12 May 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

As discussed in the article, Article 25(2)(b) specifically empowers the State to make laws providing for social welfare and reform or for throwing open Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus. Article 25(1) guarantees freedom of conscience, Article 26(b) gives denominations the right to manage religious affairs, and Article 29(2) deals with admission to educational institutions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article clearly states the key question is the interplay between rights under Articles 25 and 26. Statement 2 is incorrect because the counsel for Kerala, Senior Advocate Jaideep Gupta, argued the opposite: that Article 25(2)(b) creates a separate compartment, making it clear that such state action is "not necessarily trespassing upon protected religious rights." Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions CJI Surya Kant presiding over the bench.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the bench is considering questions arising from petitions seeking review of the SC's "September 28, 2018" judgment. The other dates are close distractors related to other judicial events or the timeline of the review process.

Explanation

The article quotes Justice Nagarathna saying, "in the name of reform, you cannot violate what is guaranteed under Article 25(1)... cannot hollow out religion." This captures her concern that unrestrained use of the social reform power could erode the core of religious freedom. The other options are not supported by the article's content.

Explanation

The Chief Economic Advisor (CEA) is a senior economic advisor to the Government of India and is positioned within the Department of Economic Affairs, which falls under the Ministry of Finance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; FPIs have EXITED to the tune of $23 billion, not invested. Statement 3 is a direct quote from the CEA, making it correct. Hence, both 1 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'since the start of the US and Israel’s attack on Iran, Brent crude futures prices were up 51%'. Urea and ammonia were up 65%, and butane was up 51%.

Explanation

The article states these austerity measures 'would help save the country’s foreign exchange reserves as most of these activities and purchases require import.' The core objective is to reduce pressure on forex reserves, which are crucial for managing the exchange rate and BoP.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that former foreign secretary Shyam Saran is the originator of the term 'strategic autonomy' in Indian discourse.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states India has rejected any border deal conceding these areas. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article clearly says India has 'never condemned Russia' for the invasion. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states India has 'rejected any US-led containment of China' and that its record on containment is 'mixed' due to Quad participation, not that Quad is an example of rejection.

Explanation

The article lists China's three key demands as: 1) Abide by One China Policy, 2) Settle border by conceding Aksai Chin and Arunachal Pradesh, and 3) Reject a US-led containment structure. A demand to 'join a China-led security architecture' is not mentioned.

Explanation

The article states that supporters argue multi-alignment means 'balanced relations with bigger powers and not giving offence to them except when its security and welfare are directly threatened. As a result, India is free to focus on its internal economic development.'

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions Vietnam's position as an 'Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) manufacturing powerhouse'. ASEAN is the primary regional organization for Southeast Asia.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. Relations were elevated to an 'Enhanced Comprehensive Strategic Partnership'. The 'Comprehensive Strategic Partnership' was established earlier in 2016. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's analysis of the shift in defence cooperation. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states bilateral trade has crossed $16 billion, not $20 billion.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'Bilateral trade has crossed $16 billion, with an ambitious target of $25 billion by 2030'. The other figures are distractors: $16bn is the current volume, while $20bn and $30bn are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the partnership 'forms an important component of minilateral balancing in the Indo-Pacific' and contributes to a wider network fighting to maintain a 'rules-based maritime order'. The other options introduce entities (EU, Pakistan) or objectives (replacing US) not mentioned or implied in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Supreme Court undertook a detailed analysis of Sections 3(1)(r) and 3(1)(s) of the SC/ST Act. These sections pertain to intentional insult/intimidation and casteist abuse, respectively, when done 'in any place within public view'.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Court held the requirement is 'not incidental but a mandatory ingredient'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Court noted 'even a private place could qualify as being within public view if members of the public could witness the occurrence'. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the Supreme Court 'set aside the Delhi High Court judgment, the trial court’s orders framing charges, and quashed the FIR, the chargesheet, and all consequential proceedings.'

Explanation

The article explicitly states, 'the Supreme Court said on May 11, 2026...'. The other dates are related to the case: August 22, 2024 (High Court judgment), January 30, 2021 (FIR registration), and November 2022 (framing of charges by sessions judge).

Explanation

The judgment clarified that the offence requires the incident to occur in a place within public view, which is a mandatory ingredient. By quashing proceedings where the alleged abuse happened inside a private residence without public presence, the Court effectively narrowed the circumstances under which Sections 3(1)(r) and 3(1)(s) can be invoked, raising the threshold for prosecution.

Explanation

Schedule VII contains the Union, State, and Concurrent Lists. Labour is listed in the Concurrent List (Entries 22-24), as mentioned in the article's context that labour is a Concurrent subject. This allows both Parliament and State Legislatures to make laws on labour matters.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the Social Security Rules, 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect: the floor wage is a baseline or floor, not a ceiling; states must set minimum wages above it. Statement 3 is correct as per the amended definition in the Industrial Relations Code to discourage flash strikes. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that companies with up to 300 employees no longer need government permission to fire workers (retrenchment/layoff), easing the previous limit of 100 employees. This is a key change in the Industrial Relations Code aimed at providing flexibility to employers.

Explanation

As stated in the article, the codes seek to 'ease regulatory and compliance requirements for employers and ensure uniformity in wage structures and social security protections for workers.' This is the core reform objective, balancing simplification for businesses with protection for workers.

Explanation

As per the article, the CPI data for April 2026 was released by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). MoSPI is the nodal agency for official statistics in India, including price indices.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as CPI inflation was 3.48% (below the 4% target). Statement 2 is correct as restaurant inflation was 4.2%. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states the MPC left the repo rate unchanged at 5.25% in its last meeting.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the RBI has forecast CPI inflation to average 4.6% in FY27. 3.48% is the April 2026 figure, 4.0% is the RBI's target, and 5.2% is the forecast for the October-December 2026 quarter.

Explanation

The article quotes ANZ economists stating that the 4.2% inflation in this category reflects 'the impact of higher commercial LPG prices and shortages impacting menu prices at eateries'. The other options are not mentioned.

Explanation

The right to a speedy trial is a judicially recognized facet of Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty) of the Constitution. The Supreme Court, in cases like Hussainara Khatoon (1979), has held that unreasonable delay in trial violates this fundamental right.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the FIR was registered in 1989 and pending since 1991 under IPC and Railways Act. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court's observation was the opposite – it stated 'No court bothers to follow the guidelines' due to a lack of accountability. Statement 3 is correct; the Court's power to pass orders for complete justice is derived from Article 142.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the case was pending trial for 35 years. The FIR was registered in 1989 and the trial was pending since 1991. The Supreme Court's order in 2026 marks a delay of 35 years from the start of the trial proceedings.

Explanation

The Supreme Court explicitly stated, 'No court bothers to follow the guidelines. They do not follow because there is no accountability. No one is made answerable for the same.' This highlights a systemic issue where directives are issued but not enforced due to the lack of mechanisms to hold courts accountable for delays.

Explanation

The Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, which conducts the decadal Census of India, functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs. This is a key static GK fact for Polity and Governance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the first-time introduction of the Self Enumeration portal. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states the Census will be conducted digitally in 16 languages, including Gujarati, not just English and Hindi. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly mentions data confidentiality under the Census Act, 1948, and that it cannot be used for legal or tax purposes.

Explanation

The article clearly states that among the set of 33 questions to be asked during the House Listing Operations (HLO), four are new. The other options are close distractors. Remembering the exact count of 33 questions is a direct factual takeaway.

Explanation

As per the Director of Census in the article, the citizen-centric initiative of self-enumeration aims to promote digital participation, accuracy, and ease in Census operations. While it may indirectly reduce manual work, the stated primary objective is centered on citizen engagement and operational efficiency.

Explanation

The 'One-China Policy' asserts that there is only one China, and the People's Republic of China (PRC) is its sole legitimate government. Countries adhering to this policy establish diplomatic ties with Beijing, not Taipei.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the Taiwan Relations Act. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Six Assurances pledged not to alter the Taiwan Relations Act, not about formal recognition of sovereignty. Statement 3 is correct as the 1996 election led to Chinese missile tests and a U.S. carrier deployment.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that in December 2025, the Trump administration approved arms sales of $11 billion to Taiwan, describing it as 'the largest ever'. The other figures are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

The article specifies that China's most extensive war games in December 2025 were 'aimed at showcasing Beijing's ability to cut off outside support in a conflict'. This aligns with China's strategy of 'deterrence by denial' against U.S. intervention.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the court was 'exercising jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution of India in matters touching elections'. Article 32 is for Supreme Court writs for fundamental rights. Article 329 deals with bar to interference by courts in electoral matters. Article 142 is the Supreme Court's enforcement decree power.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the court clarified, 'We are not, at this stage, declaring the election...void.' Statement 2 is correct as per the interim injunction order. Statement 3 is correct as the core allegation was about a postal ballot from Tiruppattur being dealt with by authorities of another constituency.

Explanation

The article states the candidate 'won the Tamil Nadu Assembly elections from Tiruppattur district by one vote'. This narrow margin is the central fact triggering the legal scrutiny over each vote's handling.

Explanation

The court remarked that if the MLA participates and his vote becomes decisive, 'the consequence may travel far beyond the constituency and affect the constitutional governance of the state.' The other options are incorrect: the court did not declare the election void (A), did not seat the petitioner (B), and the order itself is an interim measure pending scrutiny, not about expediting petitions (D).

Explanation

The article explicitly states the analysis was released by NITI Aayog. NCERT is involved in curriculum, CBSE is an examination board, and the Planning Commission was replaced by NITI Aayog.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article (26.95 crore to 24.69 crore). Statement 2 is incorrect; GER at higher secondary is 58.4%, not above 90%. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the RTE Act guarantee up to age 14.

Explanation

The article specifically states the GER at the secondary level is 78.7%. 58.4% is the GER for higher secondary, while over 90% is for primary and upper primary levels.

Explanation

The analysis notes that the RTE Act guarantees free education only up to age 14 (Class 8). Beyond this, the financial burden falls on households, leading to dropout among low-income families. Other options are not mentioned as primary reasons.

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is India's central bank and the apex monetary authority. It compiles and releases balance of payments data, including the Current Account Deficit (CAD), and formulates the rules governing the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) for resident individuals.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'forex reserves plummeting by $38 billion in just two months since the onset of the West Asia conflict'. Statement 2 is correct: 'outflow under LRS for foreign travel accounted for $15 billion or 57 per cent of the total $26.34 billion LRS in the first 11 months of 2025-26'. Statement 3 is incorrect; the GMS is discussed as a proposal by the Gem and Jewellery Council chairman, not as a newly launched scheme in 2026.

Explanation

The article states: 'Gold imports rose 24 per cent to a record $71.98 billion in 2025-26.' Option D ($72 billion) is a close distractor, but the precise figure mentioned is $71.98 billion. The other figures are from previous years: $35 billion (2022-23) and $45.54 billion (2023-24).

Explanation

The article links the austerity call directly to external sector pressures: dipping forex reserves, high gold and crude oil imports, and significant outflows under LRS. The PM urged citizens to cut spending on petroleum and gold to 'help reduce the import burden and conserve valuable forex reserves'. Other options, while related to economic management, are not the central focus of this specific appeal.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions Indian Oil, Bharat Petroleum and Hindustan Petroleum as the oil companies with estimated under-recoveries. Indian Oil Corporation (IOC) is a central public sector undertaking under the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the PM's plea mentioned in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states 'retail prices of petrol and diesel have remained unchanged' with the government absorbing the shock. Statement 3 is correct as the article specifies under-recoveries are on 'petrol, diesel and cooking oil'.

Explanation

The article clearly states that 'gold imports were at $71.9 billion' for 2025-26. $173 billion is the petroleum import figure, $95.2 is the rupee-dollar rate (not an import value), and $100.5 billion is a distractor.

Explanation

The article states the government 'raised export levies on diesel and aviation fuel to ensure supplies in the domestic market.' This is a supply management tool to discourage exports when domestic availability is a concern, not primarily for revenue or price alignment.

Explanation

Article 253 empowers Parliament to make laws for implementing international treaties and agreements, even on matters enumerated in the State List. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, was enacted under this power to implement obligations from the 1972 Stockholm Declaration.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the 2026 Rules were notified under the EPA, 1986, and supersede the 2016 Rules. Statement 2 is incorrect; the criticism is that the rules DISREGARD the principle of subsidiarity. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the extension of rules to rural local bodies and the MRF-linked architecture.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2026, were 'brought into effect from April 1, 2026'. December 14, 2024, was the date the draft rules were published, and May 12, 2026, is the article's publication date.

Explanation

The article argues that the requirement for reporting to the CPCB via a centralised portal makes States and local bodies 'data suppliers rather than co-owners of the governance system', shifting focus from service delivery to upward compliance reporting.

Explanation

The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) is a road construction executive force under the Ministry of Defence. It is primarily responsible for developing and maintaining road networks in India's border areas.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article cites overloaded trucks and weakened bearings as the main reasons for Vikramshila's deterioration, while design flaws were identified for the Aguwani-Sultanganj bridge. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned explicitly.

Explanation

The article states that Bihar saw at least 15 bridge collapse incidents just between 2022 and 2024. The number 10 refers to collapses in 2024 alone, making it a close distractor.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that after 10 bridge collapse incidents in 2024 itself, the state government implemented the new Bridge Maintenance Policy. The Vikramshila collapse happened later, in 2026.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The International Criminal Court has issued an arrest warrant for Russian President Vladimir Putin for war crimes, accusing him of personal responsibility for the abductions.' The ICC prosecutes individuals for international crimes.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article says 'Over 130 people and "entities" are now under EU travel bans and asset freezes over the abductions.' This implies the sanctions are related to the abductions, but the word 'solely' makes it an absolute claim not verified by the text. Statement 3 is correct as the sanctions were endorsed at a meeting with EU counterparts in Brussels.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'Around 2,200 children have been returned...' The other options are distractors: 'About 20,500' is the total number deported, while 5,000 and 10,000 are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article states the meeting was 'to increase diplomatic pressure on Russia and rally support for work to verify and trace those who are taken.' The other options, like drafting a UN resolution or establishing a tribunal, are plausible actions but are not mentioned as the primary objective of this specific meeting.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Vice Admiral Krishna Swaminathan is the Flag Officer Commanding-in-Chief of the Western Naval Command. This is a direct factual recall from the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the article says the Indian Ocean is 'more contested... than ever before'. Statement 2 is correct, quoting the Navy as 'an operational navy deployed continuously'. Statement 3 is correct, directly quoting that 'Indigenous manufacturing has now become the gold standard of government procurement'.

Explanation

The article clearly mentions the statement was made on Monday, May 11, 2026, at a conference. May 12 is the publication date of the news article, not the event date.

Explanation

The article states the conference was on 'Atmanirbharta in Defence – Opportunities for MSMEs', organised by the Bramha Research Foundation and the Indian Navy. This is the central theme around which the discussions on indigenous manufacturing and MSME roles were built.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the RATIONS trial was 'ICMR-backed'. ICMR is the apex body in India for biomedical research.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 28.6% of adult TB episodes could have been avoided. Statement 2 is correct: undernutrition is defined as BMI below 18.5. Statement 3 is incorrect: the RATIONS trial showed a 49% reduction, not 40%.

Explanation

Prof Pete Dodd states the study amounts to "approximately 7,12,000 adult TB episodes in 2023". The 1.4 million and 2.3 million figures refer to global estimates.

Explanation

Dr Soumya Swaminathan and Dr Anurag Bhargava argue for strengthening the PDS (quality and quantity, including protein-rich pulses) as a key TB prevention strategy, moving beyond a purely medical approach.

Explanation

As per the article, the evaluation study was commissioned by the Union Ministry of Rural Development, which is the nodal ministry for the NSAP scheme. The Ministry of Social Justice handles other disability and empowerment schemes.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: NSAP was launched in 1995. Statement 2 is correct: The pension amounts were revised to ₹200-500 in 2012 and have not been revised since. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Annapurna Scheme provides 10 kg of food grains per month, not a cash pension of ₹500.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that inflation has reduced the real value of these cash transfers by around 45 per cent. The study calculates that ₹200 in 2012 would need to be ₹353 today, indicating this level of erosion.

Explanation

The study's key recommendation is to create a National Floor Pension (NFP) on the lines of the National Floor Level Minimum Wage, which should be linked to the CPI for automatic inflation adjustment. This is directly mentioned as the proposed solution to preserve purchasing power.

Explanation

As stated in the article, May 3 was proclaimed World Press Freedom Day by the UN General Assembly, anchored in the 1991 Windhoek Declaration where journalists from 38 African countries asserted a free press.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article describes the erosion as 'procedural', using tools like SLAPPs. Statement 2 is incorrect: UNESCO tracks a 'compounding slope' of ~5% annual rise, not a 'sharp spike'. Statement 3 is correct: Research from the U.S. and U.K. shows local news deserts correlate with these outcomes.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'UNESCO tracks the rise of self-censorship at roughly 5% annually between 2012 and 2024'. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned.

Explanation

The article argues that the more urgent frame is 'function'. It states that investigative journalism acts as an early-warning system, and when it is suppressed, governments lose that sensor, creating an 'anticipatory governance deficit' where policy failures become disasters.

Explanation

The National Testing Agency (NTA) is an autonomous body established by the Government of India that operates under the Ministry of Education (formerly Ministry of Human Resource Development). It is responsible for conducting entrance exams like NEET, JEE, and UGC-NET.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the exam was cancelled over irregularities and the probe is with the CBI. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article clearly states that registration data will be carried forward and no additional fee will be charged. Statement 3 is incorrect: NEET was introduced in 2013, though it was struck down and later revived in 2016.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "The cancellation of NEET-UG 2026 has left over 22 lakh medical aspirants and their families anxious..." The other options are close distractors based on common estimates for such exams.

Explanation

The article quotes the NTA stating the decision was taken "in the interest of students and in recognition of the trust on which the national examination system rests." It further states that letting the exam stand would cause "greater and more lasting damage to public trust." The other options are not mentioned as primary reasons.

Explanation

The Chief Economic Advisor heads the Economic Division within the Department of Economic Affairs (DEA) under the Ministry of Finance. The DEA is responsible for economic policy, including trade and foreign investment.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article where CEA Nageswaran asserted that FTAs create value at implementation. Statement 2 is also correct as he used the phrase 'most concentrated burst of trade diplomacy'. Statement 3 is incorrect; the EU Ambassador actually made similar points about compliance issues, not disagreed.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India has entered into 'nine trade agreements and comprehensive economic partnerships' in the last five years. This factual data point is a direct target for Prelims-style questions.

Explanation

Both officials warned that if administrative procedures like customs clearance or conformity assessments are too burdensome, businesses may find that compliance costs outweigh the benefits of the lower tariffs promised in the FTA, causing the agreement's potential to be lost.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that emissions from international flights are currently covered by a separate United Nations scheme known as CORSIA. It requires airlines to buy CO2 offsets but does not mandate outright emission reductions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the scheme 'only imposes carbon costs on flights within Europe'. Statement 2 is correct as it mentions the US opposed a previous EU attempt in 2011. Statement 3 is correct as the article describes the ETS as capping permits to steer industries towards climate targets, which is the core of a cap-and-trade system.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that the United States 'opposed a previous EU attempt to expand its carbon market to cover international flights in 2011.' The other years are not mentioned in the context of this opposition.

Explanation

The article directly quotes the senior official, Mr. Polona Gregorin, stating that 'The change would aim to ensure equal treatment between routes for all operators.' The other options are interpretations or potential outcomes not stated as the primary objective.

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank mandated with the task of inflation targeting in India, using the Consumer Price Index (CPI) data mentioned in the article to guide its monetary policy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states CPI inflation was 3.48%, a 13-month high. Statement 2 is incorrect because inflation in the transport sector was -0.01%, not 0.5%; while goods transport costs rose by 7.6%, the overall sector inflation turned negative. Statement 3 is correct as restaurant services inflation quickened to 4.2% from 2.9%.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that inflation in the food and beverages category climbed to 4% in April 2026 from 3.7% in March. Option B (3.7%) is the previous month's figure, and D (4.2%) is the inflation for restaurant services.

Explanation

The article quotes economist Upasna Bhardwaj stating that the 'outlook remains clouded with upside risks amid supply side disruptions from geopolitics and El Nino.' The other options are not mentioned as primary risks in the given content.

Explanation

The article states the decision was made at a meeting in Brussels of the 27-nation bloc's Foreign Ministers. This is the Foreign Affairs Council configuration of the Council of the European Union, which handles the EU's Common Foreign and Security Policy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clearly states EU diplomats 'failed to agree on stronger actions... like banning products from Israeli settlements'. Statement 3 is correct as it directly quotes EU foreign policy chief Kaja Kallas.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The European Union reached a unanimous political agreement on Monday (May 11, 2026) to issue new sanctions...'. May 12 is the publication date, not the decision date.

Explanation

The article shows the EU took action (sanctions) against entities involved in 'violent colonisation', upholding a principle. However, it stopped short of more impactful economic measures (product ban), indicating a compromise due to lack of full consensus among member states, thus balancing principle with pragmatism.

Explanation

As per the article, the National Testing Agency (NTA) conducts the NEET-UG exam. It began conducting the exam in 2019, taking over from the CBSE. The UGC and MCI are regulatory bodies, not exam conductors.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states this is the first full cancellation. Statement 2 is incorrect; the NTA cancelled the exam based on agency inputs, there is no mention of a Supreme Court order for the 2026 cancellation. Statement 3 is correct as the NTA acted on inputs from central and law enforcement agencies.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the NEET-UG exam conducted on May 3 was for 22.05 lakh candidates, and this is the exam that was cancelled. The figure 15.63 lakh is a distractor from the 1563 candidates who got a re-test in 2024.

Explanation

The NTA's statement, as quoted in the article, said the decision was taken "in recognition of the trust on which the national examination system rests" and that the alternative would cause "greater and more lasting damage to that trust." While a paper leak was the trigger, the stated primary reason was safeguarding institutional trust.

Explanation

Article 136 of the Indian Constitution grants the Supreme Court special leave to appeal from any judgment, decree, determination, sentence, or order in any cause or matter passed or made by any court or tribunal in India. The article specifically mentions 'Special leave to appeal by the Supreme Court'.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the article clearly states 'the sentence has NOT been stayed'. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions the petitioners were tried under IPC Section 302 (murder), Section 376(2)(g) (gang rape), and Section 201, all read with Section 34. Statement 3 is incorrect because a 'prima facie' observation is a preliminary view, not a final verdict.

Explanation

The Orissa High Court, in its June 23, 2017 judgment, directed that the two convicts undergo 35 years of rigorous imprisonment without remission after commuting their death sentence. This specific term is the central point of contention in the Supreme Court.

Explanation

The Supreme Court's prima facie view that the sentence is 'quite harsh' and its notice to the state government specifically on the 'sentencing aspect' indicate it is examining whether the punishment imposed is proportionate to the gravity of the offences, which is a fundamental principle of sentencing jurisprudence.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the NEET-UG 2026 examination was conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA). The NTA is the autonomous body established to conduct major national entrance exams.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the FIR was filed under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), not the IPC, along with the Prevention of Corruption Act and the Public Examination Act, 2024. Statement 3 is correct as the exam date is mentioned.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the NEET-UG 2026 examination was conducted by the NTA on May 3. This is a factual data point directly from the source.

Explanation

The Public Examination (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024 was enacted to prevent organized cheating and paper leaks in public exams. Its invocation shows the application of this new, dedicated legal framework to safeguard exam integrity, which is its primary objective.

Explanation

The National Testing Agency (NTA) is an autonomous body established by the Government of India to conduct entrance exams. It operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Education (formerly Ministry of Human Resource Development).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; allegations had surfaced before, notably in 2024. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Supreme Court had refused demands for a retest in 2024, observing no evidence of a 'systemic leak'.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the NEET-UG examination was conducted for 22.05 lakh candidates on May 3, 2026, before its cancellation. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article emphasizes the devastating emotional and psychological impact on students, describing a 'return to the crushing emotional pressure of returning to preparations.' The other options are not supported by the article's content.

Explanation

As stated by NTA Director General Abhishek Singh in the article, NEET is conducted for medical entrance for the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and the National Medical Commission. NTA is an exam-conducting body that operates based on the requirements of the concerned departments.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions NTA got a tip-off on May 7. Statement 2 is correct as the Rajasthan SOG found a guess paper with 410 questions, 120 matching the exam. Statement 3 is correct as Singh said the exam on May 3 was conducted smoothly with no issues reported. Hence, all three statements are accurate.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Centre constituted a seven-member committee headed by former ISRO chief K Radhakrishnan. The other options are plausible distractors for high-level committees but are not mentioned in this context.

Explanation

The core reason, as stated by NTA DG Abhishek Singh, is that the process was 'vitiated' and they cannot allow miscreants to operate. This aligns with the zero-tolerance philosophy announced. The other options, like technical glitches or student protests, are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the new guidelines are in accordance with the directives of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). MoEFCC is the nodal ministry for framing environmental rules like the Solid Waste Management Rules.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mandates on-site processing for biodegradable waste for BWGs. Statement 2 is incorrect because the threshold for BWG classification is over 40,000 liters daily, not 35,000. Statement 3 is correct as AMC warned that failure to segregate amounts to contempt of SC order, actionable under SWM Rules-2026.

Explanation

The article clearly states that units generating solid waste of 100 kilos or more daily will be considered 'Bulk Waste Generators'. The other options are distractors close to the correct value.

Explanation

The article states that this arrangement has been emphasised to reduce the burden on landfills in the city and ensure scientific management of waste. The other options are not mentioned as primary objectives in the provided content.