13 May 2026, Questions & Answers
136 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
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This page contains 136 current affairs questions with answers from 13 May 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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136 QsThe Supreme Court's judgment in the Harish Rana case primarily interprets which fundamental right under the Indian Constitution?
- A.Right to Equality (Article 14)
- B.Right to Life and Personal Liberty (Article 21)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Right to Freedom of Religion (Article 25)
- D.Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32)
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Explanation
The judgment explicitly reasons that the withholding of life-sustaining treatment, allowing the natural course of life, does not fall foul of Article 21, thereby linking the right to die with dignity to this fundamental right.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's judgment in the Harish Rana case:
1. The Court permitted the withdrawal of Clinically Assisted Nutrition and Hydration (CANH) for the first time in India.
2. The Court equated the withdrawal of life support with active euthanasia, which involves a positive act like a lethal injection.
3. The Court directed the constitution of secondary medical boards at the district level under Chief Medical Officers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states this was a 'first-of-its-kind judicial order in India'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court distinguished active euthanasia from passive euthanasia (withdrawal of life support), not equated them. Statement 3 is correct as the Court directed Chief Medical Officers to constitute panels of medical practitioners as secondary boards.
According to the article, on which date did the Supreme Court deliver its judgment holding that withdrawal of life-sustaining treatment would be in Harish Rana's best interest?
- A.March 11, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- B.March 24, 2026
- C.May 13, 2026
- D.May 13, 2013
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'the Supreme Court on March 11 had held that withdrawal of life-sustaining treatment... would uphold a patient’s dignity.' March 24, 2026, is the date of Rana's death. May 13, 2026, is the date of the subsequent hearing where the Court appreciated the organ donation.
What was a key procedural directive issued by the Supreme Court in its March 11 judgment to handle future cases of life-support withdrawal?
- A.Establish a single national medical board under the Prime Minister's Office.
- B.Constitute panels of medical practitioners as secondary boards under district Chief Medical Officers.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Mandate that all such cases must be heard directly by the Supreme Court.
- D.Refer all cases to the Law Commission of India for review.
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Explanation
The article states the Court directed 'Chief Medical Officers in all districts to constitute panels of registered medical practitioners to serve as secondary medical boards.' This decentralizes the process for future applications, making option B correct. The other options are not mentioned in the article.
Which constitutional article, cited by the Centre, specifically provides for legislation for social welfare and reform relating to religious freedom?
- A.Article 25(1)
- B.Article 25(2)(a)
- C.Article 25(2)(b)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Article 26
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that the Centre argued Article 25(2)(b) provides for legislation for social welfare and reform. This is the specific clause under Article 25 that deals with the state's power to legislate for reform.
Consider the following statements regarding the arguments presented in the Sabarimala reference case:
1. The Centre argued that if courts reform religion based on constitutional offensiveness, there is no limit to judicial reformation of religious traditions.
2. The Solicitor General stated that courts cannot intervene in religious matters even on grounds of public order, health, or morality.
3. One of the judges countered that the court's role is to ensure majoritarianism does not trump constitutionalism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's direct quote: 'If courts may reform religion... there is, in practice, no limit...'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the Solicitor General said courts 'could intervene when something was contrary to public order, health, or morality'. Statement 3 is correct as per Justice Bagchi's quoted remarks.
According to the article, on which date did the Supreme Court deliver its judgment striking down age restrictions on women's entry to the Sabarimala temple?
- A.September 26, 2018
- B.September 28, 2018✓ Correct Answer
- C.October 2, 2018
- D.October 28, 2018
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the bench is considering questions arising from petitions seeking review of the SC's 'September 28, 2018, judgment'. The other dates are close distractors.
What was the primary constitutional concern raised by Justice Bagchi in response to the Centre's 'leave it to the legislature' argument?
- A.That it would lead to excessive delegation of power to the executive.
- B.That it would mean majoritarianism could trump constitutionalism.✓ Correct Answer
- C.That it would violate the basic structure of the Constitution.
- D.That it would undermine the federal structure of governance.
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Explanation
Justice Bagchi's quoted words in the article are: 'It's not majoritarianism that the court is bothered about. The court is bothered about majoritarianism trumping constitutionalism.' This directly captures his primary constitutional concern regarding the legislature-led reform argument.
Which Indian organization is responsible for the development of the Agni series of missiles?
- A.Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
- B.Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)
- D.Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL)
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Explanation
The article states that the Agni missile family was developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). ISRO handles space missions, while HAL and BDL are defence PSUs involved in aircraft and missile production, respectively.
Consider the following statements:
1. MIRV technology allows a single missile to carry multiple warheads that can be independently targeted at different locations.
2. The Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC) is primarily driven by wind patterns and is independent of differences in ocean temperature and salinity.
3. In a freely floating exchange rate system, the value of a currency is determined by demand and supply in the foreign exchange market.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the core concept of MIRV. Statement 2 is incorrect because AMOC, part of thermohaline circulation, is driven by temperature and salinity differences (density), not just wind. Statement 3 correctly defines a free-floating exchange rate system.
According to the news, to what level did the Indian rupee depreciate against the US dollar, hitting a fresh record low?
- A.93.45
- B.94.78
- C.95.63✓ Correct Answer
- D.96.10
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "The rupee slipped to a fresh record low of 95.63 yesterday against the US dollar." The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What is a primary strategic implication of India successfully testing MIRV technology on the Agni-5 missile?
- A.It significantly reduces the cost of maintaining India's nuclear arsenal.
- B.It enhances India's second-strike capability, strengthening nuclear deterrence.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It allows India to launch pre-emptive strikes without warning.
- D.It primarily serves civilian satellite launch purposes.
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Explanation
The article explains that MIRV technology, by enabling a devastating counterattack with multiple warheads, is critical for India's no-first-use doctrine and deters adversaries from striking first. The other options are incorrect: cost reduction is not the primary goal, pre-emptive strikes contradict stated doctrine, and MIRV is a military, not civilian, technology.
Which ministry's data was cited in the article regarding the volume of gold imports in FY26?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Mines
- D.Ministry of External Affairs
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that data on gold imports falling to 721.04 tonnes in FY26 is 'as per data from the Ministry of Commerce and Industry'. This ministry handles trade statistics.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent hike in import duty on precious metals:
1. The total effective import duty on gold and silver has been increased to 15%.
2. The increase is aimed primarily at boosting government revenue from customs collections.
3. The Agriculture Infrastructure and Development Cess (AIDC) on these metals has been raised from 1% to 5%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the total duty is now 15% (10% customs + 5% AIDC). Statement 2 is incorrect; the primary objective is to 'safeguard macroeconomic stability, conserve foreign exchange, and moderate non-essential imports', not primarily to boost revenue. Statement 3 is correct as per the article.
According to the article, what was the value of India's gold imports in the financial year 2025-26 (FY26)?
- A.$58 billion
- B.$71.97 billion✓ Correct Answer
- C.$721.04 billion
- D.$38 billion
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Explanation
The article states: 'In FY26, the country’s gold imports jumped by 24.1% to $71.97 billion compared to $58 billion in the previous financial year.' $58 billion is the previous year's figure, $721.04 is the volume in tonnes, and $38 billion is the forex reserve drop.
What is the primary objective behind the government's decision to hike import duties on gold and silver, as explained in the article?
- A.To promote domestic manufacturing of jewellery
- B.To safeguard macroeconomic stability and conserve foreign exchange✓ Correct Answer
- C.To increase the tax base under the Goods and Services Tax (GST)
- D.To comply with World Trade Organization (WTO) tariff norms
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Explanation
The article quotes officials stating the hike is 'a policy measure aimed at safeguarding macroeconomic stability, conserving foreign exchange, and moderating non-essential imports'. The other options are not mentioned as primary objectives.
According to the article, which U.S. agency provides the key assessment and forecasts regarding the global oil supply crisis?
- A.U.S. Federal Reserve (Fed)
- B.U.S. Energy Information Administration (EIA)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Central Intelligence Agency (CIA)
- D.U.S. Department of Defense (DoD)
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Explanation
The article explicitly cites the U.S. Energy Information Administration (EIA) for its latest assessment of oil production shut-ins, price forecasts, and the timeline for the Strait of Hormuz closure. The EIA is the statistical and analytical agency within the U.S. Department of Energy.
Consider the following statements regarding the impact of the Strait of Hormuz closure:
1. It has led to West Asian producers shutting in over 10 million barrels per day of crude oil production.
2. The crisis has caused the spot price of Brent crude to average $71 per barrel in April.
3. India meets over 60% of its crude oil requirement through imports that came via the Strait of Hormuz.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article states 10.5 million barrels per day were shut in April. Statement 2 is incorrect: The April average was $117/barrel, while $71 was the February average. Statement 3 is incorrect: India's import dependency is over 88%, but only about 40% of its oil imports came via Hormuz, not 60%.
According to the article, what was the peak spot price reached by benchmark Brent crude in April 2026?
- A.$100 per barrel
- B.$117 per barrel
- C.$138 per barrel✓ Correct Answer
- D.$89 per barrel
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Explanation
The article clearly states: "the spot price of benchmark Brent crude increased sharply in April, reaching a high of $138 per barrel on April 7." $117 is the April average, $89 is a forecast for later in the year, and $100 is a reference price level.
What is a major direct fiscal implication for the Government of India as mentioned in its response to the oil price crisis?
- A.Launching a new strategic oil reserve facility
- B.Imposing a windfall tax on oil refining companies
- C.A revenue loss of over Rs 1.6 lakh crore from excise duty cuts✓ Correct Answer
- D.Diverting funds from the PM-KISAN scheme to subsidies
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Explanation
The article details that the government slashed excise duty on petrol and diesel by Rs 10 per litre, which is "likely to lead to a revenue loss of over Rs 1.6 lakh crore." The other options, like a windfall tax or new reserves, are not mentioned as implemented measures in this article.
Which ministry/department is the nodal authority at the national level for water resources as mentioned in the article?
- A.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- B.Ministry of Jal Shakti✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
- D.Ministry of Rural Development
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Ministry of Jal Shakti serves as the nodal authority at the national level responsible for water resources, drinking water supply and sanitation.
Consider the following statements regarding India's water governance:
1. The Central Water Commission focuses primarily on surface water planning and river basin development.
2. The Composite Water Management Index is published by the Ministry of Jal Shakti to evaluate water governance.
3. The Jal Jeevan Mission, aimed at providing rural tap connections, has been extended until 2028.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the Central Water Commission focuses on surface water. Statement 2 is incorrect because the index is published by NITI Aayog, not the Ministry of Jal Shakti. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the Jal Jeevan Mission has been extended until 2028.
According to the article, approximately what percentage of global freshwater resources does India have access to?
- A.2%
- B.4%✓ Correct Answer
- C.6%
- D.8%
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Explanation
The article states: 'India supports nearly one-fifth of the world’s population but has access to only about 4% of global freshwater resources.'
What is the primary objective of the Atal Bhujal Yojana as mentioned in the article?
- A.To provide tap connections to rural households
- B.To promote micro-irrigation technologies
- C.To encourage participatory aquifer management in water-stressed regions✓ Correct Answer
- D.To restore and clean the Ganga river basin
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Explanation
The article states: 'Groundwater sustainability is being addressed through the Atal Bhujal Yojana, which promotes participatory aquifer management in water-stressed regions.' Jal Jeevan Mission provides tap connections, PM Krishi Sinchayee Yojana promotes micro-irrigation, and Namami Gange focuses on the Ganga basin.
Under which Article of the Constitution is the Uniform Civil Code mentioned as a Directive Principle of State Policy?
- A.Article 39
- B.Article 44✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 48A
- D.Article 51A
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Explanation
Article 44 of the Constitution, part of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs), states that the State shall endeavour to secure a Uniform Civil Code for its citizens. DPSPs are non-justiciable guidelines for the state.
Consider the following statements regarding the Uniform Civil Code Bill approved by the Assam Cabinet:
1. It excludes the state's entire tribal population from its ambit.
2. The Bill is scheduled to be presented in the Assam Legislative Assembly on the last day of its session in May 2026.
3. The Bill's provisions are derived from the BJP's election manifesto adopted as the government's guiding principle.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the article says the Bill leaves 'the state's tribal population outside its ambit', but it does not say 'entire' tribal population; exclusions are typically for those under the Sixth Schedule. Statement 2 is correct as the CM said the Bill will be presented on May 26, the last day of the assembly. Statement 3 is correct as the Cabinet adopted the party manifesto as the guiding principle.
For how many months has the Assam Cabinet decided to impose austerity measures, including a ban on new vehicle purchases and foreign travel?
- A.Three months
- B.Six months✓ Correct Answer
- C.Nine months
- D.One year
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'For the next six months, the state government will not purchase any new vehicles, and no government minister, official or worker will travel abroad...' This is a direct factual recall from the news.
What is the primary constitutional basis cited for excluding certain tribal areas from the proposed Uniform Civil Code in Assam?
- A.Fifth Schedule of the Constitution
- B.Sixth Schedule of the Constitution✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 370 of the Constitution
- D.The Indian Forest Act, 1927
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Explanation
The article mentions that the BJP's manifesto listed implementation of UCC 'excluding tribal communities and parts of the state protected under the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution'. The Sixth Schedule grants autonomy to tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, allowing for the protection of customary laws.
The Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT), which issued the sugar export ban notification, operates under which Union Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
- B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution
- D.Ministry of Finance
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Explanation
As stated in the article, 'The DGFT, which comes under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry...'. DGFT is the body responsible for implementing India's Foreign Trade Policy, which falls under the purview of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent ban on sugar exports:
1. The ban prohibits the export of raw, white, and refined sugar with immediate effect.
2. The prohibition applies uniformly to all export destinations, including the European Union and the United States.
3. The ban will not apply to sugar consignments where loading on the ship had commenced before May 13, 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the DGFT notification. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article explicitly states 'The prohibition will not apply to sugar exports to the European Union and the US under the preferential quota'. Statement 3 is correct as the notification allows exports if 'loading of sugar on the ship has commenced before May 13'. Hence, option C is correct.
According to the article, what is the estimated sugar production for the 2025-26 season (October-September)?
- A.250 lakh tonnes
- B.275 lakh tonnes✓ Correct Answer
- C.280 lakh tonnes
- D.325 lakh tonnes
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Explanation
The article states: 'Sugar production in the 2025-26 season (October-September) has been estimated at about 275 lakh tonnes.' Option D (325 lakh tonnes) is the total availability including opening stock, and option C (280 lakh tonnes) is the projected domestic consumption.
What is the primary rationale cited by the government for imposing the ban on sugar exports until September 2026?
- A.To increase government revenue from export duties
- B.As a precautionary move against domestic inflation and future supply concerns✓ Correct Answer
- C.To retaliate against trade restrictions imposed by other countries
- D.To comply with directives from the World Trade Organization (WTO)
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Explanation
The article describes the ban as 'a precautionary move' triggered by 'inflation and future supply-related concerns in the backdrop of the ongoing West Asia conflict.' It aims to secure domestic availability against risks from geopolitical disruption and potential monsoon/fertilizer shortfalls.
Under which act was the National Sports Development Fund (NSDF) established?
- A.The Societies Registration Act, 1860
- B.The Charitable Endowments Act, 1890✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Indian Trusts Act, 1882
- D.The Public Trusts Act, 1950
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Explanation
As mentioned in the article, the NSDF was established in 1998 under the Charitable Endowments Act, 1890. This act provides for the administration of property held for charitable purposes.
Consider the following statements regarding the National Sports Development Fund (NSDF):
1. It is governed by a 12-member Council under the Union Sports Minister.
2. A six-member committee of officials from the Sports Ministry clears grant proposals for the fund.
3. According to a 2025 report, a Parliamentary Standing Committee recommended greater regulation of the NSDF.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the NSDF is governed by a 12-member Council. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions a six-member committee of officials screens grant proposals. Statement 3 is correct as the article cites a Parliamentary Standing Committee report from August 2025 calling for greater regulation. All facts are directly from the provided content.
According to the investigation, what was the total amount from the NSDF that went to civil services institutions and the New Moti Bagh colony between 2021 and 2025?
- A.Approximately ₹2.66 crore
- B.Over ₹6.2 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.Approximately ₹1.08 crore
- D.Over ₹6.7 crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'Between 2021 and 2025, over Rs 6.2 crore from the NSDF went to the Civil Services Officers’ Institute (CSOI), the Central Civil Services Cultural and Sports Board (CCSCSB) and for the New Moti Bagh Residential Complex'. ₹2.66 crore went to RSS-linked bodies, and ₹1.08 crore was spent on cricket gifts.
What was the primary concern raised by the Parliamentary Standing Committee regarding the National Sports Development Fund (NSDF)?
- A.Insufficient funding for the Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS).
- B.Lack of transparency in the selection of athletes for grants.
- C.The practice of giving funds to residential colonies and civil services associations.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ineffective use of funds for international sports cooperation.
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Explanation
The article quotes the Parliamentary Committee's report as saying: 'The Committee has been given to understand that in previous years’ grants, these funds have been given to the residential colonies and civil services associations. The Committee recommends that this practice should be avoided.' This was its primary flagged concern regarding diversion from the NSDF's core objective.
Which United Nations specialized agency, mentioned in the article, provides authoritative forecasts on climate patterns like El Nino?
- A.United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
- B.World Meteorological Organization (WMO)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)
- D.World Health Organization (WHO)
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Explanation
The article states that the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) said El Nino conditions are expected to start in May. The WMO is the UN agency responsible for weather, climate, and water.
Consider the following statements regarding the wildfire situation discussed in the article:
1. Global fires from January to April 2026 burned an area 20% larger than the previous record.
2. The research data on the role of global warming in these fires was compiled by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC).
3. A strong El Nino, expected to develop, could result in the most severe fire season in recent history.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article says fires burned '20% more than the previous record'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the data was compiled by 'World Weather Attribution (WWA)', not the IPCC. Statement 3 is correct as per the warning from scientist Theodore Keeping.
According to the data in the article, how much land area was burned by wildfires in Africa in the first part of 2026?
- A.69 million hectares
- B.75 million hectares
- C.85 million hectares✓ Correct Answer
- D.44 million hectares
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'As much as 85 million hectares of land have burned in Africa so far this year'. Option A (69M Ha) is the previous record, and Option D (44M Ha) is the area burned in Asia.
What is the primary reason, as explained in the article, for the high fire activity in Africa in 2026?
- A.A sudden volcanic eruption that dried the landscape.
- B.Intentional deforestation for agricultural expansion.
- C.Rapid shifts from extremely wet to extremely dry conditions.✓ Correct Answer
- D.A failure of international firefighting aid.
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Explanation
The article quotes expert Theodore Keeping: 'The unusually high fire activity in Africa is being driven by rapid shifts from extremely wet to extremely dry conditions.' High rainfall led to grass growth (fuel), which then dried out, leading to fires.
Which autonomous body is responsible for conducting the NEET-UG examination?
- A.University Grants Commission (UGC)
- B.National Testing Agency (NTA)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Medical Council of India (MCI)
- D.Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)
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Explanation
The National Testing Agency (NTA) is the autonomous body established to conduct entrance examinations like NEET-UG, as mentioned in the article. UGC regulates universities, MCI regulates medical education, and CBSE is a school education board.
Consider the following statements regarding the NEET-UG paper leak case:
1. The National Testing Agency (NTA) cancelled the NEET-UG 2026 exam held on May 3, affecting over 22 lakh students.
2. This was the second time the NEET-UG exam has been cancelled since its introduction.
3. The CBI's FIR has invoked sections of the Public Examination (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states this is the 'first time' the exam has been cancelled since 2016. Statement 3 is correct as the FIR invoked the Public Examination Act, 2024.
According to the news, how many students were affected by the cancellation of the NEET-UG 2026 exam?
- A.Over 10 lakh
- B.Over 15 lakh
- C.Over 20 lakh
- D.Over 22 lakh✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the cancellation affected 'over 22 lakh examinees'. The other options are plausible distractors but are not the exact figure mentioned.
What was the primary reason cited by the NTA Director General for cancelling the NEET-UG 2026 examination?
- A.Low student turnout
- B.Technical glitches in the online portal
- C.The examination process was found to have been 'vitiated'✓ Correct Answer
- D.Instructions from the Ministry of Health
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Explanation
NTA Director General Abhishek Singh stated the decision was taken after the process was found to have been 'vitiated', meaning compromised, due to the paper leak. The other options are not mentioned in the article as reasons.
Which state government department is primarily responsible for implementing the revised uniform policy discussed in the news?
- A.Department of Higher Education
- B.Department of School Education and Literacy✓ Correct Answer
- C.Department of Minority Welfare
- D.Department of Law and Parliamentary Affairs
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Explanation
The news article explicitly mentions School Education and Literacy Minister Madhu Bangarappa announcing the withdrawal of the order. This falls under the purview of the Department of School Education and Literacy in Karnataka, which handles policies for government and aided schools.
Consider the following statements regarding the Karnataka uniform policy change:
1. The original order banning religious attire was issued by the Basavaraj Bommai-led BJP government in February 2022.
2. The new order permits students to wear any religious attire of their choice, even if it replaces the school uniform.
3. The policy reversal was influenced by an incident where students were asked to remove their sacred threads during an entrance examination.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the new order allows 'limited religious symbols' that complement and do NOT replace or alter the uniform. Statement 3 is correct; Minister Bangarappa cited the April 23 KCET incident where students were forced to remove their janeu (sacred thread).
According to the article, on which date was the original government order issued that banned religious attire like the hijab in Karnataka's educational institutions?
- A.December 2021
- B.February 5, 2022✓ Correct Answer
- C.April 23, 2026
- D.May 13, 2026
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'The February 5, 2022 order said no headscarf or shawl should be worn as part of the uniform.' December 2021 is when the controversy erupted. April 23, 2026, is the date of the KCET incident cited. May 13, 2026, is the article's publication date.
What is the primary objective of the new Karnataka government order regarding religious symbols in schools, as per the statements of the ministers?
- A.To strictly enforce a single, secular dress code for all students.
- B.To allow students to express religious identity and prevent discrimination while maintaining uniform discipline.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To delegate the decision on dress code entirely to individual school management committees.
- D.To promote the wearing of specific religious symbols over others.
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Explanation
Minister Bangarappa stated the aim is to allow religious expression and prevent discrimination, while Health Minister Dinesh Gundu Rao said it was to prevent children from being discouraged from practising their religion. The order itself permits symbols that 'complement the uniform and do not replace, alter, or undermine its purpose,' indicating a balance.
The joint report 'Extreme Heat and Agriculture' discussed in the article was released by which two international organizations?
- A.World Bank and International Monetary Fund (IMF)
- B.Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) and World Meteorological Organisation (WMO)✓ Correct Answer
- C.United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and World Health Organisation (WHO)
- D.International Labour Organisation (ILO) and World Trade Organisation (WTO)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the report 'Extreme Heat and Agriculture' is a joint publication by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) and the World Meteorological Organisation (WMO).
Consider the following statements regarding the impact of extreme heat on India's food system as per the article:
1. It accelerates soil moisture evaporation and can disrupt the grain-filling stage of rabi crops like wheat.
2. Rising water temperatures increase dissolved oxygen, boosting fish populations in shallow waters.
3. The Minimum Support Price (MSP) system has helped diversify cropping patterns towards millets and pulses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's explanation of heat impact on crops. Statement 2 is incorrect because rising water temperatures reduce dissolved oxygen, causing hypoxia, not increase it. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states the MSP system has entrenched dependence on wheat and rice, not diversified patterns.
According to the International Labour Organisation (ILO) report cited in the article, what percentage of global working hours lost due to heat stress by 2030 is projected to be in the agriculture sector?
- A.40%
- B.50%
- C.60%✓ Correct Answer
- D.70%
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Explanation
The article directly quotes the ILO finding that the agricultural sector "is projected to account for 60 per cent of global working hours lost due to heat stress by the year 2030."
What is identified as a primary reason for India's continued farmer reliance on water-intensive paddy cultivation in semi-arid regions, despite heat risks?
- A.Lack of awareness about climate change among farmers
- B.High global market prices for rice
- C.Subsidies for electricity and fertilisers coupled with MSP incentives✓ Correct Answer
- D.Traditional farming practices that are difficult to change
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Explanation
The article's section 'INDIA'S POLICY TRAP' clearly states that subsidies for electricity and fertilisers, along with the MSP system and state-level bonuses, financially incentivise water-intensive paddy cultivation even in unsuitable regions, creating a structural lock-in.
In the Supreme Court hearing, Menaka Guruswamy argued for women's entry into Sabarimala by invoking the constitutional philosophy underlying which set of Articles?
- A.Articles 14, 19, and 21
- B.Articles 15, 16, 17, and 25✓ Correct Answer
- C.Articles 32, 226, and 136
- D.Articles 368, 123, and 124
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Explanation
As per the article, Guruswamy referred to the rationale underlying Articles 15 (prohibition of discrimination), 16 (equality in public employment), 17 (abolition of untouchability), and 25 (freedom of religion) to argue for state intervention to ensure inclusion in religious institutions.
Consider the following statements regarding the arguments presented in the Supreme Court hearing on Sabarimala:
1. The lawyer cited the Hindu Code Bill debates to argue that social reform should not be decided by majority opinion.
2. The argument stated that the Constitution gives pre-eminence to the right to freely propagate religion over the right to freedom of conscience.
3. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was cited both for his constituent assembly speeches and for his personal experience of being denied temple entry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article quotes Ambedkar from the Hindu Code Bill debates saying reform is 'hardly a question that we can decide by counting heads.' Statement 2 is incorrect: The article states the drafters gave pre-eminence to 'freedom of conscience' and placed it BEFORE the right to practice and propagate religion in Article 25. Statement 3 is correct: Guruswamy cited Ambedkar's constituent assembly views and his 1945 exclusion from the Puri Temple.
According to the arguments cited in the article, in which year was Dr. B.R. Ambedkar denied entry into the Jagannath Temple in Puri?
- A.1942
- B.1945✓ Correct Answer
- C.1947
- D.1950
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Explanation
The article explicitly states, "Dr B R Ambedkar was not allowed entry into the Puri Temple in July 1945." This historical incident was used to highlight the social reality of exclusion based on caste, paralleling the issue of gender-based exclusion at Sabarimala.
What was the core constitutional objective, as per the arguments presented, linking the 1950s Hindu law reforms and the provisions of Part III of the Constitution?
- A.To establish a uniform civil code for all citizens.
- B.To expand participation, inclusion, and equal access within Hindu society.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To separate religion from the state completely.
- D.To give absolute autonomy to religious denominations in managing their affairs.
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Explanation
The article states that the Hindu Marriage Act (1955) and other enactments 'reflected the same constitutional philosophy that was contained in Part III of the Constitution.' It later concludes that this philosophy aimed at 'the expansion of participation, inclusion, and equal access within Hindu society.'
Which organization conducts both the NEET-UG and JEE Main examinations in India?
- A.University Grants Commission (UGC)
- B.National Testing Agency (NTA)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Education
- D.Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs)
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Explanation
The article states that the National Testing Agency (NTA) conducts both NEET-UG and JEE Main exams. JEE Advanced is conducted by the IITs.
Consider the following statements regarding NEET and JEE exams:
1. NEET-UG is conducted in pen and paper mode, while JEE Main is a computer-based test.
2. The number of students appearing for JEE Main is higher than those appearing for NEET-UG annually.
3. A key challenge in making NEET computer-based is the limited number of testing centers capable of conducting such exams.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; around 23 lakh appear for NEET-UG, which is higher than the ~14 lakh for JEE Main. Statement 3 is correct, citing infrastructure as a major hurdle.
Approximately how many students appear for the NEET-UG examination every year, as mentioned in the article?
- A.Around 10 lakh
- B.Around 14 lakh
- C.Around 20 lakh
- D.Around 23 lakh✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article specifically states that around 23 lakh students appear for the NEET-UG examination every year. JEE Main has around 14 lakh applicants.
What is identified as a primary reason for NEET-UG being more prone to paper leaks compared to JEE Main?
- A.Lower number of applicants reducing security focus.
- B.The pen and paper mode involving physical transport of question papers.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Lack of involvement of any national testing agency.
- D.The exam being conducted only in a single language.
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Explanation
The article explains that the physical transportation of pen-paper question books creates multiple points of potential leaks (printing press, vehicles), a vulnerability absent in the computer-based JEE Main.
Under which Article of the Constitution is the Election Commission of India established?
- A.Article 320
- B.Article 324✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 329
- D.Article 335
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Explanation
The Election Commission of India, the body conducting the SIR, is a permanent constitutional body established under Article 324. This article vests it with the superintendence, direction, and control of elections.
Consider the following statements regarding the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls:
1. It involves the fresh preparation of electoral rolls, unlike the summary revision which only updates them.
2. It is an annual exercise mandated by the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960.
3. The first phase of SIR led to the deletion of approximately 5.58 crore electors from the rolls.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: an intensive revision prepares rolls afresh. Statement 2 is incorrect; SIR breaks from the annual practice of Special Summary Revisions (SSR). Statement 3 is correct as the article states 5.58 crore electors were deleted.
According to the article, what percentage of the electoral roll was deleted during the first phase of the Special Intensive Revision (SIR)?
- A.5.58%
- B.9.555%✓ Correct Answer
- C.10.2%
- D.15.75%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the SIR led to the deletion of 5.58 crore electors, which constituted 9.555% of the electoral rolls. The other options are close distractors based on the raw number (5.58) or other estimates.
What is the primary reason cited by the Election Commission for shifting from Special Summary Revisions (SSR) to a Special Intensive Revision (SIR)?
- A.To reduce the cost of electoral roll management
- B.To address the challenges of rapid urbanization and migration✓ Correct Answer
- C.To implement a new digital voter ID system
- D.To comply with a directive from the Supreme Court
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Explanation
As mentioned in the article, the EC cited rapid urbanization and migration as key reasons for conducting the intensive revision. The other options, like cost reduction or a new digital ID, are not mentioned as primary drivers in the provided content.
Which autonomous body, established in 2017, is responsible for conducting the NEET-UG examination as mentioned in the news?
- A.University Grants Commission (UGC)
- B.National Testing Agency (NTA)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Medical Council of India (MCI)
- D.National Board of Examinations (NBE)
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Explanation
The article states the NEET-UG 2026 examination was conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA). The NTA is the autonomous body set up by the Government of India to conduct entrance exams for higher education.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court petition filed by FAIMA:
1. It seeks the cancellation of the NEET-UG 2026 examination.
2. It demands the replacement of the NTA with a new body called the National Examination Integrity Commission (NEIC).
3. It requests a CBI status report on the paper leak investigation within four weeks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the exam was already cancelled on May 12; the petition is about reforms and a re-exam. Statement 2 is correct as the plea calls for replacing/restructuring NTA and proposes an NEIC. Statement 3 is correct as the article states FAIMA requested the CBI to submit a status report within four weeks.
According to the news, on which date was the NEET-UG 2026 examination originally conducted before its cancellation?
- A.May 1, 2026
- B.May 3, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.May 10, 2026
- D.May 12, 2026
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'The NEET-UG 2026 examination was conducted nationwide by the NTA on May 3'. May 12 is the cancellation date, making the other options incorrect.
What is a primary reason cited in the petition for advocating a shift to Computer-Based Testing (CBT) for NEET?
- A.To reduce the overall cost of conducting the examination
- B.To make the exam easier for students from urban backgrounds
- C.To eliminate risks from the physical handling and transportation of question papers✓ Correct Answer
- D.To align the exam pattern with international medical entrance tests
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Explanation
The article directly quotes the petition stating that measures like CBT 'are necessary to eliminate risks arising from the physical handling and transportation of question papers, which it describes as vulnerable points in the current examination system.' The other options are not mentioned as primary reasons.
Which US government official is conducting parallel talks with Chinese officials during President Trump's visit to Beijing, as per the news?
- A.Secretary of State
- B.Secretary of Defense
- C.Treasury Secretary✓ Correct Answer
- D.US Trade Representative
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Explanation
The article mentions that Treasury Secretary Scott Bessent held talks with Chinese officials in South Korea to preserve the trade truce. This falls under economic diplomacy, which is the Treasury's mandate.
Consider the following statements regarding the US-China CEO delegation:
1. The delegation includes CEOs from Tesla, Apple, and Nvidia.
2. The primary aim of the trip is to sign a new defense pact between the US and China.
3. The visit seeks to preserve the trade truce reached in October 2023.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the primary aim is trade and economic talks, not a defense pact. Statement ৩ is correct as the article explicitly mentions the goal is 'to preserve the fragile trade truce reached last year'. Hence, only statements 1 and ৩ are correct.
According to the news, which major US aerospace company's CEO is part of the delegation accompanying President Trump to China?
- A.Lockheed Martin
- B.SpaceX
- C.Boeing✓ Correct Answer
- D.Northrop Grumman
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Explanation
The article specifically names Kelly Ortberg as the CEO of Boeing who is travelling with Trump. The other companies are not mentioned as part of this delegation.
What is a significant implication of having major technology company CEOs like those from Nvidia and Apple in the US delegation to China?
- A.To demonstrate US technological superiority
- B.To negotiate better market access for advanced semiconductors and consumer electronics✓ Correct Answer
- C.To finalize joint venture agreements for manufacturing in China
- D.To pressure China on its human rights record
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Explanation
Technology CEOs are included to directly address key trade barriers. Nvidia seeks approval to sell its H200 AI chips in China, while Apple has major supply chain and market interests there. Their presence aims to push for 'opening up' the Chinese market to US tech firms, a core US demand.
The article mentions Norway's Government Pension Fund Global. What is the primary type of this institution?
- A.A Central Bank
- B.A Sovereign Wealth Fund✓ Correct Answer
- C.A Multilateral Development Bank
- D.A Private Equity Firm
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Explanation
The Government Pension Fund Global is Norway's sovereign wealth fund, financed by the country's oil and gas revenues. It is one of the world's largest investors, as mentioned in the article discussing its role in the EFTA-India investments.
Consider the following statements regarding the India-Nordic relationship as discussed in the article:
1. Norway launched its first international development programme in India in the early 1950s, focusing on modernising fisheries in Kerala.
2. The EFTA-India Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) commits to a target of $50 billion in investments from EFTA countries into India.
3. India's interest in the Arctic is purely academic and has no direct consequences for its monsoon or food security.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the TEPA target is $100 billion, not $50 billion. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states India's interest in the Arctic is not merely academic, as melting polar ice has direct consequences for the Indian monsoon and food security.
According to the article, what is the investment target committed by EFTA countries under the EFTA-India Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA)?
- A.$50 billion over 10 years
- B.$75 billion over 12 years
- C.$100 billion over 15 years✓ Correct Answer
- D.$150 billion over 20 years
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "This agreement is a game-changer, committing EFTA countries — including Norway — to a target of $100 billion in investments in India over the next 15 years." The other options are close but incorrect distractors.
What is a primary strategic objective of the 'Green Strategic Partnership' discussed between India and the Nordic countries?
- A.To establish a joint military command in the Arctic region
- B.To collaborate on offshore wind technology, green shipping corridors, and carbon capture✓ Correct Answer
- C.To form a customs union to eliminate all trade tariffs
- D.To jointly develop nuclear energy technology for civilian use
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Explanation
The article details that the partnership pivots towards a 'Green Strategic Partnership' spanning the blue economy, renewable energy, and deep-tech innovation, specifically mentioning offshore wind, green shipping corridors, and carbon capture and storage (CCS). The other options are not supported by the article's content.
The India Meteorological Department (IMD) functions under which Union Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
- B.Ministry of Science and Technology
- C.Ministry of Earth Sciences✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
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Explanation
As stated in the article, IMD's Secretary reports to the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES). This ministry is the nodal agency for meteorological and earth system sciences in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the new AI-based weather forecasting products launched by IMD:
1. One product offers rainfall forecasts with a spatial resolution of 1 km for the state of Uttar Pradesh.
2. The district-level monsoon progression forecasting system will provide updates every Monday.
3. The forecasts are developed using data solely from Doppler weather radars and satellites.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the district-level updates will be made available every Wednesday, not Monday. Statement 3 is incorrect; the data is combined from Automatic Rain Gauges (ARG), Automatic Weather Stations (AWS), satellites, and Doppler radars, not solely from radars and satellites.
For how many blocks/sub-districts across 16 states and one UT will the new micro-level rainfall tracking be available in its initial phase?
- A.2,500 blocks
- B.3,196 blocks✓ Correct Answer
- C.3,500 blocks
- D.4,000 blocks
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the district-level monsoon tracking will be available for 3,196 blocks/sub-districts across 16 states and one UT in this phase. The other numbers are close distractors.
What is the primary objective of launching the AI-based, high-resolution weather forecasting systems as highlighted in the news?
- A.To replace all traditional meteorological instruments across the country
- B.To help farmers take informed decisions on sowing, irrigation, and crop protection✓ Correct Answer
- C.To generate revenue by selling premium weather data to private corporations
- D.To centralize all climate research under a single artificial intelligence model
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Explanation
The core objective, as stated by the MoES Minister, is to empower farmers with localized forecasts for better agricultural decision-making. The other options are either not mentioned (revenue generation, centralizing research) or incorrect (replacing all instruments).
Which ministry's spokesperson commented on the steady development of China-US relations ahead of the summit?
- A.Ministry of Commerce of China
- B.Ministry of Foreign Affairs of China✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Defence of China
- D.Ministry of State Security of China
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Mao Ning, the Spokesperson of the Ministry of Foreign Affairs of China, made the comment on social media platform X ahead of the meeting.
Consider the following statements regarding the Trump-Xi summit:
1. The summit, delayed by a month, is President Trump's seventh in-person meeting with President Xi Jinping.
2. China accounted for over 85% of Iran's oil exports prior to the conflict discussed at the summit.
3. The primary objective of the US business delegation is to negotiate reductions in China's nuclear arsenal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions this would be Trump's seventh in-person meeting with Xi. Statement 2 is correct as the article states prior to the war, China accounted for over 85% of Iran's oil exports. Statement 3 is incorrect; the business delegation's focus is on trade and investment, not nuclear disarmament, which is not mentioned in the article.
According to the article, what was the value of the US arms deal with Taiwan announced in December preceding the summit?
- A.$5.5 billion
- B.$8 billion
- C.$11 billion✓ Correct Answer
- D.$15 billion
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'Last December, the US announced an $11billion arms deal with Taiwan, triggering protests from the Chinese government.' The other options are plausible but incorrect figures.
What is identified in the article as a key reason for China's 'upper hand' and vested interest in the Iran conflict during the summit?
- A.China's desire to expand its military bases in the Persian Gulf.
- B.China's role as the largest arms supplier to Iran.
- C.The flow of about 60% of China's oil imports through the Strait of Hormuz.✓ Correct Answer
- D.China's commitment to send peacekeeping troops to the region.
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Explanation
The article explicitly states China has a vested interest in the blockade being opened because 'about 60% of the oil headed for China flows through the Strait of Hormuz.' This economic dependency gives it leverage and a stake in the conflict's resolution. The other options are actions or roles not mentioned in the provided text.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for the Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY)?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
- D.Ministry of Rural Development
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Explanation
Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY is India's flagship public health insurance scheme, which falls under the purview of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. The scheme's implementation is overseen by the National Health Authority (NHA), an attached office of this ministry.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent expansion of Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY:
1. It provides an annual health cover of ₹5 lakh to all senior citizens aged 70 and above.
2. Eligibility for this expansion is based on the income level of the senior citizen.
3. The scheme coverage includes expenses for fifteen days of post-hospitalisation follow-up care.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states every senior citizen aged 70+ is eligible for Rs 5 lakh annual cover. Statement 2 is incorrect as the article explicitly says 'the income level of the individuals... are not taken into consideration'. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions coverage offsets expenses for 'fifteen days of post-hospitalisation follow-up care'.
According to the article, what is the annual cashless health insurance coverage amount provided under the expanded Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY for senior citizens?
- A.₹2 lakh
- B.₹3 lakh
- C.₹5 lakh✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹10 lakh
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Explanation
The article clearly states that under the updated guidelines, every eligible senior citizen is now eligible for 'Rs 5 lakh in annual, cashless health insurance'. The other figures are common coverage amounts for other insurance schemes but are not applicable in this specific context.
What is a key distinguishing feature of the recent AB-PMJAY expansion for senior citizens, as per the article?
- A.It introduces a co-payment mechanism for all treatments.
- B.It restricts eligibility to senior citizens below a certain income threshold.
- C.It makes eligibility universal for the age group, irrespective of income or existing insurance.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It is available only to senior citizens residing in rural areas.
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Explanation
The article emphasizes that the policy expansion makes health security a 'universal right' for India's eldest generation. It specifically notes that eligibility is for every senior citizen aged 70+, and 'the income level of the individuals and their current health insurance are not taken into consideration'. This universalism based solely on age is the key feature.
Which cabinet committee is responsible for approving the Minimum Support Prices (MSPs) for agricultural crops?
- A.Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs
- B.Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Cabinet Committee on Security
- D.Cabinet Committee on Investment and Growth
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Explanation
As per the article and standard procedure, the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) approves the MSPs for agricultural crops. The CCEA is the nodal body for economic decision-making, including price support policies.
Consider the following statements regarding the MSP hike for Kharif crops 2026-27:
1. The MSP for paddy (common variety) was increased by ₹72 to ₹2,441 per quintal.
2. Sunflower seed received the highest absolute increase in MSP among all crops.
3. The MSP for all 14 Kharif crops is at least 60% above the cost of production.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct as sunflower seed saw an increase of ₹622/qtl, the highest absolute hike. Statement 3 is incorrect because the MSPs are at least 50% above the cost of production, not 60%. The margin for moong is 61%, but the minimum for all crops is 50%.
According to the news, what is the estimated total payout to farmers for the procurement of Kharif crops for the 2026-27 season?
- A.₹2.25 lakh crore
- B.₹2.50 lakh crore
- C.₹2.60 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹2.75 lakh crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Government estimates the total payout to farmers at ₹2.60 lakh crore. The other figures are close distractors. This data point is crucial for understanding the fiscal scale of the MSP operation.
What is a key stated objective behind announcing steeper MSP increases for pulses, oilseeds, and cotton compared to paddy?
- A.To increase the export of these commodities
- B.To reduce the import dependency of India✓ Correct Answer
- C.To lower the retail price of cooking oil
- D.To promote organic farming practices
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Explanation
The article clearly mentions that the steeper increases for pulses, oilseeds, and cotton are aimed at 'reducing import dependency and encouraging crop diversification.' India is a major importer of edible oils and pulses, and this policy seeks to incentivize domestic production.
Which international financial institutions are primarily identified as the architects of Structural Adjustment Programs (SAPs) in the article?
- A.World Trade Organization and United Nations Development Programme
- B.International Monetary Fund and World Bank✓ Correct Answer
- C.Asian Development Bank and African Development Bank
- D.Bank for International Settlements and European Central Bank
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that beginning in the 1980s, the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank began structural adjustment programmes across Asia, Africa and Latin America, and later refers to them as the 'primary architects' of these programmes.
Consider the following statements regarding Structural Adjustment Programs (SAPs) as discussed in the article:
1. They typically demanded austerity measures, privatization of state assets, and deregulation of trade and labor.
2. Economic growth in the global South averaged around 3.2% annually during the SAP era of the 1980s and 1990s.
3. The paper argues that the IMF and World Bank owe reparations for the damages caused by these programs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article lists the three typical demands of SAPs as austerity, privatization, and deregulation. Statement 2 is incorrect: Growth averaged 3.2% BEFORE SAPs and fell sharply to 0.7% DURING the SAP era. Statement 3 is correct: The recent paper argues these institutions owe reparations for the damage caused.
According to the 2026 BMJ paper cited in the article, what was the estimated average annual loss in potential national income for the Global South during the Structural Adjustment era?
- A.$250 Billion
- B.$360 Billion
- C.$480 Billion✓ Correct Answer
- D.$1 Trillion
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Explanation
The article states: 'The South collectively lost an average of $480 billion per year in potential national income during this period.' The other figures are distractors: $250B is mentioned as annual profit repatriation, and $1T is mentioned as annual outflows from trade deregulation.
What is a key procedural obstacle to seeking reparations from the IMF and World Bank for Structural Adjustment damages, as mentioned in the article?
- A.Lack of sufficient data to quantify the damages
- B.Absence of international courts with jurisdiction
- C.Sovereign immunity enjoyed by these institutions✓ Correct Answer
- D.Statute of limitations on claims from the 1980s
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'The IMF and World Bank enjoy sovereign immunity, shielding them from lawsuits through normal channels.' This is presented as a major procedural obstacle designed into their structure.
The National Testing Agency (NTA), which conducts the NEET-UG exam, functions under which Union Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
- B.Ministry of Education✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Science and Technology
- D.Ministry of Human Resource Development
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Explanation
The National Testing Agency (NTA) is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Education (formerly Ministry of Human Resource Development). It was established to conduct entrance examinations for higher educational institutions.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The petition in the Supreme Court seeks to replace or fundamentally restructure the National Testing Agency (NTA).
2. The NEET-UG 2026 exam was cancelled due to a paper leak and was conducted on May 13, 2026.
3. The petition demands that the CBI file an investigation report before the apex court within six weeks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the exam was conducted on May 3 and cancelled afterwards, not on May 13. Statement 3 is incorrect; the petition demands the report in four weeks, not six weeks.
According to the article, how many students had appeared for the NEET-UG 2026 exam before it was cancelled?
- A.Over 15 lakh
- B.Over 20 lakh
- C.Over 22 lakh✓ Correct Answer
- D.Over 25 lakh
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'Over 22 lakh students had appeared in the national exam.' The other options are close but incorrect distractors.
What is a key technological reform suggested in the petition to prevent future paper leaks?
- A.Use of Artificial Intelligence for surveillance
- B.Implementation of a Blockchain-based result system
- C.Digital locking of question papers✓ Correct Answer
- D.Mandatory biometric authentication for candidates
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Explanation
The petition specifically urges a direction to mandate the 'digital locking' of question papers to eliminate physical chain-of-custody risks. While other options are potential security measures, only digital locking is mentioned in the article.
Which ministry/department issued the notifications doubling the import duty on gold and silver?
- A.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- B.Ministry of Finance✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of External Affairs
- D.Ministry of Mines
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Explanation
Customs duties, including Basic Customs Duty (BCD) and cesses like AIDC, are administered by the Ministry of Finance through the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC). The article mentions notifications issued by the government, which in this context refers to the Finance Ministry.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent hike in import duty on gold and silver:
1. The effective import tax rate has been doubled from 9.2% to 18.4%.
2. The hike includes an increase in the Basic Customs Duty (BCD) from 5% to 10% and the Agriculture Infrastructure and Development Cess (AIDC) from 1% to 5%.
3. The primary justification for the hike is to reduce the fiscal deficit and increase government revenue.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: effective tax doubled to 18.4%. Statement 2 is correct: BCD increased to 10% and AIDC to 5%. Statement 3 is incorrect; the primary justification, as per government sources, is prudent management of the Current Account Deficit (CAD) and protecting forex reserves for essential imports, not primarily fiscal deficit reduction.
According to the article, what was the approximate value of gold imports into India in the fiscal year 2025-26?
- A.$12 billion
- B.$6.5 billion
- C.$71.9 billion✓ Correct Answer
- D.$721 billion
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Explanation
The article explicitly states, "India imported $71.9 billion of just gold in 2025-26." $12 billion refers to silver imports, $6.5 billion to jewellery imports, and $721 billion is a misreading of the quantity (721 tonnes).
What is the primary objective cited by government sources for doubling the import duty on gold and silver?
- A.To increase government revenue from indirect taxes
- B.To promote domestic gold mining and production
- C.To manage the Current Account Deficit and protect forex reserves for essential imports✓ Correct Answer
- D.To reduce the overall quantity of gold consumption in India
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Explanation
Government sources defended the decision citing the impact of the West Asia crisis on India's CAD. They stated the policy prioritizes forex resources towards essential imports like crude oil, fertilizers, and defence, contrasting precious metals as consumption-driven imports involving substantial forex outflow.
Which constitutional document's schedule was discussed in relation to the medium of instruction in the Supreme Court's judgment?
- A.First Schedule
- B.Eighth Schedule✓ Correct Answer
- C.Tenth Schedule
- D.Twelfth Schedule
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Explanation
The Supreme Court criticized the Rajasthan government's 'myopic stance' that only languages in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution could be incorporated into the school curriculum. The Court clarified this was not a necessary condition.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's judgment on Rajasthani as a medium of instruction:
1. The Court directed the Rajasthan government to formulate a policy for introducing Rajasthani as a medium of instruction.
2. The judgment stated that only languages listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution can be used as a medium of instruction in schools.
3. The Court referenced the National Education Policy 2020 and the Right to Education Act 2009 to support its directive.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the Court directed Rajasthan to frame the policy. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court criticized this very stance as 'myopic'. Statement 3 is correct as the judgment explicitly refers to NEP 2020 and the RTE Act 2009.
By what date did the Supreme Court direct the Rajasthan government to file an affidavit indicating compliance with its directions on Rajasthani as a medium of instruction?
- A.September 25, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- B.September 30, 2026
- C.November 27, 2024
- D.May 12, 2026
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Explanation
The article states the Court directed the State government to file the compliance affidavit by September 25. September 30 is the date for the next hearing, November 27, 2024 is the date of the High Court order, and May 12, 2026 is the date of the Supreme Court's judgment.
What was the primary constitutional and legal basis cited by the Supreme Court for directing the introduction of Rajasthani as a medium of instruction?
- A.Directive Principles of State Policy and the Official Languages Act
- B.Fundamental Rights to Equality and the Cultural and Educational Rights
- C.National Education Policy 2020 and the Right to Education Act 2009✓ Correct Answer
- D.The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution and State Reorganization Act
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Explanation
The Bench explicitly referred to the National Education Policy 2020, which recognizes learning in the mother tongue, and the Right to Education Act 2009, which guarantees equitable access to education. The Court derived the state's obligation from these policy and legislative frameworks.
The recent hike in import duties on gold and silver is a decision primarily under the purview of which ministry?
- A.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- B.Ministry of Finance✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Mines
- D.Ministry of External Affairs
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Explanation
Import duties (Customs Duty) are a form of indirect tax, and tax policy falls under the domain of the Ministry of Finance. The Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC), which administers these duties, is a department under this ministry.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent increase in import tariffs on gold and silver:
1. The tariff has been increased to reduce the country's trade deficit and support the rupee.
2. The move was preceded by a reduction in tariffs in mid-2024, after which smuggling had eased.
3. The Chief Economic Advisor stated that reversing ongoing structural shifts in the global economy is a key imperative.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's core objective. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions smuggling had eased after mid-2024 tariff cuts. Statement 3 is incorrect; the CEA warned that these structural shifts were 'not going to reverse', not that reversing them was an imperative.
To what level has the Indian government raised the import tariff on gold and silver as per the recent announcement?
- A.10%
- B.12%
- C.15%✓ Correct Answer
- D.18%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the import tariffs on gold and silver have been hiked to 15% from the previous 6%. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What is a major potential negative consequence of sharply increasing import duties on gold, as highlighted in the news?
- A.Increase in domestic gold mining activities
- B.Decline in the global price of gold
- C.Revival of smuggling and illicit trade✓ Correct Answer
- D.Reduction in household savings rate
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Explanation
The article directly quotes industry officials expressing concerns that higher import duties could revive smuggling, which had eased after previous tariff cuts. This is a classic unintended consequence of high tariffs on high-demand items.
The article discusses India's engagement with the BRICS grouping. Which of the following countries is NOT a member of BRICS?
- A.Brazil
- B.Russia
- C.Indonesia✓ Correct Answer
- D.South Africa
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Explanation
BRICS comprises Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa. Indonesia, while a significant emerging economy, is not a member. This is a classic static GK fact often asked in Prelims.
Consider the following statements regarding the principles of India's foreign policy as discussed in the article:
1. The principle of 'Reciprocity' is exemplified by India's stance towards the UAE, which has supported India on issues like Kashmir.
2. 'Strategic Flexibility' implies that India should predict every turn in great-power relations to secure its interests.
3. The principle of 'Domestic Renewal' posits that diplomatic activism can compensate for economic challenges at home.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the challenge is NOT to predict every turn, but to secure interests and limit fallout. Statement 3 is incorrect; it argues the opposite—that no diplomatic activism can compensate for 'economic sclerosis at home'.
According to C. Raja Mohan's analysis, what is the total number of core principles proposed to guide India's diplomacy in a shifting world order?
- A.Three
- B.Four
- C.Five✓ Correct Answer
- D.Six
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Explanation
The article explicitly outlines five principles: Reciprocity, Diversification, Strategic Flexibility, Strategic Expansion, and Domestic Renewal. This is a direct factual recall from the news piece.
What is the primary rationale, as per the article, for India's engagement with both the BRICS and the Quad groupings despite their perceived ideological differences?
- A.To formally ally with one and use the other as a bargaining chip.
- B.To pursue pragmatic national interests rather than vacuous ideological commitments.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To gradually transform BRICS into a military alliance like NATO.
- D.To isolate China within the BRICS framework.
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Explanation
The article emphasizes that India's emphasis must remain on the 'pragmatic pursuit of interests' and that descriptions of BRICS and Quad as ideologically opposed exaggerate their coherence. India engages with both based on strategic utility, not ideology.
Which ministry/department is primarily responsible for India's fertiliser subsidy policy?
- A.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- B.Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
- D.Ministry of Finance
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Explanation
The Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers is the nodal ministry for the formulation and implementation of policies related to fertilisers, including subsidies and production. The Department of Fertilizers under this ministry handles these matters.
Consider the following statements regarding India's fertiliser policy as discussed in the article:
1. India has very little natural gas and hardly any rock phosphate, potash or elemental sulphur reserves for fertiliser production.
2. The overuse of urea and di-ammonium phosphate (DAP) has led to severe soil nutrient imbalances.
3. The article suggests replacing the existing fertiliser subsidy with a per-acre payment of Rs 10,000 for all cultivating farmers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article which states India lacks these reserves. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions successive governments encouraged overuse of urea and DAP causing severe imbalances. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article proposes Rs 5,000 per-acre payment, not Rs 10,000.
According to the article, what percentage of the nitrogen in urea is actually absorbed by plants?
- A.About 25%
- B.Around a third (~33%)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Nearly 50%
- D.Over 75%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'only around a third of the N in urea is absorbed by the plants'. The other options are incorrect distractors.
What is the primary reason, as highlighted in the article, for the current fertiliser subsidy system becoming unsustainable?
- A.Due to increasing farmer protests against subsidy cuts.
- B.Because of the fiscal burden and physical availability issues exacerbated by the West Asia crisis.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Because global fertiliser prices have fallen significantly.
- D.Due to a shift in government focus towards industrial growth.
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Explanation
The article states: 'The West Asia crisis has made the present system of subsidy and price controls on fertilisers unsustainable both fiscally and physically: When product availability is itself a problem, how much can one subsidise?' The other options are not supported by the article.
The National Testing Agency (NTA), in the news for the NEET paper leak, operates under which Union Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
- B.Ministry of Education✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Science and Technology
- D.Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
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Explanation
The National Testing Agency (NTA) is an autonomous body established to conduct entrance examinations and operates under the administrative control of the Union Ministry of Education.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The NEET-UG 2026 exam was conducted across nearly 5,500 centres in more than 550 cities.
2. The National Testing Agency (NTA) was established in 2019 to professionalize entrance examinations.
3. After the 2024 NEET controversy, a committee was formed headed by former ISRO chairperson K Radhakrishnan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the NTA was established in 2017, not 2019. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article. Hence, option C is correct.
According to the article, approximately how many MBBS seats in India does the NEET-UG exam serve as a gateway for?
- A.Roughly 1 lakh
- B.Roughly 1.3 lakh✓ Correct Answer
- C.Roughly 1.5 lakh
- D.Roughly 2 lakh
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that NEET is the gateway to roughly 1.3 lakh MBBS seats in India's medical colleges. The other options are close distractors.
What is the primary institutional concern raised by the repeated paper leaks in exams conducted by the NTA?
- A.The financial burden of conducting re-exams on the government exchequer.
- B.The capacity of the agency to safeguard the sanctity and credibility of high-stakes examinations.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The need to increase the number of examination centres across the country.
- D.The legal jurisdiction of the CBI in investigating educational matters.
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Explanation
The core issue highlighted in the article is the NTA's institutional failure and its questioned capacity to ensure the integrity of exams on which lakhs of aspirants stake their futures, undermining the meritocratic system.
Which autonomous body under the Government of India is primarily responsible for conducting the NEET-UG examination?
- A.University Grants Commission (UGC)
- B.National Testing Agency (NTA)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Medical Council of India (MCI)
- D.Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)
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Explanation
The National Testing Agency (NTA) was established in 2017 as an autonomous body to conduct entrance examinations for higher educational institutions, including NEET-UG, JEE Main, and CUET. The article mentions the NTA Director General in the context of the leak complaint.
Consider the following statements regarding the NEET-UG 2026 paper leak case:
1. The 'guess paper' that was circulated contained over 400 questions, of which 120 matched the actual examination.
2. The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) initiated the probe, which was later handed over to the Rajasthan Special Operations Group (SOG).
3. The key suspect apprehended in Nashik was a student of Bachelor of Ayurveda, Medicine and Surgery (BAMS).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the sequence was reversed – the Rajasthan SOG investigated first, and then the case was handed over to the CBI. Statement 3 is correct as the article identifies the suspect, Shubham Khairnar, as a BAMS student.
According to the news article, what was the alleged amount for which the key suspect purchased the NEET-UG question paper?
- A.Rs 5 Lakh
- B.Rs 10 Lakh✓ Correct Answer
- C.Rs 15 Lakh
- D.Rs 20 Lakh
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Explanation
The article states that officials suspect the accused, Shubham Khairnar, purchased the paper for Rs 10 lakh and later sold it for Rs 15 lakh. The other amounts are close distractors mentioned in the context (Rs 5,000 for WhatsApp group entry, Rs 15 lakh selling price).
What is a significant implication of the NEET paper leak case, as highlighted in the investigation?
- A.It demonstrates the superior coordination between state police and the CBI in tackling cybercrime.
- B.It exposes the vulnerability of high-stakes national exams to organized digital syndicates operating across states.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It proves that physical distribution of question papers is more secure than digital methods.
- D.It shows that the National Testing Agency (NTA) has robust mechanisms to prevent insider threats.
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Explanation
The article details how an organized group used a paid WhatsApp group to sell the paper across multiple states (Rajasthan, Maharashtra, etc.), highlighting systemic digital vulnerabilities. The other options are incorrect: coordination was questioned, the leak involved a physical copy converted to digital, and the NTA's mechanisms were under scrutiny.
Which ministry/department releases the official data on India's gold imports mentioned in the article?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Commerce and Industry Ministry✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Mines
- D.NITI Aayog
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Explanation
The article states that data released by the Commerce and Industry Ministry showed gold imports in FY26 fell to 721.04 tonnes. This ministry handles trade statistics and import-export data.
Consider the following statements regarding India's gold trade:
1. India's annual gold demand is approximately 750 tonnes, while domestic production is about 1.5 tonnes.
2. The India-UAE trade deal created a favourable tariff structure for doré imports over finished bullion.
3. Switzerland refines approximately 70% of the world's gold, adding about 40% value through the refining process.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the IIM Ahmedabad paper. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article says the deal incentivised bullion imports over doré. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the NITI Aayog report cited in the article.
According to the article, what was the value of India's gold import bill in FY26?
- A.$58 billion
- B.$71.97 billion✓ Correct Answer
- C.$75 billion
- D.$721.04 billion
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states: "India's gold import in FY26 had jumped by nearly 25% to $71.97 billion, compared to $58 billion in the previous financial year." $58 billion is the previous year's figure, while $721.04 billion is a distractor using the tonnage figure incorrectly.
What is a key unintended consequence of the India-UAE gold trade deal as highlighted in the IIM Ahmedabad report?
- A.It reduced smuggling of gold into India.
- B.It incentivised imports of finished bullion over doré, limiting domestic value addition.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It significantly increased India's domestic gold refining capacity.
- D.It lowered the overall import duty on gold to 4%.
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Explanation
The report states the deal "inadvertently incentivised bullion imports over doré by creating a more favourable tariff structure for the former" and created "unintended consequences by inverting the intended duty differential." This limited opportunities for domestic refining and value addition.
Which state department issued the instructions regarding the implementation of preferential reservation for Arunthathiyars?
- A.Department of Social Justice and Empowerment
- B.Adi Dravidar and Tribal Welfare Department✓ Correct Answer
- C.Department of Personnel and Administrative Reforms
- D.Department of Higher Education
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states that the communication was from the 'Adi Dravidar and Tribal Welfare Department'. This department in Tamil Nadu handles the welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
Consider the following statements regarding the Tamil Nadu Arunthathiyars (Special Reservation) Act, 2009:
1. It provides for a 16% preferential reservation for Arunthathiyars within the overall reservation for Scheduled Castes.
2. As per the Act, if an Arunthathiyar candidate is selected on merit in an unreserved seat, it reduces the number of seats reserved for them under the preferential quota.
3. The Madras High Court, in a relevant judgment, held that the preferential quota must be fully protected and not reduced by merit-based selections.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the Act provides 16% preferential reservation. Statement 2 is incorrect; Section 8 of the Act states that selection on merit does NOT affect the preferential quota. Statement 3 is correct as per the Madras HC judgment in E. Surya vs. Teachers Recruitment Board which said the preferential quota must be protected.
What is the overall percentage of reservation for Scheduled Castes in admissions and appointments in Tamil Nadu, within which the Arunthathiyar sub-quota operates?
- A.16%
- B.18%✓ Correct Answer
- C.20%
- D.22.5%
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the Tamil Nadu Arunthathiyars Act provides 16% preferential reservation for Arunthathiyars 'within the overall 18% reservation for SC'. Therefore, the base SC quota in Tamil Nadu is 18%.
What is the primary legal significance of the Madras High Court judgment referenced in the news, regarding the Arunthathiyar reservation?
- A.It struck down the 2009 Act as unconstitutional.
- B.It clarified that the 16% preferential quota is an additional entitlement that is not diminished by merit-based selection.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It ordered the state to increase the overall SC quota from 18% to 20%.
- D.It mandated that only Arunthathiyars can be appointed to the Adi Dravidar Welfare Department.
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Explanation
The HC judgment in E. Surya vs. Teachers Recruitment Board clarified that meritorious Arunthathiyar candidates selected under the SC general category shall not reduce or affect the 16% preferential SC(A) quota. This upholds the 'non-reduction' principle in Section 8 of the 2009 Act.
Related Current Affairs Resources
More Current Affairs Questions
Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?
For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.
- Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
- Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
- Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.
Frequently Asked Questions
What are the important current affairs questions for 13 May 2026?▼
This page contains 136 current affairs questions from 13 May 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
How to use 13 May 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼
Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.
How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼
Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.
Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼
Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.
What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼
Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.
All Questions in This Set
- Q1. The Supreme Court's judgment in the Harish Rana case primarily…
- Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
- Q3. According to the article, on which date did the Supreme Court …
- Q4. was a key procedural directive issued by the Supreme Court in …
- Q5. constitutional article, cited by the Centre, specifically prov…
- Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the arguments pres…
- Q7. According to the article, on which date did the Supreme Court …
- Q8. was the primary constitutional concern raised by Justice Bagch…
- Q9. Indian organization is responsible for the development of the …
- Q10. Consider the following statements: 1. MIRV technology allows …
- Q11. According to the news, to what level did the Indian rupee depr…
- Q12. is a primary strategic implication of India successfully testi…
- Q13. ministry's data was cited in the article regarding the volume …
- Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the recent hike in…
- Q15. According to the article, what was the value of India's gold i…
- Q16. is the primary objective behind the government's decision to h…
- Q17. According to the article, which U.S. agency provides the key a…
- Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the impact of the …
- Q19. According to the article, what was the peak spot price reached…
- Q20. is a major direct fiscal implication for the Government of Ind…
- Q21. ministry/department is the nodal authority at the national lev…
- Q22. Consider the following statements regarding India's water gove…
- Q23. According to the article, approximately what percentage of glo…
- Q24. is the primary objective of the Atal Bhujal Yojana as mentione…
- Q25. Under which Article of the Constitution is the Uniform Civil C…
- Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the Uniform Civil …
- Q27. For how many months has the Assam Cabinet decided to impose au…
- Q28. is the primary constitutional basis cited for excluding certai…
- Q29. The Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT), which issued …
- Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the recent ban on …
- Q31. According to the article, what is the estimated sugar producti…
- Q32. is the primary rationale cited by the government for imposing …
- Q33. Under which act was the National Sports Development Fund (NSDF…
- Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the National Sport…
- Q35. According to the investigation, what was the total amount from…
- Q36. was the primary concern raised by the Parliamentary Standing C…
- Q37. United Nations specialized agency, mentioned in the article, p…
- Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the wildfire situa…
- Q39. According to the data in the article, how much land area was b…
- Q40. is the primary reason, as explained in the article, for the hi…
- Q41. autonomous body is responsible for conducting the NEET-UG exam…
- Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the NEET-UG paper …
- Q43. According to the news, how many students were affected by the …
- Q44. was the primary reason cited by the NTA Director General for c…
- Q45. state government department is primarily responsible for imple…
- Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the Karnataka unif…
- Q47. According to the article, on which date was the original gover…
- Q48. is the primary objective of the new Karnataka government order…
- Q49. The joint report 'Extreme Heat and Agriculture' discussed in t…
- Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the impact of extr…
- Q51. According to the International Labour Organisation (ILO) repor…
- Q52. is identified as a primary reason for India's continued farmer…
- Q53. In the Supreme Court hearing, Menaka Guruswamy argued for wome…
- Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the arguments pres…
- Q55. According to the arguments cited in the article, in which year…
- Q56. was the core constitutional objective, as per the arguments pr…
- Q57. organization conducts both the NEET-UG and JEE Main examinatio…
- Q58. Consider the following statements regarding NEET and JEE exams…
- Q59. Approximately how many students appear for the NEET-UG examina…
- Q60. is identified as a primary reason for NEET-UG being more prone…
- Q61. Under which Article of the Constitution is the Election Commis…
- Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the Special Intens…
- Q63. According to the article, what percentage of the electoral rol…
- Q64. is the primary reason cited by the Election Commission for shi…
- Q65. autonomous body, established in 2017, is responsible for condu…
- Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
- Q67. According to the news, on which date was the NEET-UG 2026 exam…
- Q68. is a primary reason cited in the petition for advocating a shi…
- Q69. US government official is conducting parallel talks with Chine…
- Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the US-China CEO d…
- Q71. According to the news, which major US aerospace company's CEO …
- Q72. is a significant implication of having major technology compan…
- Q73. The article mentions Norway's Government Pension Fund Global. …
- Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the India-Nordic r…
- Q75. According to the article, what is the investment target commit…
- Q76. is a primary strategic objective of the 'Green Strategic Partn…
- Q77. The India Meteorological Department (IMD) functions under whic…
- Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the new AI-based w…
- Q79. For how many blocks/sub-districts across 16 states and one UT …
- Q80. is the primary objective of launching the AI-based, high-resol…
- Q81. ministry's spokesperson commented on the steady development of…
- Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the Trump-Xi summi…
- Q83. According to the article, what was the value of the US arms de…
- Q84. is identified in the article as a key reason for China's 'uppe…
- Q85. ministry is primarily responsible for the Ayushman Bharat Prad…
- Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the recent expansi…
- Q87. According to the article, what is the annual cashless health i…
- Q88. is a key distinguishing feature of the recent AB-PMJAY expansi…
- Q89. cabinet committee is responsible for approving the Minimum Sup…
- Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the MSP hike for K…
- Q91. According to the news, what is the estimated total payout to f…
- Q92. is a key stated objective behind announcing steeper MSP increa…
- Q93. international financial institutions are primarily identified …
- Q94. Consider the following statements regarding Structural Adjustm…
- Q95. According to the 2026 BMJ paper cited in the article, what was…
- Q96. is a key procedural obstacle to seeking reparations from the I…
- Q97. The National Testing Agency (NTA), which conducts the NEET-UG …
- Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q99. According to the article, how many students had appeared for t…
- Q100. is a key technological reform suggested in the petition to pre…
- Q101. ministry/department issued the notifications doubling the impo…
- Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the recent hike in…
- Q103. According to the article, what was the approximate value of go…
- Q104. is the primary objective cited by government sources for doubl…
- Q105. constitutional document's schedule was discussed in relation t…
- Q106. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
- Q107. By what date did the Supreme Court direct the Rajasthan govern…
- Q108. was the primary constitutional and legal basis cited by the Su…
- Q109. The recent hike in import duties on gold and silver is a decis…
- Q110. Consider the following statements regarding the recent increas…
- Q111. To what level has the Indian government raised the import tari…
- Q112. is a major potential negative consequence of sharply increasin…
- Q113. The article discusses India's engagement with the BRICS groupi…
- Q114. Consider the following statements regarding the principles of …
- Q115. According to C. Raja Mohan's analysis, what is the total numbe…
- Q116. is the primary rationale, as per the article, for India's enga…
- Q117. ministry/department is primarily responsible for India's ferti…
- Q118. Consider the following statements regarding India's fertiliser…
- Q119. According to the article, what percentage of the nitrogen in u…
- Q120. is the primary reason, as highlighted in the article, for the …
- Q121. The National Testing Agency (NTA), in the news for the NEET pa…
- Q122. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q123. According to the article, approximately how many MBBS seats in…
- Q124. is the primary institutional concern raised by the repeated pa…
- Q125. autonomous body under the Government of India is primarily res…
- Q126. Consider the following statements regarding the NEET-UG 2026 p…
- Q127. According to the news article, what was the alleged amount for…
- Q128. is a significant implication of the NEET paper leak case, as h…
- Q129. ministry/department releases the official data on India's gold…
- Q130. Consider the following statements regarding India's gold trade…
- Q131. According to the article, what was the value of India's gold i…
- Q132. is a key unintended consequence of the India-UAE gold trade de…
- Q133. state department issued the instructions regarding the impleme…
- Q134. Consider the following statements regarding the Tamil Nadu Aru…
- Q135. is the overall percentage of reservation for Scheduled Castes …
- Q136. is the primary legal significance of the Madras High Court jud…