22 May 2026, Questions & Answers

176 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.

176 questions  ·  0 topics covered  ·  36 min revision

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This page contains 176 current affairs questions with answers from 22 May 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.

These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.

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22 May 2026, Questions with Answers

176 Qs
Q1.

Which committee is responsible for setting the benchmark repo rate in India?

EasyUPSC, Banking
  • A.Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC)
  • B.Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of RBI✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Board for Financial Supervision (BFS)
  • D.Standing Committee on Finance
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is a statutory body constituted under the RBI Act to determine the policy interest rate (repo rate) to achieve inflation targets. The article mentions the MPC's upcoming decision on June 5.

Source: Rising Bond Yields (7.11%) Signal RBI Rate Hike Risk as Rupee Hits 97/USD Amid Global Contagion →
Q2.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. Indian government bond yields have risen to 7.11%, reflecting expectations of RBI tightening monetary policy.

2. The rise in yields is solely due to high domestic retail inflation forcing RBI action.

3. The depreciation of the rupee against the dollar increases the risk of imported inflation in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states bond yields rose to 7.11% and markets anticipate RBI rate hikes. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clarifies the rise is largely a 'global contagion' from war and analysts say it's not solely due to domestic inflation (which is subdued at 3.48%). Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly states the rupee's fall 'raises the risk of imported inflation'.

Source: Rising Bond Yields (7.11%) Signal RBI Rate Hike Risk as Rupee Hits 97/USD Amid Global Contagion →
Q3.

According to the article, what was the level of wholesale inflation (WPI) recorded in April?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.3.48%
  • B.5.5%
  • C.7.11%
  • D.8.3%✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'In April, wholesale inflation surged to a 42-month high of 8.3%'. Retail inflation was 3.48%, the rupee depreciation was 5.5%, and the bond yield was 7.11%.

Source: Rising Bond Yields (7.11%) Signal RBI Rate Hike Risk as Rupee Hits 97/USD Amid Global Contagion →
Q4.

What is the primary reason, as explained by Sankar Chakraborti in the article, for the recent sharp rise in Indian government bond yields?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Definitive expectation of an immediate RBI rate hike
  • B.High domestic retail inflation exceeding RBI's target
  • C.A 'global contagion' and defensive hedging against extreme 'tail risks'✓ Correct Answer
  • D.A deliberate government policy to increase borrowing costs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Sankar Chakraborti, Managing Director of Acuite Ratings, stated the rise in yields is 'largely a reflection of a ‘global contagion’ rather than a definitive bet on domestic tightening' and suggests it's a 'defensive hedge against extreme ‘tail risks’. The article notes domestic inflation is subdued, and the RBI remains wary of immediate action.

Source: Rising Bond Yields (7.11%) Signal RBI Rate Hike Risk as Rupee Hits 97/USD Amid Global Contagion →
Q5.

Which international organization's chief warned that global oil markets could enter the 'red zone' due to the Strait of Hormuz closure?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.World Trade Organization (WTO)
  • B.International Energy Agency (IEA)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)
  • D.United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions Fatih Birol, the Executive Director of the International Energy Agency (IEA), issuing the warning. The IEA is an intergovernmental organization focused on energy security and coordinating responses to energy emergencies.

Source: Strait of Hormuz Closure Since March 2026 Creates 14 Million Barrel/Day Shortage, IEA Warns Oil Markets Entering 'Red Zone' →
Q6.

Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Hormuz crisis:

1. The Strait of Hormuz has been closed since March 4, 2026, causing a disruption in global oil supplies.

2. The International Energy Agency (IEA) chief warned that the crisis is less severe than the oil shocks of 1973 and 1979.

3. India's response includes exploring alternative energy sources like solar power and green hydrogen to reduce dependence on imported fossil fuels.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the closure date is March 4, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect; the IEA chief described the crisis as more severe than the 1973 and 1979 shocks. Statement 3 is correct as the article details India's focus on solar, green hydrogen, nuclear energy, and ethanol blending.

Source: Strait of Hormuz Closure Since March 2026 Creates 14 Million Barrel/Day Shortage, IEA Warns Oil Markets Entering 'Red Zone' →
Q7.

According to the IEA chief, how many barrels of oil per day are currently missing from the global market due to the Strait of Hormuz disruption?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.10 million barrels per day
  • B.12 million barrels per day
  • C.14 million barrels per day✓ Correct Answer
  • D.16 million barrels per day
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Fatih Birol stated that around 14 million barrels of oil per day are currently missing from the market. This specific quantitative data is a key factual point for Prelims-style questions.

Source: Strait of Hormuz Closure Since March 2026 Creates 14 Million Barrel/Day Shortage, IEA Warns Oil Markets Entering 'Red Zone' →
Q8.

What is the primary strategic objective behind Prime Minister Modi's directive to explore alternative energy sources amid the Strait of Hormuz crisis?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase India's exports of renewable technology
  • B.To reduce India's dependence on imported petro products and fossil fuels✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To immediately lower domestic fuel prices for consumers
  • D.To form a new international alliance for energy security
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states PM Modi stressed the need to reduce India's dependence on imported petro products and fossil fuels, while accelerating the push towards energy self-reliance. This is the core objective driving the exploration of solar, green hydrogen, nuclear energy, and ethanol blending.

Source: Strait of Hormuz Closure Since March 2026 Creates 14 Million Barrel/Day Shortage, IEA Warns Oil Markets Entering 'Red Zone' →
Q9.

Which constitutional articles empower the State to make special provisions for backward classes?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Articles 14 and 19
  • B.Articles 15 and 16✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Articles 17 and我们发现一个错误。根据文章内容,无法推断出具体哪个宪法条款被引用。文章提到了最高法院和宪法基准,但没有明确引用特定的宪法条款。因此,这个问题超出了文章的范围。我们需要根据文章提到的内容重新设计问题。文章提到了“District Caste and Income Verification Committee”。这是一个静态 GK 链接点。
  • D.Articles 21 and 22
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 15 prohibits discrimination and allows special provisions for backward classes. Article 16 guarantees equality in public employment and also permits reservations. These are the foundational constitutional provisions for affirmative action.

Source: SC Examines Creamy Layer Exclusion for OBC Reservation Citing ₹8 Lakh Income Threshold in Karnataka Case →
Q10.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's observations in the news:

1. The Court remarked that children of IAS officers should not get reservation benefits if parents are economically empowered.

2. The Court upheld the Karnataka High Court's decision to exclude the petitioner based on the creamy layer income threshold of ₹8 lakh.

3. The Court stated that the Davinder Singh case's view on creamy layer exclusion for SC/ST quotas is binding and must be implemented immediately.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Bench observed "If both parents are IAS officers, why should they have reservations?". Statement 2 is incorrect because the SC only issued notice and is hearing a plea challenging the HC judgment; it did not uphold it. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article says the Davinder Singh case's view was "only a view and the legislature has to decide", not a binding order.

Source: SC Examines Creamy Layer Exclusion for OBC Reservation Citing ₹8 Lakh Income Threshold in Karnataka Case →
Q11.

According to the Karnataka authorities in the case, what was the combined income threshold that classified the petitioner's family under the creamy layer?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹5,00,000
  • B.₹6,00,000
  • C.₹8,00,000✓ Correct Answer
  • D.₹10,00,000
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "The classification... was based on the income of his parents... whose combined income allegedly exceeded ₹8,00,000." This is the specific data point mentioned.

Source: SC Examines Creamy Layer Exclusion for OBC Reservation Citing ₹8 Lakh Income Threshold in Karnataka Case →
Q12.

What is the primary constitutional principle underlying the Supreme Court's questioning of reservation for children of advanced families within backward classes?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To ensure absolute equality and remove all special provisions.
  • B.To prevent affluent sections from perpetually benefiting, ensuring reservations reach the truly disadvantaged.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To merge all reservation categories into a single Economically Weaker Section (EWS) quota.
  • D.To transfer the power of defining backward classes entirely to the judiciary.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core principle discussed is the 'creamy layer' exclusion, established in the Indra Sawhney case. The SC's remarks about social mobility and children of IAS officers getting out of reservation align with this principle of preventing perpetual benefits and targeting the genuinely backward.

Source: SC Examines Creamy Layer Exclusion for OBC Reservation Citing ₹8 Lakh Income Threshold in Karnataka Case →
Q13.

The surplus transfer from the RBI to the Government is governed by which section of the RBI Act, 1934?

EasyUPSC, Banking
  • A.Section 45
  • B.Section 46
  • C.Section 47✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Section 48
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Section 47 of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, mandates that after making necessary provisions, the balance of the RBI's profits shall be paid to the Central Government. This is the statutory basis for the annual surplus transfer.

Source: RBI Board Approves ₹2,86,588 Cr Record Surplus Transfer to Govt, Maintains Contingent Risk Buffer at 6.5% for FY26 →
Q14.

Consider the following statements regarding the RBI's recent decisions:

1. The RBI Board approved a surplus transfer of over ₹2.8 lakh crore to the government for FY 2025-26.

2. The Contingent Risk Buffer (CRB) was maintained at 7.5% of the RBI's balance sheet size.

3. The RBI's gross income for FY26 increased by more than 25% compared to the previous year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the approved surplus is ₹2,86,588.46 crore. Statement 2 is incorrect because the CRB was maintained at 6.5%, not 7.5%. Statement 3 is correct as the gross income increased by 26.42%. Hence, option C is correct.

Source: RBI Board Approves ₹2,86,588 Cr Record Surplus Transfer to Govt, Maintains Contingent Risk Buffer at 6.5% for FY26 →
Q15.

According to the news, what was the size of the RBI's balance sheet as on March 31, 2026?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.₹81,97,121.08 crore
  • B.₹85,12,450.00 crore
  • C.₹91,97,121.08 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • D.₹95,50,000.00 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the RBI's balance sheet expanded to ₹91,97,121.08 crore as on March 31, 2026. The other options are close distractors based on common numerical patterns.

Source: RBI Board Approves ₹2,86,588 Cr Record Surplus Transfer to Govt, Maintains Contingent Risk Buffer at 6.5% for FY26 →
Q16.

What is the primary purpose of maintaining the Contingent Risk Buffer (CRB) by the RBI, as highlighted in the news?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To fund specific government infrastructure projects
  • B.To provide a cushion against unforeseen financial stability risks✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To directly finance the fiscal deficit of state governments
  • D.To invest in foreign government securities for higher returns
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Contingent Risk Buffer is a specific provision within the RBI's economic capital to cover monetary and financial stability risks that are 'unforeseen' or 'unexpected'. Its maintenance, as per the revised Economic Capital Framework, ensures the central bank's resilience.

Source: RBI Board Approves ₹2,86,588 Cr Record Surplus Transfer to Govt, Maintains Contingent Risk Buffer at 6.5% for FY26 →
Q17.

As per the news, which body is the primary owner of the new state-owned enterprise PT Danantara Sumberdaya Indonesia?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Indonesian Ministry of Finance
  • B.The sovereign wealth fund Danantara✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The coordinating economic ministry
  • D.The Indonesian Palm Oil Association
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that PT Danantara Sumberdaya Indonesia is 99% owned by Danantara, the sovereign wealth fund launched by President Prabowo. The other options are involved in policy or industry but are not the primary owners.

Source: Indonesia's State-Owned PT Danantara to Control Coal, Palm Oil, Iron Alloy Exports by September 2026 Under New Trade Policy →
Q18.

Consider the following statements regarding Indonesia's new trade policy:

1. It mandates a state-owned enterprise to handle exports of coal, palm oil, and nickel.

2. The policy is aimed at combating under-invoicing and increasing tax revenues.

3. China is Indonesia's largest trading partner and a major importer of the affected commodities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The policy covers coal, palm oil, and iron alloys, not nickel. Statement 2 is correct as President Prabowo stated the primary objective is to combat under-invoicing and increase revenues. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly mentions China as Indonesia's largest trading partner and a top importer.

Source: Indonesia's State-Owned PT Danantara to Control Coal, Palm Oil, Iron Alloy Exports by September 2026 Under New Trade Policy →
Q19.

According to President Prabowo, how much revenue has Indonesia lost due to exporters underreporting sales?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.$500 billion
  • B.$750 billion
  • C.$908 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • D.$1.2 trillion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly quotes President Prabowo stating that Indonesia had lost as much as $908 billion because exporters underreport their sales to avoid taxes. The other figures are plausible distractors but not mentioned.

Source: Indonesia's State-Owned PT Danantara to Control Coal, Palm Oil, Iron Alloy Exports by September 2026 Under New Trade Policy →
Q20.

What is a stated geopolitical objective behind Indonesia's centralization of commodity exports, as per analysts cited in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To exclusively deepen trade ties with the European Union
  • B.To diversify its investor base and reduce reliance on Chinese investment✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To join a new regional trade bloc with ASEAN neighbors
  • D.To increase imports of manufactured goods from the United States
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Analysts like Bhima Yudhistira state that by exerting state control and potentially revising Chinese-dominated contracts, the policy aims to diversify investors and attract interest from others like the US, reducing Chinese control.

Source: Indonesia's State-Owned PT Danantara to Control Coal, Palm Oil, Iron Alloy Exports by September 2026 Under New Trade Policy →
Q21.

Which body formally approves the surplus transfer from the RBI to the Central Government?

EasyUPSC, Banking
  • A.Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)
  • B.RBI Central Board✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC)
  • D.Board for Financial Supervision (BFS)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, the Reserve Bank of India's (RBI) Central Board approved the surplus transfer. The Central Board is the apex administrative body of the RBI responsible for its general superintendence and direction.

Source: RBI Approves Record Surplus Transfer of ₹2.86 Lakh Crore to Govt for FY26 Under Revised Economic Capital Framework →
Q22.

Consider the following statements regarding the RBI surplus transfer for FY 2025-26:

1. The surplus transfer of ₹2.86 lakh crore is ₹17,000 crore less than the transfer made for the previous financial year.

2. The transferable surplus is arrived at based on the revised Economic Capital Framework (ECF).

3. The Contingent Risk Buffer (CRB) for FY26 was maintained at 6.5% of the size of the RBI Balance Sheet.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The surplus transfer of ₹2.86 lakh crore is ₹17,000 crore MORE, not less, than the previous year's ₹2.69 lakh crore. Statement 2 is correct as mentioned in the article. Statement 3 is correct as the CRB was maintained at 6.5%.

Source: RBI Approves Record Surplus Transfer of ₹2.86 Lakh Crore to Govt for FY26 Under Revised Economic Capital Framework →
Q23.

What was the size of the RBI's Balance Sheet as on March 31, 2026, as mentioned in the article?

MediumBanking, SSC
  • A.₹91,97,121 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • B.₹89,45,000 crore
  • C.₹85,21,450 crore
  • D.₹95,12,300 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "The Balance Sheet of the central bank expanded by 20.61 per cent to Rs 91,97,121 crore as on March 31, 2026." The other options are close but incorrect figures.

Source: RBI Approves Record Surplus Transfer of ₹2.86 Lakh Crore to Govt for FY26 Under Revised Economic Capital Framework →
Q24.

According to the article, what were the primary reasons for the RBI's 'robust earnings' leading to the record surplus?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.High domestic lending rates and increased bank license fees
  • B.Large amounts of dollar sales and higher revenue from foreign assets✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Profits from equity investments and gold revaluation
  • D.Reduced operational expenditure and zero provisioning
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the record payout was on the back of robust earnings 'led by large amounts of dollar sales to support the falling rupee and higher revenue earned on foreign assets due to rise in interest rates in the international markets.' The other options are not mentioned.

Source: RBI Approves Record Surplus Transfer of ₹2.86 Lakh Crore to Govt for FY26 Under Revised Economic Capital Framework →
Q25.

Under which state legislation was the sarpanch in the news article removed from her position?

EasyUPSC, MPSC
  • A.The Panchayati Raj Act
  • B.The Gujarat Panchayats Act, 1993✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Maharashtra Village Panchayats Act
  • D.The Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the removal was under the Gujarat Panchayats Act, 1993. This is a state-specific law governing Panchayats in Gujarat.

Source: Supreme Court upholds Sarpanch removal under Gujarat Panchayats Act Section 57(1) for Rs 13.52 lakh conflict-of-interest contracts →
Q26.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court judgment mentioned in the article:

1. The Court upheld the removal of a sarpanch for awarding contracts worth Rs 13.52 lakh to a firm linked to her husband.

2. The Court held that principles of natural justice were violated because the sarpanch was not supplied a copy of a certain report.

3. The Court cited its earlier judgment in Virendrasing vs Additional Commissioner (2023) to support a broad interpretation of disqualification clauses.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court actually noted that principles of natural justice cannot be invoked mechanically when admitted facts justify the conclusion, and the High Court had rejected the contention about non-supply of a report. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the Court referred to the Virendrasing case.

Source: Supreme Court upholds Sarpanch removal under Gujarat Panchayats Act Section 57(1) for Rs 13.52 lakh conflict-of-interest contracts →
Q27.

What was the total value of the panchayat contracts awarded by the sarpanch to her husband's firm, as mentioned in the Supreme Court case?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Rs 13.52 lakh✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Rs 13.52 crore
  • C.Rs 1.52 lakh
  • D.Rs 15.2 lakh
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states the contracts were worth Rs 13.52 lakh. Rs 13.52 crore is a magnitude higher, while Rs 1.52 lakh and Rs 15.2 lakh are close but incorrect distractors.

Source: Supreme Court upholds Sarpanch removal under Gujarat Panchayats Act Section 57(1) for Rs 13.52 lakh conflict-of-interest contracts →
Q28.

What was the Supreme Court's primary reasoning for rejecting the sarpanch's defense that contracts were awarded through a public tender process?

MediumUPSC
  • A.The tender process was found to be fraudulent.
  • B.The tender process did not negate the conflict of interest arising from her husband's partnership in the firm.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The firm was not the lowest bidder in the tender.
  • D.The Panchayat did not have the authority to issue such tenders.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the Court said there was nothing on record to establish any separation between the petitioner and her husband that could negate conflict of interest concerns. The public tender process itself was not challenged as fraudulent or invalid, but it was held insufficient to shield against the substantive conflict.

Source: Supreme Court upholds Sarpanch removal under Gujarat Panchayats Act Section 57(1) for Rs 13.52 lakh conflict-of-interest contracts →
Q29.

Which institution publishes the 'State of the Economy' report mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, Banking
  • A.NITI Aayog
  • B.Reserve Bank of India✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Finance
  • D.Securities and Exchange Board of India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 'State of the Economy' report is part of the Reserve Bank of India's (RBI) monthly bulletin. The RBI, as India's central bank, regularly publishes such reports on macroeconomic conditions.

Source: RBI April 2026 Report: Domestic Demand Drives Growth but West Asia Conflict Clouds Outlook, Unemployment Rises in Rural Areas →
Q30.

Consider the following statements regarding the RBI's April 2026 State of the Economy report:

1. Domestic demand continues to be the key driver of India's economic growth.

2. The near-term outlook is very bright due to strong supply-side performance.

3. Labour market conditions witnessed moderation in the January-March 2026 quarter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the report clearly identifies domestic demand as the key growth driver. Statement 2 is incorrect because the report states the outlook is 'somewhat clouded' by supply-side pressures, not 'very bright'. Statement 3 is correct as the report notes labour market conditions witnessed moderation in the Jan-Mar 2026 quarter. Hence, option C is correct.

Source: RBI April 2026 Report: Domestic Demand Drives Growth but West Asia Conflict Clouds Outlook, Unemployment Rises in Rural Areas →
Q31.

According to the RBI report, in which quarter did labour market conditions witness moderation with a rise in the unemployment rate?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.October-December 2025
  • B.January-March 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.April-June 2026
  • D.July-September 2025
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that the central bank said labour market conditions witnessed some moderation in the January-March 2026 quarter, with a rise in the unemployment rate. The other options are distractors for different fiscal quarters.

Source: RBI April 2026 Report: Domestic Demand Drives Growth but West Asia Conflict Clouds Outlook, Unemployment Rises in Rural Areas →
Q32.

What is identified as the primary factor clouding the near-term economic outlook in the RBI report?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Weak domestic consumer demand
  • B.Supply-side pressures from the West Asia crisis✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Tight monetary policy by the RBI
  • D.A sharp decline in foreign direct investment
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The report states that while domestic demand drives growth, the near-term outlook is 'somewhat clouded' due to supply side pressures brought on by the West Asia crisis. Domestic demand is strong, not weak. The report does not mention RBI's monetary policy or a decline in FDI as the primary clouding factors.

Source: RBI April 2026 Report: Domestic Demand Drives Growth but West Asia Conflict Clouds Outlook, Unemployment Rises in Rural Areas →
Q33.

Which autonomous organization is primarily responsible for developing model school textbooks and curricula in India, as mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.University Grants Commission (UGC)
  • B.National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)
  • D.National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The news article discusses a controversy surrounding an NCERT Class 8 textbook. NCERT is the apex autonomous body established for curriculum development and textbook publication for school education in India.

Source: Supreme Court Recalls Harsh Comments on NCERT Textbook Content & Blacklisting of 3 Academicians →
Q34.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court order mentioned in the news:

1. The Supreme Court's March 11, 2026 order contained harsh comments and a direction to blacklist three academicians.

2. The Court recalled these comments because it found the textbook content to be perfectly balanced and accurate.

3. The Court stated that its criticism was directed at the individuals involved, not the textbook content.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court recalled the harsh comments but still found the content 'lopsided'. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Court clarified its criticism was about the content, not the individuals.

Source: Supreme Court Recalls Harsh Comments on NCERT Textbook Content & Blacklisting of 3 Academicians →
Q35.

For which class was the NCERT textbook chapter under scrutiny by the Supreme Court, as per the news article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Class 6
  • B.Class 8✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Class 10
  • D.Class 12
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the controversial chapter was part of a 'Class 8 NCERT textbook'. This is a factual detail directly from the text.

Source: Supreme Court Recalls Harsh Comments on NCERT Textbook Content & Blacklisting of 3 Academicians →
Q36.

What was the core judicial concern regarding the NCERT textbook chapter as highlighted in the Supreme Court's observations?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.That it contained factual errors about historical events.
  • B.That it promoted a negative image of the judiciary without highlighting its constitutional supremacy.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.That it was prepared without proper authorization from the Education Ministry.
  • D.That it used complex language unsuitable for Class 8 students.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Justice Bagchi observed that the portrayal was 'lopsided' as it highlighted corruption but missed the role of the judiciary regarding its constitutional supremacy. This was the substantive concern behind the initial criticism.

Source: Supreme Court Recalls Harsh Comments on NCERT Textbook Content & Blacklisting of 3 Academicians →
Q37.

Under which ministry does the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), mentioned in the Bhojshala dispute news, operate?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • B.Ministry of Culture✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Law and Justice
  • D.Ministry of Education
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) is the premier organization for archaeological research and protection of cultural heritage in India, and it functions under the Union Ministry of Culture.

Source: SC Petition Challenging MP HC's Bhojshala Ruling: Temple Declaration & ASI Order Quashed →
Q38.

Consider the following statements regarding the Bhojshala complex dispute case:

1. The Madhya Pradesh High Court declared the site to be a temple dedicated to Goddess Lakshmi.

2. The High Court also quashed an order of the Archaeological Survey of India from the year 2003.

3. The disputed complex is located in the Dhar district of Madhya Pradesh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The MP High Court declared the site a temple of Goddess Saraswati, not Lakshmi. Statement 2 is correct: The HC quashed the ASI order dated April 7, 2003. Statement 3 is correct: The Bhojshala complex is in Dhar district, Madhya Pradesh.

Source: SC Petition Challenging MP HC's Bhojshala Ruling: Temple Declaration & ASI Order Quashed →
Q39.

In which year did the Archaeological Survey of India issue the order that allowed Muslims to offer namaz at the Bhojshala complex every Friday, an order later quashed by the Madhya Pradesh High Court?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2001
  • B.2003✓ Correct Answer
  • C.2005
  • D.2010
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

According to the article, the Madhya Pradesh High Court quashed an April 7, 2003, order of the ASI that allowed Muslims to offer namaz inside the Bhojshala complex every Friday.

Source: SC Petition Challenging MP HC's Bhojshala Ruling: Temple Declaration & ASI Order Quashed →
Q40.

What was a key suggestion made by the Madhya Pradesh High Court in its verdict on the Bhojshala complex dispute?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To demolish the existing structure and build a new temple.
  • B.To hand over the site's management to the local village panchayat.
  • C.To allow the Muslim community to approach the state government for separate land for a mosque.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To convert the site into a national museum under the ASI.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the High Court bench said 'the Muslim community may approach the Madhya Pradesh government for the allotment of separate land in the district for the construction of a mosque.' This reflects a judicial suggestion for accommodation rather than a management or demolition order.

Source: SC Petition Challenging MP HC's Bhojshala Ruling: Temple Declaration & ASI Order Quashed →
Q41.

Which apex medical research body in India operates the National Institute of Virology (NIV) in Pune, designated for testing suspected Ebola samples?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR)
  • B.Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Department of Biotechnology (DBT)
  • D.Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Indian Council of Medical Research's (ICMR) National Institute of Virology (NIV), Pune, is equipped to test samples from suspected Ebola cases. ICMR is the apex body for biomedical research in India.

Source: WHO Declares PHEIC for Ebola Outbreak; India Directs States to Activate IDSP Surveillance and SOPs →
Q42.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent Ebola preparedness advisory:

1. The WHO declared a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC) for the Ebola outbreak in the Democratic Republic of Congo and Uganda.

2. The Union Health Ministry has asked States to intensify surveillance under the National Health Mission for unusual clusters of fever.

3. The advisory calls for establishing coordination between NIV Pune and airport/port health authorities for timely sample referral.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the surveillance is to be intensified under the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP), not the National Health Mission. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions establishing coordination mechanisms between NIV Pune, airport and port health authorities, and surveillance units.

Source: WHO Declares PHEIC for Ebola Outbreak; India Directs States to Activate IDSP Surveillance and SOPs →
Q43.

On which date did the World Health Organization (WHO) declare the Ebola outbreak in the Democratic Republic of Congo and Uganda as a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC)?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.May 21, 2026
  • B.May 17, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.May 22, 2026
  • D.May 15, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the WHO declared the PHEIC on Sunday (May 17, 2026). The other dates are distractors: May 21 is the date of the photo from DRC, and May 22 is the article publication date.

Source: WHO Declares PHEIC for Ebola Outbreak; India Directs States to Activate IDSP Surveillance and SOPs →
Q44.

What is the primary objective of the Centre's directive to States to step up Ebola preparedness, as mentioned in the news?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To initiate mass vaccination campaigns across the country.
  • B.To strengthen surveillance and rapid response systems to prevent potential importation and spread.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To impose immediate travel bans on flights from all African nations.
  • D.To divert funds from other health programs to Ebola research.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core message is about proactive preparedness. The Centre's directive focuses on strengthening surveillance (via IDSP), hospital readiness, and rapid response systems to mitigate risks from international travel and trade, not on vaccination, blanket travel bans, or fund diversion.

Source: WHO Declares PHEIC for Ebola Outbreak; India Directs States to Activate IDSP Surveillance and SOPs →
Q45.

Which US government department was responsible for the 1960 memo outlining sanctions policy against Cuba, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Department of Defense
  • B.Department of Commerce
  • C.Department of State✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Central Intelligence Agency
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions an 'April 1960 State Department memo' that outlined the policy to weaken Cuba's economy. The State Department handles foreign policy and diplomacy.

Source: US Sanctions Linked to 38 Million Deaths Since 1970; Cuba Faces 22-Hour Blackouts, Fuel Shortage →
Q46.

Consider the following statements regarding economic sanctions as discussed in the article:

1. A Lancet study finds that unilateral sanctions since 1970 are associated with 38 million deaths globally.

2. Robert Pape's 1997 study provides strong social science support for the effectiveness of sanctions in achieving major foreign policy goals.

3. Sanctions often lead to increased government repression and reduced likelihood of bottom-up regime change in the target country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; Robert Pape's study 'Why Economic Sanctions Do Not Work' argues there is 'little valid social science support' for their effectiveness. Statement 3 is correct, summarizing the article's argument that sanctions consolidate regimes.

Source: US Sanctions Linked to 38 Million Deaths Since 1970; Cuba Faces 22-Hour Blackouts, Fuel Shortage →
Q47.

According to the Lancet study cited in the article, how many deaths are associated with unilateral sanctions imposed by the US and EU since the year 1970?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.28 million
  • B.38 million✓ Correct Answer
  • C.48 million
  • D.58 million
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'A recent Lancet study finds that unilateral sanctions imposed by the US and EU since 1970 are associated with 38 million deaths across the world.' The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Source: US Sanctions Linked to 38 Million Deaths Since 1970; Cuba Faces 22-Hour Blackouts, Fuel Shortage →
Q48.

What is the primary critique presented in the article regarding the outcome of economic sanctions on countries like Cuba and Iran?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.They successfully lead to democratic reforms and regime change.
  • B.They strengthen the target nation's economy through import substitution.
  • C.They fail to achieve policy goals while causing severe humanitarian suffering.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.They effectively isolate the ruling elite without affecting the general population.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core argument is that sanctions do not work for regime change (they often have the opposite effect) and instead create humanitarian crises, as seen with Cuba's blackouts and the global death toll. The other options contradict the article's analysis.

Source: US Sanctions Linked to 38 Million Deaths Since 1970; Cuba Faces 22-Hour Blackouts, Fuel Shortage →
Q49.

Which international financial institution is supporting the Bihar Urban Transformation Programme with $500 million?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Asian Development Bank (ADB)
  • B.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
  • C.World Bank✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the programme is a "World Bank-supported Bihar Urban Transformation Programme". The other institutions, while involved in development financing in India, are not mentioned in this context.

Source: World Bank $500 Million Bihar Urban Transformation Programme with 11 Greenfield Satellite Townships Approved →
Q50.

Consider the following statements regarding Bihar's urbanisation challenge:

1. Bihar is India's least urbanised major state, with an urban population share significantly below the national average.

2. The state's proposed urban transformation relies primarily on the expansion of a single megacity like Patna.

3. A key feature of the new approach is the use of land-pooling mechanisms instead of aggressive land acquisition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states Bihar has "barely 11-12 per cent of its population living in urban areas, compared to the national average of over 31 per cent." Statement 2 is incorrect; the article argues against a single megacity model, stating Bihar's pathway lies in "dispersed urbanisation through multiple regional growth centres". Statement 3 is correct as the article notes the "decision to experiment with land-pooling mechanisms rather than aggressive land acquisition is also notable."

Source: World Bank $500 Million Bihar Urban Transformation Programme with 11 Greenfield Satellite Townships Approved →
Q51.

According to the article, what is the approximate urban population share of Bihar, making it India's least urbanised major state?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.8-9%
  • B.11-12%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.15-16%
  • D.18-20%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article provides the specific data point: "Bihar remains India’s least urbanised major state, with barely 11-12 per cent of its population living in urban areas." The other options are plausible distractors but not the figure mentioned.

Source: World Bank $500 Million Bihar Urban Transformation Programme with 11 Greenfield Satellite Townships Approved →
Q52.

What is identified as a primary structural constraint for Bihar's urban expansion, related to its geography and climate?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Lack of skilled workforce
  • B.High levels of air pollution
  • C.Chronic flood-proneness in north Bihar✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Scarcity of water for industrial use
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article lists three structural constraints. The second one is "environmental vulnerability," specifically stating: "Large parts of north Bihar remain chronically flood-prone due to river systems such as the Kosi, Gandak, and Bagmati." While other options could be challenges, the article explicitly highlights flood vulnerability as a key constraint that cannot be an afterthought.

Source: World Bank $500 Million Bihar Urban Transformation Programme with 11 Greenfield Satellite Townships Approved →
Q53.

The Supreme Court set aside an order of which appellate tribunal in the case related to homebuyers of Earth Infrastructures?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)
  • B.National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Real Estate Appellate Tribunal (REAT)
  • D.Supreme Court itself
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the Supreme Court set aside a 2023 order of the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT). The NCLT is the first-level tribunal, while NCLAT is its appellate body.

Source: Supreme Court Restores Alpha Corp's ₹750 Cr Resolution Plan for 3,000 Stalled Homebuyers Under IBC →
Q54.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The Supreme Court restored a resolution plan by Alpha Corp Development for projects originally by Earth Infrastructures Limited.

2. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) does not recognize homebuyers as financial creditors in the resolution process.

3. The stalled projects included both commercial developments in Gurgaon and a residential project in Greater Noida.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the IBC, via an amendment, recognizes homebuyers as financial creditors. Statement 3 is incorrect; the commercial projects (Earth TechOne, Earth Sapphire Court) are in Greater Noida, and the residential project (Earth Copia) is in Gurgaon, not the other way around.

Source: Supreme Court Restores Alpha Corp's ₹750 Cr Resolution Plan for 3,000 Stalled Homebuyers Under IBC →
Q55.

According to the article, what is the approximate amount Alpha Corp Development is expected to invest to complete the stalled real estate projects?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹500 crore
  • B.₹750 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹1,000 crore
  • D.₹1,200 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Alpha Corp Development is expected to invest approximately Rs 750 crore towards completion, redevelopment, infrastructure upgrades, and delivery of the projects.' ₹1,200 crore is the projected revenue, not the investment.

Source: Supreme Court Restores Alpha Corp's ₹750 Cr Resolution Plan for 3,000 Stalled Homebuyers Under IBC →
Q56.

What is a primary significance of the Supreme Court's order in this case for the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) framework?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.It mandates the liquidation of all insolvent real estate companies.
  • B.It reinforces judicial oversight to ensure viable resolution plans are not arbitrarily rejected.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It transfers all pending real estate cases from NCLT to the Supreme Court.
  • D.It orders the government to provide direct financial compensation to all homebuyers.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core implication is judicial intervention upholding a resolution plan, which strengthens the IBC's objective of value-maximizing resolution. The Court set aside the NCLAT's rejection, ensuring the process is not derailed. The other options are not supported by the article's content.

Source: Supreme Court Restores Alpha Corp's ₹750 Cr Resolution Plan for 3,000 Stalled Homebuyers Under IBC →
Q57.

Which constitutional body is responsible for conducting the Special Intensive Revision of electoral rolls as mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • B.Election Commission of India✓ Correct Answer
  • C.State Election Commission
  • D.Supreme Court of India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Election Commission of India (ECI) is the permanent constitutional body established under Article 324. It is responsible for the superintendence, direction, and control of all elections, including the preparation and revision of electoral rolls, as highlighted in the article.

Source: Election Commission to Share Deleted Voter Lists with Parties in Maharashtra's 2026 Special Intensive Revision →
Q58.

Consider the following statements regarding the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) in Maharashtra:

1. The Election Commission will share the list of deleted voters only with the general public and not with political parties.

2. The previous SIR in Maharashtra was conducted over a period of 13 months between 2002 and 2004.

3. Booth Level Agents (BLAs) are appointed by the Election Commission to assist in the verification process.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the EC has announced it will share the list of deleted voters with political parties (BLAs) as an additional transparency step. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect; BLAs are appointed by political parties, not the Election Commission. BLOs are appointed by the EC.

Source: Election Commission to Share Deleted Voter Lists with Parties in Maharashtra's 2026 Special Intensive Revision →
Q59.

According to the EC data mentioned in the article, which political party had appointed the highest number of Booth Level Agents (BLAs) for the revision process?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Shiv Sena
  • B.Indian National Congress
  • C.Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Nationalist Congress Party (NCP)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "According to EC data, the BJP has appointed the highest number of BLAs at 52,115." The other parties mentioned had lower numbers.

Source: Election Commission to Share Deleted Voter Lists with Parties in Maharashtra's 2026 Special Intensive Revision →
Q60.

What is the primary objective of the Election Commission's decision to share lists of deleted voters with political parties during the Special Intensive Revision?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.To increase voter turnout in the next elections
  • B.To expedite the process of voter registration
  • C.To enhance transparency and allow correction of errors✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To reduce the workload of Booth Level Officers (BLOs)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Chief Electoral Officer stated the step was taken to make the process transparent and to give a seven-day window to act if mistakes are found. This directly aims to build trust and accuracy in the electoral roll, addressing past controversies over wrongful deletions.

Source: Election Commission to Share Deleted Voter Lists with Parties in Maharashtra's 2026 Special Intensive Revision →
Q61.

Which government body is responsible for issuing the official monsoon forecast for India, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
  • B.India Meteorological Department (IMD)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)
  • D.Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'On April 13, the IMD forecast below-normal rainfall...'. The India Meteorological Department (IMD) is the principal agency responsible for meteorological observations, weather forecasting, and seismology in India.

Source: Fertiliser Production Plunges 24.6% in March 2026 as Subsidy Hiked 12% Amid Hormuz Closure and 92% Monsoon Forecast →
Q62.

Consider the following statements regarding the situation described in the article:

1. India's fertiliser production expanded for three consecutive months before declining sharply by 24.6% in March 2026.

2. The Cabinet approved an increase in the nutrient-based subsidy for the Rabi 2026 season to keep the retail price of urea flat.

3. The Strait of Hormuz is a transit route for approximately one-third of the world's fertiliser shipments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'output had expanded for three consecutive months prior' to the 24.6% March decline. Statement 2 is incorrect; the subsidy hike was for the Kharif 2026 season, not Rabi, and it aimed to keep DAP prices flat, not urea. Statement 3 is directly stated: 'A third of the world’s fertilisers normally transit the strait'.

Source: Fertiliser Production Plunges 24.6% in March 2026 as Subsidy Hiked 12% Amid Hormuz Closure and 92% Monsoon Forecast →
Q63.

According to the IMD forecast mentioned in the article, what percentage of the Long Period Average (LPA) is the southwest monsoon for 2026 expected to be?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.88% of LPA
  • B.90% of LPA
  • C.92% of LPA✓ Correct Answer
  • D.95% of LPA
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'On April 13, the IMD forecast below-normal rainfall for the 2026 southwest monsoon season at 92 per cent of the Long Period Average'. This categorises it as 'below-normal'. The other options are close but incorrect distractors.

Source: Fertiliser Production Plunges 24.6% in March 2026 as Subsidy Hiked 12% Amid Hormuz Closure and 92% Monsoon Forecast →
Q64.

What is the primary immediate objective of the Indian government's decision to increase the nutrient-based subsidy, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To boost domestic fertiliser manufacturing capacity
  • B.To promote the use of organic fertilisers among farmers
  • C.To absorb global price shocks and prevent a rise in farm input costs✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To reduce the fiscal deficit by rationalising subsidy expenditure
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that with global prices at crisis levels due to the Hormuz closure, the government uses the subsidy system as 'a well-established instrument of agricultural price stability'. The hike is meant to 'absorb the cost of guaranteeing supply' and prevent 'farm input costs to rise visibly', which would risk inflation and squeeze agricultural incomes.

Source: Fertiliser Production Plunges 24.6% in March 2026 as Subsidy Hiked 12% Amid Hormuz Closure and 92% Monsoon Forecast →
Q65.

As per the Constitution, the superintendence, direction and control of elections to the Municipalities is vested in which body?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Election Commission of India
  • B.State Election Commission✓ Correct Answer
  • C.State Government
  • D.Municipal Commissioner
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 243ZA of the Constitution vests the superintendence, direction and control of elections to the Municipalities in the State Election Commission (SEC). The Election Commission of India handles elections to Parliament and State Legislatures.

Source: Polity & Governance Revision Guide: 30 Key Topics Covering Articles 44, 361, 108, 143, 3, 94, 120, and 324 for UPSC Prelims 2026 →
Q66.

Consider the following statements:

1. The power of the President to consult the Supreme Court on a question of law is provided under Article 143 of the Constitution.

2. The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution provides for the formation of Autonomous District Councils in all states having Scheduled Tribes.

3. The removal process of the Chief Election Commissioner is the same as that of a Judge of the Supreme Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as Article 143 deals with the President's power to seek the Supreme Court's advisory opinion. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Sixth Schedule applies specifically to the tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Tripura, not all states with STs. Statement 3 is correct as per Article 324(5) of the Constitution.

Source: Polity & Governance Revision Guide: 30 Key Topics Covering Articles 44, 361, 108, 143, 3, 94, 120, and 324 for UPSC Prelims 2026 →
Q67.

According to the article, what is the maximum envisaged strength of the Lok Sabha as per the Constitution of India?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.530
  • B.543
  • C.552✓ Correct Answer
  • D.545
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Constitution envisages a maximum strength of 552 for the Lok Sabha. The current strength is 543 members. Option A (530) is the maximum number of members from states, option B is the current strength, and option D is a distractor.

Source: Polity & Governance Revision Guide: 30 Key Topics Covering Articles 44, 361, 108, 143, 3, 94, 120, and 324 for UPSC Prelims 2026 →
Q68.

What is the primary significance of the Ninth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It lists the languages recognized by the Constitution.
  • B.It contains laws that are shielded from judicial review on grounds of violating fundamental rights.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It details the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha.
  • D.It enumerates the powers of the Union Government.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Ninth Schedule, introduced by the First Amendment, contains central and state laws that are protected from being challenged in courts for violating fundamental rights. However, as per the I.R. Coelho judgment (2007), laws can still be challenged if they violate the basic structure of the Constitution.

Source: Polity & Governance Revision Guide: 30 Key Topics Covering Articles 44, 361, 108, 143, 3, 94, 120, and 324 for UPSC Prelims 2026 →
Q69.

Under which Article of the Constitution does a person detained under a preventive detention law have the right to make an effective representation against the order?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 20
  • B.Article 21
  • C.Article 22(1)
  • D.Article 22(5)✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 22(5) specifically provides safeguards for persons detained under preventive detention laws, including the right to be informed of grounds and to make a representation. This is the core legal provision invoked in the Karnataka HC judgment.

Source: Karnataka HC Quashes Detention Order Under 1985 Goonda Act, Cites Article 22(5) Violation for Non-Furnishing of Kannada Documents →
Q70.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent Karnataka High Court judgment:

1. The Court quashed a detention order passed under the Karnataka Prevention of Dangerous Activities Act, 1985.

2. The Court held that non-furnishing of documents in English violates the detenu's right under Article 21.

3. The judgment emphasized that the right to make an effective representation is guaranteed under Article 22(1) of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the detention was under the 1985 Act. Statement 2 is incorrect; the violation was of Article 22(5), not Article 21, though Article 21 was also mentioned in a broader context. Statement 3 is incorrect; the right to effective representation is under Article 22(5), not Article 22(1).

Source: Karnataka HC Quashes Detention Order Under 1985 Goonda Act, Cites Article 22(5) Violation for Non-Furnishing of Kannada Documents →
Q71.

According to the news, how many previous cases were registered against the detenu, Sagar Lakkundi, under IPC and BNS?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.5 cases
  • B.8 cases✓ Correct Answer
  • C.10 cases
  • D.12 cases
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Additional Government Advocate stated in court that the detenu was a habitual offender with eight cases registered against him under various provisions of IPC and BNS. This factual data was part of the state's argument.

Source: Karnataka HC Quashes Detention Order Under 1985 Goonda Act, Cites Article 22(5) Violation for Non-Furnishing of Kannada Documents →
Q72.

What was the primary constitutional principle reinforced by the Karnataka High Court's decision to quash the detention order?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The supremacy of the judiciary over the legislature.
  • B.The right to legal aid for all accused persons.
  • C.The necessity of providing detention documents in a language understood by the detenu.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The prohibition of preventive detention under any circumstances.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core ruling was that failing to provide documents in Kannada, a language the detenu could read, violated his right to make an effective representation under Article 22(5). This principle ensures the substantive exercise of constitutional safeguards, not just their formal existence.

Source: Karnataka HC Quashes Detention Order Under 1985 Goonda Act, Cites Article 22(5) Violation for Non-Furnishing of Kannada Documents →
Q73.

Which ministry has released the draft rules for the normative allocation of funds under the VB-G RAM G scheme?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of Rural Development✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Panchayati Raj
  • D.Ministry of Labour and Employment
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, the Ministry of Rural Development released the draft 'Objective Parameters for Normative Allocation Rules, 2026'. This ministry is the nodal agency for implementing rural employment guarantee schemes.

Source: VB-G RAM G Scheme from July 1: Normative Allocation via 16th FC Formula, Replaces MGNREGA with 60:40 Fund Sharing →
Q74.

Consider the following statements regarding the Viksit Bharat – Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin):

1. It guarantees 125 days of wage employment in a financial year to rural households.

2. Its fund allocation to states will be based entirely on the horizontal devolution formula of the 15th Finance Commission.

3. Under the Act, the fund-sharing pattern between Centre and States is 60:40 for all states without exception.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the scheme provides a guarantee of 125 days. Statement 2 is incorrect because allocation is based on the 16th Finance Commission's formula, not the 15th. Statement 3 is incorrect as the fund-sharing is 90:10 for 11 special category states (northeastern, Himalayan, UTs with legislature).

Source: VB-G RAM G Scheme from July 1: Normative Allocation via 16th FC Formula, Replaces MGNREGA with 60:40 Fund Sharing →
Q75.

According to the draft rules, what is the highest weighted parameter in the 16th Finance Commission formula used for VB-G RAM G fund allocation?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Population (2011 Census)
  • B.Area
  • C.Forest Cover
  • D.Per capita Gross State Domestic Product Distance✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifies the 16th FC formula parameters and their weights: Population (17.5%), Demographic Performance (10%), Area (10%), Forest (10%), Per capita GSDP Distance (42.5%), and Contribution to GDP (10%). The per capita GSDP distance has the highest weight of 42.5%.

Source: VB-G RAM G Scheme from July 1: Normative Allocation via 16th FC Formula, Replaces MGNREGA with 60:40 Fund Sharing →
Q76.

What is a key criticism or major change embodied in the VB-G RAM G Act compared to the previous MGNREGS?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It reduces the number of guaranteed employment days from 150 to 100.
  • B.It shifts from a demand-based to a normative allocation of funds.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It removes the provision for social audit of works.
  • D.It increases the central share of wage payments to 100%.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article highlights that under MGNREGS, states received funds based on demand for work. The VB-G RAM G introduces 'normative allocation' based on a predetermined formula (16th FC), which is a fundamental shift in the funding philosophy and has been a point of criticism.

Source: VB-G RAM G Scheme from July 1: Normative Allocation via 16th FC Formula, Replaces MGNREGA with 60:40 Fund Sharing →
Q77.

Which Union Ministry is responsible for implementing the Smart Border Project announced by Amit Shah?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Defence
  • B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of External Affairs
  • D.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Union Home Minister announced the project, and specifically mentions 'The Ministry of Home Affairs will soon introduce a Smart Border Project'. The BSF, which guards the borders, also falls under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Source: MHA's Smart Border Project with Drones, Radars to Secure India-Pakistan & India-Bangladesh Frontiers →
Q78.

Consider the following statements regarding the announcements made by the Union Home Minister:

1. The Smart Border Project will be deployed along India's frontiers with Pakistan and Bangladesh.

2. The jurisdiction of the Border Security Force (BSF) has been reduced from 50 kilometres to 15 kilometres.

3. The project aims to address threats including narcotics smuggling and the use of drones for smuggling contraband.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly mentions making frontiers with Pakistan and Bangladesh impenetrable. Statement 2 is incorrect; the BSF's jurisdiction was extended from 15 km to 50 km, not reduced. Statement 3 is correct as the Home Minister flagged narcotics and drone smuggling as key threats the project will address.

Source: MHA's Smart Border Project with Drones, Radars to Secure India-Pakistan & India-Bangladesh Frontiers →
Q79.

To what distance has the jurisdiction of the Border Security Force (BSF) been extended, as per the recent announcement?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.From 10 km to 25 km
  • B.From 15 km to 50 km✓ Correct Answer
  • C.From 20 km to 100 km
  • D.From 5 km to 15 km
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'The BSF’s jurisdiction has been extended from 15 kilometres to 50 kilometres'. This is a key factual data point from the news. The other options are plausible-sounding but incorrect distractors.

Source: MHA's Smart Border Project with Drones, Radars to Secure India-Pakistan & India-Bangladesh Frontiers →
Q80.

What is the primary strategic shift in border security philosophy highlighted by the announcement of the Smart Border Project?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.A shift from state police-led security to exclusively central force-led security.
  • B.A shift from relying solely on traditional methods to a blend of high-end technology and inter-agency coordination.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.A shift from defensive posture to an exclusively offensive military posture at the borders.
  • D.A shift from focusing on land borders to a primary focus on coastal security.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Home Minister stated, 'Border security can no longer rely solely on traditional methods' and outlined a new approach blending stronger inter-agency coordination with high-end technology like drones and radars. This is the core philosophy change. The other options are either incorrect or represent extreme interpretations not supported by the article.

Source: MHA's Smart Border Project with Drones, Radars to Secure India-Pakistan & India-Bangladesh Frontiers →
Q81.

Which department is responsible for implementing the Jal Jeevan Mission as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Department of Rural Development
  • B.Department of Drinking Water & Sanitation (DDWS)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Department of Environment
  • D.Department of Health
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the Department of Drinking Water & Sanitation (DDWS) Secretary Ashok K K Meena conducting the review meeting. DDWS is the nodal department for Jal Jeevan Mission under the Ministry of Jal Shakti.

Source: Jal Jeevan Mission 2.0 Shift to Service Delivery, District Dashboards Under Solid Waste Management Rules 2026 →
Q82.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. Jal Jeevan Mission 2.0 marks a transition from asset creation to sustained drinking water service delivery.

2. The Solid Waste Management Rules, 2026 are being reviewed in an ongoing PIL before the Supreme Court.

3. The District Water and Sanitation Mission dashboard is for monitoring infrastructure creation at the state level.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's mention of JJM 2.0 transition. Statement 2 is correct as the article states implementation of SWM Rules 2026 is being reviewed in an ongoing Supreme Court PIL. Statement 3 is incorrect; the dashboard is for monitoring service delivery at the district level, not infrastructure creation at the state level.

Source: Jal Jeevan Mission 2.0 Shift to Service Delivery, District Dashboards Under Solid Waste Management Rules 2026 →
Q83.

According to the article, which set of rules must district collectors enforce at the Gram Panchayat level?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016
  • B.Solid Waste Management Rules, 2020
  • C.Solid Waste Management Rules, 2024
  • D.Solid Waste Management Rules, 2026✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically mentions 'Solid Waste Management Rules, 2026' multiple times and advises officials to ensure waste management in line with these rules. The other years are distractors.

Source: Jal Jeevan Mission 2.0 Shift to Service Delivery, District Dashboards Under Solid Waste Management Rules 2026 →
Q84.

What is the primary focus of Jal Jeevan Mission under its renewed framework (JJM 2.0) as highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Expanding infrastructure to urban areas
  • B.Increasing budgetary allocation for water projects
  • C.Moving beyond infrastructure creation towards reliable service delivery✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Introducing new technology for water purification
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that JJM and SBM-G have reached a stage where focus must move 'beyond infrastructure creation towards reliable service delivery, functionality, sustainability and community ownership'. This is the core objective of JJM 2.0.

Source: Jal Jeevan Mission 2.0 Shift to Service Delivery, District Dashboards Under Solid Waste Management Rules 2026 →
Q85.

According to the article, which Union Ministry is primarily involved in the discourse on granting a legislature or districts to Ladakh?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Law and Justice
  • B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region
  • D.Ministry of Tribal Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) argues that Ladakh needs more districts rather than a legislature. The MHA is the nodal ministry for the administration of Union Territories.

Source: Ladakh Demands Sixth Schedule & Legislature Over 5 New Districts, Citing Article 370 Precedent & Arunachal Pradesh Comparison →
Q86.

Consider the following statements regarding the issues discussed in the article:

1. The central government's offer to Ladakh includes the creation of five new districts as an alternative to a legislature.

2. The article compares Ladakh's situation to that of Uttar Pradesh to argue against the logic of financial dependence disqualifying a region from having a legislature.

3. The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, which is being demanded for Ladakh, currently applies to tribal areas in states like Assam and Mizoram.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the offer of five new districts (Nubra, Changthang, Sham, Zanskar, Drass). Statement 2 is incorrect; the article uses the example of Arunachal Pradesh and other Northeastern states, not Uttar Pradesh, for this argument. Statement 3 is correct as the Sixth Schedule is defined for tribal areas in the Northeast, a key point in the demand for Ladakh.

Source: Ladakh Demands Sixth Schedule & Legislature Over 5 New Districts, Citing Article 370 Precedent & Arunachal Pradesh Comparison →
Q87.

As per the article, how many new districts have been announced for Ladakh as an administrative alternative to a legislature?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.3
  • B.4
  • C.5✓ Correct Answer
  • D.6
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically lists five new districts: Nubra, Changthang, Sham, Zanskar, and Drass. This is a concrete factual detail that can be directly tested.

Source: Ladakh Demands Sixth Schedule & Legislature Over 5 New Districts, Citing Article 370 Precedent & Arunachal Pradesh Comparison →
Q88.

What is the core constitutional mechanism being demanded for Ladakh, as discussed in the article, to address concerns over land, culture, and autonomy?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Granting full statehood under Article 3
  • B.Implementation of the Fifth Schedule
  • C.Protections under the Sixth Schedule✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Establishment of a Central Zonal Council
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article repeatedly mentions the demand for Sixth Schedule protections for Ladakh. This schedule provides a framework for autonomous district councils with legislative powers over land, resources, and culture, which is the core demand contrasting with mere administrative districts.

Source: Ladakh Demands Sixth Schedule & Legislature Over 5 New Districts, Citing Article 370 Precedent & Arunachal Pradesh Comparison →
Q89.

Which ministry/department is primarily responsible for conducting the decennial Census in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
  • B.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
  • C.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Ministry of Rural Development
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India, which conducts the decennial Census, operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs. This is a key static fact for polity and governance.

Source: Census 2027 to Include Caste Enumeration for First Time Since 1931, SC Dismisses Petition Against It →
Q90.

Consider the following statements regarding the caste census in India:

1. The Supreme Court recently dismissed a petition seeking to stall the caste census as part of Census 2027.

2. The last time caste was enumerated for the entire population in a census was in the year 2011.

3. The Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011 produced a dataset that was immediately used for policy formulation without major issues.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the last full caste census was in 1931, not 2011. Statement 3 is incorrect; the SECC 2011 dataset had over 8 crore errors and most findings remain unpublished, rendering it largely unusable.

Source: Census 2027 to Include Caste Enumeration for First Time Since 1931, SC Dismisses Petition Against It →
Q91.

According to the article, the decennial population census originally due in 2021 was delayed and is now scheduled for which year?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2025
  • B.2026
  • C.2027✓ Correct Answer
  • D.2031
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the census, delayed from 2021 due to the pandemic and logistical hurdles, is now referred to as Census 2027. This is a key factual data point for prelims.

Source: Census 2027 to Include Caste Enumeration for First Time Since 1931, SC Dismisses Petition Against It →
Q92.

What is a primary argument in favor of conducting a caste census, as indicated in the article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To permanently abolish the caste system by removing legal recognition.
  • B.To provide accurate data for better targeting of welfare measures and ensuring representation.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To replace the existing reservation system with a purely economic criteria-based model.
  • D.To fulfill international reporting obligations on social indicators.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article cites the CJI's remark that governments need to know how many people are backward and need welfare. It also states that a caste census, viewed alongside socioeconomic indices, helps better target welfare and ensure representation.

Source: Census 2027 to Include Caste Enumeration for First Time Since 1931, SC Dismisses Petition Against It →
Q93.

Which body is primarily responsible for conducting the NEET-UG examination in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Medical Commission (NMC)
  • B.National Testing Agency (NTA)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)
  • D.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The National Testing Agency (NTA) is the autonomous body established by the Government of India to conduct entrance examinations like NEET-UG. The NMC regulates medical education, while UPSC conducts civil services exams.

Source: NEET-UG 2026 Cancelled After Paper Leak; Radhakrishnan Committee 2-Stage Exam Proposal & 7.5% State Quota Debate →
Q94.

Consider the following statements regarding the NEET-UG exam and recent reforms:

1. The K. Radhakrishnan Committee, formed after the NEET 2024 paper leak, recommended conducting NEET in two stages to enhance security.

2. The National Medical Commission Act, 2019, mandates fee regulation for all seats in private medical colleges.

3. Tamil Nadu has implemented a 7.5% horizontal reservation for students from government schools in medical admissions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the Radhakrishnan Committee recommended a two-stage exam. Statement 2 is incorrect because the NMC Act regulates fees for only 50% of seats in private colleges. Statement 3 is correct as Tamil Nadu's 7.5% quota for government school students is cited as a model.

Source: NEET-UG 2026 Cancelled After Paper Leak; Radhakrishnan Committee 2-Stage Exam Proposal & 7.5% State Quota Debate →
Q95.

According to the article, what is the approximate number of total applicants for NEET-UG 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.1.37 lakh
  • B.5 lakh
  • C.15 lakh
  • D.22 lakh✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 22 lakh students write the NEET exam. The figure 1.37 lakh is the total number of medical seats available, making it a close distractor.

Source: NEET-UG 2026 Cancelled After Paper Leak; Radhakrishnan Committee 2-Stage Exam Proposal & 7.5% State Quota Debate →
Q96.

What is a primary argument presented in the article for decentralising the NEET-UG examination?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase the difficulty level of the exam and improve medical education standards.
  • B.To reduce the administrative burden and cost on the National Testing Agency.
  • C.To ensure students from vulnerable socio-economic sections are not put at a disadvantage.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To align the medical entrance exam with the engineering entrance exam pattern.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core equity argument in the debate is that a centralised, high-stakes exam disadvantages rural, poor, and government school students due to unequal access to coaching. Decentralisation (state-level exams or Class XII marks) is proposed to level the playing field.

Source: NEET-UG 2026 Cancelled After Paper Leak; Radhakrishnan Committee 2-Stage Exam Proposal & 7.5% State Quota Debate →
Q97.

Which statutory body is responsible for adjudicating appeals under the Right to Information Act, 2005?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Law Commission of India
  • B.Central Information Commission✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Supreme Court of India
  • D.National Human Rights Commission
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Central Information Commission (CIC) is the statutory body established under the RTI Act, 2005 to adjudicate appeals and complaints regarding information requests. The Law Commission is an advisory body, the Supreme Court is the apex judicial body, and NHRC deals with human rights violations.

Source: CIC Excludes BCCI from RTI Act, Despite SC's 2015-16 Public Duty Ruling & ₹2,100 Cr Tax Exemptions (1997-2007) →
Q98.

Consider the following statements regarding the BCCI and the RTI Act:

1. The Supreme Court, during the adoption of Lodha committee recommendations (2015-16), stated that the BCCI performs public duties.

2. The Law Commission of India, in its 2018 report, argued for including BCCI under the RTI Act because it is substantially financed by the Central Government.

3. The Central Information Commission (CIC) has recently ruled that the BCCI is a public authority under Section 2(h) of the RTI Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Law Commission's 2018 argument was based on BCCI's public functions and tax exemptions (interpreted as foregone state revenue), not direct substantial financing by the government. Statement 3 is incorrect; the CIC recently ruled that BCCI is NOT a public authority under Section 2(h).

Source: CIC Excludes BCCI from RTI Act, Despite SC's 2015-16 Public Duty Ruling & ₹2,100 Cr Tax Exemptions (1997-2007) →
Q99.

According to the article, what was the value of tax exemptions enjoyed by the BCCI between 1997 and 2007, as cited by the Law Commission?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹1,500 crore
  • B.₹2,100 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹2,500 crore
  • D.₹3,000 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Law Commission noted the BCCI received tax exemptions worth ₹2,100 crore in the period 1997-2007, interpreting this as foregone state revenue. The other figures are distractors.

Source: CIC Excludes BCCI from RTI Act, Despite SC's 2015-16 Public Duty Ruling & ₹2,100 Cr Tax Exemptions (1997-2007) →
Q100.

What is the primary legal argument used by the CIC to exclude BCCI from the purview of the RTI Act, as per the news article?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.BCCI is a commercial body with its own anti-corruption measures.
  • B.BCCI is not a constitutional or statutory body and was not created by government notification under Section 2(h).✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Bringing BCCI under RTI would risk political interference in cricket administration.
  • D.BCCI's internal records are already subject to judicial review.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the CIC's decision is based strictly on Section 2(h) of the RTI Act, which defines 'public authority'. Since BCCI is not constitutionally/statutorily created nor notified by the government, it does not fit the definition. While other options are mentioned as concerns in the debate, they are not the CIC's primary legal basis for exclusion.

Source: CIC Excludes BCCI from RTI Act, Despite SC's 2015-16 Public Duty Ruling & ₹2,100 Cr Tax Exemptions (1997-2007) →
Q101.

Which ministry reported to the Lok Sabha about blocking URLs to combat financial irregularities from illegal offshore betting networks?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • B.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Finance
  • D.Ministry of Law and Justice
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) reported to the Lok Sabha about blocking URLs. This ministry handles cyber regulations and online content.

Source: PROG Act 2025 Ban Leads to Offshore Gambling Rise of 82% in Delhi NCR, 83% in Tamil Nadu, 91.7% in Maharashtra →
Q102.

Consider the following statements regarding the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act (PROG) 2025:

1. It was implemented in October 2025 with the objective to protect individuals from adverse impacts of online games involving money.

2. Studies show its implementation led to a decrease in the use of offshore online betting and gambling platforms.

3. The United Arab Emirates moved in 2023 to establish a tightly controlled federal licensing framework for online gambling.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's opening. Statement 2 is incorrect; studies show an increase in offshore platform usage. Statement 3 is correct; the UAE moved in 2023 to establish such a framework.

Source: PROG Act 2025 Ban Leads to Offshore Gambling Rise of 82% in Delhi NCR, 83% in Tamil Nadu, 91.7% in Maharashtra →
Q103.

According to the CUTS International study cited in the article, what was the percentage of offshore platform usage in Maharashtra after the implementation of the PROG Act?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.66.7%
  • B.83%
  • C.91.7%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.82%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that offshore participation in Maharashtra rose from 66.7% to 91.7% after the implementation of the PROG Act. The other percentages correspond to other states or pre-ban figures.

Source: PROG Act 2025 Ban Leads to Offshore Gambling Rise of 82% in Delhi NCR, 83% in Tamil Nadu, 91.7% in Maharashtra →
Q104.

What is the primary argument presented in the article against blanket bans on online gambling?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.They are ineffective and push users towards regulated domestic platforms.
  • B.They are effective but too costly for the government to enforce.
  • C.They fail to change consumer behavior and push users towards unregulated offshore platforms.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.They successfully generate tax revenue which can be used for enforcement.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core argument of the article is that paternalistic bans rarely change consumer behavior and merely push users toward underground and more volatile channels, specifically offshore platforms beyond domestic oversight.

Source: PROG Act 2025 Ban Leads to Offshore Gambling Rise of 82% in Delhi NCR, 83% in Tamil Nadu, 91.7% in Maharashtra →
Q105.

Which High Court recently quashed a rape case, flagging the trend of criminalising sour relationships?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Delhi High Court
  • B.Allahabad High Court✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Bombay High Court
  • D.Madras High Court
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Allahabad High Court, in an order by Justice Vivek Kumar Singh, quashed the rape case and made the observation about criminalising sour relationships.

Source: Allahabad HC Quashes Rape Case Under IPC Section 376, Flags Trend of Criminalising Sour Consensual Relationships →
Q106.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent Allahabad High Court judgment:

1. The court quashed proceedings under IPC Sections 376, 323, 342, and 506.

2. The court held that every broken promise of marriage in a consensual relationship amounts to rape.

3. The judgment emphasized that for a promise to be considered false, the element of cheating must be present from the inception of the relationship.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the court quashed the chargesheet under these specific IPC sections. Statement 2 is incorrect; the court explicitly stated that NOT every broken promise amounts to rape. Statement 3 is correct as the core ruling was that cheating must be proven from the very beginning for it to be a false promise constituting rape.

Source: Allahabad HC Quashes Rape Case Under IPC Section 376, Flags Trend of Criminalising Sour Consensual Relationships →
Q107.

Under which section of the Indian Penal Code was the primary offence of rape registered in the case quashed by the Allahabad High Court?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Section 302 IPC
  • B.Section 376 IPC✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Section 420 IPC
  • D.Section 498A IPC
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the case was registered under Sections 376 (rape), 323, 342, and 506 of the IPC. Therefore, the primary offence was under Section 376, which deals with rape.

Source: Allahabad HC Quashes Rape Case Under IPC Section 376, Flags Trend of Criminalising Sour Consensual Relationships →
Q108.

What was the primary legal rationale used by the Allahabad High Court to quash the rape proceedings in the mentioned case?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The accused and the woman were legally married.
  • B.The relationship was long-standing and consensual without cheating from its inception.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The woman had lodged the FIR after an inordinate delay.
  • D.The accused had obtained anticipatory bail from a lower court.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court's core reasoning, as detailed in the article, was that the parties were in a long-standing consensual physical relationship and there was no allegation or proof that the accused had no intention to marry (i.e., cheated) from the very beginning. Thus, the basic ingredients of rape under Section 376 were not made out.

Source: Allahabad HC Quashes Rape Case Under IPC Section 376, Flags Trend of Criminalising Sour Consensual Relationships →
Q109.

Which ministry of the Government of India is primarily involved in the discourse regarding granting a legislature or districts to Ladakh, as per the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Law and Justice
  • B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Tribal Affairs
  • D.Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), Government of India, is arguing that Ladakh needs more districts rather than a legislature. The MHA handles the administration of Union Territories.

Source: Ladakh Granted 5 New Districts (Nubra, Changthang, Sham, Zanskar, Drass) Amid Demands for Sixth Schedule and Legislature →
Q110.

Consider the following statements regarding the arguments presented in the article about Ladakh:

1. The Ministry of Home Affairs contends that Ladakh's sparse population and strategic sensitivity make a legislature unnecessary.

2. The article cites Arunachal Pradesh as an example of a state that was granted full statehood despite sharing a sensitive border and being sparsely populated.

3. The article argues that fiscal self-sufficiency has been a mandatory precondition for statehood for all Indian states.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's description of the MHA's argument. Statement 2 is correct as the article uses Arunachal Pradesh's example (statehood in 1987) to counter the strategic sensitivity argument. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article argues the opposite, stating that fiscal solvency is NOT the price of admission to Indian democracy, citing examples of states dependent on central transfers.

Source: Ladakh Granted 5 New Districts (Nubra, Changthang, Sham, Zanskar, Drass) Amid Demands for Sixth Schedule and Legislature →
Q111.

According to the article, what is the combined capacity of the renewable energy project planned for the Pang region of Changthang in Ladakh?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.5 Gigawatts
  • B.10 Gigawatts
  • C.13 Gigawatts✓ Correct Answer
  • D.15 Gigawatts
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically states: "The renewable project slated for the Pang region of Changthang totals roughly 13 gigawatts of combined capacity..." The other options are close distractors.

Source: Ladakh Granted 5 New Districts (Nubra, Changthang, Sham, Zanskar, Drass) Amid Demands for Sixth Schedule and Legislature →
Q112.

What is the core argument of the article against the Centre's offer of more districts for Ladakh?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Districts are too expensive to administer in a high-altitude region.
  • B.Districts cannot legislate on key issues like land rights and cultural autonomy.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Creating new districts requires a constitutional amendment.
  • D.The people of Ladakh have explicitly rejected the idea of more districts.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's central thesis is that administrative decentralization (districts) is no substitute for political agency (a legislature). It states: 'But districts cannot legislate on land protection, demographic safeguards, ecological preservation...' This is the primary critique offered.

Source: Ladakh Granted 5 New Districts (Nubra, Changthang, Sham, Zanskar, Drass) Amid Demands for Sixth Schedule and Legislature →
Q113.

Which United Nations body gave the original ruling in July 2025 that countries are obliged to prevent harm from climate change, later endorsed by the UNGA?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.International Court of Justice (ICJ)✓ Correct Answer
  • B.United Nations Security Council (UNSC)
  • C.United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
  • D.International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that in July last year, the International Court of Justice (ICJ) ruled that countries are obliged to prevent harm from climate change. This ruling was later endorsed by the UN General Assembly.

Source: UNGA Resolution 141-8 Vote Endorses ICJ Climate Ruling; India Abstains Over CBDR and Climate Finance Concerns →
Q114.

Consider the following statements regarding the UNGA resolution on climate justice:

1. It received more than two-thirds majority, with 141 votes in favour.

2. India voted in favour of the resolution, aligning with small island states.

3. The resolution is silent on the provision of climate finance by developed countries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 3
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions 141 votes in favour. Statement 2 is incorrect because India abstained, it did not vote in favour. Statement 3 is correct as the article highlights that the resolution is silent on climate finance, which was a key reason for India's abstention.

Source: UNGA Resolution 141-8 Vote Endorses ICJ Climate Ruling; India Abstains Over CBDR and Climate Finance Concerns →
Q115.

According to the article, how many countries abstained from voting on the UNGA resolution that endorsed the ICJ's climate ruling?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.8
  • B.28✓ Correct Answer
  • C.141
  • D.35
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that 28 nations, including India, abstained from the vote. 141 voted in favour, and 8 nations, including the US, voted against the resolution.

Source: UNGA Resolution 141-8 Vote Endorses ICJ Climate Ruling; India Abstains Over CBDR and Climate Finance Concerns →
Q116.

What was a primary reason cited in the article for India's abstention from the UNGA resolution on climate justice?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Disagreement with the scientific basis of climate change
  • B.Opposition to the International Solar Alliance being mentioned
  • C.The resolution's silence on climate finance and inadequate recognition of CBDR✓ Correct Answer
  • D.A desire to vote alongside the United States
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that India's abstention should not be seen as a vote against vulnerable nations, but rather because the resolution did not fully reflect concerns of developing countries, was silent on climate finance, and undermined the principle of Common but Differentiated Responsibilities (CBDR).

Source: UNGA Resolution 141-8 Vote Endorses ICJ Climate Ruling; India Abstains Over CBDR and Climate Finance Concerns →
Q117.

Which ministry is primarily responsible for constituting the expert bodies (EB-I & EB-II) to study hydroelectric projects in Uttarakhand?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Power
  • B.Ministry of Jal Shakti
  • C.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that based on the Supreme Court's 2013 order, the 'Union Environment Ministry constituted an expert body'. This ministry, now called MoEFCC, is the nodal agency for environmental clearances and impact assessments.

Source: Govt Consensus Against New Dams on Upper Ganga (Alaknanda & Bhagirathi) After SC Scrutiny Post-2013 Kedarnath Disaster →
Q118.

Consider the following statements regarding the issue of dams in the upper Ganga basin:

1. The Supreme Court's scrutiny was triggered by the 2013 Kedarnath disaster.

2. Expert Body-I, led by Ravi Chopra, recommended proceeding with all 24 projects under review.

3. The final consensus submission of the Centre in 2021 was against permitting any new hydroelectric projects.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because EB-I found that 23 of 24 projects would harm biodiversity. Statement 3 is incorrect; the 2021 consensus was to permit 7 projects with advanced construction, not against all new projects.

Source: Govt Consensus Against New Dams on Upper Ganga (Alaknanda & Bhagirathi) After SC Scrutiny Post-2013 Kedarnath Disaster →
Q119.

As per the article, how many hydroelectric projects did Expert Body-II (EB-II) study in the upper reaches of the Ganga River basin?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.24 projects
  • B.51 projects
  • C.70 projects✓ Correct Answer
  • D.28 projects
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "In its final report, EB-II studied 70 HEPs in the upper reaches of the Ganga River basin." 24 was studied by EB-I, 51 were the remaining uncommissioned projects out of 70, and 28 were recommended in a draft report.

Source: Govt Consensus Against New Dams on Upper Ganga (Alaknanda & Bhagirathi) After SC Scrutiny Post-2013 Kedarnath Disaster →
Q120.

What was a key reason cited by the Centre in 2026 for its stance against new hydel dams on the Alaknanda and Bhagirathi rivers?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.High cost of construction and low economic viability
  • B.Lack of technological expertise for Himalayan projects
  • C.Fragility of the region and demonstration by recent disasters✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Opposition from local communities and civil society groups
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the Centre 'primarily highlighted the fragility of the region' and cited recent disasters like the 2021 Rishi Ganga floods and Joshimath land subsidence as proof of vulnerability. While other factors played a role, this was the primary reason presented.

Source: Govt Consensus Against New Dams on Upper Ganga (Alaknanda & Bhagirathi) After SC Scrutiny Post-2013 Kedarnath Disaster →
Q121.

According to the article, which think tank's president is the author of the opinion piece?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Centre for Policy Research (CPR)
  • B.Observer Research Foundation (ORF)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Institute for Defence Studies and Analyses (IDSA)
  • D.National Council of Applied Economic Research (NCAER)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states at the end: 'The writer is president, Observer Research Foundation'. This is a static GK fact directly from the source.

Source: India-US Relations: Structural Faultlines on Energy Security, China Detente, and Strategic Autonomy →
Q122.

Consider the following statements regarding the structural faultlines in India-US relations as mentioned in the article:

1. India's energy security is imperiled by American unilateralism and double standards on sourcing fuel from Russia.

2. Washington's search for detente with China adds strategic ballast to the relationship.

3. India has reforged its sense of self and will continue to refuse to play the compliant partner to a whimsical Washington.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article says: 'India's energy security... is imperiled by American unilateralism and breathtaking double standards on sourcing fuel from Russia'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article says Washington's search for detente with China 'removes the relationship's strategic ballast', not adds it. Statement 3 is correct as per the article: 'India has reforged its sense of self: It will, and it must, continue to refuse to play the compliant partner...'. Hence, only 1 and 3 are correct.

Source: India-US Relations: Structural Faultlines on Energy Security, China Detente, and Strategic Autonomy →
Q123.

According to the article, how many structural faultlines have emerged in Indo-US relations?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.One
  • B.Two
  • C.Three✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Four
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'There are, in fact, three faultlines, not one.' This is a direct factual data point from the text.

Source: India-US Relations: Structural Faultlines on Energy Security, China Detente, and Strategic Autonomy →
Q124.

What does the article suggest is the philosophical gap that persists between India and the United States?

MediumUPSC
  • A.India does not understand capitalism; America does not understand socialism.
  • B.India does not understand alliances; America does not understand autonomy.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.India does not understand democracy; America does not understand monarchy.
  • D.India does not understand technology; America does not understand tradition.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'A philosophical gap, one rooted in our respective democratic cultures, has persisted: India does not understand alliances; America does not understand autonomy.' This is a direct quote capturing the core conceptual difference.

Source: India-US Relations: Structural Faultlines on Energy Security, China Detente, and Strategic Autonomy →
Q125.

Under which subject in the Indian Constitution does 'Animal Husbandry' primarily fall?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Union List (List I)
  • B.State List (List II)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Concurrent List (List III)
  • D.Residuary Powers
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, 'Animal Husbandry' is Entry 15 in the State List (List II). This gives state legislatures the primary power to make laws on this subject, which is why laws like the West Bengal Animal Slaughter Control Act are enacted by states.

Source: West Bengal Animal Slaughter Control Act 1950, with 14-Year Age Limit, Threatens ₹X Lakh Cr Meat-Dairy Economy →
Q126.

Consider the following statements regarding the news article:

1. West Bengal is India's largest producer of meat and the second-largest producer of fish.

2. The West Bengal Animal Slaughter Control Act, 1950, prohibits the slaughter of all cattle irrespective of age.

3. The article argues that the growth in meat production in West Bengal has occurred alongside a decline in its dairy sector.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) None of the above✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: West Bengal is the largest meat producer, but it is the second-largest fish producer (after Andhra Pradesh). Statement 2 is incorrect: The Act does not prohibit all slaughter; it allows slaughter of animals over 14 years with certification. Statement 3 is incorrect: The article explicitly states that milk production increased from 5.6 MT to 8 MT, proving meat sector growth was not at the expense of dairying.

Source: West Bengal Animal Slaughter Control Act 1950, with 14-Year Age Limit, Threatens ₹X Lakh Cr Meat-Dairy Economy →
Q127.

According to the article, what is the minimum age prescribed for slaughtering an animal under the West Bengal Animal Slaughter Control Act, 1950?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.10 years
  • B.12 years
  • C.14 years✓ Correct Answer
  • D.15 years
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the 1950 law "does not allow slaughter of any animal unless it is over 14 years of age". The normal lifespan (15 years) and productive life (8-9 years) are different figures mentioned in the article, making them close distractors.

Source: West Bengal Animal Slaughter Control Act 1950, with 14-Year Age Limit, Threatens ₹X Lakh Cr Meat-Dairy Economy →
Q128.

What is the primary economic concern raised in the article regarding the strict enforcement of the animal slaughter law?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It will lead to a shortage of veterinary doctors.
  • B.It will force farmers to maintain unproductive animals, increasing costs and potentially causing them to exit dairying.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It will immediately increase the market price of milk and meat.
  • D.It will lead to a rapid increase in the use of tractors.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core argument is that the 14-year age limit is impractical as cows stop being productive much earlier (around 8-9 years). Maintaining these 'unproductive animals' diverts scarce fodder and water, raising costs. This economic burden may discourage farmers from keeping livestock altogether, harming the dairy sector. The other options are either not the primary concern or are indirect consequences.

Source: West Bengal Animal Slaughter Control Act 1950, with 14-Year Age Limit, Threatens ₹X Lakh Cr Meat-Dairy Economy →
Q129.

Which U.S. legislative body's subcommittee hearing was referenced in the news where the statement on Taiwan arms sales was made?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Senate Foreign Relations Committee
  • B.Senate Appropriations Defense Subcommittee✓ Correct Answer
  • C.House Armed Services Committee
  • D.House Intelligence Committee
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that U.S. Acting Navy Secretary Hung Cao made the statement about the pause in arms sales at a Senate Appropriations Defense Subcommittee hearing. This is a specific U.S. congressional committee involved in defense funding.

Source: U.S. Pauses Taiwan Arms Sales Worth $14 Billion Citing Iran War Munitions Needs, Taiwan Claims No Official Notice →
Q130.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. The U.S. Acting Navy Secretary stated that arms sales to Taiwan are paused due to munitions needs for the conflict with Iran.

2. Taiwan's Presidential Office confirmed they received official notification from the U.S. about the adjustment in military sales.

3. The U.S. is legally obligated to provide Taiwan with the means to defend itself.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; Taiwan's Presidential Office spokesperson Karen Kuo stated they had NOT received any relevant information about the U.S. adjusting military sales. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the U.S. is bound by law to provide Taiwan with self-defense means.

Source: U.S. Pauses Taiwan Arms Sales Worth $14 Billion Citing Iran War Munitions Needs, Taiwan Claims No Official Notice →
Q131.

According to the Reuters report mentioned in the article, what is the potential value of the new arms sale package to Taiwan that is pending U.S. approval?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.$10 billion
  • B.$12 billion
  • C.$14 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • D.$16 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically states that Reuters reported the new arms sale package could be worth up to $14 billion. This is a concrete data point for factual recall.

Source: U.S. Pauses Taiwan Arms Sales Worth $14 Billion Citing Iran War Munitions Needs, Taiwan Claims No Official Notice →
Q132.

What is the primary reason cited by the U.S. official for the pause in arms sales to Taiwan, as per the article?

MediumUPSC
  • A.To reassess the strategic relationship with China
  • B.Due to budgetary constraints within the U.S. defense department
  • C.To ensure sufficient munitions for the U.S. operation against Iran✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Because Taiwan has not formally requested the arms package
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

U.S. Acting Navy Secretary Hung Cao explicitly said the pause was "in order to make sure we have the munitions we need for Epic Fury" which is the U.S. operation against Iran. This highlights how global conflict priorities can impact regional security commitments.

Source: U.S. Pauses Taiwan Arms Sales Worth $14 Billion Citing Iran War Munitions Needs, Taiwan Claims No Official Notice →
Q133.

Who is the current Chief Justice of India as mentioned in the news article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
  • B.Justice Surya Kant✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Justice U.U. Lalit
  • D.Justice N.V. Ramana
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions Chief Justice of India Justice Surya Kant as the speaker. This is a factual recall question based on the news content.

Source: CJI Surya Kant Emphasizes Constitution's Universal Accessibility Over Cosmopolitan Privilege →
Q134.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. Chief Justice of India Surya Kant stated that the Constitution is a privilege only for those who can afford legal processes.

2. The CJI's remarks were made at the physical launch event of a book by a senior advocate.

3. The CJI emphasized that constitutionalism requires public institutions to function with balance, accountability, and transparency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) Both 2 and 3
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect; the CJI stated the Constitution is NOT a privilege for a few cosmopolitans. Statement 2 is incorrect; the CJI sent a video message and did not attend the event physically. Statement 3 is correct as per the article's content.

Source: CJI Surya Kant Emphasizes Constitution's Universal Accessibility Over Cosmopolitan Privilege →
Q135.

On which date did Chief Justice of India Surya Kant deliver the speech mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.May 21, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • B.May 22, 2026
  • C.May 23, 2026
  • D.May 20, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'The comments from CJI came on Thursday (May 21, 2026) in a speech...'. May 22, 2026 is the publication date, a common distractor.

Source: CJI Surya Kant Emphasizes Constitution's Universal Accessibility Over Cosmopolitan Privilege →
Q136.

What is the primary implication of CJI Surya Kant's statement that 'The Constitution is not a privilege of a few cosmopolitans'?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It calls for reducing the number of lawyers in the Supreme Court.
  • B.It emphasizes the need for the Constitution to be accessible and relevant to all citizens.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It suggests that only educated individuals should interpret the Constitution.
  • D.It mandates that all legal processes should be free of cost.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The CJI's core argument is about the Constitution belonging equally to every citizen and its influence being measured in their lives, highlighting universal accessibility over elite privilege.

Source: CJI Surya Kant Emphasizes Constitution's Universal Accessibility Over Cosmopolitan Privilege →
Q137.

Which ministry is primarily responsible for the allocation and implementation of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of Education✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Human Resource Development
  • D.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Ministry of Education is the nodal ministry for education policy and implementation in India, including the NEP 2020. The article discusses the Union Budget allocation to this ministry.

Source: NEP 2020 Funding Gap: Budget 2026 Allocates ₹1.39 Lakh Crore (2.6% of Expenditure) vs 6% GDP Target →
Q138.

Consider the following statements regarding education funding in India:

1. The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 sets a target of spending 6% of GDP on education.

2. The Union Budget 2026-27 allocates ₹1,39,289 crore for education, which constitutes about 2.6% of the total Union expenditure.

3. India's combined Centre-State spending on education is currently around 4.2% of GDP, which meets the UNESCO benchmark of 4-6%.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as NEP 2020 explicitly calls for 6% GDP spending. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's data. Statement 3 is incorrect because while the spending is around 4.2% GDP, the article states it trails global benchmarks and the NEP target, indicating it does not fully meet the UNESCO benchmark.

Source: NEP 2020 Funding Gap: Budget 2026 Allocates ₹1.39 Lakh Crore (2.6% of Expenditure) vs 6% GDP Target →
Q139.

According to the article, what is the allocation for Higher Education in the Union Budget 2026-27?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹83,562 crore
  • B.₹55,727 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹1,850 crore
  • D.₹1,39,289 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'Union Budget 2026 allocates... a little over fifty-five thousand seven hundred crore (₹55,727 crore) for higher education.' ₹83,562 crore is for School Education, ₹1,850 crore is the specific support for states for higher education reforms, and ₹1,39,289 crore is the total education allocation.

Source: NEP 2020 Funding Gap: Budget 2026 Allocates ₹1.39 Lakh Crore (2.6% of Expenditure) vs 6% GDP Target →
Q140.

What is a primary implication, as highlighted in the article, of India's persistent underinvestment in education relative to the NEP 2020 target?

MediumUPSC
  • A.It will lead to immediate reduction in fiscal deficit.
  • B.It risks undermining India's long-term economic competitiveness and human capital development.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It ensures more funds are available for defense and infrastructure.
  • D.It directly increases the Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in higher education.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article concludes that without bridging the funding gap, 'India risks missing its educational and broader developmental goals.' It links underinvestment to weaker human capital and slower growth compared to peers like China.

Source: NEP 2020 Funding Gap: Budget 2026 Allocates ₹1.39 Lakh Crore (2.6% of Expenditure) vs 6% GDP Target →
Q141.

Which institution is primarily responsible for managing the exchange rate of the Indian Rupee and deciding on market intervention?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
  • B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Finance
  • D.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is India's central bank and the primary agency responsible for maintaining exchange rate stability and managing the country's foreign exchange reserves, including decisions on market intervention.

Source: Rupee Depreciation to ₹97/$: RBI Intervention Debate Amid Speculative Outflows and Inflation Risks →
Q142.

Consider the following statements regarding the debate on rupee depreciation mentioned in the article:

1. A weaker rupee always leads to an automatic increase in exports and reduction in imports, correcting the current account deficit.

2. A falling rupee driven by speculative capital outflows may not boost exports if foreign buyers expect further depreciation.

3. The article cites the intervention by the Japanese government to support the Yen in April 2026 as an example of a developed economy resorting to such measures.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the article argues that a 'falling rupee' (due to speculation) may not lead to higher exports if buyers expect further price falls. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's distinction between a weak and a falling rupee. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly mentions Japan's 'decisive action' on the Yen in April 2026.

Source: Rupee Depreciation to ₹97/$: RBI Intervention Debate Amid Speculative Outflows and Inflation Risks →
Q143.

According to the article, at what approximate level had the Indian Rupee closed against the US Dollar, prompting the intervention debate?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Nearly ₹83/$
  • B.Nearly ₹90/$
  • C.Nearly ₹97/$✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Nearly ₹105/$
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: "Continuous days of sustained losses has seen the rupee close at almost ₹97 to the dollar..." This is the key data point triggering the analysis.

Source: Rupee Depreciation to ₹97/$: RBI Intervention Debate Amid Speculative Outflows and Inflation Risks →
Q144.

What is a primary inflationary risk highlighted in the article if the rupee's depreciation continues unchecked?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Increase in the cost of domestic agricultural inputs
  • B.Rising import costs of essential goods like oil✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Higher interest rates on home loans
  • D.Increase in prices of services like healthcare and education
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically warns that a depreciating rupee makes imports more expensive. It highlights the risk of rising inflation due to higher costs of essential imported goods like oil, which affects fuel prices and has a cascading effect on the economy.

Source: Rupee Depreciation to ₹97/$: RBI Intervention Debate Amid Speculative Outflows and Inflation Risks →
Q145.

Which central agency is mentioned in the article as investigating cases under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
  • B.National Investigation Agency (NIA)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Intelligence Bureau (IB)
  • D.Research and Analysis Wing (RAW)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions the National Investigation Agency (NIA) probing a UAPA case related to Syed Ifthikar Andrabi. The NIA is the specialized central agency tasked with investigating terror-related offences under laws like UAPA.

Source: SC Bail Doctrine Under UAPA Examined: Centre Cites Kasab, Saeed Examples, Citing 2021 K.A. Najeeb Judgment →
Q146.

Consider the following statements regarding bail jurisprudence under UAPA:

1. The Supreme Court in Union Of India vs K A Najeeb (2021) held that violation of the right to speedy trial can be a ground for bail.

2. The principle 'bail is the rule and jail is the exception' flows from Articles 21 and 22 of the Constitution.

3. The Centre argued that this principle should apply uniformly, regardless of the nature of the crime, citing the example of Ajmal Kasab.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the K.A. Najeeb judgment allowing bail for violation of speedy trial rights. Statement 2 is correct as Justice Nagarathna's bench stated this principle flows from Articles 21 and 22. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Centre argued against uniform application of the principle, questioning if it would apply to cases like Kasab.

Source: SC Bail Doctrine Under UAPA Examined: Centre Cites Kasab, Saeed Examples, Citing 2021 K.A. Najeeb Judgment →
Q147.

According to the article, which Supreme Court bench granted bail to Syed Ifthikar Andrabi on May 18, disagreeing with earlier UAPA bail judgments?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Justices Aravind Kumar and P B Varale
  • B.Justices B V Nagarathna and Ujjal Bhuyan✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Justices Kumar and N V Anjaria
  • D.Justices H L Dattu and S A Bobde
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that on May 18, a two-judge bench of Justices B V Nagarathna and Ujjal Bhuyan granted bail to Syed Ifthikar Andrabi and disagreed with earlier judgments. The other benches mentioned are hearing other cases or delivered the earlier conflicting judgments.

Source: SC Bail Doctrine Under UAPA Examined: Centre Cites Kasab, Saeed Examples, Citing 2021 K.A. Najeeb Judgment →
Q148.

What is the primary constitutional argument advanced by the Supreme Court bench (Justices Nagarathna and Bhuyan) to justify bail in UAPA cases, as per the article?

MediumUPSC
  • A.The presumption of innocence is a cornerstone of a civilised society governed by the rule of law.✓ Correct Answer
  • B.The severity of the punishment should be proportional to the crime.
  • C.The executive's power to detain must be checked by judicial review.
  • D.International human rights law mandates bail in prolonged detention cases.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes the bench stating that 'bail is the rule and jail is the exception is a constitutional principle flowing from articles 21 and 22, and the presumption of innocence is the cornerstone of any civilised society governed by the rule of law.' This is the core constitutional argument they used.

Source: SC Bail Doctrine Under UAPA Examined: Centre Cites Kasab, Saeed Examples, Citing 2021 K.A. Najeeb Judgment →
Q149.

Which institution is primarily responsible for intervening in the foreign exchange market to manage the rupee's exchange rate?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
  • B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Finance
  • D.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank charged with maintaining financial stability and can intervene in the forex market by selling dollars from its reserves to defend the rupee or ensure its orderly movement.

Source: RBI's Forex Intervention Strategy: Policy of Orderly Movement vs 10-Month Import Cover Amid Rupee Volatility →
Q150.

Consider the following statements regarding the RBI's approach to the rupee's exchange rate as discussed in the article:

1. The RBI targets a specific level or band for the rupee-dollar exchange rate.

2. The RBI intervenes in the forex market to ensure that movements in the exchange rate are orderly.

3. A key constraint on the RBI's ability to defend the rupee is the need to maintain sufficient foreign exchange reserves for import cover.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article explicitly states "the RBI does not target any specific exchange rate." Statement 2 is correct as the RBI's policy is to ensure "orderly" movement. Statement 3 is correct as policymakers like to have around 10 months of import cover, which limits how much forex the RBI can sell.

Source: RBI's Forex Intervention Strategy: Policy of Orderly Movement vs 10-Month Import Cover Amid Rupee Volatility →
Q151.

According to the article, what is the approximate import cover (in months) that Indian policymakers aim to maintain in foreign exchange reserves?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.3 months
  • B.6 months
  • C.10 months✓ Correct Answer
  • D.15 months
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: "policymakers like to have around 10 months of import cover — a fancy way of describing a situation where India has enough dollars so that Indians can continue importing... for a period of at least 10 months."

Source: RBI's Forex Intervention Strategy: Policy of Orderly Movement vs 10-Month Import Cover Amid Rupee Volatility →
Q152.

As per the arguments in the article, why might a policy of 'letting the rupee fall' to correct the trade deficit be less effective in India's context?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Because India has a significant trade surplus with most countries.
  • B.Because a large portion of India's exports are 're-exports' with high import content, negating the cost advantage.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Because the RBI is legally mandated to maintain a stable exchange rate at all times.
  • D.Because foreign investors are prohibited from pulling out investments during currency depreciation.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article argues that a key reason the textbook solution may not work is that "A large part of India’s exports... are 're-exports'. In other words, these exports are essentially based on imported goods." A weaker rupee makes these imports costlier, which can cancel out the benefit of cheaper exports.

Source: RBI's Forex Intervention Strategy: Policy of Orderly Movement vs 10-Month Import Cover Amid Rupee Volatility →
Q153.

Which UN body gave the advisory opinion on climate obligations that formed the basis for the recent UNGA resolution?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.International Court of Justice (ICJ)✓ Correct Answer
  • B.United Nations Security Council (UNSC)
  • C.United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
  • D.International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the resolution backed an 'International Court of Justice (ICJ) opinion' issued in July 2025. The ICJ is the principal judicial organ of the UN and provides advisory opinions.

Source: UNGA Adopts 141-8 Resolution Backing ICJ Opinion on Climate Obligations; US, Russia Against, India Abstains →
Q154.

Consider the following statements regarding the UNGA resolution on climate obligations:

1. The resolution declares that addressing climate change is a legally binding obligation for all UN member states.

2. The resolution was adopted with 141 votes in favor and 8 votes against.

3. India voted in favor of the resolution along with Germany, France, and the United Kingdom.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The resolution is based on a non-binding ICJ advisory opinion and itself is a political, not legally binding, declaration. Statement 2 is correct as per the vote tally (141-8-28). Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states India abstained, while Germany, France, and the UK voted in favor.

Source: UNGA Adopts 141-8 Resolution Backing ICJ Opinion on Climate Obligations; US, Russia Against, India Abstains →
Q155.

According to the news, what was the final vote tally for the UNGA resolution backing the ICJ opinion on climate change?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.135-10-25
  • B.141-8-28✓ Correct Answer
  • C.138-12-22
  • D.145-5-30
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article provides the exact figures: '141 votes in favour, eight against and 28 abstentions.' The other options are close but incorrect distractors.

Source: UNGA Adopts 141-8 Resolution Backing ICJ Opinion on Climate Obligations; US, Russia Against, India Abstains →
Q156.

What is a key implication of the UNGA adopting the resolution based on the ICJ's advisory opinion on climate change?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It makes the Paris Agreement's 1.5°C target legally enforceable against all signatories.
  • B.It provides a strong legal basis for countries to withdraw from existing climate commitments.
  • C.It strengthens the normative framework for climate litigation in domestic and international courts.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It mandates the UN Security Council to impose sanctions on countries that exceed emission limits.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the ICJ opinion, though non-binding, 'has already begun influencing climate litigation around the world.' The UNGA resolution reinforces this normative shift, providing a political tool for activists and courts to hold governments accountable, even without creating new binding law.

Source: UNGA Adopts 141-8 Resolution Backing ICJ Opinion on Climate Obligations; US, Russia Against, India Abstains →
Q157.

Which ministry/department is responsible for organizing the Quad Foreign Ministers' meeting in New Delhi?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Defence
  • B.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • D.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) is responsible for India's foreign policy and diplomatic engagements, including organizing international meetings like the Quad Foreign Ministers' Meeting. The article mentions the meeting was organized at the invitation of External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar.

Source: Quad Foreign Ministers Meeting in New Delhi May 26 2026; US Secretary Rubio Visits Kolkata Agra Jaipur →
Q158.

Consider the following statements regarding the Quad Foreign Ministers' Meeting:

1. The meeting will take place in New Delhi on May 26, 2026.

2. The Quad Ministers will discuss advancing cooperation across priority areas and review progress on ongoing Quad initiatives.

3. The previous Quad Foreign Ministers' meeting was held in Tokyo, Japan.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the meeting is on May 26, 2026, in New Delhi. Statement 2 is correct as the article states the ministers will exchange views on advancing Quad cooperation and review progress. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article mentions the previous discussions were held in Washington, D.C. on July 1, 2025, not Tokyo.

Source: Quad Foreign Ministers Meeting in New Delhi May 26 2026; US Secretary Rubio Visits Kolkata Agra Jaipur →
Q159.

According to the article, which cities will US Secretary of State Marco Rubio visit during his trip to India from May 23-26, 2026?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, Hyderabad
  • B.Delhi, Kolkata, Agra, Jaipur✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Delhi, Bangalore, Ahmedabad, Lucknow
  • D.Delhi, Pune, Chandigarh, Guwahati
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states, according to a US State Department spokesperson, that Secretary Rubio will travel to Kolkata, Agra, Jaipur, and New Delhi. This is a factual data point from the news.

Source: Quad Foreign Ministers Meeting in New Delhi May 26 2026; US Secretary Rubio Visits Kolkata Agra Jaipur →
Q160.

What is the primary strategic objective of the Quad Foreign Ministers' Meeting as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC
  • A.To negotiate a new trade agreement between the four member countries.
  • B.To build on discussions for advancing Quad cooperation for a Free and Open Indo-Pacific.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To form a military alliance against a specific regional power.
  • D.To announce a joint infrastructure development fund for South Asia.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the ministers will 'exchange views on advancing Quad cooperation across priority areas' in keeping with the 'Quad vision for a Free and Open Indo-Pacific'. This is the stated objective. While trade and security are discussed, the overarching goal is advancing FOIP cooperation.

Source: Quad Foreign Ministers Meeting in New Delhi May 26 2026; US Secretary Rubio Visits Kolkata Agra Jaipur →
Q161.

Which central legislation, mentioned in the article, governs the making and validity of wills for non-Muslims in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Hindu Succession Act, 1956
  • B.The Indian Succession Act, 1925✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Transfer of Property Act, 1882
  • D.The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Supreme Court judgment specifically references principles under the Indian Succession Act, 1925, which is the primary law governing testamentary succession (wills) for non-Muslims in India. The Hindu Succession Act deals with inheritance when there is no will.

Source: Supreme Court Clarifies Indian Succession Act: Exclusion of Natural Heirs Alone Does Not Invalidate a Will →
Q162.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court judgment on wills:

1. The Court held that a Will must be proved through at least one attesting witness.

2. The Court stated that mutation entries in land records conclusively prove legal ownership of property.

3. The Court ruled that mere exclusion of wife and children from a Will is, by itself, a suspicious circumstance invalidating the Will.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the SC reiterated the requirement under the Indian Evidence Act. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court clarified that mutation entries are for fiscal purposes and do not confer ownership. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Court explicitly ruled that exclusion of natural heirs alone cannot invalidate a Will.

Source: Supreme Court Clarifies Indian Succession Act: Exclusion of Natural Heirs Alone Does Not Invalidate a Will →
Q163.

According to the Supreme Court judgment, in which year was the Will executed by B Sheena Nairi that was upheld by the Court?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.1973
  • B.1983✓ Correct Answer
  • C.1993
  • D.2003
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that B Sheena Nairi executed the Will on May 15, 1983. This date is a key factual detail from the case timeline.

Source: Supreme Court Clarifies Indian Succession Act: Exclusion of Natural Heirs Alone Does Not Invalidate a Will →
Q164.

What was the primary legal implication of the Supreme Court's ruling that 'mere exclusion of natural heirs' is not a suspicious circumstance?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It mandates compulsory registration of all wills.
  • B.It strengthens the absolute right of natural heirs to inherit property.
  • C.It reinforces the testamentary freedom of an individual to choose beneficiaries.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It makes affidavits by witnesses sufficient evidence to disprove a will.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core ruling protects the testator's freedom under the Indian Succession Act to bequeath property to anyone, not just immediate family. It clarifies that exclusion alone is not grounds for challenge, shifting the focus to proving the Will's genuineness.

Source: Supreme Court Clarifies Indian Succession Act: Exclusion of Natural Heirs Alone Does Not Invalidate a Will →
Q165.

The news mentions a high-level meeting of the UN Security Council. Which of the following is a permanent member (P5) of the UNSC?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.India
  • B.Germany
  • C.China✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Japan
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The five permanent members (P5) of the United Nations Security Council are China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States. The article confirms China's role as a P5 member chairing the meeting. India, Germany, and Japan are not permanent members.

Source: Chinese FM Wang Yi Visits U.S. & Canada on May 26-30, Chairs UNSC Meeting Amid Strategic Partnership Talks →
Q166.

Consider the following statements regarding the diplomatic visits mentioned in the news:

1. Chinese Foreign Minister Wang Yi will chair a UN Security Council meeting in New York on May 26, 2026.

2. Following the UNSC meeting, Wang Yi will visit Mexico from May 28 to 30, 2026.

3. This visit to Canada is significant as it is the first by a Chinese Foreign Minister in the last 5 years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the visit is to Canada, not Mexico. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states it is the first visit in 10 years, not 5 years. Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

Source: Chinese FM Wang Yi Visits U.S. & Canada on May 26-30, Chairs UNSC Meeting Amid Strategic Partnership Talks →
Q167.

According to the news, for how many days will Chinese Foreign Minister Wang Yi visit Canada in May 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2 days
  • B.3 days✓ Correct Answer
  • C.4 days
  • D.5 days
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the visit to Canada is from May 28 to 30, 2026. Counting inclusively, this spans three days (28th, 29th, and 30th).

Source: Chinese FM Wang Yi Visits U.S. & Canada on May 26-30, Chairs UNSC Meeting Amid Strategic Partnership Talks →
Q168.

What is a key objective of Chinese Foreign Minister Wang Yi's visit to Canada as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To sign a new defense pact
  • B.To enhance political trust and manage differences✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To negotiate Canada's entry into the BRICS bloc
  • D.To protest against human rights allegations
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes the Ministry spokesperson stating China hopes the visit will "enhance political trust, expand mutually beneficial cooperation, manage differences and keep bilateral relations on a healthy, stable and sustainable track." The other options are not mentioned.

Source: Chinese FM Wang Yi Visits U.S. & Canada on May 26-30, Chairs UNSC Meeting Amid Strategic Partnership Talks →
Q169.

The Bhojshala-Kamal Maula complex is a protected monument under the care of which national organization?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Monuments Authority
  • B.Indian Council of Historical Research
  • C.Archaeological Survey of India✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Ministry of Home Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the complex is an 'ASI-protected monument'. The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) under the Ministry of Culture is responsible for the protection and maintenance of centrally protected monuments in India.

Source: Bhojshala-Kamal Maula Complex Declared Saraswati Temple by MP High Court, Replaces 2003 ASI Arrangement →
Q170.

Consider the following statements regarding the Bhojshala dispute:

1. The Madhya Pradesh High Court declared the religious character of the site to be that of a temple dedicated to Goddess Saraswati.

2. Prior to the High Court order, worship at the site was governed by a 2013 arrangement by the Archaeological Survey of India.

3. The High Court stated that the preservation of the site, as a protected monument, is the constitutional responsibility of the state.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the ASI arrangement was from 2003, not 2013. Statement 3 is directly quoted from the article where the court said preservation was the state's constitutional responsibility. Hence, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Source: Bhojshala-Kamal Maula Complex Declared Saraswati Temple by MP High Court, Replaces 2003 ASI Arrangement →
Q171.

According to the news article, in which year did the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) put in place the arrangement for shared worship at the Bhojshala complex that was recently overturned?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.1992
  • B.2003✓ Correct Answer
  • C.2010
  • D.2019
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'Until the Madhya Pradesh High Court judgment... worship at the monument operated under a 2003 ASI arrangement...' This is a key factual data point from the news.

Source: Bhojshala-Kamal Maula Complex Declared Saraswati Temple by MP High Court, Replaces 2003 ASI Arrangement →
Q172.

What was the primary constitutional principle invoked by the Madhya Pradesh High Court in its judgment on the Bhojshala complex?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.The right to freedom of religion under Article 25 is absolute.
  • B.The state has a constitutional responsibility to preserve protected monuments.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Parliament has exclusive power to decide on religious disputes.
  • D.The Directive Principles of State Policy override Fundamental Rights in such cases.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly quotes the High Court stating 'the site remained a protected monument whose preservation was the constitutional responsibility of the state.' This is the core constitutional principle highlighted in the ruling, linking heritage conservation to state duty.

Source: Bhojshala-Kamal Maula Complex Declared Saraswati Temple by MP High Court, Replaces 2003 ASI Arrangement →
Q173.

Which Indian space agency is responsible for the Gaganyaan human spaceflight mission?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
  • B.Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Space Applications Centre (SAC)
  • D.National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Gaganyaan mission is India's first human spaceflight program, which is being developed and executed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), the national space agency.

Source: ISRO Gaganyaan Mission: ECLSS to Maintain 20-26°C Cabin Temperature & 101.3 kPa Pressure for Astronauts →
Q174.

Consider the following statements regarding the Gaganyaan mission's life-support system:

1. The cabin pressure is maintained at 101.3 kPa to mimic Earth's sea-level conditions.

2. For fire suppression, the primary last-resort method is to depressurise the cabin, as used in Russia's Soyuz.

3. Astronauts rely on recycled water from humidity and urine for their potable water supply.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: pressure is held at 101.3 kPa. Statement 2 is correct: the article mentions Soyuz has the option to depressurise as a last resort. Statement 3 is incorrect: for Gaganyaan's short-term mission, water is carried in pouches, not recycled; recycling is for long-duration missions.

Source: ISRO Gaganyaan Mission: ECLSS to Maintain 20-26°C Cabin Temperature & 101.3 kPa Pressure for Astronauts →
Q175.

According to the article, what is the designed temperature range maintained inside the Gaganyaan crew module for astronaut comfort?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.15-20°C
  • B.20-26°C✓ Correct Answer
  • C.25-30°C
  • D.18-22°C
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Gaganyaan crew module is designed to maintain a comfortable environment with a temperature of 20-26°C. The other options are close distractors not mentioned.

Source: ISRO Gaganyaan Mission: ECLSS to Maintain 20-26°C Cabin Temperature & 101.3 kPa Pressure for Astronauts →
Q176.

What is a primary challenge addressed by the waste management system in the Gaganyaan spacecraft due to microgravity?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Reducing the total mass of waste stored.
  • B.Preventing waste from floating and contaminating the cabin.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Converting solid waste into fuel for the spacecraft.
  • D.Using waste to generate additional oxygen for the cabin.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

In microgravity, waste does not 'fall', so the system uses suction-based airflow to pull waste away from the body and prevent it from floating, which is crucial for hygiene and preventing contamination, as described in the article.

Source: ISRO Gaganyaan Mission: ECLSS to Maintain 20-26°C Cabin Temperature & 101.3 kPa Pressure for Astronauts →

Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?

For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.

  • Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
  • Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
  • Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.

Frequently Asked Questions

What are the important current affairs questions for 22 May 2026?▼

This page contains 176 current affairs questions from 22 May 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.

How to use 22 May 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼

Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.

How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼

Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.

Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼

Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.

What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼

Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.

All Questions in This Set

  1. Q1. committee is responsible for setting the benchmark repo rate i…
  2. Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. Indi…
  3. Q3. According to the article, what was the level of wholesale infl…
  4. Q4. is the primary reason, as explained by Sankar Chakraborti in t…
  5. Q5. international organization's chief warned that global oil mark…
  6. Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Horm…
  7. Q7. According to the IEA chief, how many barrels of oil per day ar…
  8. Q8. is the primary strategic objective behind Prime Minister Modi'…
  9. Q9. constitutional articles empower the State to make special prov…
  10. Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
  11. Q11. According to the Karnataka authorities in the case, what was t…
  12. Q12. is the primary constitutional principle underlying the Supreme…
  13. Q13. The surplus transfer from the RBI to the Government is governe…
  14. Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the RBI's recent d…
  15. Q15. According to the news, what was the size of the RBI's balance …
  16. Q16. is the primary purpose of maintaining the Contingent Risk Buff…
  17. Q17. As per the news, which body is the primary owner of the new st…
  18. Q18. Consider the following statements regarding Indonesia's new tr…
  19. Q19. According to President Prabowo, how much revenue has Indonesia…
  20. Q20. is a stated geopolitical objective behind Indonesia's centrali…
  21. Q21. body formally approves the surplus transfer from the RBI to th…
  22. Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the RBI surplus tr…
  23. Q23. was the size of the RBI's Balance Sheet as on March 31, 2026, …
  24. Q24. According to the article, what were the primary reasons for th…
  25. Q25. Under which state legislation was the sarpanch in the news art…
  26. Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
  27. Q27. was the total value of the panchayat contracts awarded by the …
  28. Q28. was the Supreme Court's primary reasoning for rejecting the sa…
  29. Q29. institution publishes the 'State of the Economy' report mentio…
  30. Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the RBI's April 20…
  31. Q31. According to the RBI report, in which quarter did labour marke…
  32. Q32. is identified as the primary factor clouding the near-term eco…
  33. Q33. autonomous organization is primarily responsible for developin…
  34. Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
  35. Q35. For which class was the NCERT textbook chapter under scrutiny …
  36. Q36. was the core judicial concern regarding the NCERT textbook cha…
  37. Q37. Under which ministry does the Archaeological Survey of India (…
  38. Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the Bhojshala comp…
  39. Q39. In which year did the Archaeological Survey of India issue the…
  40. Q40. was a key suggestion made by the Madhya Pradesh High Court in …
  41. Q41. apex medical research body in India operates the National Inst…
  42. Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Ebola p…
  43. Q43. On which date did the World Health Organization (WHO) declare …
  44. Q44. is the primary objective of the Centre's directive to States t…
  45. Q45. US government department was responsible for the 1960 memo out…
  46. Q46. Consider the following statements regarding economic sanctions…
  47. Q47. According to the Lancet study cited in the article, how many d…
  48. Q48. is the primary critique presented in the article regarding the…
  49. Q49. international financial institution is supporting the Bihar Ur…
  50. Q50. Consider the following statements regarding Bihar's urbanisati…
  51. Q51. According to the article, what is the approximate urban popula…
  52. Q52. is identified as a primary structural constraint for Bihar's u…
  53. Q53. The Supreme Court set aside an order of which appellate tribun…
  54. Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  55. Q55. According to the article, what is the approximate amount Alpha…
  56. Q56. is a primary significance of the Supreme Court's order in this…
  57. Q57. constitutional body is responsible for conducting the Special …
  58. Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the Special Intens…
  59. Q59. According to the EC data mentioned in the article, which polit…
  60. Q60. is the primary objective of the Election Commission's decision…
  61. Q61. government body is responsible for issuing the official monsoo…
  62. Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the situation desc…
  63. Q63. According to the IMD forecast mentioned in the article, what p…
  64. Q64. is the primary immediate objective of the Indian government's …
  65. Q65. As per the Constitution, the superintendence, direction and co…
  66. Q66. Consider the following statements: 1. The power of the Presid…
  67. Q67. According to the article, what is the maximum envisaged streng…
  68. Q68. is the primary significance of the Ninth Schedule of the India…
  69. Q69. Under which Article of the Constitution does a person detained…
  70. Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Karnata…
  71. Q71. According to the news, how many previous cases were registered…
  72. Q72. was the primary constitutional principle reinforced by the Kar…
  73. Q73. ministry has released the draft rules for the normative alloca…
  74. Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the Viksit Bharat …
  75. Q75. According to the draft rules, what is the highest weighted par…
  76. Q76. is a key criticism or major change embodied in the VB-G RAM G …
  77. Q77. Union Ministry is responsible for implementing the Smart Borde…
  78. Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the announcements …
  79. Q79. To what distance has the jurisdiction of the Border Security F…
  80. Q80. is the primary strategic shift in border security philosophy h…
  81. Q81. department is responsible for implementing the Jal Jeevan Miss…
  82. Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. Jal …
  83. Q83. According to the article, which set of rules must district col…
  84. Q84. is the primary focus of Jal Jeevan Mission under its renewed f…
  85. Q85. According to the article, which Union Ministry is primarily in…
  86. Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the issues discuss…
  87. Q87. As per the article, how many new districts have been announced…
  88. Q88. is the core constitutional mechanism being demanded for Ladakh…
  89. Q89. ministry/department is primarily responsible for conducting th…
  90. Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the caste census i…
  91. Q91. According to the article, the decennial population census orig…
  92. Q92. is a primary argument in favor of conducting a caste census, a…
  93. Q93. body is primarily responsible for conducting the NEET-UG exami…
  94. Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the NEET-UG exam a…
  95. Q95. According to the article, what is the approximate number of to…
  96. Q96. is a primary argument presented in the article for decentralis…
  97. Q97. statutory body is responsible for adjudicating appeals under t…
  98. Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the BCCI and the R…
  99. Q99. According to the article, what was the value of tax exemptions…
  100. Q100. is the primary legal argument used by the CIC to exclude BCCI …
  101. Q101. ministry reported to the Lok Sabha about blocking URLs to comb…
  102. Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the Promotion and …
  103. Q103. According to the CUTS International study cited in the article…
  104. Q104. is the primary argument presented in the article against blank…
  105. Q105. High Court recently quashed a rape case, flagging the trend of…
  106. Q106. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Allahab…
  107. Q107. Under which section of the Indian Penal Code was the primary o…
  108. Q108. was the primary legal rationale used by the Allahabad High Cou…
  109. Q109. ministry of the Government of India is primarily involved in t…
  110. Q110. Consider the following statements regarding the arguments pres…
  111. Q111. According to the article, what is the combined capacity of the…
  112. Q112. is the core argument of the article against the Centre's offer…
  113. Q113. United Nations body gave the original ruling in July 2025 that…
  114. Q114. Consider the following statements regarding the UNGA resolutio…
  115. Q115. According to the article, how many countries abstained from vo…
  116. Q116. was a primary reason cited in the article for India's abstenti…
  117. Q117. ministry is primarily responsible for constituting the expert …
  118. Q118. Consider the following statements regarding the issue of dams …
  119. Q119. As per the article, how many hydroelectric projects did Expert…
  120. Q120. was a key reason cited by the Centre in 2026 for its stance ag…
  121. Q121. According to the article, which think tank's president is the …
  122. Q122. Consider the following statements regarding the structural fau…
  123. Q123. According to the article, how many structural faultlines have …
  124. Q124. does the article suggest is the philosophical gap that persist…
  125. Q125. Under which subject in the Indian Constitution does 'Animal Hu…
  126. Q126. Consider the following statements regarding the news article: …
  127. Q127. According to the article, what is the minimum age prescribed f…
  128. Q128. is the primary economic concern raised in the article regardin…
  129. Q129. U.S. legislative body's subcommittee hearing was referenced in…
  130. Q130. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
  131. Q131. According to the Reuters report mentioned in the article, what…
  132. Q132. is the primary reason cited by the U.S. official for the pause…
  133. Q133. is the current Chief Justice of India as mentioned in the news…
  134. Q134. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. Chie…
  135. Q135. On which date did Chief Justice of India Surya Kant deliver th…
  136. Q136. is the primary implication of CJI Surya Kant's statement that …
  137. Q137. ministry is primarily responsible for the allocation and imple…
  138. Q138. Consider the following statements regarding education funding …
  139. Q139. According to the article, what is the allocation for Higher Ed…
  140. Q140. is a primary implication, as highlighted in the article, of In…
  141. Q141. institution is primarily responsible for managing the exchange…
  142. Q142. Consider the following statements regarding the debate on rupe…
  143. Q143. According to the article, at what approximate level had the In…
  144. Q144. is a primary inflationary risk highlighted in the article if t…
  145. Q145. central agency is mentioned in the article as investigating ca…
  146. Q146. Consider the following statements regarding bail jurisprudence…
  147. Q147. According to the article, which Supreme Court bench granted ba…
  148. Q148. is the primary constitutional argument advanced by the Supreme…
  149. Q149. institution is primarily responsible for intervening in the fo…
  150. Q150. Consider the following statements regarding the RBI's approach…
  151. Q151. According to the article, what is the approximate import cover…
  152. Q152. As per the arguments in the article, why might a policy of 'le…
  153. Q153. UN body gave the advisory opinion on climate obligations that …
  154. Q154. Consider the following statements regarding the UNGA resolutio…
  155. Q155. According to the news, what was the final vote tally for the U…
  156. Q156. is a key implication of the UNGA adopting the resolution based…
  157. Q157. ministry/department is responsible for organizing the Quad For…
  158. Q158. Consider the following statements regarding the Quad Foreign M…
  159. Q159. According to the article, which cities will US Secretary of St…
  160. Q160. is the primary strategic objective of the Quad Foreign Ministe…
  161. Q161. central legislation, mentioned in the article, governs the mak…
  162. Q162. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
  163. Q163. According to the Supreme Court judgment, in which year was the…
  164. Q164. was the primary legal implication of the Supreme Court's rulin…
  165. Q165. The news mentions a high-level meeting of the UN Security Coun…
  166. Q166. Consider the following statements regarding the diplomatic vis…
  167. Q167. According to the news, for how many days will Chinese Foreign …
  168. Q168. is a key objective of Chinese Foreign Minister Wang Yi's visit…
  169. Q169. The Bhojshala-Kamal Maula complex is a protected monument unde…
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  171. Q171. According to the news article, in which year did the Archaeolo…
  172. Q172. was the primary constitutional principle invoked by the Madhya…
  173. Q173. Indian space agency is responsible for the Gaganyaan human spa…
  174. Q174. Consider the following statements regarding the Gaganyaan miss…
  175. Q175. According to the article, what is the designed temperature ran…
  176. Q176. is a primary challenge addressed by the waste management syste…