5 May 2026, Questions & Answers

76 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.

76 questions  ·  0 topics covered  ·  16 min revision

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This page contains 76 current affairs questions with answers from 5 May 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.

These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.

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5 May 2026, Questions with Answers

76 Qs
Q1.

Which constitutional body approved the fifth edition of the Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS-5)?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Union Cabinet✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Parliament of India
  • C.Prime Minister's Office
  • D.Finance Commission
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Union Cabinet approved the fifth edition of the Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme on Tuesday (May 5, 2026). The Union Cabinet is the supreme executive decision-making body of the Government of India.

Source: Cabinet Approves ECLGS-5 with ₹18,100 Cr Outlay, Extends Guarantee to Airlines for Crisis in West Asia →
Q2.

Consider the following statements regarding the fifth edition of the Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS-5):

1. It was approved by the Union Cabinet in response to the crisis in West Asia.

2. The total outlay of the scheme is ₹2.25 lakh crore.

3. It extends credit guarantee cover to airline companies for the first time.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the approval was 'In response to the crisis in West Asia'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the total outlay is ₹18,100 crore, while ₹2.25 lakh crore is the expected additional credit flow. Statement 3 is correct as the article highlights the extension of cover to airline companies.

Source: Cabinet Approves ECLGS-5 with ₹18,100 Cr Outlay, Extends Guarantee to Airlines for Crisis in West Asia →
Q3.

What is the total financial outlay approved for the fifth edition of the Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS-5)?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹15,000 crore
  • B.₹18,100 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹20,000 crore
  • D.₹2.25 lakh crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'The total outlay of the scheme is expected to be ₹18,100 crore'. ₹2.25 lakh crore is a distractor, representing the expected credit flow, not the government's outlay.

Source: Cabinet Approves ECLGS-5 with ₹18,100 Cr Outlay, Extends Guarantee to Airlines for Crisis in West Asia →
Q4.

What is the primary objective of extending the Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS) to airline companies, as per the news?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To fund the purchase of new aircraft fleets
  • B.To provide loans for up to 100% of their peak working capital✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To subsidize passenger airfares
  • D.To facilitate international route expansions
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifies that 'For airlines, the loans can be for up to 100% of their peak working capital...'. This is the direct operational objective stated. The other options, like purchasing aircraft or subsidizing fares, are not mentioned as the scheme's purpose.

Source: Cabinet Approves ECLGS-5 with ₹18,100 Cr Outlay, Extends Guarantee to Airlines for Crisis in West Asia →
Q5.

The Strait of Hormuz, a critical maritime chokepoint, is bordered by which of the following countries?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Iran and Saudi Arabia
  • B.Iran and Oman✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Saudi Arabia and United Arab Emirates
  • D.Oman and Yemen
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Strait of Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman and is bordered by Iran to the north and Oman (specifically the Musandam Peninsula) to the south. This is a fundamental fact of world geography relevant to international relations.

Source: Strait of Hormuz, Chokepoint for 20% Global Oil, Effectively Closed After US-Iran War Breaks Out in Feb 2026 →
Q6.

Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Hormuz disruption in 2026:

1. The crisis began with coordinated air strikes by the US and Israel under 'Operation Epic Fury' on February 28, 2026.

2. Iran formally declared a legal blockade of the strait under international law on March 2, 2026.

3. Despite the closure, Iran allowed selective passage to ships from countries including China, India, and Russia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article timeline. Statement 2 is incorrect; Iran confirmed the strait was 'closed' but this was not a legally formalised blockade. The closure was functional due to risk, not a formal declaration. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions Iran permitted limited passage to 'friendly' nations.

Source: Strait of Hormuz, Chokepoint for 20% Global Oil, Effectively Closed After US-Iran War Breaks Out in Feb 2026 →
Q7.

According to the article, what was the approximate early reduction in shipping traffic through the Strait of Hormuz in March 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.50%
  • B.60%
  • C.70%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.80%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'shipping traffic dropped, with early data showing a 70 per cent reduction in movement.' This is a key data point highlighting the immediate economic impact of the conflict on global trade.

Source: Strait of Hormuz, Chokepoint for 20% Global Oil, Effectively Closed After US-Iran War Breaks Out in Feb 2026 →
Q8.

What was the primary mechanism that led to the effective closure of the Strait of Hormuz, as described in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.A unanimous UN Security Council resolution imposing sanctions.
  • B.A physical barrier constructed by Iranian naval forces.
  • C.Escalating military risks, attacks, and surging insurance costs deterring commercial transit.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.A complete technological shutdown of navigation systems in the region.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article emphasizes that no formal, universally recognised blockade was declared. Instead, the strait became 'functionally shut down' due to the scale of attacks, threats, and rising insurance risks (premiums surging, coverage withdrawn). This made the route practically unusable for commercial shipping.

Source: Strait of Hormuz, Chokepoint for 20% Global Oil, Effectively Closed After US-Iran War Breaks Out in Feb 2026 →
Q9.

Which is the apex consumer court in India that was involved in the case mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Supreme Court of India
  • B.National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.National Green Tribunal
  • D.National Human Rights Commission
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions that the case moved through consumer forums, including the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC), which is the highest consumer court in India established under the Consumer Protection Act.

Source: SC Rules Medical Negligence Claims Survive Doctor's Death; Legal Heirs Can Be Impleaded Under Consumer Protection Act, 1986 →
Q10.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's ruling on medical negligence:

1. The Supreme Court held that all claims against a doctor, including those for personal injury, survive the doctor's death.

2. The Court ruled that legal heirs can be impleaded, but any compensation awarded can only be recovered from the doctor's estate.

3. The judgment is based on an interpretation of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, and principles of tort law.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the Court clarified that claims relating purely to personal injury do NOT survive the death of the wrongdoer. Statement 2 is correct as the Court said compensation can be recovered from the estate, not from legal heirs personally. Statement 3 is correct as the ruling extensively examined the Consumer Protection Act and tort law principles.

Source: SC Rules Medical Negligence Claims Survive Doctor's Death; Legal Heirs Can Be Impleaded Under Consumer Protection Act, 1986 →
Q11.

In the original case discussed by the Supreme Court, what was the amount of compensation sought by the complainant for medical negligence?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Rs 2.6 lakh
  • B.Rs 4.5 lakh✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Rs 5 lakh
  • D.Rs 10 lakh
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the husband filed a consumer complaint in August 1997, seeking compensation of Rs 4.5 lakh for treatment expenses, loss of vision, and mental agony. Rs 2.6 lakh was the amount awarded by the district commission, not the amount sought.

Source: SC Rules Medical Negligence Claims Survive Doctor's Death; Legal Heirs Can Be Impleaded Under Consumer Protection Act, 1986 →
Q12.

What is the primary legal significance of the Supreme Court's ruling as described in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It establishes that doctors cannot be sued after their death under any circumstances.
  • B.It clarifies that financial liability from a tort can survive death and be enforced against the deceased's estate.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It mandates that all medical negligence cases must be decided within a specific timeframe.
  • D.It transfers the jurisdiction of all medical cases from consumer forums to civil courts.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core ruling is that while personal liability ends with death, financial liability (pecuniary loss) tied to the estate can survive and be pursued. This provides clarity on the survival of legal claims and protects victims' rights to compensation.

Source: SC Rules Medical Negligence Claims Survive Doctor's Death; Legal Heirs Can Be Impleaded Under Consumer Protection Act, 1986 →
Q13.

Which government official made the statement regarding the Strait of Hormuz crisis and fiscal interdependence?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Finance Minister
  • B.Chief Economic Advisor✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Governor of RBI
  • D.Chairman of NITI Aayog
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The statement was made by Chief Economic Advisor (CEA) V Anantha Nageswaran at a seminar on state finances. The CEA is the top economist in the government advising the Finance Ministry on economic policy.

Source: CEA Nageswaran: Strait of Hormuz Crisis Risks 4.3% Fiscal Deficit Target; 9 States to Post Revenue Deficit in FY27 →
Q14.

Consider the following statements regarding the fiscal analysis discussed by the CEA:

1. The Centre's fiscal deficit target for 2026-27 is 4.3% of GDP.

2. Global investors assess only the Union government's fiscal deficit, not the combined deficit.

3. Nine states are projected to post a revenue deficit in 2026-27 according to the finance ministry's analysis.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as explicitly mentioned in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the CEA stated that global investors now assess the 'general government fiscal position' which is the combined deficit of Centre and States. Statement 3 is correct as per the article's data on the nine deficit states.

Source: CEA Nageswaran: Strait of Hormuz Crisis Risks 4.3% Fiscal Deficit Target; 9 States to Post Revenue Deficit in FY27 →
Q15.

According to the finance ministry's analysis mentioned in the article, how many states were expected to post a revenue surplus in 2026-27?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.6
  • B.8✓ Correct Answer
  • C.9
  • D.12
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that eight states (Odisha, Jharkhand, Uttar Pradesh, Goa, Gujarat, Uttarakhand, Telangana, and Bihar) were expected to post a revenue surplus. The other key number is nine states projected to have a revenue deficit.

Source: CEA Nageswaran: Strait of Hormuz Crisis Risks 4.3% Fiscal Deficit Target; 9 States to Post Revenue Deficit in FY27 →
Q16.

What is the primary concern raised by the CEA regarding state finances and external shocks?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.States may reduce their capital expenditure.
  • B.Fiscally-constrained states press the Centre for more funds when the Centre itself is facing challenges.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.States might increase taxes on essential commodities.
  • D.External shocks lead to a decrease in state-level revenue from GST.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The CEA's core argument is about fiscal interdependence. He stated that when external shocks hit, fiscally-constrained states 'press the hardest on the Centre and they do so at the very moment when the Centre itself is going to be facing significant challenges'. This creates a compounded pressure on the overall fiscal position.

Source: CEA Nageswaran: Strait of Hormuz Crisis Risks 4.3% Fiscal Deficit Target; 9 States to Post Revenue Deficit in FY27 →
Q17.

Under which Act is the District Level Committee (DLC) constituted, as mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
  • B.The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
  • C.The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The District Level Committee (DLC) is a statutory body constituted under the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006. Its primary role is to process and approve claims for individual and community forest rights.

Source: Allahabad HC Reaffirms Forest Rights Act 2006, Stresses DLC Authority Over Inconsistent Court Orders →
Q18.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The Allahabad High Court's Lucknow Bench gave the ruling in a case from Lakhimpur, Uttar Pradesh.

2. The Court held that the Forest Rights Act, 2006 is subordinate to earlier court orders on forest conservation.

3. The judgment reinforces the authority of the District Level Committee under the FRA.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the Lucknow Bench of the Allahabad High Court and Lakhimpur, UP. Statement 2 is incorrect; the court held the opposite – that the FRA, as a later law, supersedes inconsistent prior orders. Statement 3 is correct as the news highlights the court reminding the DLC of its authority under the FRA.

Source: Allahabad HC Reaffirms Forest Rights Act 2006, Stresses DLC Authority Over Inconsistent Court Orders →
Q19.

As per the news, which High Court bench reaffirmed the primacy of the Forest Rights Act, 2006?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Allahabad High Court's Prayagraj Bench
  • B.Allahabad High Court's Lucknow Bench✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Uttarakhand High Court's Nainital Bench
  • D.Madhya Pradesh High Court's Jabalpur Bench
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the ruling was given by the 'Lucknow Bench of the Allahabad High Court'. This is a specific factual detail that can be directly tested in prelims.

Source: Allahabad HC Reaffirms Forest Rights Act 2006, Stresses DLC Authority Over Inconsistent Court Orders →
Q20.

What is the core legal principle applied by the Allahabad High Court in its judgment on the Forest Rights Act?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The principle of 'Stare Decisis' (judicial precedent) is absolute.
  • B.A later law can repeal or override an earlier inconsistent law or order.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Executive orders always take precedence over parliamentary laws.
  • D.High Courts cannot review orders related to forest conservation.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court's ruling is based on the fundamental legal principle that a later enacted statute (lex posterior) prevails over an earlier contrary law or judicial order. The Forest Rights Act, 2006, being the later specific law, was held to supersede any previous inconsistent court orders.

Source: Allahabad HC Reaffirms Forest Rights Act 2006, Stresses DLC Authority Over Inconsistent Court Orders →
Q21.

Which organisation, mentioned in the news, is primarily responsible for defence research and technology development in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
  • B.Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR)
  • D.National Aerospace Laboratories (NAL)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions DRDO multiple times in the context of defence research, technology transfer, and opening patents. DRDO is the nodal agency under the Ministry of Defence for military R&D.

Source: Operation Sindoor Showcases India's Tech Warfare Prowess Using Akashteer, Akash, BrahMos Systems →
Q22.

Consider the following statements regarding the defence initiatives mentioned in the news:

1. DRDO has transferred over 2,200 technologies to various industries under a new Transfer of Technology policy.

2. The new ToT policy completely waives the 50% fee earlier levied on development-cum-production partners.

3. Operation Sindoor demonstrated the use of indigenous systems including the Akash missile and the BrahMos.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the 20% fee has been waived, not a 50% fee. Statement 3 is correct as Akash and BrahMos are specifically mentioned as systems used in Operation Sindoor.

Source: Operation Sindoor Showcases India's Tech Warfare Prowess Using Akashteer, Akash, BrahMos Systems →
Q23.

According to the Defence Minister, how many technologies has DRDO transferred to industries so far under the new policy framework?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Over 1,500
  • B.Over 2,000
  • C.Over 2,200✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Over 2,500
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article provides the specific data point: "DRDO has, so far, transferred over 2,200 technologies to various industries." The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Source: Operation Sindoor Showcases India's Tech Warfare Prowess Using Akashteer, Akash, BrahMos Systems →
Q24.

What is a primary objective of the new DRDO policy granting Indian industries free access to its patents, as highlighted in the news?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase government revenue from licensing fees
  • B.To bolster the technological capabilities and global competitiveness of Indian industries✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To restrict advanced technology to government agencies only
  • D.To facilitate the import of foreign defence technology
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly states this objective: "a move that will bolster both their technological capabilities and global competitiveness." The other options contradict the article's emphasis on self-reliance and industry empowerment.

Source: Operation Sindoor Showcases India's Tech Warfare Prowess Using Akashteer, Akash, BrahMos Systems →
Q25.

The requirement for a state government's consent for the CBI to investigate is mandated under which Act?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
  • B.The Police Act, 1861
  • C.The Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, the consent of a state is mandatory under the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946, for the CBI to begin a probe within that state. This is a foundational legal provision for the agency's jurisdiction.

Source: West Bengal BJP Victory Ends CBI Consent Withdrawal Under Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946; MGNREGS Funds to Resume →
Q26.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. In 2018, the West Bengal government withdrew the general consent for investigations by the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI).

2. The Supreme Court, in 2024, ruled that West Bengal's original suit challenging the Centre's deployment of the CBI was not maintainable.

3. The Andhra Pradesh government restored general consent for CBI probes in 2019 under the YSRCP government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the SC ruled in 2024 that West Bengal's suit was maintainable. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the YSRCP government restored consent in 2019.

Source: West Bengal BJP Victory Ends CBI Consent Withdrawal Under Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946; MGNREGS Funds to Resume →
Q27.

According to the article, in which year did the West Bengal government file an original suit before the Supreme Court arguing against the Centre's deployment of the CBI?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2018
  • B.2019
  • C.2021✓ Correct Answer
  • D.2024
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "In 2021, the West Bengal government filed an original suit before the Supreme Court..." The other options are years associated with different events: 2018 (withdrawal of consent), 2019 (AP restored consent), and 2024 (SC ruling on maintainability).

Source: West Bengal BJP Victory Ends CBI Consent Withdrawal Under Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946; MGNREGS Funds to Resume →
Q28.

What is the primary constitutional significance of an 'original suit' filed by a state government against the Union Government, as seen in the West Bengal case?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It allows the state to directly challenge central laws in the High Court.
  • B.It invokes the Supreme Court's original jurisdiction under Article 131 to resolve inter-governmental disputes.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It is a mechanism to seek presidential assent for state bills withheld by the Governor.
  • D.It enables the state to appeal against orders of central administrative tribunals.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As inferred from the article mentioning an 'original suit', this directly refers to the Supreme Court's original jurisdiction under Article 131 of the Constitution, which is invoked specifically for disputes between the Government of India and one or more States. This is a key feature of Indian federalism.

Source: West Bengal BJP Victory Ends CBI Consent Withdrawal Under Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946; MGNREGS Funds to Resume →
Q29.

The Supreme Court judgment pertained to recruitment rules framed under which state's public service commission?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Uttar Pradesh Public Service Commission
  • B.Rajasthan Public Service Commission✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Madhya Pradesh Public Service Commission
  • D.Maharashtra Public Service Commission
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the Rajasthan Public Service Commission (RPSC) as the recruiting body whose clarification and appeal led to the Supreme Court case. The rules in question are the Rajasthan Prosecution Subordinate Service Rules, 1978.

Source: Supreme Court Upholds RPSC Rule: Eligibility for Rajasthan Prosecution Service Fixed on Application Date, Not Later Qualification →
Q30.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's ruling:

1. It held that eligibility for government recruitment must be determined as of the date of the preliminary examination.

2. It rejected the High Court's view that if two interpretations of rules are possible, the one favouring candidates should be chosen.

3. It emphasized that the ruling was to avoid creating an uncertain selection process and an administrative burden on the recruiting body.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Court ruled eligibility is fixed on the last date for submission of the application, not the exam date. Statement 2 is correct as the article states the SC did not align with the HC's view on beneficial interpretation. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the Court's concern about "uncertain selection process" and "unnecessary administrative burden".

Source: Supreme Court Upholds RPSC Rule: Eligibility for Rajasthan Prosecution Service Fixed on Application Date, Not Later Qualification →
Q31.

According to the news, by which date had the aggrieved candidates acquired their LLB degree, which was after the application deadline?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.August 22, 2023
  • B.August 22, 2024✓ Correct Answer
  • C.November 19, 2024
  • D.January 15, 2025
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: "They acquired the requisite qualification on August 22, 2024." November 19, 2024, is the date of an RPSC press note, and January 15, 2025, is the date of the High Court order.

Source: Supreme Court Upholds RPSC Rule: Eligibility for Rajasthan Prosecution Service Fixed on Application Date, Not Later Qualification →
Q32.

What was the primary rationale given by the Supreme Court for insisting on eligibility as of the application date?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To reduce the number of applicants for competitive exams
  • B.To ensure strict adherence to recruitment rules and maintain administrative certainty in the selection process✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To give an advantage to candidates with more work experience
  • D.To align the recruitment calendar with the academic calendar of universities
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes the Court's concern that accepting later qualifications would "create an uncertain selection process and would warrant an unnecessary administrative burden on the RPSC." The core rationale is upholding the rule of law in recruitment and ensuring a fair, predictable process for all.

Source: Supreme Court Upholds RPSC Rule: Eligibility for Rajasthan Prosecution Service Fixed on Application Date, Not Later Qualification →
Q33.

Which statutory organization is mentioned in the news as responsible for technical coordination and development of the power sector?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Grid Controller of India (Grid-India)
  • B.Central Electricity Authority (CEA)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Power
  • D.Power System Operation Corporation (POSOCO)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions data from the Central Electricity Authority (CEA) regarding forced outages. The CEA is the statutory body for technical coordination and power sector development, while Grid-India is the grid operator.

Source: Night-time Power Shortage Hits 5.4 GW Amid 256 GW Peak Demand; Grid India, CEA Flag Structural Gap Between Solar and Baseload →
Q34.

Consider the following statements regarding the power shortage situation discussed in the news:

1. The peak power demand in April 2026 touched a record high of 256 GW.

2. The night-time power shortage is primarily due to the lack of solar generation during night hours.

3. Forced outages refer to planned shutdowns of power plants for maintenance and repairs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the night-time shortage is due to a combination of factors including lack of storage, thermal plant outages, and rising evening demand (EV charging, cooking), not just the absence of solar. Statement 3 is incorrect as forced outages are defined in the article as unplanned disruptions, not planned maintenance.

Source: Night-time Power Shortage Hits 5.4 GW Amid 256 GW Peak Demand; Grid India, CEA Flag Structural Gap Between Solar and Baseload →
Q35.

According to the news article, what was the approximate installed battery energy storage capacity in India as mentioned?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.0.27 GW✓ Correct Answer
  • B.1.5 GW
  • C.5.4 GW
  • D.8.8 GW
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that battery storage deployment remains nascent, with installed battery energy storage capacity at just 0.27 GW. 5.4 GW was the night-time shortage, and 8.8 GW is the installed nuclear capacity.

Source: Night-time Power Shortage Hits 5.4 GW Amid 256 GW Peak Demand; Grid India, CEA Flag Structural Gap Between Solar and Baseload →
Q36.

As per the expert views in the article, what is identified as a critical near-term measure to help bridge the night-time power supply gap?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Accelerated deployment of nuclear power plants
  • B.Immediate revision of building design standards
  • C.Improved demand-side management and flexible operation of thermal plants✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Imposing higher duties on inefficient air-conditioners
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes Alekhya Datta from TERI stating that in the near term, improved demand-side management, flexible operation of existing thermal assets, and optimized inter-regional power flows can help bridge the gap. The other options are medium to long-term or demand-side measures mentioned elsewhere.

Source: Night-time Power Shortage Hits 5.4 GW Amid 256 GW Peak Demand; Grid India, CEA Flag Structural Gap Between Solar and Baseload →
Q37.

Which international credit rating agency published the report stating India is the most resilient emerging market economy?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Standard & Poor's (S&P)
  • B.Fitch Ratings
  • C.Moody's Ratings✓ Correct Answer
  • D.DBRS Morningstar
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the report was published by 'Moody's Ratings'. The other options are names of other major international credit rating agencies, making them plausible distractors.

Source: Moody's Rates India as Most Resilient Emerging Economy Since 2020, Cites Strong Forex Reserves and Policy Framework →
Q38.

Consider the following statements regarding the Moody's report on India:

1. India has been the most resilient large emerging market economy since 2020.

2. The report attributes India's resilience solely to its high GDP growth rate.

3. According to the report, India's sizeable forex reserves have helped check currency volatility.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's headline and content. Statement 2 is incorrect; the report cites multiple factors including forex reserves and a clear monetary policy framework, not 'solely' high GDP growth. Statement 3 is directly mentioned in the article. Hence, both 1 and 3 are correct.

Source: Moody's Rates India as Most Resilient Emerging Economy Since 2020, Cites Strong Forex Reserves and Policy Framework →
Q39.

Since which year has India been rated as the most resilient large emerging market economy according to the Moody's report?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Since 2018
  • B.Since 2020✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Since 2022
  • D.Since 2024
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states, 'India has been the most resilient large emerging market economy since 2020...'. The other options are close distractors representing other recent years.

Source: Moody's Rates India as Most Resilient Emerging Economy Since 2020, Cites Strong Forex Reserves and Policy Framework →
Q40.

What is a primary reason cited by Moody's for India being well-placed to manage future economic shocks?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.High levels of domestic consumption
  • B.Substantial foreign direct investment inflows
  • C.Clear and predictable monetary policy framework✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Low levels of public debt
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that India is well placed to manage future shocks 'because monetary policy frameworks are clear and predictable...'. While the other options may be positive factors, the report specifically highlights the policy framework as a key reason for future resilience.

Source: Moody's Rates India as Most Resilient Emerging Economy Since 2020, Cites Strong Forex Reserves and Policy Framework →
Q41.

Which Union Ministry/Department is primarily responsible for the implementation of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  • B.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Law and Justice
  • D.Ministry of Human Resource Development
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions the Department of Social Justice and Empowerment in the context of the Supreme Court's directive for a senior officer to participate in the monitoring process. This department, under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, is the nodal agency for policies and programs for persons with disabilities.

Source: SC Directs States to Appoint Disability Rights Nodal Officers by May 15, Endorses ‘Own Merit’ Principle Under RPwD Act 2016 →
Q42.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's recent hearing on disability rights:

1. The Court set a final deadline of May 15, 2026, for all states to appoint nodal officers under the RPwD Act.

2. The Court rejected the Union government's 'own merit' principle for reservation for persons with disabilities.

3. The Court directed National Law University Delhi to monitor the compliance of the Union government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article clearly states the final deadline is May 15, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court endorsed and accepted the Union government's 'own merit' principle. Statement 3 is correct as NLU Delhi was specifically tasked with mapping the Union government's compliance. Hence, option C is correct.

Source: SC Directs States to Appoint Disability Rights Nodal Officers by May 15, Endorses ‘Own Merit’ Principle Under RPwD Act 2016 →
Q43.

As per the Supreme Court's directive, by what date must the non-compliant states and Union Territories appoint nodal officers for disability rights?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.April 15, 2026
  • B.May 15, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.September 12, 2025
  • D.September 22, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Supreme Court granted a 'final opportunity' and directed that nodal officers must be appointed by May 15, 2026. April 15 was an earlier direction date, September 12, 2025 is the date of the previous judgment, and September 22, 2026 is the date for the next hearing.

Source: SC Directs States to Appoint Disability Rights Nodal Officers by May 15, Endorses ‘Own Merit’ Principle Under RPwD Act 2016 →
Q44.

What is the primary objective of the Supreme Court directing National Law Universities to undertake 'Project Ability Empowerment'?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To provide legal aid to persons with disabilities in court cases.
  • B.To conduct a substantive evaluation of the implementation of the RPwD Act, 2016.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To train government officials on the provisions of the disability rights law.
  • D.To draft amendments to strengthen the existing disability rights legislation.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the exercise must involve a 'substantive evaluation of implementation, including enforcement of rights, accessibility measures, and institutional mechanisms, rather than a mere formality.' The other options, while potentially related, are not the primary objective mentioned in the news.

Source: SC Directs States to Appoint Disability Rights Nodal Officers by May 15, Endorses ‘Own Merit’ Principle Under RPwD Act 2016 →
Q45.

The right to a speedy trial, as reiterated in the Supreme Court judgment, is derived from which Article of the Constitution?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 14
  • B.Article 19
  • C.Article 21✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Article 32
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the right to a speedy trial is a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution. Article 14 is Right to Equality, Article 19 is Freedom of Speech, and Article 32 is Right to Constitutional Remedies.

Source: SC Reiterates: Bail Mandatory Under Article 21 if Speedy Trial Violated, Even for Serious Crimes Like Murder →
Q46.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's ruling:

1. The Court held that bail cannot be considered for serious offences like murder.

2. The Court stated that the right to a speedy trial is a fundamental right under Article 21.

3. The accused in the case had been in judicial custody since November 2022 without any witness being examined.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 2
  • B.(B) Only 3
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the Court ruled the opposite: bail MUST be considered even for serious crimes if speedy trial is violated. Statement 2 is correct as mentioned in the article. Statement 3 is correct as the petitioner was in custody since November 1, 2022, with no witness examined.

Source: SC Reiterates: Bail Mandatory Under Article 21 if Speedy Trial Violated, Even for Serious Crimes Like Murder →
Q47.

According to the news article, since when was the petitioner, Sahil Manoj Machare, in judicial custody before being granted bail?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.November 1, 2021
  • B.November 1, 2022✓ Correct Answer
  • C.December 1, 2022
  • D.January 1, 2023
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: "the petitioner has been in judicial custody since November 1, 2022." This is a key factual data point from the case.

Source: SC Reiterates: Bail Mandatory Under Article 21 if Speedy Trial Violated, Even for Serious Crimes Like Murder →
Q48.

What is the primary constitutional principle reinforced by the Supreme Court's ruling in this case?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The absolute right to bail for all undertrials.
  • B.The primacy of the gravity of the charge over procedural delays.
  • C.That the right to a speedy trial under Article 21 can mandate bail consideration.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.That witness examination must begin within six months of arrest.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core ruling is that violation of the fundamental right to a speedy trial (Article 21) compels courts to consider bail, irrespective of the crime's seriousness. The ruling does not create an absolute right to bail (A), nor does it prioritize the charge over delays (B). It also does not set a specific six-month timeline (D).

Source: SC Reiterates: Bail Mandatory Under Article 21 if Speedy Trial Violated, Even for Serious Crimes Like Murder →
Q49.

The Strait of Hormuz, a critical chokepoint mentioned in the news, is a strait between which two countries?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Iran and Oman✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Saudi Arabia and Qatar
  • C.UAE and Iran
  • D.Iraq and Kuwait
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Strait of Hormuz is located between Iran and the Musandam Peninsula of Oman. It is the only sea passage from the Persian Gulf to the open ocean, making it a globally significant chokepoint for oil shipments.

Source: UAE Fujairah Drone Attack Injures 3 Indians, Triggers India-UAE Solidarity Amid Iran Tensions and Strait of Hormuz Blockade →
Q50.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The drone attack in Fujairah targeted a major oil industry zone and resulted in injuries to three Indian nationals.

2. The United Arab Emirates has accused Saudi Arabia of being behind the drone and missile strikes.

3. The 'Abraham Accords', signed in 2020, were normalization agreements between Israel and several Arab states, including the UAE.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the UAE accused Iran, not Saudi Arabia, of the attack. Statement 3 is correct; the Abraham Accords were signed in 2020 between Israel and the UAE, Bahrain, Sudan, and Morocco.

Source: UAE Fujairah Drone Attack Injures 3 Indians, Triggers India-UAE Solidarity Amid Iran Tensions and Strait of Hormuz Blockade →
Q51.

According to the article, on what date was the fragile ceasefire between the US and Iran, mentioned in the context of the attacks, brokered?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.February 28, 2026
  • B.April 8, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.May 3, 2026
  • D.May 5, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'The resumption of hostilities comes amidst a tenuous, fragile ceasefire brokered between the US and Iran on April 8...'. February 28 is the date of US-Israel strikes on Iran, May 3 is when Iran presented a peace plan, and May 5 is the date of the Fujairah attack.

Source: UAE Fujairah Drone Attack Injures 3 Indians, Triggers India-UAE Solidarity Amid Iran Tensions and Strait of Hormuz Blockade →
Q52.

What is the primary strategic reason, as per the article, making the UAE a recurrent target for Iranian retaliatory actions in the region?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.The UAE's vast oil reserves and its role as a global trade hub.
  • B.The presence of a large Indian expatriate community in the UAE.
  • C.The UAE's hosting of major American military bases and its alliance with Israel.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The UAE's leading role in the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC).
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly details that the UAE is targeted because it is 'home to major American military bases' like Al Dhafra Air Base and, 'most significantly for Iran', it is 'Israel's biggest ally in West Asia' following the Abraham Accords. While oil reserves and expatriates are mentioned, they are not cited as the primary reasons for being targeted.

Source: UAE Fujairah Drone Attack Injures 3 Indians, Triggers India-UAE Solidarity Amid Iran Tensions and Strait of Hormuz Blockade →
Q53.

Which international organization set the '90-70-90' targets for cervical cancer elimination discussed in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
  • B.World Health Organization (WHO)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.World Bank
  • D.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the goals of vaccinating 90% of girls, screening 70% of women, and treating 90% of cases are the World Health Organization's (WHO) targets for eliminating cervical cancer globally.

Source: WHO Targets 90% HPV Vaccination to Avert 10 Million Cervical Cancer Cases in India by 2085 →
Q54.

Consider the following statements regarding cervical cancer in India as per the news article:

1. Achieving WHO targets could avert 10 million cervical cancer cases in India over the next century.

2. India's HPV vaccination campaign for all 14-year-old boys was rolled out on February 28, 2026.

3. Cervical cancer screening coverage in India is currently less than 2 percent.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as Prof Marc Brisson states reaching WHO targets would avert over 10 million cases. Statement 2 is incorrect; the campaign is for 14-year-old girls, not boys. Statement 3 is correct as Dr. Smita Joshi states screening coverage is less than 2%.

Source: WHO Targets 90% HPV Vaccination to Avert 10 Million Cervical Cancer Cases in India by 2085 →
Q55.

According to data from the U-WIN portal mentioned in the article, what was the HPV vaccination coverage among eligible girls in India till April 10, 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.5.25%
  • B.10.63%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.15.80%
  • D.22.10%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically states that data from the Government of India's U-WIN portal suggests that till April 10 this year, only 10.63% of the 1.15 crore eligible girls got their HPV vaccine shot.

Source: WHO Targets 90% HPV Vaccination to Avert 10 Million Cervical Cancer Cases in India by 2085 →
Q56.

What is identified as a primary challenge for India's HPV vaccination campaign in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.High cost of the vaccine doses
  • B.Lack of vaccine supply from manufacturers
  • C.Low public awareness and demand generation✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Opposition from international health agencies
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Dr. Smita Joshi identifies multiple factors for low uptake, including insufficient awareness generation, no strong public messages, and negative messages going viral on social media. The article does not mention cost, supply issues, or international opposition as primary challenges.

Source: WHO Targets 90% HPV Vaccination to Avert 10 Million Cervical Cancer Cases in India by 2085 →
Q57.

In the context of the Supreme Court judgment, which constitutional article was cited as the basis for upholding the minor’s right to terminate her pregnancy?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 14
  • B.Article 19
  • C.Article 21✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Article 32
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Supreme Court emphasized that forcing the minor to carry an unwanted pregnancy would violate her fundamental right to reproductive autonomy, which is derived from the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution.

Source: SC Dismisses AIIMS Contempt Case, Upholds Minor’s Right Under Article 21, Highlights MTP Act Gap for 30-Week Pregnancies →
Q58.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court case on the 30-week pregnancy termination:

1. The Supreme Court initiated contempt proceedings against AIIMS for refusing to comply with its initial order.

2. The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, as amended in 2021, sets the upper gestation limit for termination at 30 weeks for all women.

3. Chief Justice of India Surya Kant suggested amending the MTP Act to exclude minor rape victims from the statutory time limit for termination.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The court issued a contempt notice to AIIMS after it filed a curative petition against the April 24 order. Statement 2 is incorrect: The MTP Act upper limit is 24 weeks, not 30 weeks. Statement 3 is correct: CJI Surya Kant, while rejecting the curative plea, asked the government to consider amending the MTP Act regarding the time limit for minor rape victims.

Source: SC Dismisses AIIMS Contempt Case, Upholds Minor’s Right Under Article 21, Highlights MTP Act Gap for 30-Week Pregnancies →
Q59.

According to the ASG's submission in the Supreme Court, what was the reported survival rate of the infant born after the 30-week Medical Termination of Pregnancy procedure?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.70%
  • B.75%
  • C.80%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.85%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Additional Solicitor General Aishwarya Bhati informed the bench that the infant, born with certain disabilities following the MTP procedure, has an 80 per cent survival rate and is in the NICU. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Source: SC Dismisses AIIMS Contempt Case, Upholds Minor’s Right Under Article 21, Highlights MTP Act Gap for 30-Week Pregnancies →
Q60.

What was a primary concern raised by Justice Nagarathna regarding AIIMS not assisting in such Medical Termination of Pregnancy cases?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It would increase the financial burden on public healthcare.
  • B.It would lead to a rise in illegal adoptions.
  • C.It would force women to seek unsafe abortions from unqualified practitioners.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It would violate the principles of medical confidentiality.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Justice Nagarathna stated that if premier institutes like AIIMS do not assist, women would depend on unqualified practitioners ('quacks') in 'bylanes', risking their lives. This underscores the public health rationale behind ensuring access to safe and legal abortion services.

Source: SC Dismisses AIIMS Contempt Case, Upholds Minor’s Right Under Article 21, Highlights MTP Act Gap for 30-Week Pregnancies →
Q61.

Which apex body is responsible for the implementation of the Ayushman Bharat-PMJAY scheme?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  • B.National Health Authority (NHA)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog)
  • D.Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions data from the National Health Authority (NHA). The NHA is the apex body responsible for implementing the Ayushman Bharat-Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY). It is an attached office of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Source: Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY to Cover 1.24 Cr Poor & 15.9 Lakh Elderly in West Bengal with ₹5 Lakh Health Insurance →
Q62.

Consider the following statements regarding Ayushman Bharat-PMJAY:

1. It provides an annual health cover of ₹5 lakh per family for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization.

2. The scheme was initially launched in the year 2020.

3. West Bengal was the last state to implement the scheme, following Odisha and Delhi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the scheme provides Rs 5 lakh coverage. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clearly mentions the scheme was launched in 2018, not 2020. Statement 3 is correct as the article states West Bengal was the last state to stay away and will now implement it, after Odisha (2024) and Delhi (2025).

Source: Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY to Cover 1.24 Cr Poor & 15.9 Lakh Elderly in West Bengal with ₹5 Lakh Health Insurance →
Q63.

According to the article, how many elderly persons aged 70 and above in West Bengal are set to be covered under Ayushman Bharat-PMJAY?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.12.4 lakh
  • B.15.9 lakh✓ Correct Answer
  • C.3.4 crore
  • D.7.63 lakh
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The scheme... will cover over 1.24 crore of the poorest and 15.9 lakh elderly aged 70 and above in West Bengal.' The other numbers are distractors: 1.24 crore refers to the poorest families, 3.4 crore is the total beneficiaries identified in Odisha, and 7.63 lakh is the beneficiaries identified in Delhi.

Source: Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY to Cover 1.24 Cr Poor & 15.9 Lakh Elderly in West Bengal with ₹5 Lakh Health Insurance →
Q64.

What was a primary reason cited by the West Bengal government for initially dropping out of the Ayushman Bharat-PMJAY scheme in 2019?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Lack of adequate hospital infrastructure in the state
  • B.The central government taking credit while the state bore 40% of the cost✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Preference for a scheme that covered all citizens instead of only the poorest
  • D.Administrative delays in the release of central funds
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'it dropped out in 2019, stating that the Modi-led government was taking credit while the state had to foot at least 40 per cent of the cost.' This highlights the financial and political friction in centrally sponsored schemes. The other options describe concerns raised by other states (like Delhi) or are not mentioned in the article.

Source: Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY to Cover 1.24 Cr Poor & 15.9 Lakh Elderly in West Bengal with ₹5 Lakh Health Insurance →
Q65.

Which high-level government body gave the final approval for the two semiconductor plants mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA)
  • B.NITI Aayog
  • C.Union Cabinet✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Prime Minister's Office (PMO)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states "The Union Cabinet on Tuesday approved two new semiconductor plants." The Union Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister, is the supreme executive decision-making body of the Government of India.

Source: Cabinet Approves ₹3,936 Cr for 2 Semiconductor Plants Under ISM, Including India's First Commercial Display Fab →
Q66.

Consider the following statements regarding the recently approved semiconductor plants:

1. The total cost of the two approved plants is ₹3,936 crore, with the government covering approximately 50% of the capex for the display facility.

2. The Outsourced Semiconductor Assembly and Test (OSAT) facility approved in Surat will have a production capacity of 10 billion chips per annum.

3. With these approvals, the total number of projects cleared under the India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) reaches 12, involving cumulative investments of around ₹1.64 lakh crore.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: "The project will cost Rs 3,068 crore, with approximately 50% of capex costs covered by the government." Statement 2 is incorrect; the OSAT facility's capacity is 1 billion chips per annum, not 10 billion. Statement 3 is correct: "With these two approvals, the total number of approved projects under the USM reaches 12, with cumulative investments of around Rs 1.64 lakh crore."

Source: Cabinet Approves ₹3,936 Cr for 2 Semiconductor Plants Under ISM, Including India's First Commercial Display Fab →
Q67.

What is the total financial outlay for the first iteration of the India Semiconductor Mission (ISM 1.0), as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.₹3,936 crore
  • B.₹76,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹1.64 lakh crore
  • D.Around $11 billion (approx. ₹91,000 crore)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: "Launched in 2021 with a Rs 76,000-crore outlay, ISM 1.0 was conceived as a state-backed push..." ₹3,936 crore is the cost of the two new plants. ₹1.64 lakh crore is the cumulative investment of all 12 approved projects. $11 billion is the reported potential outlay for the upcoming ISM 2.0.

Source: Cabinet Approves ₹3,936 Cr for 2 Semiconductor Plants Under ISM, Including India's First Commercial Display Fab →
Q68.

What is a key strategic shift expected in the upcoming ISM 2.0 scheme compared to ISM 1.0, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Focus on attracting large-scale chip fabrication plants from foreign companies.
  • B.Offering greater support to ancillary industries like gases, chemicals, and capital goods.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Increasing the financial outlay for semiconductor research in universities.
  • D.Prioritizing the export of semiconductor components over domestic consumption.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: "While ISM 1.0 focused on attracting chipmaking infrastructure to India, ISM 2.0 is likely to offer greater support to ancillary industries such as gases, chemicals and capital goods, among others." This indicates a strategic shift towards strengthening the entire supply chain ecosystem, not just the core fabrication units.

Source: Cabinet Approves ₹3,936 Cr for 2 Semiconductor Plants Under ISM, Including India's First Commercial Display Fab →
Q69.

Which constitutional article, guaranteeing the right to conscience, was discussed by the Supreme Court bench in relation to the Sabarimala and Parsi temple entry cases?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 14
  • B.Article 19
  • C.Article 25✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Article 29
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions Justice Nagarathna stating "The right to conscience under Article 25(1) is a right by birth, and it can't be taken away by marriage." This forms the core constitutional basis for the discussion.

Source: Supreme Court 9-Judge Bench Questions 2006 Sabarimala PIL Locus, Cites Article 25 Right to Conscience →
Q70.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The Supreme Court bench hearing the Sabarimala review petitions consisted of nine judges.

2. The original Public Interest Litigation (PIL) on the Sabarimala issue was filed in the year 2018.

3. The bench questioned the locus standi of the petitioner, the Indian Young Lawyers Association (IYLA).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions "a nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court". Statement 2 is incorrect; the PIL was filed in 2006, not 2018 (the 2018 date refers to the landmark judgment). Statement 3 is correct as the article states the bench "questioned Gupta, representing the IYLA, on the organisation's locus standi".

Source: Supreme Court 9-Judge Bench Questions 2006 Sabarimala PIL Locus, Cites Article 25 Right to Conscience →
Q71.

In which year was the original Public Interest Litigation (PIL) on the Sabarimala temple entry issue, which was criticized by the Supreme Court bench, initially filed?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.2004
  • B.2006✓ Correct Answer
  • C.2010
  • D.2018
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the NGO Indian Young Lawyers Association (IYLA) "had filed the Sabarimala PIL in 2006". The year 2018 is a distractor as it is the year of the Supreme Court's landmark judgment.

Source: Supreme Court 9-Judge Bench Questions 2006 Sabarimala PIL Locus, Cites Article 25 Right to Conscience →
Q72.

What was a primary concern expressed by the Supreme Court judges regarding the current state of Public Interest Litigations (PILs), as per the article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.PILs are causing excessive workload for the judiciary.
  • B.PILs have become a tool for private, political, and publicity interests rather than genuine public interest.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.PILs are being filed only by large corporate entities.
  • D.The procedure for filing a PIL is too complex and needs simplification.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Justice Nagarathna is quoted saying, "Public Interest Litigation has now become Private Interest Litigation, Publicity Interest Litigation, Paisa Interest Litigation and Political Interest Litigation, all are called PILs. We entertain only real and genuine PILs." This directly captures the judges' concern about the misuse and dilution of the PIL mechanism.

Source: Supreme Court 9-Judge Bench Questions 2006 Sabarimala PIL Locus, Cites Article 25 Right to Conscience →
Q73.

The National Investigation Agency (NIA) was established under which Act of Parliament?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The National Security Act, 1980
  • B.The NIA Act, 2008✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967
  • D.The Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The National Investigation Agency (NIA) was created by the National Investigation Agency Act, 2008, following the 2008 Mumbai attacks. It is the central counter-terrorism law enforcement agency in India.

Source: NIA Files Chargesheet in First-of-its-Kind Ricin Bioterror Plot Case Under UAPA & Arms Act →
Q74.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The ricin bioterror plot case is the first such case recorded in India.

2. The case was initially investigated by the National Investigation Agency (NIA) before being transferred to the Gujarat ATS.

3. The main accused was promised the position of an 'Amir' of South Asia by the ISIS handlers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article calls it the "first-of-its-kind case in India." Statement 2 is incorrect; the case was first investigated by the Gujarat ATS and later transferred to the NIA. Statement 3 is correct as the NIA stated the handler promised the main accused "being made an ISIS 'Amir' of South Asia."

Source: NIA Files Chargesheet in First-of-its-Kind Ricin Bioterror Plot Case Under UAPA & Arms Act →
Q75.

In which month and year was the Gujarat Ricin bioterror plot case first intercepted, leading to the initial investigation?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.October 2025
  • B.November 2025✓ Correct Answer
  • C.January 2026
  • D.February 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

According to the article, a Gujarat ATS team intercepted a car at the Adalaj toll plaza on November 7, 2025, which kicked off the investigation. The case was transferred to the NIA in January 2026, and the chargesheet was filed in May 2026.

Source: NIA Files Chargesheet in First-of-its-Kind Ricin Bioterror Plot Case Under UAPA & Arms Act →
Q76.

What is the primary significance of the NIA filing a chargesheet in the Gujarat Ricin case under the UAPA?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It demonstrates the use of UAPA primarily for economic offences.
  • B.It sets a legal precedent for prosecuting bioterrorism conspiracies under India's anti-terror laws.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It shifts the jurisdiction of all terror cases exclusively to the central government.
  • D.It highlights the failure of state police forces in handling terror investigations.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The UAPA is India's primary law for tackling terrorism. Using it in this first-of-its-kind ricin bioterror plot establishes a framework for legally addressing complex, non-conventional terror threats involving biological agents, which is its core significance.

Source: NIA Files Chargesheet in First-of-its-Kind Ricin Bioterror Plot Case Under UAPA & Arms Act →

Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?

For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.

  • Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
  • Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
  • Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.

Frequently Asked Questions

What are the important current affairs questions for 5 May 2026?▼

This page contains 76 current affairs questions from 5 May 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.

How to use 5 May 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼

Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.

How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼

Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.

Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼

Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.

What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼

Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.

All Questions in This Set

  1. Q1. constitutional body approved the fifth edition of the Emergenc…
  2. Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the fifth edition …
  3. Q3. is the total financial outlay approved for the fifth edition o…
  4. Q4. is the primary objective of extending the Emergency Credit Lin…
  5. Q5. The Strait of Hormuz, a critical maritime chokepoint, is borde…
  6. Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Horm…
  7. Q7. According to the article, what was the approximate early reduc…
  8. Q8. was the primary mechanism that led to the effective closure of…
  9. Q9. is the apex consumer court in India that was involved in the c…
  10. Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
  11. Q11. In the original case discussed by the Supreme Court, what was …
  12. Q12. is the primary legal significance of the Supreme Court's rulin…
  13. Q13. government official made the statement regarding the Strait of…
  14. Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the fiscal analysi…
  15. Q15. According to the finance ministry's analysis mentioned in the …
  16. Q16. is the primary concern raised by the CEA regarding state finan…
  17. Q17. Under which Act is the District Level Committee (DLC) constitu…
  18. Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  19. Q19. As per the news, which High Court bench reaffirmed the primacy…
  20. Q20. is the core legal principle applied by the Allahabad High Cour…
  21. Q21. organisation, mentioned in the news, is primarily responsible …
  22. Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the defence initia…
  23. Q23. According to the Defence Minister, how many technologies has D…
  24. Q24. is a primary objective of the new DRDO policy granting Indian …
  25. Q25. The requirement for a state government's consent for the CBI t…
  26. Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. In 2…
  27. Q27. According to the article, in which year did the West Bengal go…
  28. Q28. is the primary constitutional significance of an 'original sui…
  29. Q29. The Supreme Court judgment pertained to recruitment rules fram…
  30. Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
  31. Q31. According to the news, by which date had the aggrieved candida…
  32. Q32. was the primary rationale given by the Supreme Court for insis…
  33. Q33. statutory organization is mentioned in the news as responsible…
  34. Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the power shortage…
  35. Q35. According to the news article, what was the approximate instal…
  36. Q36. As per the expert views in the article, what is identified as …
  37. Q37. international credit rating agency published the report statin…
  38. Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the Moody's report…
  39. Q39. Since which year has India been rated as the most resilient la…
  40. Q40. is a primary reason cited by Moody's for India being well-plac…
  41. Q41. Union Ministry/Department is primarily responsible for the imp…
  42. Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
  43. Q43. As per the Supreme Court's directive, by what date must the no…
  44. Q44. is the primary objective of the Supreme Court directing Nation…
  45. Q45. The right to a speedy trial, as reiterated in the Supreme Cour…
  46. Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
  47. Q47. According to the news article, since when was the petitioner, …
  48. Q48. is the primary constitutional principle reinforced by the Supr…
  49. Q49. The Strait of Hormuz, a critical chokepoint mentioned in the n…
  50. Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  51. Q51. According to the article, on what date was the fragile ceasefi…
  52. Q52. is the primary strategic reason, as per the article, making th…
  53. Q53. international organization set the '90-70-90' targets for cerv…
  54. Q54. Consider the following statements regarding cervical cancer in…
  55. Q55. According to data from the U-WIN portal mentioned in the artic…
  56. Q56. is identified as a primary challenge for India's HPV vaccinati…
  57. Q57. In the context of the Supreme Court judgment, which constituti…
  58. Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
  59. Q59. According to the ASG's submission in the Supreme Court, what w…
  60. Q60. was a primary concern raised by Justice Nagarathna regarding A…
  61. Q61. apex body is responsible for the implementation of the Ayushma…
  62. Q62. Consider the following statements regarding Ayushman Bharat-PM…
  63. Q63. According to the article, how many elderly persons aged 70 and…
  64. Q64. was a primary reason cited by the West Bengal government for i…
  65. Q65. high-level government body gave the final approval for the two…
  66. Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the recently appro…
  67. Q67. is the total financial outlay for the first iteration of the I…
  68. Q68. is a key strategic shift expected in the upcoming ISM 2.0 sche…
  69. Q69. constitutional article, guaranteeing the right to conscience, …
  70. Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  71. Q71. In which year was the original Public Interest Litigation (PIL…
  72. Q72. was a primary concern expressed by the Supreme Court judges re…
  73. Q73. The National Investigation Agency (NIA) was established under …
  74. Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  75. Q75. In which month and year was the Gujarat Ricin bioterror plot c…
  76. Q76. is the primary significance of the NIA filing a chargesheet in…