18 May 2026, Questions & Answers
148 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
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This page contains 148 current affairs questions with answers from 18 May 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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148 QsThe Supreme Court, in the recent bail ruling, cited a principle that obligates courts to follow historical precedents. What is this legal doctrine called?
- A.Res Judicata
- B.Stare Decisis✓ Correct Answer
- C.Actus Reus
- D.Habeas Corpus
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that the Supreme Court stated "K A Najeeb is the binding law and entitled to the protection of stare decisis." This doctrine means 'to stand by things decided' and ensures consistency in legal rulings.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent Supreme Court judgment on bail under UAPA:
1. The court granted bail to Syed Ifthikar Andrabi, an accused in a narco-terror case investigated by the NIA.
2. The bench expressed agreement with the 2024 judgment in the Guruvinder Singh case which had termed bail as an 'exception' under UAPA.
3. The court held that the constitutional principle that 'bail is the rule and jail the exception' flows from Articles 21 and 22 of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article which states the bench directed the release of Syed Ifthikar Andrabi on bail. Statement 2 is incorrect because the bench expressed 'reservations' and 'disagreed' with the 2024 Guruvinder Singh decision, not agreement. Statement 3 is directly quoted from the article which says the principle flows from Articles 21 and 22.
According to the news, which Supreme Court judgment did the bench declare as the 'binding law' on the issue of bail under the UAPA?
- A.Guruvinder Singh vs State of Punjab (2024)
- B.Union of India vs K A Najeeb (2021)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Sharjeel Imam Bail Denial (2026)
- D.Delhi Riots Conspiracy Case (2024)
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Explanation
The article clearly states: "We make it clear that K A Najeeb is the binding law and entitled to the protection of stare decisis." The Guruvinder Singh (2024) and Delhi riots case judgments were the ones from which the bench differed.
What was the core constitutional reasoning provided by the Supreme Court bench for reaffirming the 'bail is rule' principle even under stringent laws like UAPA?
- A.That statutes can completely override fundamental rights during emergencies.
- B.That statutes may calibrate the application of the principle but cannot invert the constitutional relationship between liberty and detention.✓ Correct Answer
- C.That the principle of equality (Article 14) mandates similar bail conditions for all accused.
- D.That the right to freedom of speech (Article 19) indirectly supports the right to bail.
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Explanation
The article directly quotes the bench's reasoning: "while statutes may calibrate the manner in which the principle is applied... those cannot invert the constitutional relationship between liberty and detention." This is the core legal position that balances statutory power with constitutional safeguards.
The Supreme Court judgment discussed the interface between the UAPA and which fundamental right under the Constitution?
- A.Right to Equality (Article 14)
- B.Right to Freedom of Speech (Article 19)
- C.Right to Life and Personal Liberty (Article 21)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Right against Exploitation (Article 23)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the court examined the interface between Section 43D(5) of UAPA and the right to speedy trial and personal liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court judgment:
1. It emphasized that the principle 'bail is the rule' applies even in cases under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA).
2. It directed the government to amend Section 43D(5) of the UAPA to make bail provisions less stringent.
3. It criticized its own recent judgment in the Gulfisha Fatima case for hollowing out the reasoning of the larger Bench in the K.A. Najeeb case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the core of the judgment is that bail is the rule even in UAPA cases. Statement 2 is incorrect; the court interpreted the existing law but did not direct any legislative amendment. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the court criticized the Gulfisha Fatima judgment for hollowing out the Najeeb precedent.
Which specific section of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) contains the stringent bail provision discussed in the Supreme Court judgment?
- A.Section 43A
- B.Section 43B
- C.Section 43D(5)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Section 45
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Explanation
The article directly mentions 'Section 43D(5), the draconian bail provision of the UAPA' as the specific section creating the interface with Article 21 rights.
What was the primary concern of the Supreme Court regarding the application of UAPA's bail provision, as per the judgment?
- A.That it was being applied too leniently, allowing terrorists to get bail easily.
- B.That prolonged pre-trial detention under it could become a form of punitive punishment.✓ Correct Answer
- C.That it conflicted with the state's exclusive power to legislate on terrorist activities.
- D.That it did not provide enough discretion to the investigating agencies.
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Explanation
The judgment states that if prima facie accusations are blindly accepted to deny bail, 'pre-trial incarceration would begin to acquire a post-trial punitive character'. This captures the court's core concern about the provision's misuse.
Which constitutional body is responsible for recommending the distribution of tax revenues between the Centre and states?
- A.Planning Commission
- B.Finance Commission✓ Correct Answer
- C.NITI Aayog
- D.Inter-State Council
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Explanation
The Finance Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 280 of the Constitution. Its primary function is to recommend the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States, and among the States themselves.
Consider the following statements regarding the democratic deficit in Indian federalism:
1. The democratic deficit refers to the gap between a state's population share and its Lok Sabha seat share.
2. Constitutional amendments in 1976 and 2002 froze political representation based on the 1971 Census.
3. According to 2024 projections, the four Southern states would have 31 fewer seats, while the four Northern states would have 23 additional seats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as defined in the article. Statement 2 is correct as per the constitutional amendments mentioned. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states the Southern states would have 23 fewer seats and Northern states 31 additional seats.
According to the article, until when is the political representation in Lok Sabha frozen based on the 1971 Census?
- A.Until the 2021 Census
- B.Until the first Census after 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.Until the 2031 Census
- D.Until a constitutional amendment reverses it
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that constitutional amendments froze political representation on the basis of the 1971 Census until the first Census after 2026. This is a key factual point for prelims.
What is identified as the deeper cause aggravating the challenges of fiscal federalism in India, according to the article?
- A.The absence of a Planning Commission
- B.The growing divisiveness of Indian politics and erosion of democratic sensibility✓ Correct Answer
- C.The lack of constitutional provisions for state autonomy
- D.The unequal distribution of natural resources among states
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Explanation
The article identifies 'the growing divisiveness of Indian politics' and 'the erosion of democratic sensibility' as the 'elephant in the room' aggravating federalism challenges. It argues that cooperative federalism is curdling into combative federalism due to unilateral actions and lack of consultation.
The recent breakthrough in scramjet technology for hypersonic missiles was achieved by which Indian organization?
- A.Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
- B.Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)
- D.Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL)
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) accomplished the 1,200-second runtime test of its scramjet combustor. DRDO is India's premier agency for military research and development.
Consider the following statements regarding hypersonic missiles and propulsion systems:
1. A scramjet engine uses atmospheric oxygen for combustion and operates efficiently at hypersonic speeds.
2. Ramjet air-breathing jet engines work most efficiently at subsonic speeds.
3. The Mach number is a measure of speed relative to the speed of sound in the surrounding medium.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: scramjets are air-breathing and operate at hypersonic speeds. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states ramjets work most efficiently at supersonic speeds (around Mach 3), not subsonic. Statement 3 is the textbook definition of the Mach number provided in the article.
For how many seconds did DRDO successfully test its actively cooled scramjet combustor in May 2026, as per the news?
- A.700 seconds
- B.900 seconds
- C.1,200 seconds✓ Correct Answer
- D.1,500 seconds
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that on 9th May, DRDO accomplished a 1,200-second runtime test of its scramjet combustor. The 700-second figure refers to a previous test conducted in January.
What is a key tactical advantage of a Hypersonic Cruise Missile (HCM) over a traditional ballistic missile?
- A.It carries a larger payload.
- B.It is significantly cheaper to produce.
- C.It follows a predictable parabolic trajectory.
- D.It can be manoeuvred during flight towards its target.✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
As stated in the article, the manoeuvrability of hypersonic cruise missiles sets them apart. Unlike ballistic missiles which follow a standard parabolic trajectory, HCMs can be manoeuvred, making them harder for air defence systems to track and intercept.
Which ministry is the nodal ministry for the Central Vista redevelopment project?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Culture
- D.Ministry of Urban Development
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the Central Vista redevelopment project is under the Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs (MoHUA). The CPWD, which is executing the project, also falls under this ministry.
Consider the following statements regarding the Central Vista redevelopment:
1. Nirman Bhawan was the first ministerial complex to be demolished for the project.
2. The total sanctioned cost of the redevelopment, including the new Parliament building, is over ₹20,000 crore.
3. The pre-Independence North Block and South Block are being converted into a National Museum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the total sanctioned cost is ₹13,169.61 crore, not over ₹20,000 crore. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions North and South Block are being refurbished into a new National Museum.
What is the contract value, as mentioned in the article, for the construction of Common Central Secretariat buildings 8 and 9 on the sites of Nirman and Udyog Bhawan?
- A.₹2,500.50 crore
- B.₹3,069.70 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹4,100.25 crore
- D.₹13,169.61 crore
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Explanation
The article states that CPWD allotted the work for CCS 8 and 9 to Ahluwalia Contracts (India) Ltd., accepting a bid of Rs 3,069.70 crore. The other options are distractors: ₹13,169.61 crore is the total project cost.
What is a primary stated objective of constructing the Common Central Secretariat (CCS) as part of the Central Vista redevelopment?
- A.To increase tourist footfall in Lutyens' Delhi
- B.To generate revenue by leasing office space
- C.To house all Union ministries in a single, integrated complex✓ Correct Answer
- D.To relocate all ministries outside of Delhi NCR
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Explanation
The article clearly states that 'a 10-building Common Central Secretariat (CCS) is being constructed to house all Union ministries.' This indicates the objective is administrative consolidation and efficiency, not tourism, revenue generation, or relocation out of Delhi.
Which constitutional article establishes the basis of adult suffrage for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies?
- A.Article 324
- B.Article 326✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 329
- D.Article 330
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Explanation
Article 326 of the Constitution provides for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies on the basis of adult suffrage. Article 324 deals with the Election Commission, Article 329 with bar to interference by courts in electoral matters, and Article 330 with reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes in the Lok Sabha.
Consider the following statements regarding the electoral processes discussed in the article:
1. Section 53(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 allows for 'unopposed' winners.
2. The Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls in West Bengal successfully identified and removed a significant number of 'ineligible' voters as per Article 326.
3. Over 19 lakh people classified as 'non-citizens' in Assam's National Register of Citizens (NRC) were subsequently removed from the electoral rolls.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the ECI failed to release figures on 'ineligible' electors removed via the SIR. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article notes that these over 19 lakh 'non-citizens' retained their voting rights.
According to the article, how many electors were deleted from the electoral rolls in West Bengal after the judicial officers' expedited process following the SIR?
- A.Over 60 lakh
- B.27.16 lakh✓ Correct Answer
- C.Over 19 lakh
- D.700
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Explanation
The article specifies that 27.16 lakh electors were deleted after the process carried out by judicial officers appointed by the Supreme Court. 'Over 60 lakh' refers to those placed 'under adjudication', 'Over 19 lakh' refers to Assam NRC data, and '700' refers to the number of judicial officers.
What is the primary concern raised by the author regarding the trend of diminishing political competition, as referenced by terms like 'One Nation, One Election' and 'Opposition-mukt Bharat'?
- A.It will increase administrative efficiency of elections.
- B.It will reduce the cost of conducting frequent elections.
- C.It strikes at the roots of the democratic character of the nation by fostering one-horse races.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It will lead to more stable and long-term government policies.
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Explanation
The author's core argument is that democracy requires meaningful competition. The concluding paragraph explicitly states that such trends 'do not augur well' and that 'there will be little thrill left in a one-horse race', which 'strikes at the very roots of the democratic character of the nation'. The other options are potential arguments for such reforms but are not the author's primary concern.
As per the article, which state police force implemented the multi-layered strategy leading to a decline in crimes against women?
- A.Uttar Pradesh Police
- B.Rajasthan Police
- C.Haryana Police✓ Correct Answer
- D.Punjab Police
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Haryana Police attributed the progress to a multi-layered policing strategy. All data and initiatives mentioned, like the Harsamay portal and Durga Shakti Force, are specific to Haryana.
Consider the following statements regarding the news on crimes against women in Haryana:
1. The total cases of crime against women in Haryana fell from 16,658 in 2021 to 8,723 in 2025.
2. The Durga Shakti Mobile application provides single-touch emergency access integrated with the national emergency number 112.
3. The Harsamay portal enables grievance redressal without requiring a visit to a police station.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's opening data. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states the app is integrated with 'Haryana 112', not the 'national emergency number 112' generically—a subtle trap. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article.
According to the data, what was the number of rape cases registered in Haryana in the year 2025?
- A.1,716
- B.1,033✓ Correct Answer
- C.1,249
- D.1,500
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Explanation
The article clearly states: "rape cases fell from 1,716 in 2021 to 1,033 in 2025." Option A is the 2021 figure, option C is the 2025 figure for kidnapping/abduction, and D is a distractor.
What is the primary objective of the four-dimensional policing approach adopted by Haryana Police as described in the article?
- A.To increase the number of police stations in urban areas
- B.To address threats to women's safety at home, work, in transit, and in courtrooms✓ Correct Answer
- C.To reduce the overall state crime rate by targeting economic offenders
- D.To integrate all police services with the Aadhaar database for monitoring
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Explanation
The DGP explicitly stated they asked where a woman is most vulnerable—'at home, at work, in transit, or in a courtroom'—and built protections accordingly. This defines the four-dimensional approach's core objective.
Which ministry/department is primarily responsible for implementing the fertiliser subsidy policy discussed in the article?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers
- C.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Rural Development
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Explanation
The article discusses agricultural subsidies, including fertiliser prices. While the Department of Fertilizers under the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers handles production, the overarching policy for farmer support and input subsidies falls under the mandate of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
Consider the following statements regarding the agricultural subsidy scenario described in the article:
1. A farmer in India pays Rs 266.50 for a 45 kg bag of urea.
2. The fertiliser subsidy for a farmer growing wheat and paddy amounts to approximately Rs 44,000 per household.
3. Pakistani farmers pay 1.5 times more for diesel than their Indian counterparts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as explicitly mentioned in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the subsidy is Rs 44,000 per acre, not per household. Statement 3 is correct as the article states Pakistani farmers pay PKR 417 per litre vs Rs 90.94 in India, which is approximately 1.5 times more after currency adjustment.
According to the article, what is the approximate fertiliser subsidy provided per acre for a typical Green Revolution farmer growing wheat and paddy?
- A.Rs 22,000
- B.Rs 44,000✓ Correct Answer
- C.Rs 66,000
- D.Rs 1,10,000
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Explanation
The article explicitly calculates that a farmer using eight bags of urea and three bags of DAP per acre receives a subsidy of Rs 44,000 per acre. Rs 1,10,000 is the subsidy for a 2.5-acre household, making it a close distractor.
What is the primary 'paradox' or dilemma highlighted by the article regarding India's agricultural subsidy policy?
- A.Subsidies increase production but decrease farmer incomes.
- B.Subsidies ensure food security but lead to environmental degradation.
- C.Subsidies provide immediate farmer support but create long-term fiscal strain and stall necessary reforms.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Subsidies benefit large farmers but exclude small and marginal farmers.
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Explanation
The article's core argument is that while subsidies provide crucial support and price stability, their escalating cost creates fiscal unsustainability and, due to political fear of farmer resistance, prevents the government from implementing necessary agricultural reforms. This is termed a 'paradox of risk'.
The India-Pakistan Composite Dialogue, as mentioned in the article, was formally announced after a meeting between the Prime Ministers of both countries in which international city?
- A.Geneva
- B.New York✓ Correct Answer
- C.London
- D.Dhaka
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Explanation
The article states that the Composite Dialogue was formally announced after Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee's meeting with Pakistan's Prime Minister Nawaz Sharif in New York in September 1998.
Consider the following statements regarding the India-Pakistan dialogue process as described in the article:
1. The Composite Dialogue (CD) consisted of eight subjects categorized into humanitarian matters, cooperation, and issue resolution.
2. The Joint Anti-Terror Mechanism (JATM) was established in 2004 and survived the 2008 Mumbai terrorist attacks.
3. Prime Minister Narendra Modi's visit to Lahore in December 2015 was followed by the Pathankot terrorist attack within ten days.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article categorizes the eight subjects of the CD into humanitarian matters, cooperation, and resolution of issues. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states the JATM 'did not survive the [Mumbai] attack.' Statement 3 is correct as per the article's timeline.
According to the article, in which year was the India-Pakistan Composite Dialogue (CD) formally announced?
- A.1997
- B.1998✓ Correct Answer
- C.1999
- D.2004
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that 'the India-Pakistan Composite Dialogue (CD) was announced in September 1998.' The foreign secretaries met in 1997, but the CD was announced the following year.
What is identified in the article as the primary reason for Pakistan's unwillingness to dismantle terrorist infrastructure and pursue comprehensive peace with India?
- A.Economic sanctions imposed by Western countries.
- B.Lack of political will from successive civilian governments.
- C.Its security doctrine rooted in the two-nation theory and irredentism.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Pressure from other neighboring countries like Afghanistan.
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Explanation
The article concludes that Pakistan's stance 'is rooted in its foundational principle of the two-nation theory and its irredentism.' It states that Pakistan has been willing to sacrifice economic stability but is unwilling to give up confrontation, making its security doctrine the core impediment.
The International Year of Millets (2023) was declared by which international organization at India's initiative?
- A.World Trade Organization (WTO)
- B.United Nations (UN)✓ Correct Answer
- C.World Bank
- D.Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states, "The United Nations had, at India’s initiative, declared 2023 as the International Year of Millets." This is a factual recall from the provided content.
Consider the following statements regarding the reasons for farmers shifting from cotton to bajra as mentioned in the article:
1. Severe yield losses due to pink bollworm (gulabi sundi) infestation in cotton.
2. High and rising labor costs for picking cotton.
3. Bajra requires more irrigation and fertilizers compared to cotton.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article details significant yield falls due to pink bollworm. Statement 2 is correct as it mentions labor costs ranging from Rs 12 to Rs 25 per kg for picking. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article states bajra needs "only 1-2 irrigations" compared to "5-7 in cotton" and uses less fertilizer.
According to the article, what is the Minimum Support Price (MSP) for bajra (pearl millet) for the year 2026?
- A.₹2,100 per quintal
- B.₹2,400 per quintal
- C.₹2,775 per quintal
- D.₹2,900 per quintal✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article clearly states, "This time, the MSP has been raised to Rs 2,900/quintal..." The other options are distractors: ₹2,100 was the market rate a farmer got, ₹2,400 was the effective rate after a state bonus, and ₹2,775 was the previous year's official MSP.
As per the article, the closure of the Strait of Hormuz since February 28 is primarily creating a challenge for Indian agriculture by affecting the supply of what?
- A.Seeds for hybrid crops
- B.Agricultural machinery
- C.Fertilizers✓ Correct Answer
- D.Pesticides
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Explanation
The article links the Strait of Hormuz closure directly to fertilizer availability: "This year, fertiliser availability is a challenge, because of the unresolved United States-Israel versus Iran conflict and closure of the vital Strait of Hormuz waterway since February 28." While pesticides are also mentioned as being derived from petroleum, the primary and explicit challenge discussed is fertilizer supply.
The article mentions a framework described as 'the most important political consensus' of the summit by Foreign Minister Wang Yi. To which country's foreign ministry does Wang Yi belong?
- A.Ministry of External Affairs, India
- B.Ministry of Foreign Affairs, United States
- C.Ministry of Foreign Affairs, People's Republic of China✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Europe and Foreign Affairs, France
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Explanation
Wang Yi is the Foreign Minister of the People's Republic of China, as mentioned in the context of the Beijing summit. The Ministry of Foreign Affairs is the primary diplomatic body of China.
Consider the following statements regarding the 2026 Trump-Xi summit in Beijing:
1. The summit produced a new framework for the bilateral relationship termed 'constructive strategic stability'.
2. The US readout from the summit explicitly mentioned and reaffirmed the 'Six Assurances' commitment to Taiwan.
3. Both sides agreed to an AI dialogue in principle, but its specific content remains undefined.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the new formulation is 'constructive strategic stability'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article says the US readout did not mention Taiwan and that Trump 'waved aside' decades of commitment on 'Six Assurances'. Statement 3 is correct as per the article which notes 'An AI dialogue was agreed in principle; its content remains undefined.'
According to the article, what is the value of the pending US arms package to Taiwan that was discussed during the summit?
- A.$10 billion
- B.$12 billion
- C.$14 billion✓ Correct Answer
- D.$16 billion
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Trump mentioned making 'no commitment either way' on the pending '$14 billion arms package'. The other options are close but incorrect numerical distractors.
What is identified in the article as a primary strategic implication of the summit for a country like India?
- A.Increased access to advanced US military technology.
- B.A formal invitation to join a US-China duopoly (G2).
- C.Narrowed strategic manoeuvring space due to the 'G2 overlay'.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Guaranteed Chinese concessions on bilateral border disputes.
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Explanation
The article's analysis directly states that the 'G2 overlay'—the atmospheric effect of two great powers coordinating—'narrows the manoeuvring space available to other major powers, India included.' The other options are not supported by the article's content.
Which research institute, led by Craig Venter, created the minimal synthetic cell JCVI-syn3.0?
- A.J. Craig Venter Institute (JCVI)✓ Correct Answer
- B.National Institutes of Health (NIH)
- C.Indian Institute of Science (IISc)
- D.Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB)
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that Craig Venter and his team at JCVI published the creation of JCVI-syn3.0. JCVI is a non-profit research institute founded by Craig Venter, focusing on genomics and synthetic biology.
Consider the following statements regarding the minimal synthetic cell JCVI-syn3.0:
1. It was created by Craig Venter and his team and published in the journal Science in 2016.
2. It contains 473 genes and 531,560 base pairs, all of which are understood and have assigned functions.
3. A derivative cell, JCVI-syn3A, had about 92 genes of unknown function in 2022, showing progress from the original 149.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because 149 genes in JCVI-syn3.0 had no known function, which is a central point of the article. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions that by 2022, the count of unknown-function genes in JCVI-syn3A had dropped to about 92.
According to the article, what was the total number of genes in the minimal synthetic cell JCVI-syn3.0?
- A.149
- B.473✓ Correct Answer
- C.531,560
- D.92
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Explanation
The article clearly states that JCVI-syn3.0 has 473 genes. 149 is the number of genes with unknown function, 531,560 is the number of base pairs, and 92 is the number of unknown genes in the later derivative JCVI-syn3A.
What is the primary scientific challenge highlighted by the creation of JCVI-syn3.0, according to the article?
- A.The ethical implications of creating synthetic life forms.
- B.The high cost and technical difficulty of genome sequencing.
- C.The fundamental gap in understanding the function of essential genes.✓ Correct Answer
- D.The competition between public and private genome projects.
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Explanation
The article's core argument is that despite creating a minimal cell, a significant portion (149 genes) of its essential genome remains functionally unknown. This '30% problem' represents a major knowledge gap that prevents synthetic biology from becoming a true engineering discipline.
Under which international legal framework does the WHO declare a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC)?
- A.The Universal Declaration of Human Rights
- B.The International Health Regulations (IHR)✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Biological Weapons Convention
- D.The WHO Constitution
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Explanation
The PHEIC is formally declared under the International Health Regulations (IHR), a legally binding agreement that provides the framework for managing global health security threats. The article explicitly mentions the PHEIC is declared 'under the International Health Regulations'.
Consider the following statements regarding the Ebola outbreak mentioned in the news:
1. The outbreak has been declared a PHEIC due to concerns over cross-border spread and conflict-driven displacement.
2. The outbreak is caused by the Zaire ebolavirus, the most common strain.
3. A person infected with Ebola is contagious during the entire incubation period of 2-21 days.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article which cites 'cross-border spread, conflict-driven displacement'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states the current outbreak involves the 'Bundibugyo ebolavirus strain'. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article clarifies contagion starts 'once symptoms appear', not during the incubation period.
According to the WHO report cited in the article, how many laboratory-confirmed cases of Ebola were reported in the Ituri Province of the Democratic Republic of the Congo as of May 16, 2026?
- A.5 cases
- B.8 cases✓ Correct Answer
- C.12 cases
- D.246 cases
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Explanation
The article specifically states: 'as of 16 May 2026, eight laboratory-confirmed cases... have been reported in Ituri Province of the DRC.' The figure 246 refers to 'suspected cases', making it a key distractor.
What is the primary strategic reason cited by the WHO for declaring the Ebola outbreak a PHEIC, beyond the case numbers themselves?
- A.The high average fatality rate of the Ebola virus.
- B.The need to test newly developed antiviral drugs.
- C.The risk of undetected spread due to conflict and displacement in the region.✓ Correct Answer
- D.The mutation of the virus into an airborne transmission mode.
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Explanation
While the case numbers are a factor, the article emphasizes that 'it is the ongoing conflict and displacement in this region raises concerns about undetected spread and access to care' as a key reason for the elevated PHEIC declaration. This highlights the intersection of health security and geopolitical instability.
The European Round Table for Industry (ERT), mentioned in the news, is primarily a forum of which of the following?
- A.Heads of State of European Union countries
- B.Chief executives of major multinational companies of European parentage✓ Correct Answer
- C.Regulatory bodies overseeing cross-border trade in Europe
- D.A parliamentary committee of the European Parliament
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Explanation
As per the static GK linkage, the European Round Table for Industry (ERT) is a forum consisting of chief executives and chairs of major multinational companies of European parentage, focusing on competitiveness and growth.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. Prime Minister Modi addressed the European Round Table for Industry during his visit to Gothenburg, Sweden.
2. The India-European Union Free Trade Agreement was signed and implemented in January 2026.
3. The discussions also focused on strengthening cooperation in areas like green transition and digital technologies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as PM Modi addressed the ERT in Gothenburg. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states negotiations were 'concluded' in January 2026, not that it was signed and implemented. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions discussions on green transition and digital technologies.
According to the news, in which month and year were the negotiations for the India-EU Free Trade Agreement concluded?
- A.December 2025
- B.January 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.March 2026
- D.May 2026
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "In January, India and the European Union (EU) concluded the FTA." This is a direct factual recall from the news content.
What was a key proposal made by Prime Minister Modi to institutionalize the India-Europe business partnership, as per the news article?
- A.Establishing a joint India-Europe investment fund
- B.Creating an India Desk at the European Round Table for Industry (ERT)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Launching a bilateral digital payment corridor
- D.Setting up a permanent secretariat for the India-EU FTA
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Explanation
The article mentions: "The Prime Minister suggested... also creating an India Desk at ERT." This was a specific proposal to create a dedicated point of contact within the ERT forum to deepen engagement.
The article mentions a strategic concept describing the risk of conflict when a rising power challenges an established one. What is this term called?
- A.The Domino Theory
- B.The Prisoner's Dilemma
- C.The Thucydides Trap✓ Correct Answer
- D.The Security Dilemma
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Explanation
The article explicitly references the 'Thucydides Trap' in President Xi's rhetorical questions. This term, popularized by Graham Allison, analyzes the historical pattern of conflict between rising and ruling powers, making it directly relevant to the U.S.-China dynamic discussed.
Consider the following statements regarding the U.S.-China summit discussed in the article:
1. The visit resulted in the signing of a joint statement and a formal trade agreement.
2. A key U.S. expectation was to secure China's support to help end the ongoing war with Iran.
3. The U.S. business delegation specifically included CEOs from the semiconductor, aerospace, and agriculture sectors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the article states the visit was 'more symbolic than substantial, with no joint statements published or agreements signed'. Statement 2 is correct; Trump aimed to secure 'Beijing's support to end the war with Iran'. Statement 3 is correct; the delegation included executives from 'technology, semiconductors, aerospace, and agriculture'.
According to the article, what was the proposed scale of the Boeing aircraft deal mentioned by President Trump after the summit?
- A.100 aircraft and 300 engines
- B.150 aircraft and 400 engines
- C.200 aircraft and 450-500 engines✓ Correct Answer
- D.250 aircraft and 500-550 engines
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Explanation
The article directly quotes President Trump stating that 'China had offered to buy 200 Boeing aircraft and 450-500 aircraft engines from the U.S.' This is a specific data point from the news.
What was a primary strategic objective for China, as per the article, in engaging with the U.S. during this summit?
- A.To secure membership in a renewed Trans-Pacific Partnership
- B.To obtain advanced military technology from the United States
- C.To deter the United States from intervening in the Taiwan Strait issue✓ Correct Answer
- D.To form a joint energy task force for the Strait of Hormuz
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Explanation
The article states that 'Mr. Xi's expectations centred on keeping the U.S. away from Taiwan' and that he warned of confrontation if the U.S. did not handle Taiwan 'with great caution'. While other options like energy cooperation were discussed, managing the Taiwan issue was a core Chinese strategic objective.
The report 'Climate Adaptation and Resilience in Asia' was released in partnership with CGIAR Hub for Sustainable Finance. What does CGIAR primarily focus on?
- A.Climate change litigation and legal frameworks
- B.International trade and tariff negotiations
- C.Research on food security and sustainable agriculture✓ Correct Answer
- D.Space technology and satellite communications
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Explanation
As mentioned in the static GK linkage, CGIAR is a global research partnership focused on reducing rural poverty, improving health and nutrition, and sustainable management of natural resources, with a strong emphasis on food security and agriculture.
Consider the following statements regarding the report on Asia's climate adaptation financing gap:
1. The report estimates Asia's annual climate adaptation financing need at $200 billion, with current flows at approximately $19 billion.
2. It projects that Asian companies could face annual climate-related costs of around $336 billion by 2030 due to delayed adaptation.
3. The report was launched by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) at the World Economic Forum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is also correct as the article mentions the $336 billion projection. Statement 3 is incorrect; the report was launched by the Centre for Impact Investing and Practices with partners Temasek, Invesco, and CGIAR's ImpactSF at the Philanthropy Asia Summit, not by UNEP at WEF.
According to the report, how many people in Asia have been affected by climate-related disasters since the year 2000?
- A.1.2 billion
- B.2.5 billion
- C.3.7 billion✓ Correct Answer
- D.4.8 billion
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 3.7 billion people in Asia have been affected by climate-related disasters since 2000, which is more than three times the number affected in the rest of the world combined. The other figures are plausible distractors.
What is identified as a primary barrier limiting investment into climate adaptation projects in Asia, according to the report?
- A.Excessive government regulation and red tape
- B.Lack of investor interest and awareness
- C.Weak policy frameworks and lack of reliable climate-risk data✓ Correct Answer
- D.Over-reliance on foreign direct investment
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Explanation
The article lists several barriers, including weak policy frameworks, lack of reliable climate-risk data, fragmented financing structures, and difficulties scaling localised solutions. While investor interest is noted to be growing, the structural barriers related to policy and data are highlighted as primary constraints.
Which Australian advisory body is central to the government's decision regarding foreign investment in Northern Minerals?
- A.Australian Securities and Investments Commission (ASIC)
- B.Foreign Investment Review Board (FIRB)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Reserve Bank of Australia (RBA)
- D.Australian Competition and Consumer Commission (ACCC)
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that the company referred itself to Australia's Foreign Investment Review Board (FIRB) and that Australia operates a foreign investment framework, which the FIRB administers.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. Northern Minerals aims to challenge China's dominance in the production of dysprosium.
2. Almost 99% of the world's dysprosium is currently produced in China.
3. The United States signed a deal with Australia in May 2026 to access its rare earth deposits.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states Northern Minerals is 'vying to challenge China's dominance of dysprosium production'. Statement 2 is correct as per the company's data in the article. Statement 3 is incorrect; the US-Australia deal was signed in October of the previous year (2025), not May 2026.
According to the article, what is the approximate share of global dysprosium production controlled by China?
- A.About 85%
- B.About 90%
- C.About 95%
- D.About 99%✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'Almost 99% of the world's dysprosium is currently produced in China, according to the company.' The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What is the primary strategic objective behind Australia's order for China-linked investors to divest from Northern Minerals?
- A.To increase government revenue from mining royalties
- B.To protect national interest and secure critical mineral supply chains✓ Correct Answer
- C.To promote indigenous ownership of all mining assets
- D.To comply with new environmental regulations on rare earth mining
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Explanation
The article quotes the official statement about operating a framework 'to protect our national interest' and mentions the US-Australia deal to 'diversify critical supply chains'. This points to the core objective of economic and strategic security, not revenue, indigenous ownership, or environment as the primary driver.
Which international organizations supported the training sessions for the HPV vaccination campaign in Delhi as mentioned in the article?
- A.World Health Organization (WHO) and United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)✓ Correct Answer
- B.World Bank and International Monetary Fund (IMF)
- C.United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF) and World Health Organization (WHO)
- D.World Health Organization (WHO) and United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the state health team, alongside representatives from the World Health Organization and the United Nations Development Programme, organized 39 training sessions in early April.
Consider the following statements regarding the HPV vaccination campaign discussed in the article:
1. The nationwide campaign aims to vaccinate approximately 1.15 crore 14-year-old girls annually.
2. The campaign uses the bivalent HPV vaccine Cervarix.
3. Cervical cancer accounts for more than 1.2 lakh new cases and nearly 80,000 deaths annually in India according to GLOBOCAN 2022 estimates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the drive aims to vaccinate approx. 1.15 crore girls annually. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states Gardasil, a quadrivalent vaccine, is being used. Statement 3 is correct as per the 'Explained' section citing GLOBOCAN 2022.
According to the article, how many doses of the HPV vaccine had been administered in Delhi as part of the national campaign?
- A.Around 1,000 doses
- B.Approximately 5,000 doses
- C.Roughly 11,000 doses✓ Correct Answer
- D.Nearly 20,000 doses
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Explanation
The article states that the national capital has administered roughly 11,000 doses. The figure of 1,000 doses was the initial low participation number, not the current total.
What was identified as one of the biggest challenges to the HPV vaccination campaign in Delhi, as mentioned in the article?
- A.Shortage of vaccine supply (Gardasil)
- B.Logistical issues in rural areas
- C.Misinformation circulating online and on social media✓ Correct Answer
- D.Lack of trained healthcare workers
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that health officials said misinformation circulating online had emerged as one of the biggest challenges, with social media platforms amplifying misleading content and creating fear and distrust.
According to the article, which Pakistani official implied that the defence pact places Saudi Arabia under Pakistan's nuclear umbrella?
- A.Prime Minister
- B.Foreign Minister
- C.Defence Minister✓ Correct Answer
- D.Chief of Army Staff
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Defence Minister Khawaja Muhammad Asif has previously implied that the pact places Saudi Arabia under Pakistan's nuclear umbrella.
Consider the following statements regarding Pakistan's military deployment to Saudi Arabia:
1. The deployment includes a squadron of JF-17 fighter jets and a Chinese HQ-9 air defence system.
2. The deployment is purely symbolic and advisory, with no combat capability.
3. The mutual defence pact between Pakistan and Saudi Arabia was signed last year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions JF-17 jets and the HQ-9 system. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article says the deployment is 'substantial, combat-capable' and 'far more than a symbolic or advisory mission'. Statement 3 is correct as the pact was signed last year.
According to the article, what is the approximate number of Pakistani troops that can be deployed to Saudi Arabia under the defence pact, as per one government source?
- A.8,000 troops
- B.16,000 troops
- C.40,000 troops
- D.80,000 troops✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
One government source stated the pact provides for the possibility of up to 80,000 Pakistani troops being deployed. The 8,000 troops are the initial deployment.
What is the primary strategic implication of Pakistan's deployment of troops and jets to Saudi Arabia, as highlighted in the article?
- A.To replace Saudi Arabia's own military forces
- B.To provide purely advisory and training support
- C.To offer combat-capable military support under a mutual defence pact✓ Correct Answer
- D.To initiate a direct conflict with Iran
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Explanation
The article emphasizes that the deployment is 'substantial, combat-capable' and intended to support Saudi Arabia militarily if attacked, as per the mutual defence pact. It is not merely advisory, nor does it aim to replace Saudi forces or start a war with Iran.
Under which Act is the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) registered, as clarified in the recent CIC order?
- A.The Companies Act, 2013
- B.The Tamil Nadu Societies Registration Act✓ Correct Answer
- C.The National Sports Development Code
- D.The Right to Information Act, 2005
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Explanation
The CIC order explicitly states that BCCI is a private autonomous body registered under the Tamil Nadu Societies Registration Act. This registration is a key factor in determining its status as a non-governmental entity.
Consider the following statements regarding the Central Information Commission's (CIC) recent order on BCCI:
1. The CIC ruled that BCCI is not a 'public authority' as defined under Section 2(h) of the RTI Act.
2. The CIC stated that BCCI was established by a notification issued by the Central Government.
3. The order emphasized that BCCI is neither owned, controlled, nor substantially financed by the government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the CIC ruled BCCI is not a 'public authority' under Section 2(h). Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clearly states BCCI was NOT established by the Constitution, Parliament, State legislature, or a government notification. Statement 3 is correct as the CIC said BCCI is not owned, controlled, or substantially financed by the government.
On which date did the Central Information Commission (CIC) issue the order stating BCCI is not a public authority under the RTI Act?
- A.May 15, 2026
- B.May 18, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.May 20, 2026
- D.May 22, 2026
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Explanation
The article states the CIC order was issued on Monday, May 18, 2026. This is a precise date fact that can be asked in Prelims. The other options are close distractors.
What was the primary legal basis used by the CIC to exclude BCCI from the purview of the RTI Act?
- A.BCCI is an international body recognized by the ICC.
- B.BCCI does not perform any functions of public importance.
- C.BCCI is not established, owned, controlled, or substantially financed by the government as per Section 2(h).✓ Correct Answer
- D.The RTI Act explicitly excludes all sports bodies from its definition.
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Explanation
The core of the CIC's reasoning, as stated in the article, is that BCCI fails to meet the criteria for a 'public authority' under Section 2(h) of the RTI Act. The law defines a public authority based on establishment, ownership, control, or substantial government financing, which BCCI lacks. The other options are incorrect interpretations.
Dr. Soumya Swaminathan, who highlighted the reversal of health gains due to climate change, is the chairperson of which renowned research foundation?
- A.Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
- B.M.S. Swaminathan Research Foundation (MSSRF)✓ Correct Answer
- C.National Institute of Nutrition (NIN)
- D.Public Health Foundation of India (PHFI)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Dr. Soumya Swaminathan is the chairperson of the M.S. Swaminathan Research Foundation. This foundation, named after her father, is a key institution in India focusing on sustainable agriculture and rural development.
Consider the following statements regarding the observations made by Dr. Soumya Swaminathan in the article:
1. Geopolitical challenges and loss of development funding are reversing gains in maternal and child health.
2. Climate change leads to a decrease in gender-based violence during periods of extreme heat.
3. Climate change impacts everyone equally, regardless of their socioeconomic status or demography.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states gender-based violence INCREASES significantly with climate change, particularly during heat and drought. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article clearly says climate change does not affect everyone equally and that the poor are the first and worst impacted.
According to Dr. Soumya Swaminathan, during which event did she deliver the keynote address highlighting the climate-health crisis?
- A.World Health Assembly, Geneva
- B.COP29 Climate Summit, Baku
- C.Philanthropy Asia Summit (PAS), Singapore✓ Correct Answer
- D.World Economic Forum, Davos
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Explanation
The article specifies that Dr. Swaminathan delivered the keynote address at the inauguration of the sixth annual Philanthropy Asia Summit (PAS) in Singapore. The other events are not mentioned in the provided content.
What is a primary reason cited in the article for the disproportionate impact of climate change on women's health and well-being?
- A.Women have biologically weaker immune systems than men.
- B.Climate policies are often drafted without female representation.
- C.Gender-based and domestic violence increases significantly during climate-induced stressors like heat and drought.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Women are legally prohibited from migrating during environmental disasters.
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Explanation
The article directly links climate change to a significant increase in gender-based and domestic violence, particularly during prolonged heat and drought, which disproportionately impacts women's health and safety. The other options are not supported by the article's content.
The India Semiconductor Mission (ISM), mentioned in the context of the news, operates under which Union Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology✓ Correct Answer
- B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- C.Ministry of Science and Technology
- D.Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises
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Explanation
The India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) is a specialized initiative under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). It is responsible for driving the development of a sustainable semiconductor and display ecosystem in the country.
Consider the following statements regarding the semiconductor partnership discussed in the news:
1. ASML, a Dutch company, is the world's only producer of Extreme Ultraviolet (EUV) lithography machines.
2. The proposed Tata semiconductor fabrication plant is located in Dholera, Gujarat, with an investment of $11 billion.
3. The partnership is solely focused on establishing low-cost semiconductor assembly units in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's mention of ASML's monopoly on EUV machines. Statement 2 is correct as the article specifies the $11 billion Dholera plant. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article explicitly states the partnership aims to help India move up the value chain beyond low-cost assembly towards design and R&D.
What is the total planned investment for the Tata semiconductor fabrication facility in Dholera, Gujarat, as mentioned in the article?
- A.$5 billion
- B.$8 billion
- C.$11 billion✓ Correct Answer
- D.$15 billion
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Explanation
The article specifically states: 'The proposed Tata semiconductor fabrication facility in Dholera, Gujarat, with a planned total investment of $11 billion...' The other options are plausible but incorrect figures.
What is a primary strategic reason, as per the article, for the Netherlands and India viewing each other as essential partners in the semiconductor sector?
- A.To reduce the cost of consumer electronics in both countries
- B.To collaborate on space research using advanced chips
- C.To position India as a democratic manufacturing alternative within the 'China-plus-one' framework✓ Correct Answer
- D.To jointly develop military-grade encryption technologies
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Explanation
The article discusses how US-China tensions and export controls make India an attractive 'democratic, politically stable, and strategically aligned alternative manufacturing destination' for Dutch firms looking to diversify away from China, fitting the 'China-plus-one' strategy.
Under which Article of the Constitution is the control over district courts and subordinate judiciary vested in the High Courts?
- A.Article 226
- B.Article 233
- C.Article 235✓ Correct Answer
- D.Article 124
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Explanation
As reiterated in the Supreme Court judgment, Article 235 of the Constitution specifically deals with the control over district courts and courts subordinate to the High Courts, including disciplinary matters. Article 226 relates to writ jurisdiction, Article 233 to appointments, and Article 124 to the Supreme Court.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent Supreme Court judgment on disciplinary action against judicial officers:
1. The Supreme Court upheld the disciplinary action taken against the judicial officer based on the facts of the case.
2. The Court held that the Registrar General of a High Court can initiate disciplinary action suo motu.
3. The judgment emphasized that action taken without the Chief Justice's approval is void ab initio.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) None of the above
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the SC refused to interfere with the reinstatement and did not uphold the disciplinary action. Statement 2 is incorrect as the SC explicitly ruled the Registrar General has no such authority. Statement 3 is correct, as the judgment declared such action without the Chief Justice's approval as void from the outset.
The Supreme Court bench that delivered the judgment on the Registrar General's powers comprised which judges?
- A.CJI D.Y. Chandrachud and Justice J.B. Pardiwala
- B.CJI Surya Kant and Justice Hima Kohli
- C.CJI Surya Kant and Justice Joymalya Bagchi✓ Correct Answer
- D.Justice Sanjiv Khanna and Justice Dipankar Datta
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Explanation
As per the article, the bench was headed by Chief Justice of India Surya Kant and included Justice Joymalya Bagchi. The other options mention judges who were not part of this specific bench.
What is the primary constitutional principle reinforced by the Supreme Court's ruling that a Registrar General cannot suo motu initiate disciplinary action?
- A.The principle of federalism and division of powers between Centre and State.
- B.The principle that control over the subordinate judiciary under Article 235 is vested in the High Court as an institution comprising the Chief Justice and judges.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The principle of natural justice requiring a fair hearing before any punitive action.
- D.The principle of separation of powers between the legislature and the judiciary.
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Explanation
The core of the judgment is the interpretation of Article 235. It clarifies that the constitutional control is vested in the High Court, meaning the Chief Justice and judges collectively, not in individual administrative officers like the Registrar General. This protects the judicial hierarchy from administrative overreach.
Which constitutional amendment enabled the implementation of the Land Boundary Agreement between India and Bangladesh?
- A.99th Amendment
- B.100th Amendment✓ Correct Answer
- C.101st Amendment
- D.102nd Amendment
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that a breakthrough came in 2015 when the Indian Parliament unanimously passed the 100th Constitutional Amendment, enabling the implementation of the Land Boundary Agreement (LBA).
Consider the following statements regarding the India-Bangladesh border:
1. The total length of the India-Bangladesh border is over 4,096 km.
2. The Land Boundary Agreement (LBA) was signed in 1974 and Bangladesh ratified it quickly, but India did not do so initially.
3. Under the LBA, India transferred 51 enclaves covering around 7,000 acres to Bangladesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the border stretches over 4,096 km. Statement 2 is correct as it states Bangladesh ratified the 1974 LBA quickly, while India did not initially due to constitutional constraints. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article says India transferred 111 enclaves (~17,000 acres), while Bangladesh transferred 51 enclaves (~7,000 acres). Hence, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
According to the Land Boundary Agreement operationalized in 2015, how many enclaves did Bangladesh transfer to India?
- A.51 enclaves✓ Correct Answer
- B.111 enclaves
- C.162 enclaves
- D.7 enclaves
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Explanation
The article provides the exact data: Under the Agreement, India transferred 111 enclaves and Bangladesh transferred 51 enclaves. The total number of enclaves exchanged was 162, but the question asks specifically for Bangladesh's transfer.
What is identified as a key recommendation to address the persistent challenges along the India-Bangladesh border?
- A.Increasing the number of BSF personnel
- B.Shifting from 'border policing' to 'border governance'✓ Correct Answer
- C.Building more physical fences only
- D.Deploying the Indian Army along the border
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Explanation
The article's 'Way forward' section explicitly states that the current process of border management needs to shift from 'border policing' to 'border governance'. This approach includes smart fencing, high-tech surveillance, coordinated patrolling, and avoiding excessive use of force.
Which regulatory body's chairman made the statements regarding Indian market resilience and investor protection mentioned in the news?
- A.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
- B.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDAI)
- D.National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
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Explanation
The article mentions statements by SEBI chairman Tuhin Kanta Pandey. SEBI is the statutory regulator for securities markets in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the Indian securities market as per the SEBI chairman:
1. The market capitalisation increased from around ₹95 trillion in FY16 to about ₹463 trillion by April 2026.
2. The number of unique retail investors increased from 38 million in FY19 to around 145 million by April 2026.
3. SEBI has lawfully removed more than 140,000 misleading contents from cyberspace as an investor protection measure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 and 2 are directly mentioned as growth metrics in the article. Statement 3 is also correct as SEBI chairman Pandey stated SEBI removed more than 1.4 lakh (140,000) misleading contents.
According to the SEBI chairman, what was the amount raised through municipal bond issuances by urban local bodies as of the end of FY26?
- A.₹3,200 crore
- B.₹4,500 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹5,800 crore
- D.₹6,700 crore
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Explanation
The article states that 22 urban local bodies raised over ₹4,500 crore through 31 municipal bond issuances by end-FY26.
What is the primary concern regarding the West Asia crisis highlighted by the SEBI chairman in the article?
- A.Reduction in foreign direct investment inflows
- B.Increase in digital frauds and fake trading platforms
- C.Inflationary risks through oil price and supply shocks✓ Correct Answer
- D.Slow growth of the corporate bond market
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Explanation
Pandey stated the West Asia crisis impacts the world through oil price and supply shocks, leading to inflationary risks. Other points like FDI outflow and digital frauds are mentioned but are not the primary concern regarding the crisis.
Which constitutional article empowers the state legislature to determine the salaries and allowances of its MLAs and MLCs?
- A.Article 106
- B.Article 195✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 164
- D.Article 243
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Explanation
Article 195 of the Constitution of India specifically deals with the salaries and allowances of the Members of the Legislative Assembly (MLAs) and Legislative Council (MLCs) of a state, to be determined by the state legislature. Article 106 deals with MPs, Article 164 deals with ministers, and Article 243 deals with Panchayats.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent Allahabad High Court judgment:
1. The court upheld the constitutional validity of the Uttar Pradesh State Legislature (Members’ Emoluments and Pension) Act, 1980.
2. The court held that Article 195 of the Constitution imposes express limitations on granting post-retirement benefits to legislators.
3. The court invoked the doctrine of separation of powers to justify judicial restraint in matters of legislative policy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the judgment dismissed the PIL and upheld the Act. Statement 2 is incorrect; the court specifically noted that Article 195 does NOT impose any express limitation restricting the Legislature from extending benefits beyond tenure. Statement 3 is correct as the court emphasized that the quantum of benefits is a policy matter within the legislature's domain, and judicial interference would encroach upon it.
The Allahabad High Court judgment that upheld legislators' allowances was delivered by a bench comprising which two judges?
- A.Justices D.Y. Chandrachud and Surya Kant
- B.Justices Rajan Roy and Abdhesh Kumar Chaudhary✓ Correct Answer
- C.Justices Sanjay Kishan Kaul and S. Ravindra Bhat
- D.Justices U.U. Lalit and P.S. Narasimha
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that the bench of Justices Rajan Roy and Abdhesh Kumar Chaudhary delivered the judgment dismissing the PIL. The other options list Supreme Court judges, who were not involved in this High Court case.
What was the primary legal ground on which the Allahabad High Court dismissed the PIL challenging post-retirement benefits for legislators?
- A.The petition was filed after an unreasonable delay (laches).
- B.The petitioner lacked the necessary locus standi to file the case.
- C.The challenge was rooted in a policy disagreement, not a constitutional infirmity.✓ Correct Answer
- D.The matter was already sub-judice in the Supreme Court.
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Explanation
The court held that the petitioner's grievance was essentially a disagreement with the policy of granting post-retirement benefits, which falls within the legislature's wisdom. It found no 'manifest arbitrariness' violating Article 14 or any express prohibition in Article 195, making it a non-justiciable policy issue.
Which High Court delivered the judgment permitting a transgender man to cryopreserve oocytes under the ART Act, citing Article 21?
- A.Delhi High Court
- B.Kerala High Court✓ Correct Answer
- C.Madras High Court
- D.Supreme Court of India
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Explanation
As per the article, the Kerala High Court, with Justice Shoba Annamma Eapen, delivered the judgment on May 15, 2026, allowing the petitioner to preserve his eggs.
Consider the following statements regarding the Kerala High Court judgment on transgender rights and reproductive technology:
1. The court held that the right to life under Article 21 includes the right to reproduction.
2. The court struck down Section 21(g) of the Assisted Reproductive Technology (Regulation) Act, 2021 as unconstitutional.
3. The court directed the appropriate government to create awareness for transgender persons about fertility preservation options.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the court observed that denial of oocyte retrieval violates the right to life that includes reproduction. Statement 2 is incorrect; the court declined to adjudicate on the constitutional validity of Section 21(g) as there was no specific challenge. Statement 3 is correct as the court emphasised it is the bounden duty of the government to give proper awareness to transgender persons regarding preservation of oocytes or sperms.
According to the Kerala High Court judgment, which specific section of the Assisted Reproductive Technology (Regulation) Act, 2021 deals with the general duties of ART clinics and banks?
- A.Section 2(1)(u)
- B.Section 21(g)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Section 15
- D.Section 33
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Section 21 of the ART Act deals with general duties of clinics and banks, and Clause 21(g) specifies age limits for availing ART services. Section 2(1)(u) defines 'woman' but is not the section dealing with duties.
What was the primary constitutional basis cited by the Kerala High Court to allow the transgender petitioner's plea for egg cryopreservation?
- A.Right to Equality under Article 14
- B.Protection of Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21✓ Correct Answer
- C.Prohibition of Discrimination under Article 15
- D.Right to Freedom of Religion under Article 25
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Explanation
The court's order, as quoted in the article, states that denial of oocyte retrieval amounts to a violation of the right to life under Article 21 of the Constitution, which includes the right to reproduction. While Articles 14 and 15 were argued by the petitioner, the court's primary reasoning centered on an expansive interpretation of Article 21.
The SMILE mission is a joint venture between which two major space entities?
- A.NASA (USA) and Roscosmos (Russia)
- B.European Space Agency (ESA) and Chinese Academy of Sciences (CAS)✓ Correct Answer
- C.ISRO (India) and JAXA (Japan)
- D.CNSA (China) and NASA (USA)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that SMILE is a joint mission between the European Space Agency (ESA) and the Chinese Academy of Sciences (CAS). This is also highlighted as the first such joint mission between these agencies.
Consider the following statements regarding the SMILE mission:
1. It is the first mission designed to capture ultraviolet images of the Earth's magnetosphere.
2. It aims to improve the forecasting of solar storms and space weather.
3. It will be positioned at about 1.21 lakh km above Earth's north pole.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. SMILE aims to capture the first X-ray images (not ultraviolet) of Earth's magnetosphere. It does carry an Ultraviolet Imager (UVI), but its primary breakthrough is X-ray imaging. Statements 2 and 3 are correct as per the article, which mentions its objective to improve space weather forecasts and its orbital position.
What is the planned mission life of the SMILE satellite as mentioned in the article?
- A.2 years
- B.3 years✓ Correct Answer
- C.5 years
- D.7 years
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Explanation
The article clearly states that SMILE has a mission life of about three years. The other options are plausible distractors for typical satellite missions but are not mentioned for SMILE.
What is the primary significance of improving space weather forecasting, as highlighted by the objectives of the SMILE mission?
- A.To predict monsoons and terrestrial weather more accurately.
- B.To protect space-based assets and ground infrastructure from solar storms.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To enhance deep-space communication with interplanetary probes.
- D.To study the long-term climate change effects of solar activity.
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Explanation
The article directly links the mission's goal of improving space weather forecasts to protecting 'space assets, like satellites and satellite-based communication, GPS, navigation systems and airline operations' as well as 'ground-based infrastructure like electricity grids'. The other options, while related to space or atmospheric science, are not the primary focus mentioned.
Which constitutional article specifically governs reservations for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and backward classes in Panchayati Raj institutions?
- A.Article 243
- B.Article 243D✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 243W
- D.Article 16
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Explanation
Article 243D of the Indian Constitution deals with reservations of seats in Panchayats for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and backward classes. Article 243W pertains to municipalities, and Article 16 deals with equality of opportunity in public employment.
Consider the following statements regarding the new OBC commission in Uttar Pradesh:
1. The commission was formed in compliance with directions from the Supreme Court and the Allahabad High Court.
2. The commission's primary mandate is to determine the 'creamy layer' criteria for OBCs in panchayat elections.
3. The tenure of the commission's chairperson and members is ordinarily six months.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the move is in line with directions from the Supreme Court and Allahabad HC. Statement 2 is incorrect; the commission's mandate is to conduct an empirical study on backwardness and determine reservation proportions, not the creamy layer (which applies to jobs/education). Statement 3 is correct as per the article which mentions the tenure is ordinarily six months.
As per the Uttar Pradesh Cabinet note, what is the upper limit (cap) for OBC reservation in panchayat bodies?
- A.25%
- B.27%✓ Correct Answer
- C.33%
- D.50%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Cabinet note mentions OBC reservation in panchayats will remain capped at 27% of the total seats. This aligns with the central OBC reservation limit.
What is the primary objective behind forming the UP State Dedicated Backward Classes Commission, as per the news article?
- A.To review the implementation of the Mandal Commission recommendations at the state level.
- B.To conduct an empirical study to determine OBC reservation in local body elections as per judicial mandate.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To identify and classify all backward classes communities in Uttar Pradesh for a state list.
- D.To oversee the welfare schemes meant for OBC communities in the state.
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Explanation
The article clearly states the commission will carry out a detailed empirical study to assess backwardness among OBCs and recommend reservation proportions for panchayats. This is the first step of the Supreme Court's 'triple test' required for implementing OBC quota in local body polls.
Which fundamental right under the Indian Constitution is primarily invoked to grant bail in UAPA cases involving prolonged incarceration?
- A.Article 14 (Right to Equality)
- B.Article 19 (Freedom of Speech)
- C.Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Article 32 (Right to Constitutional Remedies)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that prolonged incarceration and delayed trial can lead to a violation of Article 21 of the Constitution. The Supreme Court's ruling centers on protecting this right against the stringent bail restrictions of UAPA.
Consider the following statements regarding bail under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA):
1. Section 43-D(5) of the UAPA imposes strict restrictions on the grant of bail.
2. The Supreme Court in the K A Najeeb case (2021) held that prolonged incarceration can override these restrictions to prevent violation of Article 21.
3. The ruling in NIA v. Zahoor Ahmed Shah Watali (2019) by a three-judge bench is the currently binding precedent on UAPA bail.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct as the K A Najeeb ruling established this principle. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Watali case was decided by a two-judge bench, and the article clarifies that the later three-judge bench ruling in Najeeb is the binding precedent.
According to the article, what is the strength of the Supreme Court bench that delivered the K A Najeeb ruling, which is now considered the binding law on UAPA bail and Article 21?
- A.A two-judge bench
- B.A three-judge bench✓ Correct Answer
- C.A five-judge Constitution bench
- D.A seven-judge bench
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that the 2021 ruling in K A Najeeb was by a three-judge bench headed by the then Chief Justice of India N V Ramana. This detail is crucial for understanding the hierarchy of judicial precedents.
What is the primary legal principle reinforced by the Supreme Court's recent ruling on UAPA bail, as discussed in the article?
- A.That national security concerns always override individual liberty.
- B.That the state's prima facie case must be accepted without scrutiny in bail hearings.
- C.That smaller benches can overrule larger benches if they disagree.
- D.That constitutional safeguards under Article 21 can prevail over stringent bail laws in cases of prolonged detention.✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The core analysis of the article is that the 'rigours' of UAPA's Section 43-D(5) can 'melt down' where prolonged incarceration violates Article 21. This establishes a balance, ensuring special laws do not completely negate fundamental rights.
The Strait of Hormuz, a critical chokepoint mentioned in the news, connects which two bodies of water?
- A.Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman✓ Correct Answer
- B.Red Sea and Gulf of Aden
- C.Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal
- D.Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
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Explanation
The Strait of Hormuz is a narrow channel that links the Persian Gulf (where Qatar is located) with the Gulf of Oman and the wider Arabian Sea. This is a fundamental static geography fact relevant to global energy routes.
Consider the following statements regarding the economic impact on Qatar as discussed in the article:
1. Qatar derives more than 60% of its state revenue from gas and gas-related exports.
2. The International Monetary Fund (IMF) expects Qatar's economy to grow by 8.6% in the current year.
3. Unlike Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates, Qatar has pipelines that can bypass the Strait of Hormuz for its energy exports.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the IMF expects Qatar's economy to shrink (contract) by 8.6%, not grow. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article explicitly states Qatar is geographically trapped and lacks such bypass pipelines, unlike its neighbors.
According to the article, by what percentage was Qatar's LNG production capacity reduced after the strike on its Ras Laffan plant?
- A.8.6%
- B.17%✓ Correct Answer
- C.60%
- D.24%
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Explanation
The article states that the Iranian missiles and drones struck Qatar's Ras Laffan plant, 'causing a 17% reduction in Qatar's production capacity.' The 8.6% is the projected economic contraction, and 60% is the revenue share from gas.
What is the primary reason Qatar is facing a more severe economic crisis compared to its neighbors like Saudi Arabia and UAE, as per the article?
- A.It has smaller natural gas reserves.
- B.It lacks alternative pipelines to bypass the Strait of Hormuz.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Its sovereign wealth fund is significantly smaller.
- D.It did not host a major international event like the World Cup.
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Explanation
The article explicitly highlights Qatar's unique geographic vulnerability: 'Unlike its neighbors, Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates, which have pipelines that can bypass the Strait of Hormuz, Qatar is geographically trapped behind the waterway.' This is the core structural reason for the severity of the crisis.
The 'Suspect Registry' for sharing intelligence on mule accounts, mentioned in the news, is managed by which agency under the Ministry of Home Affairs?
- A.National Investigation Agency (NIA)
- B.Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
- D.National Security Council Secretariat (NSCS)
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Explanation
As per the article, the I4C, under the Ministry of Home Affairs, signed an MoU with RBIH and maintains a 'Suspect Registry' for sharing intelligence related to suspected mule accounts used in cyber-enabled financial frauds.
Consider the following statements regarding developments mentioned in the news:
1. The Anaimangalam Copper Plates, returned by the Netherlands, contain inscriptions in both Sanskrit and Tamil.
2. The newly approved Scheme for Promotion of Surface Coal/Lignite Gasification has an outlay of ₹75,000 crore.
3. The SEHAT mission is a joint initiative of the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) and the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article states the inscriptions on the Anaimangalam plates are in both Sanskrit and Tamil. Statement 2 is incorrect: The scheme's outlay is ₹37,500 crore, not ₹75,000 crore (which is the untied component of the SASCI scheme). Statement 3 is correct: SEHAT was jointly launched by ICMR and ICAR.
According to the news, what is the targeted quantity of coal/lignite to be gasified under the newly approved central government scheme?
- A.50 million tonnes
- B.65 million tonnes
- C.75 million tonnes✓ Correct Answer
- D.90 million tonnes
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Scheme for Promotion of Surface Coal/Lignite Gasification Projects targets the gasification of approximately 75 million tonnes (mt) of coal/lignite. The other options are plausible distractors.
What is the primary strategic objective behind the government's consideration to cut the withholding tax on foreign bond investments?
- A.To increase government tax revenue from foreign investors
- B.To discourage speculative capital flows into the equity market
- C.To attract foreign capital inflows and stabilize foreign exchange reserves✓ Correct Answer
- D.To align India's tax rate with the global highest rate of 30%
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Explanation
The article links the proposed tax cut to the erosion of forex reserves by $38 billion and the need to revive overseas inflows. The move is a response to capital outflows and aims to make Indian bonds more attractive to non-resident investors, thereby supporting reserve stability.
Which of the following is the highest court in India?
- A.High Court
- B.Supreme Court✓ Correct Answer
- C.District Court
- D.National Green Tribunal
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Explanation
The Supreme Court of India is the apex judicial body under the Constitution of India, as established under Article 124. The news article is about a judgment delivered by the Supreme Court.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent Supreme Court judgment:
1. The Court held that lawyers must cite only those judgments that support their client's case.
2. The term 'per incuriam' refers to a judgment passed without considering relevant laws or precedents.
3. The Court ruled that mediclaim reimbursements are deductible from compensation under the Motor Vehicles Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the Court directed lawyers to cite ALL relevant precedents, including adverse ones. Statement 2 is correct as 'per incuriam' is defined in the article. Statement 3 is incorrect as the Court held mediclaim payouts are NOT deductible from MACT compensation.
The Supreme Court judgment discussed in the news was delivered by a bench consisting of which Justices?
- A.Justices D.Y. Chandrachud and Surya Kant
- B.Justices Sanjay Karol and Vipul M Pancholi✓ Correct Answer
- C.Justices K.M. Joseph and B.V. Nagarathna
- D.Justices U.U. Lalit and S. Ravindra Bhat
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the bench comprised Justices Sanjay Karol and Vipul M Pancholi. The other options are names of other Supreme Court judges not mentioned in this context.
What was the primary legal controversy settled by the Supreme Court in this judgment?
- A.The validity of the Motor Vehicles Act itself.
- B.Whether lawyers can be punished for not citing adverse judgments.
- C.Whether mediclaim reimbursements are deductible from Motor Accident compensation.✓ Correct Answer
- D.The appointment process of High Court judges.
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Explanation
The core dispute in the appeal was whether mediclaim payouts could be deducted from compensation awarded under the Motor Vehicles Act. The Court settled this by ruling they are not deductible, as mediclaim is contractual while MACT compensation is statutory.
Which government department is primarily responsible for compiling and analyzing India's merchandise export data mentioned in the news?
- A.Department of Economic Affairs
- B.Department of Commerce✓ Correct Answer
- C.Department of Revenue
- D.Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
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Explanation
The Department of Commerce under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry is the nodal body for formulating India's foreign trade policy and releasing trade data. The article's reference to 'government data' on exports points to this department.
Consider the following statements regarding India's export performance in April 2026 as per the news article:
1. Merchandise exports grew nearly 14% to $43.6 billion.
2. Non-oil exports grew at a faster rate than overall merchandise exports.
3. Exports to the West Asia region witnessed a significant increase.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because non-oil exports grew 9%, which is slower than the overall 14% growth. Statement 3 is incorrect as exports to West Asia fell by 28%. Hence, only statement 1 is correct.
According to the article, what was the approximate value of India's non-oil exports in April 2026?
- A.$36.6 billion
- B.$38.0 billion
- C.$40.0 billion✓ Correct Answer
- D.$42.5 billion
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Explanation
The article states: "India’s non-oil exports grew 9% in April 2026 to about $40 billion." The other options are close distractors based on the total merchandise export figure of $43.6 billion.
What is the primary strategic reason highlighted in the article for India's push to diversify its export destinations?
- A.To reduce the trade deficit with China
- B.To build resilience against regional crises and trade disruptions✓ Correct Answer
- C.To comply with World Trade Organization (WTO) regulations
- D.To increase the share of agricultural exports
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Explanation
The article underscores that diversification is an attempt "to diversify in times of crisis" and that gains in other regions help counterbalance losses from the West Asia crisis. This points to building supply chain resilience as the core strategic objective.
Which regulatory body is responsible for the framework against insurance mis-selling discussed in the article?
- A.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
- B.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- C.Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)
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Explanation
The article explicitly discusses IRDAI's regulatory framework for protecting policyholders. IRDAI is the statutory regulator for the insurance sector in India, distinct from RBI (banking), SEBI (securities), and PFRDA (pensions).
Consider the following statements regarding measures against insurance mis-selling mentioned in the article:
1. IRDAI mandates a free-look period which allows policyholders to exit a policy.
2. The Customer Information Sheet (CIS) must be made available only in English or Hindi.
3. Tracking policy persistency is used by insurers primarily to assess customer satisfaction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions a 15-30 day free-look period. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states the CIS must be available in any preferred regional language. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article clarifies persistency is tracked for the insurer's performance and profitability, not primarily for customer satisfaction.
As per the IRDAI framework discussed, what is the duration of the free-look period provided to insurance policyholders?
- A.7-14 days
- B.15-30 days✓ Correct Answer
- C.30-45 days
- D.45-60 days
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Explanation
The article specifically states that the free-look period is 15-30 days. This is a standard regulatory provision (15 days for life insurance and 30 days for health insurance) to protect consumers from mis-selling.
According to the article, what is the primary purpose of mandating a Customer Information Sheet (CIS) with an insurance policy?
- A.To increase the legal binding nature of the policy contract.
- B.To simplify key policy features, benefits, and exclusions for the buyer.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To serve as a marketing document for insurance agents.
- D.To replace the detailed policy document entirely.
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Explanation
The article states that IRDAI regulations mandate a CIS to give key policy features in simple language. This aims to combat mis-selling by enhancing transparency and ensuring buyers understand the product, addressing the problem of complex policy documents that customers rarely read.
The plutonium for India's first nuclear test in 1974 was extracted from which research reactor?
- A.Dhruva Reactor
- B.CIRUS Reactor✓ Correct Answer
- C.Apsara Reactor
- D.Kamini Reactor
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Explanation
As per the article, the plutonium needed for the nuclear fission device was extracted from the CIRUS (Canada-India Reactor Utility Services) research reactor, which had been in operation since 1960.
Consider the following statements regarding India's first nuclear test, Smiling Buddha:
1. It was conducted on May 18, 1974, which coincidentally was the Buddhist festival of Buddha Purnima.
2. The test was officially declared by India as a successful test of a deliverable nuclear weapon.
3. The test was conducted under the leadership of nuclear physicist Raja Ramanna.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the test was conducted on Buddha Purnima. Statement 2 is incorrect because India declared it a 'peaceful nuclear explosion' (PNE), not a weapons test. Statement 3 is correct as Raja Ramanna served as the head of the development team.
What was the officially stated yield of India's first nuclear test, Pokhran-I, as mentioned in the article?
- A.8 Kilotons
- B.10 Kilotons
- C.12 Kilotons✓ Correct Answer
- D.15 Kilotons
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the official yield of the Pokhran-I test was set to 12 kilotons, although it notes the actual yield was likely lesser than 10 kilotons.
What was the primary immediate international consequence for India following the 1974 Smiling Buddha test, as per the article?
- A.It led to India's immediate inclusion in the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).
- B.It triggered a sharp global backlash and cutting off of nuclear assistance by countries like Canada and the U.S.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It resulted in a formal military alliance with other nuclear powers.
- D.It prompted the United Nations to impose comprehensive economic sanctions.
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the global community unleashed a sharp backlash, with Canada cutting off nuclear assistance and the U.S. restricting collaborations, which persuaded India not to carry out further tests for 24 years.
India holds the status of an 'Observer' in which of the following intergovernmental forums, as mentioned in the article?
- A.The Nordic Council
- B.The Arctic Council✓ Correct Answer
- C.The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
- D.The United Nations Security Council (UNSC)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that India joined the Arctic Council as an observer in 2013. The Nordic Council and NATO are different entities, and India is not a permanent observer in the UNSC.
Consider the following statements regarding the India-Nordic engagement and the Arctic region:
1. The first India-Nordic Summit was held in Stockholm in 2018, focusing primarily on climate cooperation and the blue economy.
2. Finland and Sweden, both Nordic countries, are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO), making Russia the sole non-NATO member in the Arctic Council.
3. India's research station 'Maitri' is its primary facility for Arctic research, located in Norway.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct; the article states Finland and Sweden's accession to NATO leaves Russia as the Arctic Council's sole non-NATO member. Statement 3 is incorrect; India's primary Arctic research station is 'Himadri' in Norway, while 'Maitri' is India's station in Antarctica.
According to the article, by which year does India aim to construct a fleet of five Arctic-capable, ice-class tankers under its Shipbuilding Financial Assistance Policy?
- A.By 2025-26
- B.By 2027-28
- C.By 2030-31✓ Correct Answer
- D.By 2035-36
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Explanation
The article clearly states the target: "India must construct a small fleet of five Arctic-capable, ice-class tankers under its Shipbuilding Financial Assistance Policy by 2030-31." The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What is a primary strategic rationale, as per the article, for India to deepen its engagement with the Nordic countries in the Arctic region?
- A.To counter China's influence in the South China Sea directly.
- B.To gain early-mover advantages in emerging Arctic shipping routes and diversify critical mineral supply chains.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To replace its existing strategic partnership with Russia in the region entirely.
- D.To secure permanent membership in the Arctic Council as a littoral state.
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Explanation
The article emphasizes India's need to avoid being locked out of early-mover advantages in Arctic shipping and logistics. It also highlights Nordic strengths in resources like Sweden's rare earths as a means for supply-chain diversification away from China's dominance. The other options are either not mentioned (A), contrary to the article's 'non-zero-sum' stance (C), or factually incorrect regarding India's status (D).
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