11 May 2026, Questions & Answers
152 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
152 questions · 0 topics covered · 31 min revision
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This page contains 152 current affairs questions with answers from 11 May 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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152 QsThe Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2026, proposing women's reservation, is an example of which type of legislative bill?
- A.Money Bill
- B.Constitution Amendment Bill✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ordinary Bill
- D.Financial Bill
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Explanation
The article mentions the 'Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2026'. A bill that seeks to amend the Constitution is called a Constitution Amendment Bill. It requires a special majority in Parliament, unlike ordinary or money bills.
Consider the following statements regarding the women's reservation bill discussed in the article:
1. The bill proposes to reserve one-third of seats in the Lok Sabha and state legislative assemblies for women.
2. The bill's implementation is unconditionally mandated to begin immediately after passage, with no links to other processes.
3. The bill includes a provision for a sunset clause, meaning it will be reviewed after a fixed period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the proposal is to 'Reserve one-third of seats in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article mentions implementation debates linked to delimitation and Census, indicating conditions. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly mentions 'The Bill’s proposed 15-year sunset clause also invites review.'
According to the article, what is the approximate current percentage of women members in the Lok Sabha?
- A.About 10%
- B.About 14%✓ Correct Answer
- C.About 20%
- D.About 33%
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Explanation
The article states: 'Women form nearly half the population, yet they have hovered around 14 per cent in the Lok Sabha'. The other options are distractors: 33% is the proposed reservation, 10% and 20% are not mentioned.
What is a key argument presented in the article against using delimitation and Census as reasons to delay the women's reservation bill?
- A.Delimitation and Census are unconstitutional processes.
- B.These processes are too costly and administratively burdensome.
- C.They are real concerns but should not be excuses for indefinite postponement of correcting democratic imbalance.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Women's representation should only be increased through voluntary party measures, not legal quotas.
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Explanation
The article argues: 'Concerns around delimitation and federal balance deserve serious attention. They are not imaginary... These risks should be managed, not used as excuses for indefinite delay.' It emphasizes that the need for correcting the democratic imbalance is immediate, and postponement has its own costs.
According to the article, which ministry is primarily engaged in discussions with Indian AI companies for defence applications?
- A.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
- B.Ministry of Defence✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Science and Technology
- D.Ministry of External Affairs
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the defence ministry is in conversations with Indian companies like SarvamAI and BharatGen regarding integrating AI technology with India's defence capabilities.
Consider the following statements regarding India's push for domestic AI in defence:
1. The initiative is partly inspired by the effective use of AI in the conflicts in Ukraine and Iran.
2. The primary goal is to develop an 'Indian version' of the AI systems developed by companies like OpenAI and Anthropic.
3. Indian firms are provided access to GPUs at discounted rates under the IndiaAI Mission to address compute limitations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions these conflicts showed AI can be a game-changer. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article mentions the aim is an 'Indian version of Palantir', not OpenAI/Anthropic. Statement 3 is correct as the government provides discounted GPU usage under the IndiaAI Mission.
According to the article, what is the approximate cost range mentioned for building large language models like those by OpenAI and Anthropic, including computing and data training?
- A.$50 million - $100 million
- B.$100 million - $200 million
- C.$200 million - $400 million
- D.$500 million - $600 million✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article states that computing alone costs close to $200 million, and data training and annotation costs can take the total figure up to $500 million-$600 million.
What is a key reason cited in the article for India's push to develop domestic AI models for defence, rather than using 'wrapper' products on top of foreign models?
- A.To achieve cost-effectiveness compared to expensive foreign models.
- B.To gain a technological edge over China in the global AI race.
- C.To ensure strategic autonomy and avoid reliance on externally sourced technology.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To comply with international regulations on technology transfer.
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Explanation
The article emphasizes that for strategic sectors like defence, there is a clear need to have own technology to avoid reliance on something sourced from outside, highlighting strategic autonomy as the primary objective.
Which ministry issued the notification for the implementation of the VB-G RAM G Act 2025?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Rural Development✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
- D.Ministry of Labour and Employment
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Explanation
The notification was issued by Rohini R Bhajibhakare, Joint Secretary, Ministry of Rural Development, as stated in the article. Rural employment guarantee schemes fall under the purview of this ministry.
Consider the following statements regarding the VB-G RAM G Act 2025:
1. It guarantees 125 days of wage employment per rural household per financial year.
2. Under this Act, the Central government will bear 100% of the wage bill, similar to MGNREGA.
3. The fund-sharing pattern between Centre and States is 60:40 for all states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because VB-G RAM G is a centrally sponsored scheme with shared funding, unlike MGNREGA where the Centre paid 100% of wages. Statement 3 is incorrect because the funding pattern is 60:40 for most states, but 90:10 for Northeastern states, Himalayan states, and UTs with a legislature.
According to the notification, from which date will the MGNREGA Act 2005 stand repealed?
- A.December 1, 2025
- B.May 11, 2026
- C.July 1, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- D.April 1, 2027
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Explanation
The Central Government notification appoints the 1st day of July, 2026 as the date from which MGNREGA 2005 shall stand repealed. May 11, 2026 is the article's publication date, while the other dates are distractors.
What is a key fiscal implication for state governments due to the transition from MGNREGA to VB-G RAM G?
- A.Reduced responsibility for material and administrative costs.
- B.Increased share in funding the wage employment programme.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Exemption from contributing to the scheme in peak agriculture seasons.
- D.Receipt of 100% central grants for all components of the scheme.
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Explanation
Under MGNREGA, the Centre paid 100% of the wage bill. Under VB-G RAM G, states will now share the cost, with a standard 40% contribution (60:40 pattern). This increases their financial burden, which is a key fiscal implication highlighted in the article.
The World Press Freedom Index 2026, which ranked India 157th, is published by which organization?
- A.Freedom House
- B.Reporters Without Borders (RSF)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Committee to Protect Journalists
- D.International Press Institute
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the World Press Freedom Index is an annual report published by Reporters Without Borders (RSF). This is a key static fact associated with the index.
Consider the following statements regarding the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) data for 2024:
1. India witnessed an overall 6% decline in registered crime cases compared to 2023.
2. Cyber crimes registered a decrease of nearly 18% during this period.
3. Crimes against Scheduled Tribes saw a sharper decline (23.1%) than crimes against Scheduled Castes (3.6%).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: NCRB reported 58.85 lakh cases in 2024, a 6% dip from 62.41 lakh in 2023. Statement 2 is incorrect: Cyber crimes saw an almost 18% jump, not a decrease. Statement 3 is correct: Crimes against STs fell by 23.1% to 9,966 cases, while crimes against SCs fell by 3.6% to 55,698 cases.
According to the Union Cabinet approval, what is the total financial outlay for the Mission for Cotton Productivity for the period 2026-27 to 2030-31?
- A.₹3,068 crore
- B.₹5,000 crore
- C.₹5,659.22 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹2.55 lakh crore
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the Centre approved Rs 5,659.22 crore for the Mission for Cotton Productivity for five years (2026–27 to 2030–31). ₹2.55 lakh crore is the target for the Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme 5.0, and ₹3,068 crore is for a semiconductor plant.
What is the primary significance of the 'ANEEL' fuel developed by Clean Core Thorium Energy, as mentioned in the article?
- A.It is a new biofuel for reducing emissions in the aviation sector.
- B.It is a thorium-based fuel for use in India's Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs).✓ Correct Answer
- C.It is a synthetic fuel alternative for coal-fired power plants to reduce SO2 emissions.
- D.It is a hydrogen-enriched fuel for next-generation satellite propulsion systems.
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Explanation
The article states that ANEEL fuel blends thorium with HALEU and is designed for deployment in India's Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) at scale. This represents an important step towards the third stage of India's three-stage nuclear power programme, which is based on the thorium cycle.
Which ministry is responsible for the implementation of the VB-G RAM G Act, as per the notification?
- A.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
- B.Ministry of Panchayati Raj
- C.Ministry of Rural Development✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Labour and Employment
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the notification was issued by the Ministry of Rural Development, which is the nodal ministry for rural employment guarantee schemes. MGNREGA also falls under this ministry.
Consider the following statements regarding the transition from MGNREGA to the VB-G RAM G Act:
1. The new Act will come into force across the country from July 1, 2026.
2. All existing MGNREGA job cards will become invalid immediately on June 30, 2026.
3. The draft rules for the new framework are being prepared in consultation with States and Union Territories.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article clarifies that existing e-KYC verified job cards will remain valid until new cards are issued. Statement 3 is correct as the Ministry stated draft rules are being prepared in consultation with States and UTs.
From which date is the Viksit Bharat - Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) Act scheduled to come into force?
- A.June 1, 2026
- B.July 1, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.August 15, 2026
- D.October 2, 2026
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the VB-G RAM G Act will come into force across the country from July 1, 2026. This is a key factual date for Prelims.
What is the primary institutional unit emphasized as the 'central pillar' for implementing the new VB-G RAM G Act?
- A.District Magistrate's Office
- B.Block Development Office
- C.Gram Panchayat✓ Correct Answer
- D.State Rural Development Department
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Explanation
The article directly quotes the government describing gram panchayats as the 'central pillar' of rural transformation under the new law. This highlights the continued focus on decentralized implementation at the village level.
The Responsible Nations Index (RNI), in which India ranked 16th, was launched under the aegis of which foundation?
- A.World Economic Forum
- B.World Intellectual Foundation✓ Correct Answer
- C.Sustainable Development Solutions Network
- D.Wellbeing Research Centre
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Explanation
As per the article, the Responsible Nations Index (RNI) was launched by India under the aegis of the World Intellectual Foundation (WIF). The World Economic Forum publishes the Global Risks Report, the Sustainable Development Solutions Network partners for the World Happiness Report, and the Wellbeing Research Centre is at the University of Oxford.
Consider the following statements regarding reports and indices in the news:
1. The Global Terrorism Index 2026 is published by the Institute for Economics and Peace and ranks Pakistan as the country with the highest impact of terrorism.
2. The Corruption Perceptions Index 2025, published by Transparency International, ranks Denmark at the top with a score of 89, while India is ranked 91st.
3. The Climate Change Performance Index 2026 is jointly published by Germanwatch and the New Climate Institute, and it ranks India at the 10th position.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the GTI 2026 is published by IEP and Pakistan is ranked number one. Statement 2 is correct as Denmark tops CPI 2025 with a score of 89 and India is 91st. Statement 3 is incorrect because while the CCPI is jointly published by Germanwatch and New Climate Institute, India's rank fell to 23rd in the 2026 edition, not 10th.
According to the Global Peace Index (GPI) 2025, which country is ranked as the least peaceful in the world?
- A.Ukraine
- B.Afghanistan
- C.Russia✓ Correct Answer
- D.South Sudan
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Russia stands at #163, making it the least peaceful country in the world on the 2025 GPI, followed by Ukraine at #162. Afghanistan is mentioned as the unhappiest country in the World Happiness Report, and South Sudan is among the most corrupt in the CPI.
What is the primary utility of reports like the Global Risks Report and various performance indices for a UPSC aspirant's preparation?
- A.They provide entertainment and break the monotony of studying.
- B.They offer a comprehensive source for factual Prelims questions and analytical themes for Mains.✓ Correct Answer
- C.They are used to critique government policies exclusively.
- D.They are only relevant for the International Relations section of the syllabus.
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Explanation
These reports are high-yield study material. They provide concrete data (ranks, scores, dates) for direct Prelims MCQs. Simultaneously, they offer analytical depth on governance, economy, security, and environment, serving as evidence and themes for Mains answers and essays, connecting current affairs to the static syllabus.
The 'Su Sahay' AI chatbot, recently launched for the Supreme Court website, was developed by which government body?
- A.NITI Aayog
- B.National Informatics Centre (NIC)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
- D.Supreme Court Registry alone
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Explanation
As per the article, the 'Su Sahay' chatbot was developed by the National Informatics Centre (NIC) in collaboration with the Supreme Court Registry. NIC is the primary IT solutions provider for the government.
Consider the following statements regarding the digital initiatives announced by CJI Surya Kant:
1. The 'One Case One Data' initiative will integrate information only from the Supreme Court and High Courts.
2. The AI-powered assistance chatbot 'Su Sahay' is designed to help citizens access services of all courts in India.
3. The initiatives were announced to streamline case management and improve public access to court services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) Both 1 and 3
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The 'One Case One Data' initiative aims to integrate information from High Courts, District, and Taluka courts, not just the Supreme Court and High Courts. Statement 2 is incorrect as 'Su Sahay' is specifically for the Supreme Court website, not all courts. Statement 3 is correct as explicitly mentioned in the article.
On which date did Chief Justice of India Surya Kant announce the 'One Case One Data' initiative and launch the 'Su Sahay' chatbot?
- A.May 10, 2026
- B.May 11, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.May 12, 2026
- D.May 13, 2026
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Explanation
The article clearly states the announcement was made by CJI Surya Kant on Monday, May 11, 2026. This is a precise factual date that can be asked in Prelims.
What is the primary objective of the 'One Case One Data' initiative announced for the judiciary?
- A.To increase the number of judges in lower courts
- B.To create a unified digital database integrating case information from courts at multiple levels✓ Correct Answer
- C.To provide free legal aid to all under-trial prisoners
- D.To digitize all historical case records from the pre-independence era
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Explanation
As stated by the CJI, the 'One Case One Data' initiative aims to integrate multi-level information from High Courts, District, and Taluka courts into a unified system to develop an efficient case management system. The other options, while related to judicial reforms, are not the stated objectives of this specific initiative.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for the 'Women-Friendly Gram Panchayat' initiative discussed in the article?
- A.Ministry of Women and Child Development
- B.Ministry of Panchayati Raj✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Rural Development
- D.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Women-Friendly Gram Panchayat initiative was developed by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj. This ministry is the nodal agency for all matters related to Panchayati Raj Institutions in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the news article:
1. The Women-Friendly Gram Panchayat initiative was piloted in the states of Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.
2. A peer-reviewed study cited in the article was conducted across 163 villages in 10 states.
3. The initiative aims to localise Sustainable Development Goal 5 on gender equality.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the model was 'Piloted in Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the study covered '163 villages in 12 states', not 10. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the initiative was developed 'to localise the Sustainable Development Goals, especially Goal 5 on gender equality'.
According to the article, how many gram panchayats formally resolved to adopt the Women-Friendly Gram Panchayat initiative on International Women's Day 2025?
- A.500 panchayats
- B.670 panchayats
- C.770 panchayats✓ Correct Answer
- D.850 panchayats
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Explanation
The article provides the exact data point: 'On International Women’s Day 2025, 770 panchayats formally resolved to adopt it.' The other options are plausible distractors close to the correct figure.
What is a key finding of the peer-reviewed study mentioned in the article regarding the impact of women's political reservation in Panchayats?
- A.It increased women's participation in employment schemes by over 25%.
- B.It doubled the rate at which women opened bank accounts.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It reduced incidents of child marriage by over 75% in studied villages.
- D.It increased girls' school enrollment by 100% in participating districts.
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Explanation
The article states the study 'found that women’s political reservation...doubled the rate at which women opened bank accounts.' While it also mentions a 'over 50 per cent' increase in employment scheme participation, the 'doubled' rate is specifically for bank accounts. The eradication of child marriage is cited as an outcome in Nongarh panchayat, not as a general finding of the study.
Which ministry is responsible for the capex utilisation and new corridor announcements mentioned in the news?
- A.Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
- B.Ministry of Railways✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Civil Aviation
- D.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
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Explanation
The article quotes Union Minister of Railways Ashwini Vaishnaw discussing railway capex and new train corridors. The Ministry of Railways is the nodal body for all railway infrastructure and operations in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. Indian Railways utilised 98% of its capital expenditure for the financial year 2026 by the end of February.
2. The Minister stated that 48,000 kilometres of railway tracks across the country have been electrified.
3. The travel time between Hyderabad and Bengaluru is projected to be reduced to around 2 hours on the new corridor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the correct figure for electrified tracks is 49,000 km, not 48,000 km. Statement 3 is correct as the Minister stated Hyderabad to Bengaluru will be around 2 hours.
According to the Union Minister, what is the projected travel time between Mumbai and Pune on the new railway corridor?
- A.25 minutes
- B.28 minutes✓ Correct Answer
- C.35 minutes
- D.45 minutes
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the travel time on the new corridor from Mumbai to Pune will come down to just 28 minutes. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What is the primary strategic objective behind developing the new high-speed railway corridors as mentioned by the Minister?
- A.To increase freight capacity for coal transportation
- B.To dominate passenger traffic and shift it from airlines to railways on those routes✓ Correct Answer
- C.To promote tourism to historical sites along the routes
- D.To serve as a testbed for new indigenous locomotive technology
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Explanation
The Minister's statements, such as "These sectors will be 99% dominated by railways" and "So nobody will fly," clearly indicate the objective is to capture passenger traffic from airlines by offering significantly reduced travel times.
Which United Nations body provided the estimates of economic losses and poverty risk due to the Iran war energy shocks, as mentioned in the article?
- A.United Nations Development Program (UNDP)✓ Correct Answer
- B.United Nations Environment Program (UNEP)
- C.World Health Organization (WHO)
- D.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the estimates of $299 billion in economic losses to the Asia-Pacific region and 8.8 million people being pushed into poverty are according to the United Nations Development Program (UNDP).
Consider the following statements regarding the energy shock impacts from the Iran war:
1. The crisis has pushed the price of Brent crude oil to as high as about $120 a barrel.
2. Asian governments had planned their budgets assuming the price of oil would average around $90 a barrel.
3. The fuel shortage situation is expected to improve immediately after the war ends.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article says Asian budgets assumed oil at $70 a barrel, not $90. Statement 3 is incorrect; experts state the global oil and gas trade will not bounce back right away and recovery will take weeks or months.
According to the article, what is the approximate contribution of tourism to Vietnam's Gross Domestic Product (GDP)?
- A.Nearly 5%
- B.Nearly 8%✓ Correct Answer
- C.Nearly 12%
- D.Nearly 15%
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Explanation
The article states that tourism makes up nearly 8% of Vietnam's gross domestic product. This sector is particularly vulnerable to the jet fuel shortages and flight cuts mentioned.
What is the primary reason the energy shock from the Iran war is described as creating a 'fiscal time bomb' for Asian governments?
- A.Because it forces massive borrowing for military spending.
- B.Because it leads to a permanent closure of key oil refineries.
- C.Because governments must choose between unsustainable fuel subsidies or public anger over price hikes.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Because it triggers mandatory spending cuts on healthcare and education as per international treaties.
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Explanation
The analyst in the article describes the dilemma where subsidies strain public finances, and cutting them passes costs to consumers, risking backlash. This unsustainable policy choice is termed a 'fiscal time bomb'. The other options are not supported by the article's content.
The article discusses the loss of natural cooling systems in Delhi, including the degradation of the Yamuna floodplains. Which government body is primarily responsible for the conservation and management of river floodplains in India?
- A.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC)
- B.Ministry of Jal Shakti✓ Correct Answer
- C.Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
- D.National Green Tribunal (NGT)
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Explanation
While multiple bodies are involved, the Ministry of Jal Shakti, created in 2019, is the nodal ministry for the conservation and management of water resources, including river systems and their floodplains, in India. The MoEFCC oversees broader environmental policy, the CPCB monitors pollution, and the NGT is a judicial body.
Consider the following statements regarding the Urban Heat Island (UHI) effect in Delhi as explained in the article:
1. Materials like concrete and asphalt absorb heat efficiently but release it slowly, delaying nighttime cooling.
2. The use of air conditioning lowers ambient outdoor temperatures by expelling cool air.
3. Shrinking green cover and degraded wetlands reduce the city's capacity for evapotranspiration, a natural cooling process.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's explanation of how urban materials create a 'heat re-trap'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states that ACs expel heat outdoors, raising ambient temperatures by 1-2°C, not lowering them. Statement 3 is correct, as the loss of vegetation and water bodies weakens natural temperature regulation via evapotranspiration.
According to the article, what is the estimated annual economic loss for India due to decline in heat-related productivity?
- A.Over $50 billion
- B.Over $75 billion
- C.Over $100 billion✓ Correct Answer
- D.Over $150 billion
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "At a broader level, India loses over $100 billion annually due to the decline in heat-related productivity." The other figures are plausible distractors but are not mentioned in the provided content.
What is identified in the article as a critical structural measure needed to address Delhi's heat crisis by improving how cities release accumulated heat?
- A.Mandating the use of only glass facades in new constructions
- B.Restoring airflow through ventilation corridors and better street orientation✓ Correct Answer
- C.Banning all vehicular movement during peak afternoon hours
- D.Subsidizing individual air conditioning units for all households
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Explanation
The article's 'What measures are needed' section explicitly calls for urban planning to "restore airflow through ventilation corridors and better street orientation" to combat the stagnation of air and heat accumulation. The other options are either counterproductive (glass facades worsen the problem), extreme (banning all vehicles), or address symptom relief rather than the structural cause (subsidizing ACs).
Which institution is responsible for managing India's foreign exchange reserves and has been accumulating gold as a reserve asset?
- A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Finance
- D.National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
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Explanation
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is India's central bank and is responsible for managing the country's foreign exchange reserves. The article explicitly states that the RBI has been aggressively accumulating gold, adding 168 tonnes over the past year.
Consider the following statements regarding India's import scenario as discussed in the news:
1. India imports its entire gold consumption, which cost about $72 billion last year.
2. The Reserve Bank of India's purchase of gold for its reserves has the same immediate impact on dollar outflows as household gold purchases.
3. India meets about 89% of its oil needs through imports, and the price has risen from around $70 to over $113 per barrel in the past year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'India is not a gold producer and imports its entire gold. Last year, India spent about $72 billion...'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article distinguishes between RBI's reserve-management (strategic) and consumer demand which 'directly increases dollar outflows'. Statement 3 is correct as the article states India meets '89% of its oil needs from external sources' and the price rose from '$70 per barrel a year ago to over $113 now'.
According to the article, what percentage of India's total foreign exchange reserves did gold comprise as of March 2026?
- A.10%
- B.12%
- C.16%✓ Correct Answer
- D.20%
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'Gold currently comprises 16% of Indian total forex reserves, an increase from 10% last year.' The other options are distractors: 10% was the previous year's share, while 12% and 20% are not mentioned.
What is the primary economic rationale behind the appeal to reduce household consumption of imported gold, as explained in the article?
- A.To increase the domestic savings rate by discouraging unproductive asset accumulation.
- B.To directly reduce the fiscal deficit by lowering subsidy expenditure on gold imports.
- C.To conserve foreign exchange and reduce pressure on the Current Account Deficit (CAD) and the rupee.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To boost the domestic jewellery manufacturing sector by reducing competition from imported gold.
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Explanation
The article's core analysis is that consumer demand for imported gold 'directly increases dollar outflows from the economy', which can 'add pressure on India’s current account deficit and increase demand for dollars, which may weaken the rupee over time'. Thus, the primary rationale is forex conservation and CAD management. The other options are not the central focus of the article's economic argument.
The Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) also serves as the Secretary of which department within the Government of India?
- A.Department of Defence
- B.Department of Military Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Department of Defence Production
- D.Department of Ex-Servicemen Welfare
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Explanation
As per the article and the government structure established in 2019, the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) is the head of the Department of Military Affairs (DMA) within the Ministry of Defence. This department was created to foster jointness among the armed forces.
Consider the following statements regarding the appointment of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) in India:
1. The post of CDS was created in December 2019 during Modi 2.0, with General Bipin Rawat as the first incumbent.
2. The service rules were amended in 2022 to allow only serving three-star officers below the age of 62 to be appointed as CDS.
3. Both General Anil Chauhan and Lt Gen N S Raja Subramani served in the National Security Council Secretariat prior to their appointment as CDS.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the post was created in December 2019 and Gen Bipin Rawat was appointed in January 2020. Statement 2 is incorrect because the June 2022 amendment allowed both serving AND retired Lt Generals below 62 to be appointed. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions both officers served as Military Adviser to the NSCS before their CDS appointments.
According to the article, on which date is Lt Gen N S Raja Subramani scheduled to assume office as the Chief of Defence Staff?
- A.May 11, 2026
- B.May 31, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.September 30, 2026
- D.December 31, 2026
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Lt Gen N S Raja Subramani "will assume office on May 31." The year 2026 is inferred from the article's publication date of May 11, 2026, and the context of the appointment announcement.
What is a primary concern raised in the article regarding the recent pattern of appointing the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS)?
- A.It leads to excessive financial expenditure on pensions.
- B.It undermines the principle of civilian control over the military.
- C.It restricts the selection pool predominantly to retired Army officers.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It requires a constitutional amendment for each appointment.
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Explanation
The article critically examines the trend of appointing retired Army officers as CDS, noting that this reflects a "deeply ingrained policy orientation" that the Army is best suited for the role. It argues this excludes equally deserving officers from the Navy and Air Force, which is problematic in an era of multi-dimensional conflict.
Which government think tank released the 'Education Quality Report 2026' that ranked Punjab as the top-performing state?
- A.Planning Commission
- B.NITI Aayog✓ Correct Answer
- C.University Grants Commission (UGC)
- D.National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the 'NITI Aayog Education Quality Report 2026' placed Punjab ahead of Kerala. NITI Aayog is the premier policy think tank of the Government of India.
Consider the following statements regarding the NITI Aayog Education Quality Report 2026 findings for Punjab:
1. Punjab recorded 82% proficiency in language for Class 3, which is higher than Kerala's 75%.
2. The student-teacher ratio in Punjab's government schools has been improved to 25:1.
3. Over 90% of Class 10 students in Punjab now transition to Class 11, indicating a decline in dropout rates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the improved ratio is 22:1, not 25:1. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions 'over 90 per cent of Class 10 students now transition smoothly to Class 11'. Hence, both 1 and 3 are correct.
According to the NITI Aayog report cited by the Punjab Education Minister, what percentage of government schools in the state have functional computers?
- A.80%
- B.90%
- C.95%
- D.99%✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article directly quotes the minister: '99 per cent have functional computers'. The other options are close distractors related to other infrastructure metrics mentioned, like smart classrooms (80%) or schools with internet (88.9%).
What is the primary significance of Punjab surpassing Kerala in the NITI Aayog Education Quality Report, as highlighted in the article?
- A.It indicates a nationwide decline in Kerala's educational standards.
- B.It validates the success of Punjab's targeted reforms like Mission Samarth and Schools of Eminence.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It proves that central government funding is more effective than state-led initiatives.
- D.It shows that digital infrastructure is the sole determinant of educational quality.
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Explanation
The article's core narrative is that Punjab's focused policy initiatives—Mission Samarth for post-COVID recovery and the Schools of Eminence programme—have yielded tangible results, as now validated by the NITI Aayog report. The other options are misinterpretations or overstatements not supported by the article's content.
The state visit mentioned in the news is happening at the invitation of the head of which country?
- A.United States of America
- B.People's Republic of China✓ Correct Answer
- C.Republic of China (Taiwan)
- D.Japan
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the visit comes 'at the invitation of President Xi Jinping', who is the President of the People's Republic of China.
Consider the following statements regarding the US President's visit to China as per the news:
1. The visit is scheduled from May 13 to May 15, 2026.
2. The key issues to be discussed include trade, the situation in Ukraine, and Taiwan.
3. This marks the first visit by a US President to China since the year 2017.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article dates. Statement 2 is incorrect; the key issues mentioned are trade, Iran, and Taiwan, not Ukraine. Statement 3 is correct as the article states it is the first visit by a US president since 2017.
According to the news article, what was the year of the last visit by a US President to China before the upcoming 2026 visit?
- A.2015
- B.2016
- C.2017✓ Correct Answer
- D.2018
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'Trump’s visit marks his first trip to China in his current term and the first by a US president since 2017.'
What is the primary strategic concern for Taiwan as mentioned in the context of the US-China talks?
- A.Securing a bilateral trade agreement with the US.
- B.Ensuring the US policy towards Taiwan remains stable and unchanged.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Joining military exercises with the US in the South China Sea.
- D.Mediating the trade dispute between the US and China.
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Explanation
Taiwan's Foreign Minister Lin Chia-lung stated that Taiwan trusted the US relationship would remain stable and that the US had 'repeatedly expressed' its policy towards Taiwan would not change, indicating this is their core concern.
Under which ministry did the Allahabad High Court direct the Uttar Pradesh government to consider making the State Forensic Science Laboratory (FSL) autonomous?
- A.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- B.Ministry of Law and Justice
- C.Ministry of Science and Technology
- D.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
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Explanation
The article states the court directed the state government to consider making the Uttar Pradesh Forensic Science Laboratory (FSL) an autonomous department under its Home Ministry, as requested by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
Consider the following statements regarding the directions issued by the Allahabad High Court:
1. It directed the UP government to provide personal security officers to all district court judges.
2. It ordered the implementation of speech-to-text AI modules for recording accused statements.
3. It noted that only eight out of twelve Forensic Science Laboratories in Uttar Pradesh have DNA profiling facilities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the court directed the state to consider providing personal security officers to all district court judges. Statement 2 is incorrect; the AI module is for recording witness statements, not accused statements. Statement 3 is correct as per the information provided by the FSL director in the article.
According to the Allahabad High Court order, how many Forensic Science Laboratories (FSLs) in Uttar Pradesh currently have DNA profiling facilities?
- A.6 out of 12
- B.8 out of 12✓ Correct Answer
- C.10 out of 12
- D.12 out of 12
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Explanation
The director of FSL informed the court that forensic laboratories in Uttar Pradesh were facing acute shortages and that only eight out of 12 FSLs in the state currently have DNA profiling facilities.
What is the primary objective behind the Allahabad High Court's direction to implement speech-to-text AI modules for recording witness statements?
- A.To reduce the workload of police officers during investigations
- B.To create accurate and efficient digital records of testimonies✓ Correct Answer
- C.To replace human judges with artificial intelligence in courts
- D.To monitor the communication of accused persons on messaging apps
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Explanation
The direction is part of broader tech integration to streamline the criminal justice process. Using AI for speech-to-text conversion aims to improve the accuracy and efficiency of recording witness statements, reducing manual errors and delays, as inferred from the context of tackling systemic delays.
The recent Karnataka High Court judgment interpreted provisions related to search and assessment under which major Indian statute?
- A.The Companies Act, 2013
- B.The Income Tax Act, 1961✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017
- D.The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
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Explanation
The article explicitly discusses the interpretation of Sections 132, 153A, and 153C of the Income Tax Act, 1961, by the Karnataka High Court. The other acts govern corporate law, indirect tax, and criminal procedure, respectively.
Consider the following statements regarding the Karnataka High Court's ruling on Income Tax searches:
1. The court ruled that a search operation under the I-T Act is 'premises-centric' and not 'person-centric'.
2. The 'searched person' is to be determined with reference to the person against whom satisfaction for search is recorded under Section 132.
3. Proceedings against a person on whose premises a search is conducted, but who is not the person named in the warrant, can only be initiated under Section 153C.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the court ruled a search is 'person-centric', not 'premises-centric'. Statement 2 is correct as per the article: the 'searched person' is determined by the person against whom 'reason to believe' under Section 132 is recorded. Statement 3 is correct as the Bench clarified proceedings against any other person can be initiated only under Section 153C.
In the case decided by the Karnataka High Court, during which year was the original search operation conducted by the Income Tax Department?
- A.2015
- B.2017✓ Correct Answer
- C.2020
- D.2025
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Explanation
The article states: 'The case originated from a search conducted in September 2017 at the residence of one Ram Mohan Raju...' The other options are distractors: 2025 is the year of the single judge's order, and 2026 is the year of the Division Bench judgment.
What was the primary legal implication of the Karnataka High Court's ruling that a search is 'person-centric' under the Income Tax Act?
- A.It expanded the powers of the IT Department to search any premises without a warrant.
- B.It clarified that the procedural advantages of Section 153A are available only to the person named in the search warrant under Section 132.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It mandated that all searches must be personally supervised by the Director of Income Tax.
- D.It transferred the jurisdiction of all search-related cases to the Supreme Court.
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Explanation
The core ruling was that the identity of the 'searched person' is tied to the person named in the warrant under Section 132. Therefore, merely having one's premises searched does not grant the status of a 'searched person' or the associated procedural advantages under Section 153A. The other options are not supported by the article's content.
The Election Commission of India (ECI) is established under which Article of the Indian Constitution?
- A.Article 324✓ Correct Answer
- B.Article 352
- C.Article 368
- D.Article 14
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Explanation
Article 324 of the Indian Constitution establishes the Election Commission, a permanent independent body responsible for conducting free and fair elections in the country. This is a fundamental static GK fact relevant to any news about the ECI.
Consider the following statements regarding the news on electoral roll monitoring:
1. The Special Intensive Revision (SIR 2.0) for West Bengal reportedly excluded millions of genuine voters due to ad hoc and subjective Standard Operating Procedures.
2. The Election Commission of India (ECI) disposed of nearly 34 lakh pending appeals before the polling for the West Bengal Assembly elections.
3. The proposed AI oversight layer would function as a post-facto review mechanism to analyse electoral roll discrepancies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the ECI disposed of only about 1,607 inclusion appeals, while nearly 34 lakh appeals remained pending. Statement 3 is incorrect; the proposed AI layer is for continuous, real-time oversight, not just post-facto review.
According to the article, approximately how many appeals were pending before the Supreme Court-appointed tribunals during the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) for the West Bengal elections?
- A.Nearly 3.4 lakh
- B.Nearly 34 lakh✓ Correct Answer
- C.Nearly 3.4 crore
- D.Nearly 34 crore
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Explanation
The article states: "the ECI neither disclosed the status of nearly 34 lakh appeals... pending before the 19 Supreme Court-appointed tribunals." The other options are numerical distractors using different units (lakh vs. crore).
What is the primary purpose of the proposed AI-enabled oversight layer for ECINet, as discussed in the article?
- A.To replace the constitutional authority of the Election Commission of India.
- B.To conduct post-facto audits of election results and victory margins.
- C.To continuously monitor electoral operations and detect anomalies in real-time to ensure neutrality.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To manage the hardware infrastructure and increase the server capacity of ECINet.
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Explanation
The article's core proposal is for an AI layer to provide continuous oversight, audit processes using existing data, and flag irregularities like bias or inconsistent SOP application as they happen, thereby strengthening transparency and accountability.
According to the news, which ministry has been tasked by the Supreme Court to decide on the classification of schools imparting religious instruction?
- A.Ministry of Home Affairs
- B.Ministry of Law and Justice
- C.Ministry of Education✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Minority Affairs
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Explanation
The Supreme Court Bench headed by Justice Dipankar Datta stated that the issue was within the domain of the Ministry of Education, and the court need not intervene for now. This is explicitly mentioned in the article.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court case mentioned in the news:
1. The petition sought a direction to declare that schools imparting religious instruction are covered under Article 26(a).
2. Article 26(a) grants the right to establish institutions for religious and charitable purposes subject to restrictions of public order, health, and morality.
3. The Supreme Court issued a binding directive to the government to classify all such schools as religious bodies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the petition sought a direction to declare coverage under Article 26(a). Statement 2 is the correct description of Article 26(a) as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Supreme Court did not issue a directive; it left the decision to the government (Ministry of Education).
On which date did the Supreme Court proceedings, as reported in the article, take place?
- A.May 10, 2026
- B.May 11, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.May 12, 2026
- D.May 13, 2026
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Explanation
The article explicitly states 'The Supreme Court of India on Monday (May 11, 2026) left it to the government...'. The published date is also May 11, 2026.
What was a primary concern raised in the petition regarding unregistered institutions imparting religious education to children?
- A.They lead to increased government expenditure on education.
- B.They pose a risk to national security by potentially brainwashing young children.✓ Correct Answer
- C.They reduce the number of students enrolling in government schools.
- D.They violate international copyright laws on educational content.
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Explanation
The petition argued, "This is an issue of national security as young kids form the future of the nation, and can be brainwashed/manipulated in unregistered institutions." This is a direct quote from the provided article content.
The development of the Great Nicobar Island project, involving forest land diversion, requires compliance with which key legislation for tribal rights?
- A.The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
- B.The Forest Rights Act, 2006✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Environment Protection Act, 1986
- D.The Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996
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Explanation
The Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006 mandates the recognition of rights of forest-dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers. The article mentions a PIL alleging illegalities in the islands administration's order claiming compliance of FRA for the Great Nicobar project, making it the central legislation for tribal consent in forest land diversion.
Consider the following statements regarding developments mentioned in the article:
1. The DRDO successfully tested its scramjet combustor for a duration of 1,200 seconds.
2. India's gold holdings as part of its foreign exchange reserves decreased from 16% to 10% in the past year.
3. The Great Nicobar Island project aims to develop a transshipment port at Galathea Bay.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states DRDO achieved a 1,200-second runtime for its scramjet combustor. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article says gold's share in reserves increased from 10% to 16%. Statement 3 is correct as the project includes a transshipment port at Galathea Bay. Hence, option C is correct.
As per the article, what approximate amount does India spend on gold imports per month?
- A.About $2 billion
- B.About $4 billion
- C.About $6 billion✓ Correct Answer
- D.About $8 billion
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'Last year, India spent about $72 billion – approximately $6 billion per month – on gold alone.' The other options are plausible distractors but do not match the precise monthly figure derived from the annual total provided.
What is a primary strategic rationale behind the Indian defence establishment's push for developing indigenous Artificial Intelligence systems, as discussed in the article?
- A.To reduce the overall budget allocated to defence imports.
- B.To decouple from foreign technology in strategic sectors and ensure data sovereignty.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To immediately replace all existing legacy military hardware with AI-driven systems.
- D.To collaborate exclusively with allied nations under a shared AI framework.
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Explanation
The article highlights a 'concerted push to decouple from foreign-made technology in strategic sectors' and mentions New Delhi's irritation at US expectations for allies to build on the 'America AI stack'. This indicates the core rationale is strategic autonomy and data sovereignty, not merely cost reduction or immediate wholesale replacement.
Which institution in India is primarily responsible for managing the country's foreign exchange reserves and intervening in the currency market?
- A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Finance
- D.National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
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Explanation
The article mentions that forex reserves are held with the RBI, India's central bank. The RBI manages these reserves and intervenes in the foreign exchange market to defend the rupee's exchange rate, as described when it sells dollars during a BoP deficit.
Consider the following statements regarding India's Balance of Payments (BoP) as discussed in the article:
1. A BoP surplus occurs when more dollars are coming into the country than going out, allowing the RBI to accumulate forex reserves.
2. The article states that India's current BoP situation is as strong as it was before the 1991 economic reforms.
3. A sustained BoP deficit can lead to a weakening of the Indian rupee against the US dollar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's explanation of a BoP surplus. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the current BoP is as weak as in 2013 (the 'Fragile Five' period), not stronger than pre-1991. Statement 3 is correct, as a BoP deficit leads to rupee weakening, which is a core point in the analysis.
According to the article, PM Modi urged citizens to cut back the use of imported edible oil by what percentage?
- A.5%
- B.10%✓ Correct Answer
- C.15%
- D.20%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states, "He also urged Indians to cut back the use of edible oil in their food by 10%." The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What is a primary criticism, as per the article, of focusing solely on cutting consumption to save forex?
- A.It will immediately attract more Foreign Direct Investment (FDI).
- B.It could slow down overall economic growth by weakening domestic demand.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It is guaranteed to make the Indian rupee stronger against the dollar.
- D.It will eliminate the need for any further economic reforms.
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Explanation
The article argues that cutting consumption (e.g., not buying gold, reducing travel) could come at the cost of economic growth. It states such a move "will likely come at the cost of overall economic growth" and that "weaker consumption... will drag down growth." The other options are contrary to the article's analysis.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for the policy oversight of Public Sector Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) like IOCL and BPCL?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises
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Explanation
The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas is the nodal ministry for exploration, production, refining, distribution, marketing, and import/export of petroleum products and natural gas. It oversees the functioning of PSU OMCs like IOCL, BPCL, and HPCL.
Consider the following statements regarding the fuel pricing situation as per the article:
1. India is a net exporter of major refined fuels like petrol and diesel.
2. The government has officially ruled out any form of fuel rationing, including for commercial LPG.
3. The three Public Sector OMCs have not increased the retail prices of petrol and diesel for over four years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article states India is a net exporter of major fuels like diesel and petrol. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article clarifies there has been no rationing of petrol and diesel, but rationing WAS done for commercial and industrial LPG. Statement 3 is correct: Prices of petrol and diesel have not been hiked since April 2022 (over four years).
According to the government source cited in the article, what is the estimated daily loss incurred by Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) on fuel sales?
- A.₹500-700 crore
- B.₹1,000-1,200 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹1,500-1,700 crore
- D.₹2,000-2,200 crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly states, "The OMCs are estimated to be incurring daily losses worth about Rs 1,000-Rs 1,200 crore." The other options are plausible but incorrect figures not mentioned in the text.
What is the primary rationale, as described in the article, for the government and OMCs absorbing massive losses instead of passing on high international fuel costs to consumers?
- A.To boost the profitability and market valuation of the PSU OMCs.
- B.To maintain price and supply stability as a sovereign function protecting the common consumer.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To reduce the country's dependence on crude oil imports in the long run.
- D.To comply with international climate agreements by discouraging fossil fuel consumption.
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Explanation
The article quotes the source saying, "A primary function of the OMCs is to maintain price and supply stability. It is a sovereign function that they perform." The core objective is consumer protection and macroeconomic stability, not OMC profitability, import reduction, or climate goals.
At which industry body's summit did Shaktikanta Das present the seven-point strategy for Indian businesses?
- A.Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce & Industry (FICCI)
- B.Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM)
- C.Confederation of Indian Industry (CII)✓ Correct Answer
- D.NITI Aayog
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Shaktikanta Das was speaking at the 'Confederation of Indian Industry’s Annual Business Summit 2026'. CII is a premier industry association in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the strategies outlined by Shaktikanta Das for India Inc:
1. Building organisational resilience should replace cost minimisation as the primary corporate priority.
2. Indian businesses should avoid market diversification to deepen expertise in existing markets.
3. Strategic investments in technology and sustainability are needed to capitalise on structural shifts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article says 'resilience maximisation is increasingly replacing cost minimisation as a priority'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the strategy explicitly advises 'market diversification' to reduce vulnerability. Statement 3 is correct as strategic investment in 'technology innovation, sustainability, and capacity building' is listed as the sixth strategy.
According to the speech, what was India's average annual GDP growth rate between 2022-23 and 2025-26?
- A.About 6.8%
- B.About 7.0%
- C.About 7.2%
- D.About 7.4%✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article states that India 'recorded average annual GDP growth of about 7.4% between 2022-23 and 2025-26'. This data point is crucial to remember as it highlights India's economic performance during a turbulent global period.
What is the primary objective behind the strategy advising Indian companies to 'build new supply chains'?
- A.To solely reduce the cost of production for maximum profit.
- B.To reduce exposure to external shocks and become reliable partners in global trade.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To centralise all manufacturing within India's borders.
- D.To bypass international trade agreements and tariffs.
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Explanation
The article explains that by diversifying sourcing and integrating into multiple global value chains, firms 'can reduce exposure to external shocks while positioning themselves as reliable partners in the evolving global trading system'. The objective is resilience and strategic positioning, not just cost-cutting or isolation.
The article mentions the writer is the former chairman of which major Public Sector Undertaking?
- A.Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL)
- B.Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL)
- C.Indian Oil Corporation Ltd (IOCL)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC)
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Explanation
The article's byline explicitly states 'The writer is former chairman, Indian Oil Corporation Ltd'. This is a direct factual extraction from the provided content.
Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Hormuz crisis as described in the article:
1. The crisis has led to a complete and unprecedented closure of the strait, unlike any event since 1973.
2. In response, the Government of India issued the LPG Control Order and directed refineries to maximize LPG yields.
3. The three major Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) earned a post-tax profit of over 5% on revenues in the financial year 2024-25.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The article states the crisis is a severe disruption but that past episodes 'never resulted in the closure of the strait'. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's description of the government's response. Statement 3 is incorrect: The article states the OMCs' post-tax profit was ₹33,602 crore on revenues of ₹18,20,477 crore, which is a return of only 1.85%.
According to the article, what is the estimated daily loss to the Government of India due to excise duty reductions on fuel during the crisis?
- A.₹30,000 crore
- B.₹460 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹62,000 crore
- D.₹1,68,000 crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'Based on excise duty reductions alone, the government is estimated to lose nearly Rs 460 crore per day'. ₹30,000 crore is the total GoI loss from the crisis period, ₹62,000 crore is the total combined loss, and ₹1,68,000 crore is the annualized figure.
What is the primary argument presented in the article regarding India's response to the fuel price crisis?
- A.India should immediately increase retail fuel prices to global levels to reduce fiscal deficit.
- B.The current model of absorbing losses through government and OMCs is unsustainable in the long run.✓ Correct Answer
- C.India must halt all investments in refining capacity and focus solely on renewable energy.
- D.State governments are solely responsible for the crisis due to high VAT rates on fuel.
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Explanation
The article's core thesis, stated explicitly, is that 'Neither the government nor the oil companies can indefinitely absorb such financial stress' and calls for a shared burden model. It does not advocate for immediate price hikes to global levels, halting refinery investments, or placing sole blame on states.
Which nodal think tank of the Government of India estimated the ethanol requirement for achieving the E20 target, as mentioned in the article?
- A.NITI Aayog✓ Correct Answer
- B.Planning Commission
- C.Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR)
- D.Centre for Science and Environment (CSE)
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that a NITI Aayog report had estimated the ethanol requirements for E20. NITI Aayog is the premier policy think tank of the Government of India, making it the correct nodal body in this context.
Consider the following statements regarding India's ethanol blending programme:
1. India achieved the target of 20% ethanol blending in petrol (E20) by the year 2026, which was its original target year.
2. The Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) programme was formally launched in the year 2003.
3. Producing one litre of sugarcane-based ethanol requires approximately 2,860 litres of water.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The original target year for E20 was 2030, but it was achieved earlier in 2026. Statement 2 is correct: The EBP programme was launched in 2003. Statement 3 is correct: The article states that producing one litre of sugarcane-based ethanol requires nearly 2,860 litres of water.
According to the article, what was the approximate quantity of ethanol produced by India in the year 2025?
- A.850 crore litres
- B.985 crore litres✓ Correct Answer
- C.1,016 crore litres
- D.1,735 crore litres
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Explanation
The article states that in 2025, India produced around 985 crore litres of ethanol, according to the Renewable Fuel Association. 1,016 crore litres was the NITI Aayog estimate for E20 requirements, and 1,735 crore litres is the projected need for achieving E30 by 2030.
What is identified in the article as the most critical priority to address the trade-offs associated with scaling up ethanol production for higher blending targets?
- A.Increasing imports of ethanol from Brazil and the United States
- B.Shifting focus entirely to maize as the primary feedstock
- C.Scaling up second-generation (2G) ethanol from agricultural residues✓ Correct Answer
- D.Providing higher interest subventions for new distilleries
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Explanation
The article concludes that scaling second-generation (2G) ethanol, produced from non-food biomass, is the most critical priority as it directly addresses the core concerns of water stress and food security that arise from food-based (first-generation) ethanol production.
Which international organization recommended the use of the RTS,S/AS01E malaria vaccine and hailed the recent Lancet study findings as a milestone?
- A.World Health Organisation (WHO)✓ Correct Answer
- B.United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF)
- C.World Bank
- D.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the World Health Organisation (WHO) has hailed the findings as a major milestone. WHO is the specialized UN agency responsible for international public health and sets recommendations for vaccines like RTS,S.
Consider the following statements regarding the malaria vaccine study published in The Lancet:
1. The study found the vaccine reduced all-cause child mortality by 13% in pilot regions of Africa.
2. The vaccine is effective against all species of the malaria parasite, including Plasmodium vivax.
3. India has set a target to achieve zero indigenous malaria cases by the year 2027.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's core finding. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clearly states there are currently no WHO-recommended vaccines for malaria caused by Plasmodium vivax. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article. Hence, option C is correct.
According to the article, what was the percentage decline in malaria cases reported by India between 2015 and 2023?
- A.78.3%
- B.80.5%✓ Correct Answer
- C.85.0%
- D.90.2%
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Explanation
The article provides specific data: "Between 2015 and 2023, the country reported an 80.5 per cent decline in malaria cases and a 78.3 per cent reduction in malaria-related deaths." The other options are close distractors using the death reduction figure or higher estimates.
What is a key strategic implication of the recent Lancet study on malaria vaccines for India's public health policy?
- A.India should immediately replace all vector control programs with mass vaccination.
- B.India must prioritize research and development for a vaccine against Plasmodium vivax.✓ Correct Answer
- C.India should import and deploy the RTS,S vaccine nationwide as its primary intervention.
- D.India can now declare malaria elimination achieved based on African vaccine success.
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Explanation
The article highlights that the successful vaccines target P. falciparum, but India's dominant and challenging species is P. vivax, for which no vaccine exists. Therefore, the logical implication for India's policy is to boost R&D for a vivax-specific vaccine while maintaining other control measures.
Which state police agency is investigating the alleged NEET-UG 2026 paper leak mentioned in the news?
- A.Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
- B.Rajasthan Special Operations Group (SOG)✓ Correct Answer
- C.National Investigation Agency (NIA)
- D.Delhi Police Special Cell
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Rajasthan's Special Operations Group (SOG) is investigating the National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test (NEET-UG) 2026 for an alleged leak. ADGP Vishal Bansal of the SOG addressed journalists in Jaipur regarding the probe.
Consider the following statements regarding the NEET-UG 2026 probe discussed in the news:
1. The 'guess paper' contained 410 questions, with 120 matching questions from the Physics section.
2. The National Testing Agency (NTA) escalated inputs about alleged malpractice to central agencies on May 8, 2026.
3. The examination was conducted with security measures including AI-assisted CCTV monitoring and GPS-tracked question paper vehicles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The article states that about 120 questions appeared in Chemistry, not Physics. Statement 2 is correct: NTA received inputs on May 7 and escalated them on the morning of May 8. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions AI-assisted CCTV monitoring and GPS-tracked vehicles as part of the security protocol.
According to the news, how many questions from the 'guess paper' are said to have appeared in the NEET-UG 2026 Chemistry section?
- A.100
- B.120✓ Correct Answer
- C.150
- D.410
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Explanation
ADGP Vishal Bansal stated, "There is a 'guess paper' with 410 questions. Of those 410 questions, it is said that about 120 questions appeared in chemistry." The other numbers are distractors: 410 is the total questions in the guess paper, while 100 and 150 are not mentioned.
What is a key challenge mentioned by the SOG in investigating the alleged NEET-UG paper leak, as per the news article?
- A.Lack of cooperation from the National Testing Agency (NTA)
- B.The question paper was not transported using GPS-tracked vehicles
- C.The 'guess paper' was widely shared on public platforms like WhatsApp, making it hard to trace the source✓ Correct Answer
- D.The examination was conducted without biometric verification of candidates
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Explanation
The article quotes ADGP Bansal saying, "since it was in the public domain, it isn't easy to zero in on the source," giving the example of it being shared via WhatsApp and photocopied at e-mitra kiosks. The other options contradict the article, which states NTA is cooperating, security protocols were followed, and biometric verification was in place.
Which constitutional article empowers the Supreme Court to pass orders for doing 'complete justice' in any matter?
- A.Article 136
- B.Article 142✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 32
- D.Article 226
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Explanation
Article 142 of the Constitution grants the Supreme Court the power to make any order necessary for doing complete justice. The article was explicitly invoked by the Supreme Court in this case to suspend the conviction.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's judgment in the Yatin Oza case:
1. The Supreme Court invoked its powers under Article 142 of the Constitution to suspend the conviction.
2. The Court found reasons to interfere with the Gujarat High Court's 2020 conviction order.
3. The High Court's Full Court will undertake a periodic review of Oza's conduct every 3 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the use of Article 142. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court explicitly stated it did not find any reason to interfere with the High Court order. Statement 3 is incorrect; the review interval is every 2 years, not 3 years.
According to the Supreme Court's order, how often will the Full Court of the Gujarat High Court review Yatin Oza's conduct?
- A.Every year
- B.Every 2 years✓ Correct Answer
- C.Every 3 years
- D.Every 5 years
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the Full Court of the High Court shall undertake periodic review of the appellant's conduct at an interval of every 2 years.
What was the primary rationale cited by the Supreme Court for invoking Article 142 in this case, despite upholding the High Court's conviction order?
- A.To overturn the conviction as it was legally flawed.
- B.As a 'final act of forgiveness' to suspend the conviction conditionally.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To transfer the case to a different High Court.
- D.To award compensation to the appellant.
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Explanation
The Supreme Court bench stated that while it did not find reason to interfere with the conviction, it was granting relief in a 'final act of forgiveness' by exercising powers under Article 142.
Which organization has been entrusted with the responsibility for the swift implementation of the seven high-speed rail projects announced in the Budget?
- A.Railway Board
- B.Rail Vikas Nigam Limited
- C.National High-Speed Rail Corporation Limited✓ Correct Answer
- D.Indian Railways Construction Company
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Explanation
The article states that the responsibility for implementing the seven HSR projects has been entrusted to the National High-Speed Rail Corporation Limited (NHSRCL). NHSRCL is the dedicated SPV for high-speed rail projects in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the high-speed rail corridors mentioned in the news:
1. The Delhi-Varanasi bullet train project will reduce travel time between Delhi and Lucknow to 2 hours.
2. The project was announced by the Finance Minister in the Union Budget 2025-26.
3. The Standing Committee on Railways has advised completing land acquisition after the sanctioning of such projects.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the project was announced in the Union Budget 2026-27, not 2025-26. Statement 3 is incorrect; the committee advised completing land acquisition BEFORE sanctioning projects, not after.
According to Railway Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw, what will be the travel time between Delhi and Varanasi once the bullet train becomes operational?
- A.2 hours
- B.3 hours
- C.3 hours 50 minutes✓ Correct Answer
- D.4 hours 30 minutes
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Ashwini Vaishnaw said travel time between Delhi and Varanasi will be reduced to 3 hours and 50 minutes. The 2-hour figure is for Delhi-Lucknow.
What is a key expected outcome of the Delhi-Varanasi bullet train corridor, as highlighted by the Railway Minister?
- A.A significant increase in airfare on competing routes.
- B.The creation of a single economic zone encompassing Varanasi, Patna, and Lucknow.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The immediate closure of several domestic airlines.
- D.A reduction in the number of trains on conventional routes.
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Explanation
The article quotes the Minister saying the Varanasi-Patna and Varanasi-Lucknow regions will become a single economic zone due to the high-speed rail corridor. This is a direct impact mentioned, focusing on regional economic integration.
Which ministry's secretary highlighted the issue of renewable energy curtailment and proposed a 'super grid' model?
- A.Ministry of Power
- B.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- D.NITI Aayog
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions Santosh Kumar Sarangi as the Secretary at the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) who spoke about these issues. MNRE is the nodal ministry for all policies related to new and renewable energy in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the news on renewable energy curtailment:
1. The average daily solar power curtailed in April 2026 was enough to serve one-fourth of Delhi for a day.
2. The government mandate to use domestically manufactured solar cells in clean energy projects came into force from June 2028.
3. To encourage geographically diversified RE development, MNRE is considering incentives for agri-photovoltaic projects.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article which states 23 GWh was curtailed daily, enough for one-fourth of Delhi. Statement 2 is incorrect; the mandate for domestic solar cells started in June 2026 (the current year of the article), while the mandate for wafers and ingots starts in June 2028. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article's section 'Incentive for agri-photovoltaic and floating solar'.
According to the article, what was the average amount of solar power curtailed every day in April 2026?
- A.12 GWh
- B.18 GWh
- C.23 GWh✓ Correct Answer
- D.30 GWh
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Explanation
The article provides the specific data point: "In April, on average 23 gigawatt-hours (GWh) of solar power were curtailed every day." The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned.
What is a primary reason cited in the article for proposing incentive mechanisms for agri-photovoltaic and floating solar projects?
- A.To reduce the cost of solar module manufacturing
- B.To encourage more geographically diversified clean energy development✓ Correct Answer
- C.To replace the existing Green Energy Corridor scheme
- D.To directly address the issue of polysilicon import dependence
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Explanation
The article states that as RE deployment is concentrated in states like Rajasthan and Gujarat, the ministry is considering such incentives "to encourage more geographically diversified clean energy development." The other options relate to different parts of the strategy but are not the primary reason for these specific incentives.
Which constitutional body is responsible for recommending the share of states in the central divisible tax pool, as mentioned in the context of the 16th Finance Commission?
- A.NITI Aayog
- B.Finance Commission✓ Correct Answer
- C.Reserve Bank of India
- D.Inter-State Council
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Explanation
The Finance Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 280 of the Constitution. Its primary mandate includes recommending the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States, which is directly relevant to the news about Kerala's share.
Consider the following statements regarding the fiscal situation of Kerala as discussed in the article:
1. The 16th Finance Commission has recommended revenue deficit grants for the state of Kerala.
2. Kerala's share in the divisible tax pool has decreased according to the latest Finance Commission award.
3. The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) has warned about the risks associated with off-budget borrowings through KIIFB.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) None of the above
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the article clearly states the 16th FC has NOT recommended revenue deficit grants for Kerala. Statement 2 is incorrect as Kerala's share increased from 1.92% to 2.382%. Statement 3 is correct as multiple CAG reports warned about uncontrolled off-budget borrowings landing Kerala in a debt trap.
According to the article, what is the current monthly social welfare pension amount in Kerala and the promised hike by the new UDF government?
- A.Current: ₹1,500; Promised: ₹2,000
- B.Current: ₹2,000; Promised: ₹2,500
- C.Current: ₹2,000; Promised: ₹3,000✓ Correct Answer
- D.Current: ₹2,500; Promised: ₹3,500
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "Currently at ₹2,000, these pensions are paid out to approximately 60 lakh people." It further mentions the UDF's promise to hike it to ₹3,000 as part of its election manifesto.
What is a primary fiscal challenge for Kerala, as highlighted in the article, stemming from the recommendations of the 16th Finance Commission?
- A.A significant reduction in its share of the divisible tax pool.
- B.The imposition of strict conditions on borrowing for infrastructure projects.
- C.An increase in tax devolution share but no recommendation for revenue deficit grants.✓ Correct Answer
- D.A mandate to reduce its spending on salaries and pensions immediately.
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Explanation
The article identifies the mixed outcome of the 16th FC award as a key challenge. While Kerala's share rose to 2.382%, the absence of revenue deficit grants, coupled with the end of GST compensation, creates fiscal stress for a state with high revenue expenditure commitments.
The separate electorate system in India, which is referenced in the article, was first introduced by which of the following reforms?
- A.The Government of India Act, 1858
- B.The Indian Councils Act, 1909 (Morley-Minto Reforms)✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Government of India Act, 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms)
- D.The Government of India Act, 1935
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Explanation
The Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909 introduced a separate electorate for Muslims for the first time. This is a key static GK fact for modern Indian history and is directly mentioned in the article as the historical parallel to current trends.
Consider the following statements regarding the political scenario discussed in the article:
1. According to the article, the ruling alliance in the Assam State Assembly after the 2026 elections has no Muslim MLAs.
2. The article states that the Muslim League won 87% of the Muslim seats in the 1946 provincial elections based on separate electorates.
3. The article argues that for a pluralistic polity, the voice of the Muslim community should come from across the political spectrum, not just one party.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly mentions '0 Muslim MLAs' in the ruling BJP-led dispensation. Statement 2 is correct as the article cites that 'the Muslim League swept the Muslim seats, winning 87% of them' in 1946. Statement 3 is the core argument of the article's conclusion, stating 'Muslims need a voice, but the voice has to come from across the political spectrum, not confined to a single party.'
As per the article's analysis of the 2026 Assam Assembly, what is the total number of Muslim MLAs in the opposition bloc, including allies?
- A.18
- B.19
- C.21
- D.22✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article provides a breakdown: Congress has 19 MLAs (18 Muslims), its ally Raijor Dal has 2 MLAs (1 Muslim), AIUDF has 2 MLAs (both Muslim), and Trinamool Congress has 1 MLA (Muslim). This sums to 22 Muslim MLAs in the opposition space. The other options are partial counts or distractors.
The article uses the term 'political ghettoisation' primarily to refer to which of the following phenomena?
- A.The physical segregation of communities into religious-specific residential colonies.
- B.The concentration of a religious community's political representation almost entirely within one section of the legislature (the opposition).✓ Correct Answer
- C.The policy of a political party to not give tickets to candidates from a particular community.
- D.The historical practice of creating separate electorates for different religious groups.
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Explanation
The article defines 'political ghettoisation' in the context of the Assam results, where Muslim MLAs are found almost exclusively on the opposition benches, creating a segregated legislature. While the other options are related issues mentioned (residential colonies, ticket denial, historical separate electorates), they are not the direct referent for the term 'political ghettoisation' as used in the article's conclusion.
As per the Indian Constitution, who appoints the Governor of a state?
- A.The President of India✓ Correct Answer
- B.The Prime Minister of India
- C.The Chief Minister of the State
- D.The Chief Justice of India
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Explanation
Article 155 of the Constitution states that the Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. This is a fundamental static GK fact related to the office discussed in the article.
Consider the following statements regarding the Governor's role in government formation:
1. The Sarkaria Commission recommended that the Governor should invite the single largest party to form the government.
2. The Governor has the absolute discretion to decide whom to invite to form the government.
3. A Governor can demand proof of majority in the form of signed letters before administering the oath.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the Sarkaria Commission recommendations. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Governor's discretion is not absolute but is bounded by constitutional conventions. Statement 3 is incorrect and is the core criticism in the article; demanding signed letters pre-oath subverts the floor test process.
According to the 2026 Tamil Nadu Assembly election results mentioned in the article, how many seats did the Tamilaga Vettri Kazhagam (TVK) win?
- A.59 seats
- B.108 seats✓ Correct Answer
- C.47 seats
- D.121 seats
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "The Tamilaga Vettri Kazhagam (TVK)... emerged as the single largest party with 108 seats in a House of 234." 59 was DMK's tally, 47 was AIADMK's, and 121 was the final support tally after alliances.
What is the primary constitutional principle at stake when a Governor demands signed letters of support before inviting a party to form the government, as discussed in the article?
- A.Upholding the principle of collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers.
- B.Preserving the Governor's absolute discretionary power under Article 163.
- C.Ensuring the supremacy of the floor test as the true test of majority.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Protecting the financial autonomy of the state legislature.
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Explanation
The article argues that demanding proof before the oath undermines the floor of the House as the legitimate arena for proving majority, which is a fundamental feature of parliamentary democracy. The Governor's action, therefore, challenges this core principle.
Which Indian organisation, mentioned in the article, is expected to co-lead the KIND-X initiative along with South Korea's DAPA?
- A.Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
- B.Defence Innovation Organisation (DIO)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of External Affairs (MEA)
- D.National Security Council Secretariat (NSCS)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that KIND-X is expected to be led by South Korea's Defense Acquisition Program Administration (DAPA) and India's Defence Innovation Organisation (DIO). DRDO was mentioned in the context of a 2010 MoU, not for leading KIND-X.
Consider the following statements regarding India-South Korea defence cooperation:
1. The two countries established diplomatic relations in 1973 and signed their first formal defence agreement in 2005.
2. The partnership was elevated to a 'Special Strategic Partnership' in the year 2010.
3. A successful co-production outcome under the 'Make in India' initiative is the K9 Vajra-T self-propelled artillery system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Relations began in 1973 and the first formal defence MoU was in 2005. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Special Strategic Partnership was elevated in 2015, not 2010. Statement 3 is correct: The K9 Vajra-T is a co-produced artillery system by L&T and Hanwha Aerospace.
According to the article, in which year was the India-South Korea 'Special Strategic Partnership' established?
- A.2005
- B.2010
- C.2015✓ Correct Answer
- D.2020
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Explanation
The article clearly states: "In 2015, the partnership was elevated to a Special Strategic Partnership." The years 2005 and 2010 relate to earlier MoUs, and 2020 is the year of the Defence Industries Cooperation Roadmap.
What is the primary strategic objective behind launching the KIND-X platform, as per the article?
- A.To increase bilateral trade in civilian goods and services.
- B.To create a joint defence innovation and industrial ecosystem for co-development and co-production.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To form a military alliance for joint operations in the Indo-Pacific.
- D.To facilitate the transfer of finished defence equipment from South Korea to India.
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Explanation
The article describes KIND-X as a "defence innovation bridge" aimed at expanding defence R&D, innovation, co-development and co-production by connecting startups, investors, and academia from both countries. It focuses on building a joint ecosystem, not just trade or alliance formation.
The Indian Ocean Dialogue, a 'track 1.5' conference mentioned in the news, was co-hosted by the IORA and which Indian organization?
- A.Ministry of External Affairs
- B.Indian Council of World Affairs (ICWA)✓ Correct Answer
- C.National Maritime Foundation
- D.Institute for Defence Studies and Analyses
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the Indian Ocean Dialogue was co-hosted by the IORA and the Ministry of External Affairs and organised by the Indian Council of World Affairs (ICWA). The ICWA is India's premier think tank on international relations.
Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA):
1. It was established in 1997 and its founding vision included leaders like Nelson Mandela.
2. According to its charter, it can discuss bilateral political disputes between member states during its official deliberations.
3. Pakistan is a member state of IORA, having been admitted in the early 2000s.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions IORA was formed in 1997 with Nelson Mandela among its founders. Statement 2 is incorrect because the IORA charter explicitly excludes 'bilateral and other issues likely to generate controversy'. Statement 3 is incorrect; Pakistan requested membership but was never admitted as it violated the 'sovereign equality' clause by not granting India MFN status.
According to the article, how many member states and dialogue partners does the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) currently have?
- A.21 Member States, 10 Dialogue Partners
- B.22 Member States, 11 Dialogue Partners
- C.23 Member States, 12 Dialogue Partners✓ Correct Answer
- D.24 Member States, 13 Dialogue Partners
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Explanation
The article lists the 23 member states and explicitly states the association is supported by 12 dialogue partners. This is a factual data point crucial for Prelims.
What is the primary reason, as per the IORA Secretary-General, that maritime safety and security have become of 'primordial importance' for Indian Ocean Region countries?
- A.The need to counter piracy and illegal fishing by non-state actors.
- B.The direct impact on energy security, food security, and livelihoods due to regional conflicts.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The requirement to implement new international laws like UNCLOS.
- D.The strategic competition between India and China for naval dominance.
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Explanation
The article quotes the Secretary-General stating that the contemporary situation (the West Asia war) has increased the realization that maritime safety and security are primordial for 'our energy security, our food security, [and] many livelihoods'. The other options, while relevant to maritime security in general, are not the specific reason highlighted in the context of this news.
Which statutory body under the Ministry of Power is responsible for formulating and implementing the CAFE norms mentioned in the article?
- A.Central Electricity Authority
- B.Bureau of Energy Efficiency✓ Correct Answer
- C.National Thermal Power Corporation
- D.Power Grid Corporation of India
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Explanation
The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) is the statutory body established under the Energy Conservation Act, 2001, and is responsible for energy efficiency policies including the Corporate Average Fuel Economy (CAFE) norms for vehicles, as mentioned in the article.
Consider the following statements regarding the policy developments discussed in the article:
1. Delhi's draft EV Policy 2.0 proposes to stop new registrations of ICE three-wheelers from January 2027.
2. The revised draft of CAFE-3 norms continues to offer super-credit multipliers for strong hybrid and plug-in hybrid vehicles.
3. Trucks constitute about 44% of India's total vehicle fleet but contribute only 3% of transport emissions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the plan to stop new ICE three-wheeler registrations from January 2027. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions the continued use of super-credit multipliers for hybrid technologies in the CAFE-3 draft. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states trucks account for only 3% of the vehicle fleet but contribute around 44% of transport emissions.
According to the article, what is the approximate current penetration of electric vehicles in India's passenger car segment?
- A.Around 2%
- B.Around 4%✓ Correct Answer
- C.Around 6%
- D.Around 8%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that passenger cars are a weak link in India's electrification story, with EV penetration at only around 4 per cent. This is a key data point highlighting the challenge in this segment.
What is the primary strategic shift highlighted in Delhi's draft EV Policy 2.0, according to the article?
- A.Increasing the subsidy amount for electric vehicle purchases
- B.Focusing exclusively on building charging infrastructure
- C.Moving from incentive-based subsidies to clear regulatory phase-out timelines✓ Correct Answer
- D.Promoting hybrid vehicles as an interim solution before full electrification
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Explanation
The article emphasizes that Delhi's policy moves beyond incentives and establishes a clear regulatory direction by proposing bans on new ICE vehicles. This shift aims to provide certainty to industry and consumers, driving sustained adoption, unlike the previous reliance on subsidies.
Which body's reports have consistently highlighted India's low judge-population ratio, as mentioned in the article?
- A.NITI Aayog
- B.Finance Commission
- C.Law Commission of India✓ Correct Answer
- D.Supreme Court Collegium
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'Successive Law Commission reports have highlighted that India’s judge-population ratio... remains far below...' This body is tasked with legal reforms and its recommendations are often cited in judicial discourse.
Consider the following statements regarding judicial pendency in India:
1. Pending cases in the Supreme Court constitute over 10% of the total pendency across all courts.
2. The Union Cabinet has approved a Bill to increase the strength of the Supreme Court from 34 to 38 judges.
3. India's judge-population ratio is roughly 150 judges per million people.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states SC pendency accounts for only about 0.14% of total pendency. Statement 2 is correct as per the news. Statement 3 is incorrect; India's ratio is 19 per million, while 150 is the figure for countries like the US and China.
According to the National Judicial Data Grid (as of May 7 cited in the article), what is the approximate number of pending cases before the Supreme Court of India?
- A.Over 50,000
- B.Over 75,000
- C.Over 93,000✓ Correct Answer
- D.Over 1,10,000
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Explanation
The article provides the specific data point: 'According to the National Judicial Data Grid, as of May 7, the Supreme Court is burdened with over 93,000 pending cases.' The other options are plausible distractors but not the exact figure mentioned.
As per the arguments in the article, what is the primary limitation of merely increasing the number of Supreme Court judges to tackle judicial backlog?
- A.It reduces the quality of judgments delivered.
- B.It addresses only 0.14% of the total pendency, ignoring the crisis in district and high courts.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It is unconstitutional without a constitutional amendment.
- D.It leads to conflicts within the Supreme Court Collegium.
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Explanation
The article's core argument is that SC pendency is a tiny fraction (0.14%) of the total pendency, with 88% in district courts and 12% in high courts. Therefore, a top-down approach focusing only on the SC is unsustainable without comprehensive lower judiciary reforms.
Ram Singh, quoted in the article, is an external member of the RBI's Monetary Policy Committee (MPC). Who appoints the external members of the MPC?
- A.The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India
- B.The Central Government✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- D.A committee of the Central Board of the RBI
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Explanation
As per the amended RBI Act, the three external members of the six-member Monetary Policy Committee are appointed by the Central Government. The other three members are from the RBI, including the Governor.
Consider the following statements regarding the arguments made by RBI MPC's Ram Singh in the article:
1. He states that India's potential growth rate is at least 8%, citing low inflation and healthy corporate balance sheets as evidence.
2. He argues that the need to raise foreign deposits via schemes like FCNR(B) is higher today because US interest rates are significantly lower than in 2013.
3. He highlights that India's foreign exchange reserves are currently around three times the level they were in 2013.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article where Singh states, "This shows our potential growth rate is at least 8%." Statement 2 is incorrect; he argues the opposite, stating US rates are higher now (4.4% vs near 0% in 2013), making foreign deposits costly. Statement 3 is directly quoted: "Our forex reserves today are around three times compared to 2013."
According to RBI MPC member Ram Singh, what is the RBI's inflation forecast for the financial year 2026-27 (FY27), as mentioned in the article?
- A.3.4%
- B.4.0%
- C.4.6%✓ Correct Answer
- D.5.2%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "CPI inflation is forecast at 4.6% for FY27, comfortably within the tolerance band." Option A (3.4%) is the March inflation figure mentioned. Option D (5.2%) is the forecast for the third quarter of 2026-27.
What is the primary reason cited by Ram Singh for NOT recommending a revival of the FCNR(B)-like deposit scheme in the current context?
- A.Lack of interest from Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) in such schemes.
- B.High cost of raising foreign deposits due to elevated US interest rates.✓ Correct Answer
- C.A directive from the International Monetary Fund (IMF) against such measures.
- D.The scheme's incompatibility with India's new bilateral trade agreements.
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Explanation
Singh's core argument is the changed global interest rate environment. He states, "In 2013, US interest rates were near 0% whereas today US yields are significantly higher at 4.4%, making it costly for us to raise capital from abroad." This economic rationale is central to his view against such a scheme.
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What are the important current affairs questions for 11 May 2026?▼
This page contains 152 current affairs questions from 11 May 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
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All Questions in This Set
- Q1. The Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2026, proposing women…
- Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the women's reserv…
- Q3. According to the article, what is the approximate current perc…
- Q4. is a key argument presented in the article against using delim…
- Q5. According to the article, which ministry is primarily engaged …
- Q6. Consider the following statements regarding India's push for d…
- Q7. According to the article, what is the approximate cost range m…
- Q8. is a key reason cited in the article for India's push to devel…
- Q9. ministry issued the notification for the implementation of the…
- Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the VB-G RAM G Act…
- Q11. According to the notification, from which date will the MGNREG…
- Q12. is a key fiscal implication for state governments due to the t…
- Q13. The World Press Freedom Index 2026, which ranked India 157th, …
- Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the National Crime…
- Q15. According to the Union Cabinet approval, what is the total fin…
- Q16. is the primary significance of the 'ANEEL' fuel developed by C…
- Q17. ministry is responsible for the implementation of the VB-G RAM…
- Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the transition fro…
- Q19. From which date is the Viksit Bharat - Guarantee for Rozgar an…
- Q20. is the primary institutional unit emphasized as the 'central p…
- Q21. The Responsible Nations Index (RNI), in which India ranked 16t…
- Q22. Consider the following statements regarding reports and indice…
- Q23. According to the Global Peace Index (GPI) 2025, which country …
- Q24. is the primary utility of reports like the Global Risks Report…
- Q25. The 'Su Sahay' AI chatbot, recently launched for the Supreme C…
- Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the digital initia…
- Q27. On which date did Chief Justice of India Surya Kant announce t…
- Q28. is the primary objective of the 'One Case One Data' initiative…
- Q29. ministry is primarily responsible for the 'Women-Friendly Gram…
- Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the news article: …
- Q31. According to the article, how many gram panchayats formally re…
- Q32. is a key finding of the peer-reviewed study mentioned in the a…
- Q33. ministry is responsible for the capex utilisation and new corr…
- Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. Indi…
- Q35. According to the Union Minister, what is the projected travel …
- Q36. is the primary strategic objective behind developing the new h…
- Q37. United Nations body provided the estimates of economic losses …
- Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the energy shock i…
- Q39. According to the article, what is the approximate contribution…
- Q40. is the primary reason the energy shock from the Iran war is de…
- Q41. The article discusses the loss of natural cooling systems in D…
- Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the Urban Heat Isl…
- Q43. According to the article, what is the estimated annual economi…
- Q44. is identified in the article as a critical structural measure …
- Q45. institution is responsible for managing India's foreign exchan…
- Q46. Consider the following statements regarding India's import sce…
- Q47. According to the article, what percentage of India's total for…
- Q48. is the primary economic rationale behind the appeal to reduce …
- Q49. The Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) also serves as the Secretary …
- Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the appointment of…
- Q51. According to the article, on which date is Lt Gen N S Raja Sub…
- Q52. is a primary concern raised in the article regarding the recen…
- Q53. government think tank released the 'Education Quality Report 2…
- Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the NITI Aayog Edu…
- Q55. According to the NITI Aayog report cited by the Punjab Educati…
- Q56. is the primary significance of Punjab surpassing Kerala in the…
- Q57. The state visit mentioned in the news is happening at the invi…
- Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the US President's…
- Q59. According to the news article, what was the year of the last v…
- Q60. is the primary strategic concern for Taiwan as mentioned in th…
- Q61. Under which ministry did the Allahabad High Court direct the U…
- Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the directions iss…
- Q63. According to the Allahabad High Court order, how many Forensic…
- Q64. is the primary objective behind the Allahabad High Court's dir…
- Q65. The recent Karnataka High Court judgment interpreted provision…
- Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the Karnataka High…
- Q67. In the case decided by the Karnataka High Court, during which …
- Q68. was the primary legal implication of the Karnataka High Court'…
- Q69. The Election Commission of India (ECI) is established under wh…
- Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the news on electo…
- Q71. According to the article, approximately how many appeals were …
- Q72. is the primary purpose of the proposed AI-enabled oversight la…
- Q73. According to the news, which ministry has been tasked by the S…
- Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
- Q75. On which date did the Supreme Court proceedings, as reported i…
- Q76. was a primary concern raised in the petition regarding unregis…
- Q77. The development of the Great Nicobar Island project, involving…
- Q78. Consider the following statements regarding developments menti…
- Q79. As per the article, what approximate amount does India spend o…
- Q80. is a primary strategic rationale behind the Indian defence est…
- Q81. institution in India is primarily responsible for managing the…
- Q82. Consider the following statements regarding India's Balance of…
- Q83. According to the article, PM Modi urged citizens to cut back t…
- Q84. is a primary criticism, as per the article, of focusing solely…
- Q85. ministry is primarily responsible for the policy oversight of …
- Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the fuel pricing s…
- Q87. According to the government source cited in the article, what …
- Q88. is the primary rationale, as described in the article, for the…
- Q89. At which industry body's summit did Shaktikanta Das present th…
- Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the strategies out…
- Q91. According to the speech, what was India's average annual GDP g…
- Q92. is the primary objective behind the strategy advising Indian c…
- Q93. The article mentions the writer is the former chairman of whic…
- Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Horm…
- Q95. According to the article, what is the estimated daily loss to …
- Q96. is the primary argument presented in the article regarding Ind…
- Q97. nodal think tank of the Government of India estimated the etha…
- Q98. Consider the following statements regarding India's ethanol bl…
- Q99. According to the article, what was the approximate quantity of…
- Q100. is identified in the article as the most critical priority to …
- Q101. international organization recommended the use of the RTS,S/AS…
- Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the malaria vaccin…
- Q103. According to the article, what was the percentage decline in m…
- Q104. is a key strategic implication of the recent Lancet study on m…
- Q105. state police agency is investigating the alleged NEET-UG 2026 …
- Q106. Consider the following statements regarding the NEET-UG 2026 p…
- Q107. According to the news, how many questions from the 'guess pape…
- Q108. is a key challenge mentioned by the SOG in investigating the a…
- Q109. constitutional article empowers the Supreme Court to pass orde…
- Q110. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
- Q111. According to the Supreme Court's order, how often will the Ful…
- Q112. was the primary rationale cited by the Supreme Court for invok…
- Q113. organization has been entrusted with the responsibility for th…
- Q114. Consider the following statements regarding the high-speed rai…
- Q115. According to Railway Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw, what will be t…
- Q116. is a key expected outcome of the Delhi-Varanasi bullet train c…
- Q117. ministry's secretary highlighted the issue of renewable energy…
- Q118. Consider the following statements regarding the news on renewa…
- Q119. According to the article, what was the average amount of solar…
- Q120. is a primary reason cited in the article for proposing incenti…
- Q121. constitutional body is responsible for recommending the share …
- Q122. Consider the following statements regarding the fiscal situati…
- Q123. According to the article, what is the current monthly social w…
- Q124. is a primary fiscal challenge for Kerala, as highlighted in th…
- Q125. The separate electorate system in India, which is referenced i…
- Q126. Consider the following statements regarding the political scen…
- Q127. As per the article's analysis of the 2026 Assam Assembly, what…
- Q128. The article uses the term 'political ghettoisation' primarily …
- Q129. As per the Indian Constitution, who appoints the Governor of a…
- Q130. Consider the following statements regarding the Governor's rol…
- Q131. According to the 2026 Tamil Nadu Assembly election results men…
- Q132. is the primary constitutional principle at stake when a Govern…
- Q133. Indian organisation, mentioned in the article, is expected to …
- Q134. Consider the following statements regarding India-South Korea …
- Q135. According to the article, in which year was the India-South Ko…
- Q136. is the primary strategic objective behind launching the KIND-X…
- Q137. The Indian Ocean Dialogue, a 'track 1.5' conference mentioned …
- Q138. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Ocean R…
- Q139. According to the article, how many member states and dialogue …
- Q140. is the primary reason, as per the IORA Secretary-General, that…
- Q141. statutory body under the Ministry of Power is responsible for …
- Q142. Consider the following statements regarding the policy develop…
- Q143. According to the article, what is the approximate current pene…
- Q144. is the primary strategic shift highlighted in Delhi's draft EV…
- Q145. body's reports have consistently highlighted India's low judge…
- Q146. Consider the following statements regarding judicial pendency …
- Q147. According to the National Judicial Data Grid (as of May 7 cite…
- Q148. As per the arguments in the article, what is the primary limit…
- Q149. Ram Singh, quoted in the article, is an external member of the…
- Q150. Consider the following statements regarding the arguments made…
- Q151. According to RBI MPC member Ram Singh, what is the RBI's infla…
- Q152. is the primary reason cited by Ram Singh for NOT recommending …