9 May 2026, Questions & Answers

100 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.

100 questions  ·  0 topics covered  ·  20 min revision

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This page contains 100 current affairs questions with answers from 9 May 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.

These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.

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9 May 2026, Questions with Answers

100 Qs
Q1.

According to the article, which former military officer authored the analysis on Operation Sindoor?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Former Chief of the Army Staff
  • B.Former Chief of the Naval Staff
  • C.Former Air Chief Marshal✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Former Chief of Defence Staff
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article is authored by R.K.S. Bhadauria, identified as a former Air Chief Marshal who served as Chief of the Air Staff of the Indian Air Force. The other options represent chiefs of other services or the CDS, which are not mentioned as the author's role.

Source: Operation Sindoor (2025): Paradigm Shift in India's 'Zero Tolerance' Defence Doctrine After Pahalgam Terror Attack →
Q2.

Consider the following statements regarding Operation Sindoor:

1. It commenced as a direct response to the Pahalgam carnage that occurred in April 2025.

2. The operation involved integrated strikes on eleven initial terrorist targets within Pakistan.

3. The Indian Air Force conducted counter-strikes on Pakistani airbases including Nur Khan and Sargodha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Defence Exams
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Operation Sindoor was a direct response to the Pahalgam carnage on April 22, 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect: The initial strikes were on nine terrorist targets, not eleven. Statement 3 is correct: The IAF counter-strikes hit 11 bases including Nur Khan and Sargodha.

Source: Operation Sindoor (2025): Paradigm Shift in India's 'Zero Tolerance' Defence Doctrine After Pahalgam Terror Attack →
Q3.

According to the article, what was the total duration of Operation Sindoor from commencement to ceasefire?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.48 hours
  • B.72 hours
  • C.88 hours✓ Correct Answer
  • D.96 hours
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'After 88 hours of Operation Sindoor, by noon on May 10, Pakistan was reeling...'. The operation started at 1:05 a.m. on May 7 and the ceasefire was announced by noon on May 10, totaling approximately 88 hours.

Source: Operation Sindoor (2025): Paradigm Shift in India's 'Zero Tolerance' Defence Doctrine After Pahalgam Terror Attack →
Q4.

What is identified in the article as a critical future implication of Operation Sindoor for India's domestic policy?

MediumUPSC, Defence Exams
  • A.Increasing the defence budget allocation by 50%
  • B.Accelerating indigenous defence growth under Atmanirbhar Bharat✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Forming a new tri-service integrated command
  • D.Revising India's nuclear doctrine
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's section 'Accelerate indigenous defence growth' stresses the need for the defence industry to ramp up to achieve Atmanirbharata (self-reliance). It calls for a 'whole-of-nation' approach involving DRDO, DPSUs, and MSMEs to 'Innovate, Design, and Manufacture' at scale.

Source: Operation Sindoor (2025): Paradigm Shift in India's 'Zero Tolerance' Defence Doctrine After Pahalgam Terror Attack →
Q5.

Which government organization is responsible for building and managing the Mumbai-Ahmedabad High Speed Rail corridor?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Indian Railways
  • B.Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL)
  • C.National High Speed Rail Corporation Limited (NHSRCL)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Konkan Railway Corporation Limited (KRCL)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the National High Speed Rail Corporation Limited (NHSRCL) is the government organisation responsible for building and managing the high-speed rail corridors. NHSRCL is a special purpose vehicle under the Ministry of Railways for this purpose.

Source: Mumbai-Ahmedabad Bullet Train: 508-km, ₹1.98 Lakh Cr Project with Japan's JICA Loan, First 48-km Surat-Bilimora Stretch by Aug 2027 →
Q6.

Consider the following statements regarding the Mumbai-Ahmedabad Bullet Train project:

1. Over 90% of its 508-km track will run on elevated viaducts.

2. The project is entirely funded by the Indian government without any foreign loan.

3. The first stretch to be operational will be the 48-km section between Surat and Bilimora.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions 465.38 km (over 90%) of the track will be on viaducts. Statement 2 is incorrect because the project involves a soft loan from Japan's JICA. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the 48-km Surat-Bilimora stretch is scheduled for completion by August 2027.

Source: Mumbai-Ahmedabad Bullet Train: 508-km, ₹1.98 Lakh Cr Project with Japan's JICA Loan, First 48-km Surat-Bilimora Stretch by Aug 2027 →
Q7.

What is the total estimated cost of the Mumbai-Ahmedabad High Speed Rail corridor as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹1.25 lakh crore
  • B.₹1.98 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹2.50 lakh crore
  • D.₹16 lakh crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states the cost as 'Rs 1.98-lakh-crore'. Option D (₹16 lakh crore) is a distractor, as it is the estimated cost for all eight proposed high-speed rail lines spanning 4,000 km.

Source: Mumbai-Ahmedabad Bullet Train: 508-km, ₹1.98 Lakh Cr Project with Japan's JICA Loan, First 48-km Surat-Bilimora Stretch by Aug 2027 →
Q8.

What is a primary reason cited in the article for constructing over 90% of the bullet train track on elevated viaducts?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce land acquisition costs
  • B.To provide scenic views to passengers
  • C.For safety reasons, as people and animals cross surface tracks✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To facilitate easier maintenance access
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

A senior NHSRCL officer in the article explains that the tracks had to be elevated because running a train at 300+ kmph on the surface would be unsafe due to the risk of people and animals crossing the line, a challenge even on existing broad gauge lines.

Source: Mumbai-Ahmedabad Bullet Train: 508-km, ₹1.98 Lakh Cr Project with Japan's JICA Loan, First 48-km Surat-Bilimora Stretch by Aug 2027 →
Q9.

Under which Article of the Constitution did the Supreme Court pass orders to ensure the inclusion of voters cleared by appellate tribunals?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 32
  • B.Article 142✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Article 324
  • D.Article 356
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Supreme Court invoked its powers under Article 142 to order the Election Commission to publish supplementary voter lists. Article 142 grants the SC the power to pass any order necessary for doing 'complete justice'.

Source: SC Orders SIR Appellate Tribunals, Article 142 Used to Add 27.16 Lakh Deleted Voters Back to Bengal Electoral Rolls →
Q10.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The Supreme Court noted a trust deficit between the State Government of West Bengal and the Election Commission of India.

2. The appellate tribunals were constituted on the recommendation of the Chief Justice of the Calcutta High Court.

3. A total of 1,607 appeals were approved by all appellate tribunals before the polls.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct as the EC notified tribunals on orders of the SC and recommendations of Calcutta HC Chief Justice Sujoy Paul. Statement 3 is incorrect; 1,607 was the number of additions according to CEO data, but the article reveals one tribunal alone cleared 1,717 appeals, indicating the total was likely higher.

Source: SC Orders SIR Appellate Tribunals, Article 142 Used to Add 27.16 Lakh Deleted Voters Back to Bengal Electoral Rolls →
Q11.

According to the article, how many electors were initially identified by the Election Commission's algorithm for scrutiny under the SIR exercise in West Bengal?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.27.16 lakh
  • B.34 lakh
  • C.60.06 lakh✓ Correct Answer
  • D.1.06 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'Over 700 judicial officers considered 60.06 lakh electors identified by the EC using a centralised algorithm...' The other numbers are distractors: 27.16 lakh were found ineligible, and 34 lakh appeals were filed.

Source: SC Orders SIR Appellate Tribunals, Article 142 Used to Add 27.16 Lakh Deleted Voters Back to Bengal Electoral Rolls →
Q12.

What was the primary reason cited by the Supreme Court for ordering judicial officers to decide on voter eligibility in West Bengal?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Lack of sufficient staff in the Election Commission
  • B.A trust deficit between the ECI and the State Government✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Allegations of widespread voter fraud
  • D.To speed up the electoral roll revision process
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions: '...after noting there was a trust deficit between the Election Commission of India and the state government.' This was the core judicial rationale for direct intervention in the adjudication process.

Source: SC Orders SIR Appellate Tribunals, Article 142 Used to Add 27.16 Lakh Deleted Voters Back to Bengal Electoral Rolls →
Q13.

Under which list of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution does the subject 'Labour' fall?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Union List
  • B.State List
  • C.Concurrent List✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Residuary Powers
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, labour is a concurrent subject. The Concurrent List (List III) includes subjects on which both the Parliament and the State Legislatures can make laws.

Source: Four Labour Codes Operationalised from 21 Nov 2025, Capping Weekly Work Hours at 48, Mandating National Reskilling Fund →
Q14.

Consider the following statements regarding the recently operationalised labour codes:

1. They consolidate 29 existing central labour laws into four comprehensive codes.

2. The codes mandate free annual health check-ups for all workers in the organised sector.

3. A key provision is the establishment of a National Reskilling Fund for workers who lose their jobs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states 29 laws were consolidated. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article specifies free health check-ups are for workers aged 40 years and above, not all organised sector workers. Statement 3 is correct as the National Reskilling Fund is explicitly mentioned.

Source: Four Labour Codes Operationalised from 21 Nov 2025, Capping Weekly Work Hours at 48, Mandating National Reskilling Fund →
Q15.

According to the newly notified rules under the labour codes, what is the maximum limit set for weekly working hours?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.40 hours
  • B.44 hours
  • C.48 hours✓ Correct Answer
  • D.52 hours
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "the rules also capped the weekly working hours at 48 hours." The other options are common distractors based on work hour norms in different countries or sectors.

Source: Four Labour Codes Operationalised from 21 Nov 2025, Capping Weekly Work Hours at 48, Mandating National Reskilling Fund →
Q16.

What is a primary objective of codifying the multiple labour laws into four codes as per the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase the tax revenue from corporate sectors
  • B.To reduce the power of trade unions in industrial disputes
  • C.To simplify the legal framework and enhance ease of doing business✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To transfer the subject of labour from the Concurrent List to the Union List
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the codification was undertaken "to address long-standing challenges and make the system more efficient and contemporary" and that it "aims to enhance ease of doing business." The other objectives are not mentioned as primary goals in the provided content.

Source: Four Labour Codes Operationalised from 21 Nov 2025, Capping Weekly Work Hours at 48, Mandating National Reskilling Fund →
Q17.

The advanced Agni missile was tested from APJ Abdul Kalam Island. This island is located off the coast of which Indian state?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Andhra Pradesh
  • B.Tamil Nadu
  • C.Odisha✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Gujarat
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the missile was tested from APJ Abdul Kalam Island, Odisha. This island, formerly Wheeler Island, is India's primary missile test range located in the Bay of Bengal off the Odisha coast.

Source: India Successfully Tests Agni Missile with MIRV Technology from APJ Abdul Kalam Island, Odisha on May 8 →
Q18.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent Agni missile test:

1. The missile was equipped with Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle (MIRV) technology.

2. The test was conducted from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota.

3. The multiple payloads were targeted to different locations in the Indian Ocean Region.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article which mentions 'Advanced Agni missile with MIRV'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the test was from APJ Abdul Kalam Island, Odisha, not Sriharikota. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the payloads targeted different locations in the Indian Ocean Region.

Source: India Successfully Tests Agni Missile with MIRV Technology from APJ Abdul Kalam Island, Odisha on May 8 →
Q19.

On which date was the successful flight trial of the advanced Agni missile with MIRV technology conducted, as per the Defence Ministry?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.May 7, 2026
  • B.May 8, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.May 9, 2026
  • D.May 10, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Defence Ministry confirmed the missile system was tested on Friday, May 8, 2026. May 9, 2026, is the publication date of the article, not the test date.

Source: India Successfully Tests Agni Missile with MIRV Technology from APJ Abdul Kalam Island, Odisha on May 8 →
Q20.

What is the primary strategic advantage provided by the MIRV (Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle) technology tested on the Agni missile?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It significantly increases the missile's flight speed.
  • B.It allows a single missile to deploy multiple warheads at different locations.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It makes the missile completely undetectable by radar.
  • D.It enables the missile to carry conventional explosives instead of nuclear warheads.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As defined in the article, the MIRV feature ensures that a single missile can deploy multiple warheads at different locations. This is its core strategic function, acting as a force multiplier and complicating enemy defence strategies. The other options describe potential features of other technologies, not the defining characteristic of MIRV.

Source: India Successfully Tests Agni Missile with MIRV Technology from APJ Abdul Kalam Island, Odisha on May 8 →
Q21.

Which constitutional article forms the basis for the Election Commission of India's powers and functions?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 324✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Article 326
  • C.Article 329
  • D.Article 352
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 324 of the Constitution deals with the superintendence, direction, and control of elections, which is the foundational power of the Election Commission of India. Articles 326, 329, and 352 relate to adult suffrage, bar on court interference in electoral matters, and proclamation of emergency respectively.

Source: Defence Ministry Releases National Military Strategy Goals for 2047; Supreme Court Cites 'Tyranny of Elected' Over 2023 Election Commission Act →
Q22.

Consider the following statements regarding the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023:

1. The Act was enacted after the Supreme Court's judgment in Anoop Baranwal vs Union of India.

2. The Act prescribes a selection committee consisting of the Prime Minister, the Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha, and a Cabinet Minister.

3. The Act removes the Chief Justice of India from the selection committee for Election Commissioners.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Act was enacted in 2023 after the Supreme Court's March 2023 ruling. Statement 2 is correct: The Act specifies a committee of PM, LoP, and a Cabinet Minister. Statement 3 is correct: The Act replaced the CJI (from the Court's interim order) with a Cabinet Minister.

Source: Defence Ministry Releases National Military Strategy Goals for 2047; Supreme Court Cites 'Tyranny of Elected' Over 2023 Election Commission Act →
Q23.

According to SIPRI data mentioned in the article, what percentage of global arms imports did India account for during the period 2020–24?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.6.5%
  • B.7.8%
  • C.8.3%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.9.1%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that SIPRI ranks India as the second-largest arms importer, accounting for 8.3% of global imports in 2020–24. The other options are plausible but incorrect figures.

Source: Defence Ministry Releases National Military Strategy Goals for 2047; Supreme Court Cites 'Tyranny of Elected' Over 2023 Election Commission Act →
Q24.

What was Rabindranath Tagore's primary concern regarding Mahatma Gandhi's emphasis on the charkha and khadi?

MediumUPSC
  • A.That it would lead to economic isolation from the modern world.
  • B.That it promoted blind nationalism and moral tyranny.
  • C.That it engaged muscles but not the mind, turning spinning into ritual.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.That it would undermine the original purpose of meeting the poor's clothing needs.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Tagore argued in 'The Cult of the Charkha' that the repetitive labour demanded by spinning engaged 'the muscles and not the mind' and that spinning had turned into a ritual, undermining its original purpose. While he also worried about nationalism and isolation, his core critique was about the mindless ritualization.

Source: Defence Ministry Releases National Military Strategy Goals for 2047; Supreme Court Cites 'Tyranny of Elected' Over 2023 Election Commission Act →
Q25.

Which central armed police force is primarily responsible for India's border security with Pakistan and raised its first drone squadron as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)
  • B.Border Security Force (BSF)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)
  • D.Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the BSF, which is primarily responsible for border security, raised its first drone squadron last year. The BSF is tasked with guarding India's borders with Pakistan and Bangladesh.

Source: Drone Warfare Reshapes Indo-Pak Border Security: 300-400 Drone Swarms Used in Op Sindoor, Infiltration Drops 76% (2018-2021) →
Q26.

Consider the following statements regarding the use of drones along the Indo-Pak border:

1. The first terror attack using drones to airdrop bombs on a major Indian security installation occurred at the Jammu Air Force station in June 2021.

2. Operation Sindoor marked the first use of drone swarms by Pakistan in a conflict with India, involving nearly 500-600 drones.

3. Indian countermeasures include the indigenous anti-drone D-4 system and a laser-based system called KAVACH deployed in Jammu & Kashmir.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article confirms the first drone terror attack was on the IAF station in Jammu on June 26, 2021. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article says Pakistan used 300-400 drones in Operation Sindoor, not 500-600. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions the indigenous D-4 anti-drone system and the KAVACH laser system deployed in J&K.

Source: Drone Warfare Reshapes Indo-Pak Border Security: 300-400 Drone Swarms Used in Op Sindoor, Infiltration Drops 76% (2018-2021) →
Q27.

According to the article, what was the approximate value of narcotics seized by J&K Police and other agencies across the Union Territory over the past five years?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Around ₹3,000 crore
  • B.Around ₹10,000 crore
  • C.Around ₹30,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Around ₹50,000 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that security agencies have seized nearly 68,000 kg of narcotics valued at around ₹30,000 crore across J&K over the past five years. This highlights the scale of the narcotics smuggling issue linked to drone droppings.

Source: Drone Warfare Reshapes Indo-Pak Border Security: 300-400 Drone Swarms Used in Op Sindoor, Infiltration Drops 76% (2018-2021) →
Q28.

What is identified in the article as a primary reason for Pakistan's shift to using drones for cross-border activities?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce the cost of conventional warfare
  • B.Because drones are easier to penetrate than fortified ground borders✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To comply with international non-proliferation treaties
  • D.To enhance diplomatic negotiations with India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Former J&K DGP Kuldeep Khoda is quoted stating that Pakistan turned to drones because border fencing, night vision devices, and other monitoring systems made ground infiltration nearly impossible. Drones provided an easier means to penetrate and deliver weapons and narcotics.

Source: Drone Warfare Reshapes Indo-Pak Border Security: 300-400 Drone Swarms Used in Op Sindoor, Infiltration Drops 76% (2018-2021) →
Q29.

The Strait of Hormuz, a critical chokepoint mentioned in the news, connects which two water bodies?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden
  • B.The Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Mediterranean Sea and the Atlantic Ocean
  • D.The South China Sea and the Pacific Ocean
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Strait of Hormuz is a narrow passage that connects the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea. It is the only sea passage from the Persian Gulf to the open ocean, making it a globally strategic chokepoint for oil shipments.

Source: U.S. Project Freedom Failed to Secure Strait of Hormuz; Iran's Drone Warfare & Operation Earnest Will (1987-88) Context Highlighted →
Q30.

Consider the following statements regarding the events described in the article:

1. 'Operation Earnest Will' was a successful U.S. naval operation during the 1980s Tanker Wars that involved escorting merchant ship convoys.

2. The primary reason for the suspension of 'Project Freedom' in 2026 was a successful diplomatic breakthrough that permanently resolved tensions with Iran.

3. A key factor differentiating the 2026 scenario from the 1980s is the contemporary threat posed by low-cost asymmetric weapons like drone swarms.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states Operation Earnest Will (1987-88) involved minesweepers and warships escorting convoys and was largely successful. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article says President Trump cited progress in negotiations, but the context implies this was a reason given, while the actual situation involved Iranian attacks and industry reluctance; it was not a permanent resolution. Statement 3 is correct: Experts in the article state that drones have changed the strategic equation, making a few low-cost weapons disproportionately impactful.

Source: U.S. Project Freedom Failed to Secure Strait of Hormuz; Iran's Drone Warfare & Operation Earnest Will (1987-88) Context Highlighted →
Q31.

According to the article, on which date was the U.S. 'Project Freedom' announced?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.May 4, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • B.May 5, 2026
  • C.May 8, 2026
  • D.May 9, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The U.S. announced Project Freedom on May 4...'. It was suspended the next day (May 5). May 8 is the date of the photo caption, and May 9 is the article publication date.

Source: U.S. Project Freedom Failed to Secure Strait of Hormuz; Iran's Drone Warfare & Operation Earnest Will (1987-88) Context Highlighted →
Q32.

What was a significant reason, as per the article, for the shipping industry's lack of confidence in the U.S.-led 'Project Freedom'?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.The U.S. Navy lacked sufficient warships in the region.
  • B.The U.S. indicated it would not provide individual ship escorts, unlike in the 1980s.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Iran had completely mined the entire breadth of the strait.
  • D.The United Nations had issued a warning against transit.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'The industry sought more details since the U.S. indicated it was not going to escort ships individually, unlike 30 years ago...'. This missing operational detail, compared to the successful template of Operation Earnest Will, contributed to the industry's unchanged risk assessment.

Source: U.S. Project Freedom Failed to Secure Strait of Hormuz; Iran's Drone Warfare & Operation Earnest Will (1987-88) Context Highlighted →
Q33.

Which government body released the vision document for the National Data and Analytics Platform and a report in June 2025 on data inefficiencies?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
  • B.NITI Aayog✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Reserve Bank of India
  • D.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the National Data and Analytics Platform vision document and the June 2025 report on welfare programme databases were released by NITI Aayog.

Source: NITI Aayog's National Data Governance Policy to Curb ₹400 Billion Fiscal Leakage, Proposes India Data Management Office →
Q34.

Consider the following statements regarding data governance issues in India:

1. According to a NITI Aayog report, welfare programme databases listing the same beneficiary multiple times lead to fiscal leakages of 4%-7% annually.

2. The proposed India Data Management Office (IDMO) is envisaged under the National Data Governance Framework Policy (NDGFP).

3. The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) estimates that improving public-sector data availability could add up to 2.5% to India's GDP.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the NITI Aayog report mentioned. Statement 2 is correct as IDMO is proposed under NDGFP. Statement 3 is incorrect because the OECD estimate of 2.5% GDP addition includes private-sector data; for public-sector data alone, the estimate is 1.5%.

Source: NITI Aayog's National Data Governance Policy to Curb ₹400 Billion Fiscal Leakage, Proposes India Data Management Office →
Q35.

According to the article, what was the expected annual saving from the removal of approximately 16 million fake ration cards?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹90 billion
  • B.₹100 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹210 billion
  • D.₹400 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that eliminating 16 million fake ration cards may save around ₹100 billion annually. ₹90 billion is the saving from PM-KISAN clean-up, and ₹210 billion is the saving from LPG clean-up over two years.

Source: NITI Aayog's National Data Governance Policy to Curb ₹400 Billion Fiscal Leakage, Proposes India Data Management Office →
Q36.

What is the primary purpose of the proposed India Data Management Office (IDMO) as per the National Data Governance Framework Policy?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To replace NITI Aayog as the central planning body.
  • B.To develop and enforce common data standards and protocols across all ministries and states.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To directly manage all citizen databases to prevent duplication.
  • D.To act as a regulator for private sector data companies.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that IDMO has the potential to be the keystone of reform by 'developing and enforcing common rules, standards, guidelines and protocols for data across all Ministries and States.' It is not meant to replace NITI Aayog or directly manage all databases.

Source: NITI Aayog's National Data Governance Policy to Curb ₹400 Billion Fiscal Leakage, Proposes India Data Management Office →
Q37.

Which ministry/department is the National Health Authority (NHA), the organizer of the hackathon, attached to?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
  • B.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Science and Technology
  • D.NITI Aayog
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the static GK linkage, the National Health Authority (NHA) is an attached office of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. It is the apex body responsible for implementing the Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY scheme.

Source: NHA, IndiaAI Mission, IISc Deploy AI for AB PM-JAY Claims, Cut Processing Time from 20 Days to 4 Hours →
Q38.

Consider the following statements regarding the AB PM-JAY Auto-Adjudication Hackathon Showcase 2026:

1. It was organized by the National Health Authority in collaboration with NITI Aayog and IIT Delhi.

2. One of the problem statements focused on using AI for detecting document forgery and deepfakes in healthcare claims.

3. The hackathon solutions aimed to correlate radiological findings like X-rays with submitted reports to validate claims.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states the hackathon was organized by NHA in collaboration with the IndiaAI Mission and the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru, not NITI Aayog and IIT Delhi. Statements 2 and 3 are correct as per the article, which mentions the third problem statement on 'detecting document forgery and deepfakes' and the second on 'Radiological Image-Based Condition Detection and Report Correlation'.

Source: NHA, IndiaAI Mission, IISc Deploy AI for AB PM-JAY Claims, Cut Processing Time from 20 Days to 4 Hours →
Q39.

According to the NHA CEO cited in the article, how much has the average claim processing time under AB PM-JAY been reduced due to in-house auto-adjudication initiatives?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.From 30 days to 24 hours
  • B.From nearly 20 days to around 4 hours✓ Correct Answer
  • C.From 15 days to 2 hours
  • D.From 10 days to 1 hour
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly quotes NHA CEO Sunil Kumar Barnwal stating that the authority's in-house auto-adjudication initiatives had reduced average claim processing time from nearly 20 days to around four hours. This is a key data point from the news.

Source: NHA, IndiaAI Mission, IISc Deploy AI for AB PM-JAY Claims, Cut Processing Time from 20 Days to 4 Hours →
Q40.

What is the primary objective of deploying the AI solutions showcased at the AB PM-JAY hackathon, as inferred from the article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To replace human doctors with AI diagnostic tools in rural areas.
  • B.To improve the speed, accuracy, and transparency of claims adjudication while reducing fraud.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To centralize all health records under a single national digital ID.
  • D.To reduce the overall budget allocation for the Ayushman Bharat scheme.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core theme is the use of AI to transform healthcare claims management. It states that the solutions were aimed at 'improving the speed, accuracy and transparency of claims adjudication while reducing fraud and manual intervention.' The other options are either not mentioned (A, C) or contrary to the scheme's objective (D).

Source: NHA, IndiaAI Mission, IISc Deploy AI for AB PM-JAY Claims, Cut Processing Time from 20 Days to 4 Hours →
Q41.

Which government department is headed by the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as its Secretary?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Department of Defence
  • B.Department of Defence Production
  • C.Department of Military Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Department of Ex-Servicemen Welfare
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the news article and the government notification, the Chief of Defence Staff also functions as Secretary to the Government of India, Department of Military Affairs. This department was created in 2019 to promote jointness among the armed forces.

Source: Lt Gen N S Raja Subramani Appointed as 3rd CDS, Vice-Admiral Krishna Swaminathan as Next CNS in May 2026 Defence Leadership Changes →
Q42.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent defence appointments:

1. Lt Gen N S Raja Subramani will assume the office of Chief of Defence Staff after Gen Anil Chauhan completes his tenure on 30 May 2026.

2. Vice-Admiral Krishna Swaminathan is currently serving as the Vice Chief of Naval Staff before his appointment as the next Chief of Naval Staff.

3. The Chief of Defence Staff is the third person to hold this post, succeeding Gen Bipin Rawat and Gen Anil Chauhan.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: Lt Gen Subramani will assume office after Gen Chauhan's tenure ends on 30 May 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: Vice-Admiral Swaminathan is currently the Western Naval Commander, not the Vice Chief of Naval Staff. Statement 3 is correct: The article states he will be the third CDS after Gen Rawat and Gen Chauhan.

Source: Lt Gen N S Raja Subramani Appointed as 3rd CDS, Vice-Admiral Krishna Swaminathan as Next CNS in May 2026 Defence Leadership Changes →
Q43.

According to the news, until which date is Vice-Admiral Krishna Swaminathan's tenure as Chief of Naval Staff expected to last?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.31 May 2027
  • B.31 December 2027
  • C.31 May 2028
  • D.31 December 2028✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'Vice-Admiral Swaminathan’s tenure will be up to December 31, 2028.' This is a precise data point for factual recall in exams.

Source: Lt Gen N S Raja Subramani Appointed as 3rd CDS, Vice-Admiral Krishna Swaminathan as Next CNS in May 2026 Defence Leadership Changes →
Q44.

What is a primary strategic implication of appointing a Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as outlined in the article's context?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To directly command all three armed forces during wartime.
  • B.To serve as the principal military advisor and promote jointness among the Army, Navy, and Air Force.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To oversee the financial budgeting of the Ministry of Defence exclusively.
  • D.To act as the diplomatic representative for all defence-related international treaties.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions the CDS functions as Secretary, Department of Military Affairs. The core rationale for creating the CDS post, as per historical context, is to provide integrated military advice and promote jointness (synergy) among the three services, not direct operational command or exclusive financial/diplomatic roles.

Source: Lt Gen N S Raja Subramani Appointed as 3rd CDS, Vice-Admiral Krishna Swaminathan as Next CNS in May 2026 Defence Leadership Changes →
Q45.

Which quasi-judicial body is specifically empowered under the Juvenile Justice Act to handle cases of children in conflict with law?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Family Court
  • B.Child Welfare Committee
  • C.Juvenile Justice Board✓ Correct Answer
  • D.District Magistrate
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, the Juvenile Justice Board (JJB) is the competent authority constituted to deal with matters concerning children in conflict with law, as mentioned in the article regarding the petitioner's conviction.

Source: Allahabad HC Invokes ‘Right to be Forgotten’ Under Juvenile Justice Act 2015, Directs Passport Issuance Overriding Conviction →
Q46.

Consider the following statements regarding the Allahabad High Court ruling:

1. The court held that a past juvenile conviction, after completion of probation, is a valid ground for refusing a passport under the Passports Act.

2. The judgment invoked the 'right to be forgotten' as an absolute right for juveniles under Section 24 of the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015.

3. The court clarified that the only valid ground for passport refusal under Section 6(2)(f) is the pendency of criminal proceedings against the applicant.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The court ruled that a past juvenile conviction cannot be a legal impediment. Statement 2 is correct as the article states the 'right to be forgotten' for juveniles is an absolute right. Statement 3 is correct as the court noted that pending criminal proceedings are the only valid ground for refusal under Section 6(2)(f).

Source: Allahabad HC Invokes ‘Right to be Forgotten’ Under Juvenile Justice Act 2015, Directs Passport Issuance Overriding Conviction →
Q47.

Under which specific section of the Passports Act, 1967, did the Allahabad High Court identify the sole valid ground for refusing a passport application?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Section 5(1)(c)
  • B.Section 6(2)(f)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Section 10A
  • D.Section 12(1)(b)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'the authorities failed to identify any currently pending criminal proceedings, which is the only valid ground for refusal under Section 6(2)(f) of the Passports Act, 1967.'

Source: Allahabad HC Invokes ‘Right to be Forgotten’ Under Juvenile Justice Act 2015, Directs Passport Issuance Overriding Conviction →
Q48.

What is the primary legislative objective of the Juvenile Justice Act, as emphasized by the Allahabad High Court in its ruling?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To ensure swift and stringent punishment for juvenile offenders.
  • B.To minimize stigma and ensure rehabilitation and reintegration of juveniles into society.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To maintain detailed records of juvenile delinquency for future reference by authorities.
  • D.To transfer serious juvenile offences to regular criminal courts for trial.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article repeatedly highlights the court's emphasis on the 'fresh start' principle, removal of stigma, and the Acts' objective to reintegrate juveniles as normal persons. It quotes the court stating the statute is 'framed with an object to minimise the stigma' and to provide for 'rehabilitation and social reintegration'.

Source: Allahabad HC Invokes ‘Right to be Forgotten’ Under Juvenile Justice Act 2015, Directs Passport Issuance Overriding Conviction →
Q49.

Which international organization is primarily responsible for verifying compliance with the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) safeguards?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.United Nations Security Council (UNSC)
  • B.International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.World Health Organization (WHO)
  • D.Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The IAEA is the nuclear inspectorate for the NPT, responsible for monitoring and verifying that member states use nuclear energy for peaceful purposes only, as mentioned in the article's context of Iran's inspections.

Source: NPT Review Conference Underway in New York Amid US Counterproliferation Policy Critique →
Q50.

Consider the following statements regarding the nuclear non-proliferation regime:

1. The US policy of 'counterproliferation' involves the use of sanctions, military threats, and interdictions.

2. Iran, as an NPT signatory, signed the Tehran Declaration, Additional Protocol, and Paris Agreement with the EU-3.

3. North Korea's withdrawal from the NPT in 2003 and its nuclear test in 2006 led to immediate military intervention by the US.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's description of counterproliferation. Statement 2 is correct; Iran signed these agreements as mentioned. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states North Korea's actions invited diplomatic engagement and sanctions, not military coercion.

Source: NPT Review Conference Underway in New York Amid US Counterproliferation Policy Critique →
Q51.

According to the article, in which year did North Korea withdraw from the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2001
  • B.2003✓ Correct Answer
  • C.2005
  • D.2006
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that North Korea withdrew from the NPT in 2003. The year 2006 is when it conducted its nuclear test, making it a close distractor.

Source: NPT Review Conference Underway in New York Amid US Counterproliferation Policy Critique →
Q52.

What is the primary critique, as presented in the article, of the US-led 'counterproliferation' approach?

MediumUPSC
  • A.It has successfully prevented all nuclear weapon proliferation.
  • B.It relies too heavily on financial incentives and subsidies.
  • C.Its selective and coercive nature undermines the voluntary NPT architecture.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It has strengthened the authority of the United Nations Security Council.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article argues that counterproliferation's selective application (against Iraq/Iran but not North Korea) and use of force/sanctions erodes the credibility of the cooperative NPT regime and may fuel nuclear ambitions.

Source: NPT Review Conference Underway in New York Amid US Counterproliferation Policy Critique →
Q53.

Which department within the Ministry of Defence is headed by the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS)?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Department of Defence
  • B.Department of Defence Production
  • C.Department of Military Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Department of Ex-Servicemen Welfare
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Department of Military Affairs (DMA) was created in 2019 and is headed by the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS). The CDS serves as its Secretary. This is a key institutional reform in India's higher defence management.

Source: Lt Gen NS Raja Subramani Appointed CDS & Secretary DMA, To Succeed Gen Anil Chauhan on 30 May 2026 →
Q54.

Consider the following statements regarding the appointment in the news:

1. The appointed official is currently serving as the Military Adviser in the National Security Council Secretariat.

2. The official will assume the office of Chief of Defence Staff on 30 May 2026, succeeding General Bipin Rawat.

3. The Chief of Defence Staff also holds the position of Secretary in the Department of Defence Production.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: Lt Gen Subramani is currently Military Adviser, NSCS. Statement 2 is incorrect; he succeeds General Anil Chauhan, not General Bipin Rawat (the first CDS). Statement 3 is incorrect; the CDS is Secretary of the Department of Military Affairs, not Defence Production. Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

Source: Lt Gen NS Raja Subramani Appointed CDS & Secretary DMA, To Succeed Gen Anil Chauhan on 30 May 2026 →
Q55.

According to the news, on which date will Lt Gen NS Raja Subramani (Retd) assume the office of Chief of Defence Staff?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.1 September 2025
  • B.9 May 2026
  • C.30 May 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • D.31 May 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that he will assume office after General Anil Chauhan completes his tenure on 30 May 2026. 1 September 2025 is the date he started as Military Adviser in NSCS. 9 May 2026 is the announcement date.

Source: Lt Gen NS Raja Subramani Appointed CDS & Secretary DMA, To Succeed Gen Anil Chauhan on 30 May 2026 →
Q56.

What is a primary implication of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) also serving as the Secretary of the Department of Military Affairs (DMA)?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It centralizes all defence procurement under the Ministry of Finance.
  • B.It strengthens the role of the CDS as the principal military advisor while also giving him administrative control over armed forces' matters.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It makes the CDS the operational commander of all tri-service theatre commands.
  • D.It subordinates the three service chiefs directly to the Ministry of Home Affairs.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The dual role empowers the CDS beyond being just a military advisor. As Secretary DMA, he handles administrative, financial, and procurement issues related to the armed forces, facilitating faster decision-making and promoting jointness. This is a key reform in defence management.

Source: Lt Gen NS Raja Subramani Appointed CDS & Secretary DMA, To Succeed Gen Anil Chauhan on 30 May 2026 →
Q57.

The Strait of Hormuz connects which two major bodies of water?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea
  • C.Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal
  • D.Gulf of Aden and Red Sea
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Strait of Hormuz is a narrow channel that links the Persian Gulf (west) with the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea (east). This is a fundamental static geography fact relevant to international trade routes.

Source: U.S. Suspends Project Freedom After Attacks; Strait of Hormuz Remains High-Risk Chokepoint →
Q58.

Consider the following statements regarding the news article on Project Freedom:

1. Project Freedom was a U.S. initiative announced to ensure free navigation through the Strait of Malacca.

2. The initiative was suspended shortly after its announcement due to attacks on merchant ships and a lack of confidence from the shipping industry.

3. A historical comparison is drawn with Operation Earnest Will, a successful U.S. naval operation during the 1980s Tanker Wars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: Project Freedom concerned the Strait of Hormuz, not the Strait of Malacca. Statement 2 is correct as per the article: it was suspended after attacks and lack of industry confidence. Statement 3 is correct: the article compares it to the successful Operation Earnest Will from 1987-88.

Source: U.S. Suspends Project Freedom After Attacks; Strait of Hormuz Remains High-Risk Chokepoint →
Q59.

According to the article, on which date was the U.S. Project Freedom announced?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.May 4, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • B.May 5, 2026
  • C.May 8, 2026
  • D.May 9, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "The U.S. announced Project Freedom on May 4 to end the Iranian blockade of the Strait of Hormuz. It was suspended the next day..." May 5 is the suspension date, while May 8 and 9 are other dates mentioned in photo captions and publication.

Source: U.S. Suspends Project Freedom After Attacks; Strait of Hormuz Remains High-Risk Chokepoint →
Q60.

What was a primary reason for the shipping industry's lack of confidence in the U.S. Project Freedom, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.The project was too expensive for shipping companies to fund.
  • B.The U.S. indicated it would not provide individual naval escorts to merchant ships.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Iran had permanently closed the strait with an impenetrable minefield.
  • D.The United Nations had issued a directive against using the strait.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the industry sought more details because "the U.S. indicated it was not going to escort ships individually, unlike 30 years ago..." This lack of a concrete protective commitment was a key factor in the industry's unchanged risk assessment.

Source: U.S. Suspends Project Freedom After Attacks; Strait of Hormuz Remains High-Risk Chokepoint →
Q61.

The Supreme Court's suo motu case, as mentioned in the news, is specifically for the creation of exclusive courts for trials under which Acts?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Indian Penal Code (IPC) and the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC)
  • B.The Prevention of Corruption Act and the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA)
  • C.The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act and the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The Indian Evidence Act and the Juvenile Justice Act
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Supreme Court took up a suo motu case for the creation of exclusive courts across the country for faster disposal of trials under special statutes like the UAPA and the NDPS Act.

Source: SC Proposes Central Agency for NDPS, UAPA Cases; CJI Flags Punjab Drug Crisis and Police Failure to Catch 'Bigger Sharks' →
Q62.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. Chief Justice of India Surya Kant suggested the creation of a Central agency to monitor drug-related cases nationwide.

2. The Supreme Court bench hearing the case comprised CJI Surya Kant and Justice D.Y. Chandrachud.

3. The CJI cited an instance where an old woman in Punjab lost all her five children to drug addiction.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the CJI suggested there can be a Central agency to monitor drugs-related cases on a pan-India level. Statement 2 is incorrect because the bench comprised CJI Surya Kant and Justice Joymalya Bagchi, not Justice D.Y. Chandrachud. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the CJI citing an instance of an old woman who lost her fifth son, with all five children dying due to drug addiction.

Source: SC Proposes Central Agency for NDPS, UAPA Cases; CJI Flags Punjab Drug Crisis and Police Failure to Catch 'Bigger Sharks' →
Q63.

According to the news, how many sons did the old woman from Punjab, cited by the CJI, lose to drug addiction?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Three sons
  • B.Four sons
  • C.Five sons✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Two sons
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly quotes CJI Surya Kant stating, "an old woman, more than 60 years … crying because she lost her 5th son to drug addiction. All of her 5 children have died, one after the other."

Source: SC Proposes Central Agency for NDPS, UAPA Cases; CJI Flags Punjab Drug Crisis and Police Failure to Catch 'Bigger Sharks' →
Q64.

What was the primary criticism leveled by CJI Surya Kant against the Punjab police's approach to tackling the drug menace?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.For not filing enough cases under the NDPS Act
  • B.For focusing on arresting poor, small-level peddlers for publicity while letting 'bigger sharks' go free✓ Correct Answer
  • C.For not seeking help from central agencies like the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB)
  • D.For not implementing rehabilitation programs for addicts
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core critique in the article is that the police "nab small-level peddlers for publicity" and "catch hold of a small villager, poor boy" for photographs, instead of going after the "bigger sharks" and influential people involved in the drug trade.

Source: SC Proposes Central Agency for NDPS, UAPA Cases; CJI Flags Punjab Drug Crisis and Police Failure to Catch 'Bigger Sharks' →
Q65.

The Jharkhand High Court, in its order on illegal mining, stated that the right to a clean environment is part of which fundamental right under the Indian Constitution?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 14 (Right to Equality)
  • B.Article 19 (Freedom of Speech)
  • C.Article 21 (Right to Life)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Article 32 (Right to Constitutional Remedies)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the court held that the right to a clean environment formed an inseparable part of the fundamental right to life under Article 21. This is a well-established judicial interpretation cited in cases like Subhash Kumar vs State of Bihar.

Source: Jharkhand HC Halts Illegal Mining in Hazaribagh, Links Clean Environment to Article 21, Imposes 1-km Buffer Zone →
Q66.

Consider the following statements regarding the Jharkhand High Court's order on Hazaribagh illegal mining:

1. The court imposed a complete ban on all mining activities within a 1-kilometre radius of the Hazaribagh Wildlife Sanctuary.

2. The court directed the District Level Task Force (DLTF) to review and verify all environmental clearances within a period of four weeks.

3. The court criticized the Jharkhand State Pollution Control Board for failing to invoke the 'Polluter Pays' principle.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the court directed no mining activity within a one-kilometre buffer zone of the sanctuary. Statement 2 is incorrect; the deadline given to the DLTF was eight weeks, not four. Statement 3 is correct as the court held the pollution control board responsible for failing to invoke the 'Polluter Pays' principle.

Source: Jharkhand HC Halts Illegal Mining in Hazaribagh, Links Clean Environment to Article 21, Imposes 1-km Buffer Zone →
Q67.

According to the Jharkhand High Court order mentioned in the article, within how many weeks must the District Level Task Force (DLTF) review all environmental clearances and permissions?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.4 weeks
  • B.6 weeks
  • C.8 weeks✓ Correct Answer
  • D.12 weeks
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the court directed the District Level Task Force (DLTF) to review all environmental clearances, pollution consents, and mining permissions within eight weeks. This is a specific directive and a key data point from the news.

Source: Jharkhand HC Halts Illegal Mining in Hazaribagh, Links Clean Environment to Article 21, Imposes 1-km Buffer Zone →
Q68.

What was a primary reason cited by the Jharkhand High Court for criticizing the state's enforcement agencies regarding illegal mining?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.For not imposing high enough fines on the violators.
  • B.For failing to use available technological tools like satellite imagery and GIS mapping for surveillance.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.For not consulting with the central government before taking action.
  • D.For delaying the hearing of the Public Interest Litigation (PIL) for over a decade.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly quotes the court criticizing authorities for failing to effectively enforce the law despite having technological tools such as satellite imagery, GIS mapping, and GPS tracking. The court stated that a continued failure to act with such tools 'can only be interpreted as a deliberate, willful closing of those eyes'.

Source: Jharkhand HC Halts Illegal Mining in Hazaribagh, Links Clean Environment to Article 21, Imposes 1-km Buffer Zone →
Q69.

Which space agency is leading the Artemis program mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
  • B.National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.European Space Agency (ESA)
  • D.Roscosmos (Russian State Space Corporation)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Artemis program is a flagship human spaceflight initiative led by NASA, the United States' civilian space agency. The article repeatedly mentions NASA's plans and its partnerships with SpaceX and Blue Origin for the lunar landers.

Source: NASA's Artemis 4 Moon Landing by 2028 Depends on SpaceX Starship HLS and Blue Origin Blue Moon Lander →
Q70.

Consider the following statements regarding NASA's Artemis program as per the news:

1. The Artemis 3 mission is now planned as a crewed Earth-orbit rendezvous test in 2027.

2. The first crewed lunar landing under the revised plan is targeted for the Artemis 4 mission in 2028.

3. SpaceX's Starship HLS faces no major technical challenges and is ready for lunar operations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct as per the article, which states Artemis 3 is an orbital test in 2027 and Artemis 4 targets a Moon landing in 2028. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article explicitly lists 'orbital refueling' as a major challenge still facing SpaceX's Starship HLS.

Source: NASA's Artemis 4 Moon Landing by 2028 Depends on SpaceX Starship HLS and Blue Origin Blue Moon Lander →
Q71.

According to the news, by which year is NASA currently targeting a crewed landing on the Moon under the Artemis 4 mission?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2025
  • B.2026
  • C.2027
  • D.2028✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'A full Moon landing is currently targeted for Artemis 4 in late 2028.' The year 2027 is a distractor as it is the target for the Artemis 3 orbital test.

Source: NASA's Artemis 4 Moon Landing by 2028 Depends on SpaceX Starship HLS and Blue Origin Blue Moon Lander →
Q72.

What is a primary technical challenge specifically highlighted for SpaceX's Starship HLS in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Developing a new rocket engine from scratch
  • B.Demonstrating autonomous navigation for landing
  • C.Mastering the process of orbital refueling✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Building a launch pad at the lunar south pole
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article identifies 'demonstrating orbital refueling' as one of the most important tasks and biggest challenges still ahead for SpaceX. This is because the mission architecture relies on multiple tanker launches to fuel the lander in Earth orbit for its journey to the Moon.

Source: NASA's Artemis 4 Moon Landing by 2028 Depends on SpaceX Starship HLS and Blue Origin Blue Moon Lander →
Q73.

Which organization, along with Tamil Nadu Election Watch, released the report on criminal backgrounds of MLAs-elect in Tamil Nadu?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Election Commission of India
  • B.Association for Democratic Reforms✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Law Commission of India
  • D.National Human Rights Commission
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The report was released by the Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR) and Tamil Nadu Election Watch (TNEW), as explicitly stated in the article. ADR is a well-known NGO working on electoral reforms.

Source: 54% MLAs-elect in Tamil Nadu Have Criminal Cases; TVK Tops with 41, ADR-TNEW Report on 2026 Assembly Elections →
Q74.

Consider the following statements regarding the ADR-TNEW report on Tamil Nadu MLAs-elect:

1. The report analysed the self-sworn affidavits of all 234 winning candidates in the 2026 Assembly election.

2. Offences relating to crimes against women are included in the definition of 'serious criminal cases' used in the report.

3. The sole BJP MLA-elect declared that he did not have any criminal case pending against him.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 2
  • B.(B) Only 3
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The report analysed 233 of the 234 winning candidates, as one affidavit was unclear. Statement 2 is correct: The article states crimes against women fall under 'serious criminal cases'. Statement 3 is correct: The article explicitly mentions the sole BJP MLA-elect declared no criminal cases.

Source: 54% MLAs-elect in Tamil Nadu Have Criminal Cases; TVK Tops with 41, ADR-TNEW Report on 2026 Assembly Elections →
Q75.

According to the ADR-TNEW report, how many MLAs-elect from the Tamilaga Vettri Kazhagam (TVK) have declared that serious criminal cases were pending against them?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.14
  • B.19✓ Correct Answer
  • C.33
  • D.41
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: '19 MLAs-elect from the TVK... have declared that serious criminal cases were pending against them.' 41 is the total number of TVK MLAs with any criminal case, while 33 and 14 are figures for AIADMK and DMK respectively for total criminal cases.

Source: 54% MLAs-elect in Tamil Nadu Have Criminal Cases; TVK Tops with 41, ADR-TNEW Report on 2026 Assembly Elections →
Q76.

What is the primary significance of reports like the one published by ADR and TNEW on the criminal backgrounds of elected representatives?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To influence voter sentiment against specific political parties.
  • B.To provide data for judicial prosecution of the accused MLAs.
  • C.To promote transparency and inform public debate on the criminalization of politics.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To recommend immediate disqualification of MLAs with pending cases.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core objective of ADR's work, as inferred from the article, is to bring transparency by analysing publicly available affidavits. This information arms voters and civil society, fueling the debate on electoral reforms and criminalization of politics, which is a major governance issue.

Source: 54% MLAs-elect in Tamil Nadu Have Criminal Cases; TVK Tops with 41, ADR-TNEW Report on 2026 Assembly Elections →
Q77.

The IN-SPACe agency, mentioned in the context of private space sector promotion, functions under which government department?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Department of Science and Technology
  • B.Department of Space✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Department of Defence Research and Development
  • D.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, IN-SPACe (Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre) functions as an autonomous agency in the Department of Space (DOS). It acts as an interface between ISRO and private entities.

Source: GalaxEye Drishti: India's First Opto-SAR Satellite Launched by SpaceX Falcon 9 on May 3, 2026 →
Q78.

Consider the following statements regarding the Drishti satellite:

1. It is the first satellite to combine optical and SAR imaging on a single platform.

2. It was launched using India's PSLV rocket from Sriharikota.

3. Its technology is specifically designed to address the challenge of frequent cloud cover in tropical regions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as Drishti uses 'Opto-SAR' technology for simultaneous imaging. Statement 2 is incorrect; it was launched on a SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket from the US. Statement 3 is correct; the article states this is a 'primarily tropical country's problem' that Drishti solves.

Source: GalaxEye Drishti: India's First Opto-SAR Satellite Launched by SpaceX Falcon 9 on May 3, 2026 →
Q79.

On which date was the GalaxEye Drishti satellite launched, as per the news article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.May 4, 2026
  • B.May 3, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.May 9, 2026
  • D.May 8, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the Drishti satellite was launched on 3 May, 2026. The other dates are close distractors: May 4 is when Pixxel announced a partnership, May 9 is the article's publication date, and May 8 was mentioned in a correction note.

Source: GalaxEye Drishti: India's First Opto-SAR Satellite Launched by SpaceX Falcon 9 on May 3, 2026 →
Q80.

What is the primary technological significance of the Drishti satellite's 'Opto-SAR' system?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It reduces satellite manufacturing costs by using 3D-printed engines.
  • B.It eliminates the need to manually align datasets from two separate imaging satellites.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It enables the satellite to carry GPUs for on-orbit AI model training.
  • D.It allows the satellite to be launched from a privately built launch pad.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core innovation of Drishti is placing both optical and SAR sensors on one platform to operate in sync, producing simultaneous images of the same place. This solves the problems of parallax and temporal gaps, removing the need for manual data alignment from different satellites, as detailed in the article.

Source: GalaxEye Drishti: India's First Opto-SAR Satellite Launched by SpaceX Falcon 9 on May 3, 2026 →
Q81.

Which statutory body was directed by the Supreme Court to refund ₹165 crore in the recent land auction case?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Delhi Metro Rail Corporation (DMRC)
  • B.Delhi Development Authority (DDA)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.New Delhi Municipal Council (NDMC)
  • D.Land and Development Office (L&DO)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Supreme Court ordered the Delhi Development Authority (DDA), the statutory urban planning body for Delhi, to refund the amount. The DDA had conducted the public auction of the land in question.

Source: SC Orders DDA to Refund ₹165 Cr With 7.5% Interest, Affirms Buyer Rights Under Land Acquisition Act 2013 →
Q82.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's judgment on the DDA land auction refund:

1. The Court invoked Order XIII-A of the Code of Civil Procedure to decide the case through a summary judgment.

2. The Court held that the buyer must first return physical possession of the land to be eligible for a refund.

3. The legal basis for the lapse of land acquisition was Section 24(2) of the Land Acquisition Act, 2013.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The judgment extensively discusses Order XIII-A CPC for summary judgment. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Court explicitly rejected DDA's argument that possession must be returned first, calling it 'fanciful'. Statement 3 is correct: The acquisition lapsed under Section 24(2) as compensation was not paid.

Source: SC Orders DDA to Refund ₹165 Cr With 7.5% Interest, Affirms Buyer Rights Under Land Acquisition Act 2013 →
Q83.

What was the rate of interest ordered by the Supreme Court on the ₹165 crore refund to be paid by DDA?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.6% per annum
  • B.7.5% per annum✓ Correct Answer
  • C.9% per annum
  • D.12% per annum
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Supreme Court decreed a refund with interest at 7.5% per annum from July 2007 until actual payment. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors commonly seen in interest rate questions.

Source: SC Orders DDA to Refund ₹165 Cr With 7.5% Interest, Affirms Buyer Rights Under Land Acquisition Act 2013 →
Q84.

What is the primary legal doctrine applied by the Supreme Court to justify the refund to the buyer, despite the DDA no longer having the land?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Doctrine of Promissory Estoppel
  • B.Principle of Restitution✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Doctrine of Colourable Legislation
  • D.Principle of Natural Justice
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Court's reasoning was based on restitution, meaning that when the basis of a transaction collapses (here, the lapsed acquisition), the parties must be restored to their original positions. The company paid for a right it could no longer exercise, so the money must be returned.

Source: SC Orders DDA to Refund ₹165 Cr With 7.5% Interest, Affirms Buyer Rights Under Land Acquisition Act 2013 →
Q85.

Which division of the Ministry of Finance issued the order mandating timely wage payments to contract workers?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Department of Financial Services
  • B.Procurement Policy Division, Department of Expenditure✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Department of Revenue
  • D.Economic Affairs Department
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the order was issued by the Procurement Policy Division of the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance. This division handles government procurement policies.

Source: Labour Codes 2025: Centre Mandates Timely Wage Payments via E-mode, Blacklisting for Delays in Govt Contracts →
Q86.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent labour law instructions:

1. The instructions mandate wage payments only through bank transfer or electronic mode.

2. The four Labour Codes referenced in the order became effective from November 2024.

3. As per the order, for repeat offences, a contractor can be blacklisted from all ministries and departments of the Government of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mandates payment via bank/electronic mode. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Labour Codes became effective from November 2025, not 2024. Statement 3 is correct as the order specifies blacklisting from all central ministries for repeat delays.

Source: Labour Codes 2025: Centre Mandates Timely Wage Payments via E-mode, Blacklisting for Delays in Govt Contracts →
Q87.

According to the May 8 order, within how many days of the next month must monthly wages be paid to contract workers?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Within 5 days
  • B.Within 7 days✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Within 10 days
  • D.Within 15 days
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly specifies the timeline: 'within seven days of next month for monthly work.' The other options are plausible distractors but are not mentioned in the text.

Source: Labour Codes 2025: Centre Mandates Timely Wage Payments via E-mode, Blacklisting for Delays in Govt Contracts →
Q88.

What is the primary objective of the government's revised instructions linking procurement with timely wage payments?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase tax revenue from contractor businesses
  • B.To enhance financial inclusion among contract workers
  • C.To ensure labour law compliance and prevent wage delays✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To reduce the administrative burden on Drawing and Disbursing Officers
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core objective, as stated in the article, is to ensure timely payment of wages to contractual workers and enforce compliance with the Labour Codes, thereby addressing labour unrest caused by delays. The other options are secondary effects or not the primary focus.

Source: Labour Codes 2025: Centre Mandates Timely Wage Payments via E-mode, Blacklisting for Delays in Govt Contracts →
Q89.

Which central agency is responsible for operating the National Load Dispatch Centre (NLDC) and ensuring integrated grid operation, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Central Electricity Authority (CEA)
  • B.Grid Controller of India (Grid-India)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE)
  • D.Power System Operation Corporation (POSOCO)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that data is from the 'Grid Controller of India (Grid India)' and that the NLDC, which directs curtailment under Emergency TRAS, is part of the national grid operation framework managed by Grid-India.

Source: India Curtailed 693.81 GWh Solar Power in April 2026 Under Emergency TRAS Amid Grid Stress, 74% Rise →
Q90.

Consider the following statements regarding solar power curtailment in India:

1. Renewable energy plants with 'must-run' status can never be asked to reduce their generation under any circumstances.

2. Curtailment under the Emergency Tertiary Reserves Ancillary Services (TRAS) mechanism entitles generators to financial compensation.

3. A major reason for curtailment in April 2026 was heavy under-drawl by the state of Gujarat, leading to transmission constraints.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: 'Must-run' status means plants cannot be backed down for commercial reasons, but they CAN be curtailed for grid security and system safety. Statement 2 is correct: The article states generators backed down under Emergency TRAS receive compensation. Statement 3 is correct: Grid India data cited heavy under-drawl in Gujarat as a key factor for technical curtailment.

Source: India Curtailed 693.81 GWh Solar Power in April 2026 Under Emergency TRAS Amid Grid Stress, 74% Rise →
Q91.

According to the analysis of Grid India data mentioned in the article, what was the total quantum of solar power curtailed in India during the month of April 2026?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.399.34 GWh
  • B.693.81 GWh✓ Correct Answer
  • C.900 GWh
  • D.2,300 GWh
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'According to data from Grid India, at least 693.81 GWh of solar power was curtailed...' 399.34 GWh was the total for Jan-Mar. 900 GWh was curtailed in October 2025 alone, and 2,300 GWh was the total under TRAS from May-Dec 2025.

Source: India Curtailed 693.81 GWh Solar Power in April 2026 Under Emergency TRAS Amid Grid Stress, 74% Rise →
Q92.

What is the primary objective of the 'Emergency Tertiary Reserves Ancillary Services (TRAS)' mechanism, as discussed in the news article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To provide subsidies to new solar power projects.
  • B.To maintain grid stability during system-wide emergency conditions.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To prioritize power supply to agricultural consumers.
  • D.To regulate the spot prices on power exchanges like IEX.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article defines Emergency TRAS as a mechanism under which the NLDC can direct renewable projects to reduce generation 'during system-wide emergency conditions to maintain grid stability.' It acts as a third layer of grid control after primary and secondary reserves.

Source: India Curtailed 693.81 GWh Solar Power in April 2026 Under Emergency TRAS Amid Grid Stress, 74% Rise →
Q93.

The newly appointed Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) also serves as the Secretary of which department within the Ministry of Defence?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Department of Defence
  • B.Department of Defence Production
  • C.Department of Military Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Department of Ex-Servicemen Welfare
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the news article and the established structure, the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) is also the Secretary of the Department of Military Affairs (DMA) in the Ministry of Defence. This department was created in 2019 to promote jointness among the armed forces.

Source: Lt Gen N S Raja Subramani Appointed as India's Third Chief of Defence Staff, Takes Charge May 2026 →
Q94.

Consider the following statements regarding Lt Gen N S Raja Subramani:

1. He was commissioned into the 8th Battalion of the Garhwal Rifles.

2. He served as the Defence Attaché in Kazakhstan.

3. He commanded the 17 Mountain Division in the Eastern Sector.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: he was commissioned into the 8th Battalion of the Garhwal Rifles on December 14, 1985. Statement 2 is correct: the article mentions he was the defence attache in Kazakhstan. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article states he commanded the 17 Mountain Division in the Central Sector, not the Eastern Sector.

Source: Lt Gen N S Raja Subramani Appointed as India's Third Chief of Defence Staff, Takes Charge May 2026 →
Q95.

According to the article, on which date was Lt Gen N S Raja Subramani commissioned into the Indian Army?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.December 14, 1980
  • B.December 14, 1985✓ Correct Answer
  • C.December 14, 1990
  • D.December 14, 1995
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Lt Gen N S Raja Subramani was commissioned into the 8th Battalion of the Garhwal Rifles on December 14, 1985. This is a factual data point directly from the source.

Source: Lt Gen N S Raja Subramani Appointed as India's Third Chief of Defence Staff, Takes Charge May 2026 →
Q96.

What is a key professional attribute highlighted in the article that Lt Gen Subramani is expected to bring to the role of CDS?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.A focus on increasing defence imports
  • B.An ability to integrate academia and industry✓ Correct Answer
  • C.A preference for ceremonial military duties
  • D.A strategy of military isolationism
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes an officer stating that Lt Gen Subramani "can integrate academia and industry, and he is a results-oriented person." This suggests his approach as CDS may involve leveraging innovation and research from educational and industrial sectors for defence preparedness, which is a key aspect of modern military reforms.

Source: Lt Gen N S Raja Subramani Appointed as India's Third Chief of Defence Staff, Takes Charge May 2026 →
Q97.

The TARA glide weapon system has been designed and developed by which DRDO laboratory?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Defence Research and Development Laboratory (DRDL)
  • B.Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA)
  • C.Research Centre Imarat (RCI)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, the TARA system was designed and developed by the Hyderabad-based DRDO facility Research Centre Imarat (RCI) in collaboration with other DRDO labs and industry partners.

Source: DRDO's TARA Glide Weapon System Successfully Tested: Converts Unguided Bombs into Precision Munitions →
Q98.

Consider the following statements regarding the TARA glide weapon system:

1. It is a modular kit that can be attached to a conventional unguided warhead.

2. It uses a rocket motor for propulsion to extend the missile's range.

3. It is India's first glide weapon to utilize state-of-the-art low-cost systems.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: TARA is a modular kit for unguided warheads. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article states it glides rather than relying on a rocket motor, making it lightweight. Statement 3 is correct: The Defence Ministry stated it is the first glide weapon to use low-cost systems.

Source: DRDO's TARA Glide Weapon System Successfully Tested: Converts Unguided Bombs into Precision Munitions →
Q99.

The TARA system is being produced in versions to be used with warheads of different weights. What is the range of these warhead weights as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.100 to 250 kg
  • B.250 to 500 kg✓ Correct Answer
  • C.500 to 1000 kg
  • D.Over 1000 kg
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that three TARA versions are being produced to be used with warheads of different weights ranging from 250 to 500 kg.

Source: DRDO's TARA Glide Weapon System Successfully Tested: Converts Unguided Bombs into Precision Munitions →
Q100.

What is the primary strategic significance of the TARA glide weapon system for the Indian Air Force?

MediumUPSC, Defence exams
  • A.It provides a new air-to-air combat missile for dogfights.
  • B.It enables the IAF to carry heavier payloads on its fighter jets.
  • C.It enhances the IAF's stand-off strike capability against enemy air defences.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It is designed primarily for use in unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs).
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article highlights that TARA is strategically significant because it enhances stand-off strike capability, meaning an aircraft can hit targets from a distance that puts it out of the reach of air defence systems, increasing aircraft survivability.

Source: DRDO's TARA Glide Weapon System Successfully Tested: Converts Unguided Bombs into Precision Munitions →

Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?

For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.

  • Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
  • Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
  • Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.

Frequently Asked Questions

What are the important current affairs questions for 9 May 2026?▼

This page contains 100 current affairs questions from 9 May 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.

How to use 9 May 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼

Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.

How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼

Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.

Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼

Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.

What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼

Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.

All Questions in This Set

  1. Q1. According to the article, which former military officer author…
  2. Q2. Consider the following statements regarding Operation Sindoor:…
  3. Q3. According to the article, what was the total duration of Opera…
  4. Q4. is identified in the article as a critical future implication …
  5. Q5. government organization is responsible for building and managi…
  6. Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the Mumbai-Ahmedab…
  7. Q7. is the total estimated cost of the Mumbai-Ahmedabad High Speed…
  8. Q8. is a primary reason cited in the article for constructing over…
  9. Q9. Under which Article of the Constitution did the Supreme Court …
  10. Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  11. Q11. According to the article, how many electors were initially ide…
  12. Q12. was the primary reason cited by the Supreme Court for ordering…
  13. Q13. Under which list of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constit…
  14. Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the recently opera…
  15. Q15. According to the newly notified rules under the labour codes, …
  16. Q16. is a primary objective of codifying the multiple labour laws i…
  17. Q17. The advanced Agni missile was tested from APJ Abdul Kalam Isla…
  18. Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Agni mi…
  19. Q19. On which date was the successful flight trial of the advanced …
  20. Q20. is the primary strategic advantage provided by the MIRV (Multi…
  21. Q21. constitutional article forms the basis for the Election Commis…
  22. Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the Chief Election…
  23. Q23. According to SIPRI data mentioned in the article, what percent…
  24. Q24. was Rabindranath Tagore's primary concern regarding Mahatma Ga…
  25. Q25. central armed police force is primarily responsible for India'…
  26. Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the use of drones …
  27. Q27. According to the article, what was the approximate value of na…
  28. Q28. is identified in the article as a primary reason for Pakistan'…
  29. Q29. The Strait of Hormuz, a critical chokepoint mentioned in the n…
  30. Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the events describ…
  31. Q31. According to the article, on which date was the U.S. 'Project …
  32. Q32. was a significant reason, as per the article, for the shipping…
  33. Q33. government body released the vision document for the National …
  34. Q34. Consider the following statements regarding data governance is…
  35. Q35. According to the article, what was the expected annual saving …
  36. Q36. is the primary purpose of the proposed India Data Management O…
  37. Q37. ministry/department is the National Health Authority (NHA), th…
  38. Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the AB PM-JAY Auto…
  39. Q39. According to the NHA CEO cited in the article, how much has th…
  40. Q40. is the primary objective of deploying the AI solutions showcas…
  41. Q41. government department is headed by the Chief of Defence Staff …
  42. Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the recent defence…
  43. Q43. According to the news, until which date is Vice-Admiral Krishn…
  44. Q44. is a primary strategic implication of appointing a Chief of De…
  45. Q45. quasi-judicial body is specifically empowered under the Juveni…
  46. Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the Allahabad High…
  47. Q47. Under which specific section of the Passports Act, 1967, did t…
  48. Q48. is the primary legislative objective of the Juvenile Justice A…
  49. Q49. international organization is primarily responsible for verify…
  50. Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the nuclear non-pr…
  51. Q51. According to the article, in which year did North Korea withdr…
  52. Q52. is the primary critique, as presented in the article, of the U…
  53. Q53. department within the Ministry of Defence is headed by the Chi…
  54. Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the appointment in…
  55. Q55. According to the news, on which date will Lt Gen NS Raja Subra…
  56. Q56. is a primary implication of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) a…
  57. Q57. The Strait of Hormuz connects which two major bodies of water?
  58. Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the news article o…
  59. Q59. According to the article, on which date was the U.S. Project F…
  60. Q60. was a primary reason for the shipping industry's lack of confi…
  61. Q61. The Supreme Court's suo motu case, as mentioned in the news, i…
  62. Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. Chie…
  63. Q63. According to the news, how many sons did the old woman from Pu…
  64. Q64. was the primary criticism leveled by CJI Surya Kant against th…
  65. Q65. The Jharkhand High Court, in its order on illegal mining, stat…
  66. Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the Jharkhand High…
  67. Q67. According to the Jharkhand High Court order mentioned in the a…
  68. Q68. was a primary reason cited by the Jharkhand High Court for cri…
  69. Q69. space agency is leading the Artemis program mentioned in the n…
  70. Q70. Consider the following statements regarding NASA's Artemis pro…
  71. Q71. According to the news, by which year is NASA currently targeti…
  72. Q72. is a primary technical challenge specifically highlighted for …
  73. Q73. organization, along with Tamil Nadu Election Watch, released t…
  74. Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the ADR-TNEW repor…
  75. Q75. According to the ADR-TNEW report, how many MLAs-elect from the…
  76. Q76. is the primary significance of reports like the one published …
  77. Q77. The IN-SPACe agency, mentioned in the context of private space…
  78. Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the Drishti satell…
  79. Q79. On which date was the GalaxEye Drishti satellite launched, as …
  80. Q80. is the primary technological significance of the Drishti satel…
  81. Q81. statutory body was directed by the Supreme Court to refund ₹16…
  82. Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
  83. Q83. was the rate of interest ordered by the Supreme Court on the ₹…
  84. Q84. is the primary legal doctrine applied by the Supreme Court to …
  85. Q85. division of the Ministry of Finance issued the order mandating…
  86. Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the recent labour …
  87. Q87. According to the May 8 order, within how many days of the next…
  88. Q88. is the primary objective of the government's revised instructi…
  89. Q89. central agency is responsible for operating the National Load …
  90. Q90. Consider the following statements regarding solar power curtai…
  91. Q91. According to the analysis of Grid India data mentioned in the …
  92. Q92. is the primary objective of the 'Emergency Tertiary Reserves A…
  93. Q93. The newly appointed Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) also serves a…
  94. Q94. Consider the following statements regarding Lt Gen N S Raja Su…
  95. Q95. According to the article, on which date was Lt Gen N S Raja Su…
  96. Q96. is a key professional attribute highlighted in the article tha…
  97. Q97. The TARA glide weapon system has been designed and developed b…
  98. Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the TARA glide wea…
  99. Q99. The TARA system is being produced in versions to be used with …
  100. Q100. is the primary strategic significance of the TARA glide weapon…