Chairman Pai,…
- Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the Noida Internat…
- Q23. According to the article, what is the estimated cost of the No…
- Q24. is identified as a primary economic benefit of developing the …
- Q25. The International Energy Agency (IEA) was established as a dir…
- Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the proposed Asian…
- Q27. According to the article, what percentage of the petroleum tra…
- Q28. is identified as a primary reason for the steep hike in the 'A…
- Q29. ministry has issued the draft notification proposing the recog…
- Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the ethanol blendi…
- Q31. According to the article, what is the price range (in ₹ per li…
- Q32. is a primary technical challenge mentioned for using higher et…
- Q33. ministry is reported to have proposed examining an EU-like blo…
- Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the EU Blocking St…
- Q35. According to the article, what percentage of stake does Russia…
- Q36. is the primary objective of India's consideration of an EU-lik…
- Q37. ministry is responsible for communicating India's official pos…
- Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the Lipulekh pass …
- Q39. According to India's statement in the article, since which yea…
- Q40. is the primary reason cited by Nepal for objecting to the Kail…
- Q41. As per the existing structure mentioned in the article, which …
- Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the SHANTI Act and…
- Q43. According to the article, what is India's target for installed…
- Q44. is a primary reason cited in the article for the debate on shi…
- Q45. U.S. military command is conducting the 'Project Freedom' oper…
- Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q47. According to the news, approximately how many U.S. service per…
- Q48. is the primary reason cited by the U.S. for launching the 'Pro…
- Q49. The bilateral meeting discussed in the news was between the Pr…
- Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the Japan-Australi…
- Q51. According to the news article, what approximate proportion of …
- Q52. is a primary strategic objective behind the Japan-Australia ag…
- Q53. Under which Act is the Central Information Commission (CIC) es…
- Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q55. In which year was the UP Higher Judicial Service Examination, …
- Q56. was the primary legal principle invoked by the Allahabad High …
- Q57. The Online Gaming Authority of India (OGAI) operates under whi…
- Q58. Consider the following statements: 1. The Panchayat Advanceme…
- Q59. According to the Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) 2.0, how ma…
- Q60. is a primary implication of the United Arab Emirates (UAE) exi…
- Q61. constitutional body is responsible for conducting the West Ben…
- Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the West Bengal As…
- Q63. According to the Election Commission data in the article, what…
- Q64. is the primary significance of the high voter turnout of 92.84…
- Q65. Under which Act did the Supreme Court expand the definition of…
- Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Supreme…
- Q67. From when is the Supreme Court's order on acid attack victims …
- Q68. is the primary implication of the Supreme Court's ruling on th…
- Q69. constitutional authority is responsible for conducting electio…
- Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the 2026 Tamil Nad…
- Q71. According to the Election Commission of India data mentioned i…
- Q72. was the primary strategic significance of the AIADMK-BJP allia…
- Q73. is the Chairman of the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime …
- Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the recent stateme…
- Q75. According to the news, on which date did EAC-PM Chairman S. Ma…
- Q76. is the primary objective behind the EAC-PM Chairman's call for…
- Q77. The Supreme Court judgment cited a specific section of a new e…
- Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
- Q79. According to the Supreme Court order mentioned in the article,…
- Q80. was the primary legal principle the Supreme Court emphasized r…
- Q81. Indian government department is the current administrative aut…
- Q82. Consider the following statements regarding developments menti…
- Q83. According to the article, in which year was the European Union…
- Q84. is the primary strategic advantage of India developing a domes…
- Q85. Indian law primarily governs the conditions for a valid marria…
- Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the Chhattisgarh H…
- Q87. According to the news, on which date was the customary divorce…
- Q88. was the primary legal reason the Chhattisgarh High Court gave …
- Q89. Under which ministry is the newly formed Online Gaming Authori…
- Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the Online Gaming …
- Q91. As per the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Rules, 20…
- Q92. is a key enforcement mechanism introduced by the new online ga…
- Q93. The Strait of Hormuz, a critical chokepoint mentioned in the n…
- Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the US-led 'Projec…
- Q95. According to the article, approximately what percentage of the…
- Q96. is described as one of the most 'enduring consequences' of the…
- Q97. constitutional body delivered the judgment denying bail in the…
- Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the crypto-MLM fra…
- Q99. According to the Himachal Pradesh High Court's observation, ap…
- Q100. was the primary reason cited by the Himachal Pradesh High Cour…
- Q101. constitutional article was primarily referenced by the Supreme…
- Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the 2026 amendment…
- Q103. According to the news, who heads the designated medical board …
- Q104. was a primary concern raised by the Chief Justice of India reg…
- Q105. Iranian body stated that U.S. interference in the Strait of Ho…
- Q106. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. Iran…
- Q107. According to the news, on which date did Iran issue the warnin…
- Q108. is the primary strategic implication of Iran's threat and the …