23 May 2026, Questions & Answers
96 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
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This page contains 96 current affairs questions with answers from 23 May 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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96 QsWhich constitutional principle, established in the Shriram Oleum Gas case (1987), is being invoked in the challenge against the SHANTI Act's liability caps?
- A.The Principle of Sustainable Development
- B.The Doctrine of Absolute Liability✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Principle of Proportionality
- D.The Doctrine of Separation of Powers
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Explanation
The petition challenges the SHANTI Act under Article 21, arguing it violates the 'absolute liability' doctrine laid down in the Shriram Oleum Gas case (1987). This doctrine holds that enterprises engaged in hazardous activities are absolutely liable for all damage, independent of fault.
Consider the following statements regarding the SHANTI Act:
1. It caps the liability of nuclear plant operators, with the maximum cap being Rs. 3,000 crores for the largest reactors.
2. It completely removes any statutory liability for suppliers of nuclear equipment.
3. It preserves the right of recourse against suppliers as was present in the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: reactors above 3,600 MW have a maximum operator liability of Rs. 3,000 crores. Statement 2 is correct: the SHANTI Act narrows supplier recourse to only contractual terms or intentional acts, effectively removing the statutory liability present in the 2010 Act's Section 17(b). Statement 3 is incorrect because the SHANTI Act repealed the 2010 Act and its provisions.
According to the SHANTI Act, what is the maximum liability cap for the operator of a nuclear reactor with thermal power between 150 MW and 750 MW?
- A.Rs. 100 crores
- B.Rs. 300 crores✓ Correct Answer
- C.Rs. 1,500 crores
- D.Rs. 3,000 crores
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Explanation
The article states that under the SHANTI Act's Second Schedule, reactors between 150 MW and 750 MW attract a maximum operator liability of Rs. 300 crores. Rs. 100 crores is for reactors up to 150 MW, Rs. 1,500 crores was the cap under the old 2010 Act, and Rs. 3,000 crores is for reactors above 3,600 MW.
What is the primary constitutional argument against the SHANTI Act's provision allowing the government to classify nuclear information as restricted?
- A.It violates the principle of federalism by centralizing power.
- B.It infringes upon the freedom of trade and commerce under Article 19(1)(g).
- C.It undermines the Right to Information, a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(a).✓ Correct Answer
- D.It contravenes the directive principles of state policy under Article 39.
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Explanation
The petition challenges Section 39 of the SHANTI Act under Article 19(1)(a). The article states this section empowers the government to classify information and prohibit publication, overriding the RTI Act. The Supreme Court has held the Right to Information to be a fundamental right flowing from Article 19(1)(a).
Which constitutional articles are primarily invoked in debates regarding the rights of minorities in India?
- A.Articles 14 and 15
- B.Articles 25 and 26
- C.Articles 29 and 30✓ Correct Answer
- D.Articles 32 and 226
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Explanation
Articles 29 and 30 of the Indian Constitution specifically safeguard the interests of minorities and their right to establish educational institutions, respectively. This is the core constitutional basis for minority rights, as highlighted in the article's discussion.
Consider the following statements regarding the Viksit Bharat – Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin):
1. It replaces the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS).
2. Unlike MGNREGS, it is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with a uniform fund-sharing ratio of 75:25 between the Centre and all States.
3. Its normative allocation to states will be based on the objective parameters recommended by the Sixteenth Finance Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as VB-G RAM G replaces MGNREGS. Statement 2 is incorrect because the fund-sharing ratio is 60:40 for most states and 90:10 for specific states, not a uniform 75:25. Statement 3 is correct as per the draft rules mentioned in the article.
What is the amount of the record surplus transfer approved by the RBI's Central Board for the accounting year 2025-26, as mentioned in the article?
- A.₹1,09,379 crore
- B.₹2,00,000 crore
- C.₹2,86,588 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹3,50,000 crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the RBI approved a record surplus transfer of Rs 2,86,588 crore to the Central Government for the accounting year 2025–26. ₹1,09,379 crore is the Contingency Risk Buffer amount, making it a close distractor.
What is a primary strategic implication of India upgrading its bilateral relationship with Cyprus to a 'Strategic Partnership'?
- A.It primarily aims to counter Chinese influence in the Mediterranean.
- B.It is focused on enhancing cooperation in the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEEC).✓ Correct Answer
- C.Its main goal is to resolve the Cyprus-Turkey territorial dispute.
- D.It seeks to establish a military base in the Eastern Mediterranean.
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Explanation
The article states that the two sides will work on the IMEEC project, and Cyprus's location makes it a crucial part of this corridor. While concerns about Turkey were discussed, the primary strategic implication highlighted is connectivity through initiatives like IMEEC.
Which Union Ministry is primarily responsible for matters related to Union Territories like Ladakh?
- A.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- B.Ministry of Defence
- C.Ministry of Finance
- D.Ministry of Law and Justice
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Explanation
The Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) is the nodal ministry for the administration of Union Territories in India. The article mentions MHA officials proposing the new mechanism for Ladakh.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent developments concerning Ladakh:
1. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs has proposed granting Ladakh legislative powers within its existing Union Territory framework.
2. The proposal includes immediate Statehood for Ladakh to address revenue generation concerns.
3. The proposed constitutional safeguards are on the lines of Articles 371 A, F, and G applicable to Nagaland, Sikkim, and Mizoram.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the MHA proposed a 'UT with legislative powers' model. Statement 2 is incorrect; Statehood is NOT being granted immediately as Ladakh lacks revenue generation capacity. Statement 3 is correct as the delegation stated an understanding on safeguards similar to Articles 371 A, F, and G.
According to the article, in which year did Ladakh become a Union Territory?
- A.2018
- B.2019✓ Correct Answer
- C.2020
- D.2021
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'Ladakh, earlier part of Jammu and Kashmir, became a Union Territory in 2019, following the removal of special status given to J&K under Article 370 of the Constitution.'
What is the primary reason cited by the Centre for not granting immediate Statehood to Ladakh under the current proposal?
- A.Lack of political consensus among local groups
- B.Concerns over national security and border management
- C.Insufficient revenue generation capacity to meet expenditures✓ Correct Answer
- D.Pending delimitation of constituencies
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Explanation
The article states that the MHA did not want to give Statehood as it would 'put the burden of revenue generation on Ladakh' and the Centre would not be able to allocate funds. A senior official also said Ladakh 'currently lacked adequate revenue generation to meet the expenditure such as salaries of employees.'
Which ministry/department is responsible for releasing the Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI) data?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
- D.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
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Explanation
The Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI) is compiled and released by the Office of the Economic Adviser, which operates under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. The Ministry of Statistics releases the broader IIP.
Consider the following statements regarding the Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI) data for April 2026:
1. The overall growth of the ICI was 1.7%, a decline from the average growth of the previous financial year.
2. Among the eight sectors, only Steel, Cement, and Electricity recorded growth, while the rest contracted.
3. The crude oil sector has been in contraction for a longer consecutive period than the natural gas sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: ICI grew 1.7% in April 2026, down from the FY 2025-26 average of 2.8%. Statement 2 is correct: The article states only steel, cement, and electricity grew. Statement 3 is incorrect: Crude oil contracted for 16 months, while natural gas contracted for 22 months; thus, natural gas has been in contraction longer.
According to the article, what was the average growth rate of the Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI) for the entire financial year 2025-26?
- A.1.7%
- B.2.8%✓ Correct Answer
- C.4.5%
- D.Above 7%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'Growth in the ICI averaged just 2.8% in the entire financial year 2025-26'. 1.7% is the growth for April 2026, 4.5% is the average for 2024-25, and 'above 7%' refers to growth in the three years before that.
What is a key implication of the prolonged contraction in the crude oil and natural gas sectors, as highlighted in the news?
- A.It signifies a successful transition to renewable energy sources.
- B.It points to a structural issue and raises concerns about domestic energy security.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It indicates reduced global demand for Indian energy exports.
- D.It reflects increased efficiency in energy consumption.
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Explanation
The article emphasizes that falling output in these core energy sectors for 16-22 consecutive months is a 'particular concern' and 'should have raised some policy alarm bells', highlighting a domestic production crisis that impacts energy security, not a positive shift or external demand change.
Which Ministry/Department is responsible for releasing the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) data?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Labour and Employment
- C.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation✓ Correct Answer
- D.NITI Aayog
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the PLFS 2025 was released by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoS&PI). This ministry houses the National Statistical Office, which conducts major surveys.
Consider the following statements regarding the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) 2025 findings:
1. India's overall Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) for all ages stands at 44.9%.
2. The Worker Population Ratio (WPR) for all persons has increased from 39.7% in 2022 to 44.9% in 2025.
3. The unemployment rate among urban young women (15-29 years) is nearly 18.9%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Only 2 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: LFPR is 44.9%. Statement 2 is incorrect: WPR increased to 43.5% in 2025, not 44.9% (which is the LFPR). Statement 3 is correct: Urban young women's unemployment rate is 18.9%.
According to PLFS 2025, what is the Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) for women in rural areas?
- A.22.2%
- B.34.6%✓ Correct Answer
- C.44.9%
- D.59.7%
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Explanation
The article states: "In rural areas, women participate at 34.6%...". 22.2% is the urban female LFPR, 44.9% is the overall LFPR, and 59.7% is the urban male LFPR.
What does the high rate of self-employment among rural working women (70.7%), as per PLFS 2025, primarily indicate?
- A.A surge in rural women entrepreneurship and startups.
- B.Greater access to formal credit and business loans in rural areas.
- C.Predominance in subsistence activities rather than quality entrepreneurial choice.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Successful implementation of MGNREGA in creating wage employment.
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Explanation
The article clarifies that self-employment for rural women "often reflects subsistence activity rather than entrepreneurial choice." This points to engagement in low-productivity work like household-based activities or small-scale farming for survival, not necessarily a dynamic entrepreneurial ecosystem.
Which ministry/department at the state level is primarily responsible for implementing the new industrial development policy mentioned in the news?
- A.Department of Finance
- B.Department of Industries & Commerce✓ Correct Answer
- C.Department of Rural Development
- D.Department of Science & Technology
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Explanation
The news article explicitly mentions that Industries and Commerce Minister Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore announced the policy details. Therefore, the Department of Industries & Commerce is the nodal body for industrial policy implementation.
Consider the following statements regarding Rajasthan's new industrial development policy:
1. It aims to boost the state's economy to $350 billion by 2028-29.
2. It focuses solely on traditional sectors like gems and textiles.
3. It promotes cutting-edge technologies including semiconductors and defense manufacturing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the target is $350 billion by 2028-29. Statement 2 is incorrect because the policy also focuses on talent economy and cutting-edge technologies, not solely on traditional sectors. Statement 3 is correct as the article specifically mentions promotion of semiconductors, data centers, and defense manufacturing.
According to the news, what is the target size for Rajasthan's economy under the new industrial policy?
- A.$300 billion by 2028-29
- B.$350 billion by 2028-29✓ Correct Answer
- C.$400 billion by 2030
- D.$350 billion by 2030
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Explanation
Industries and Commerce Minister Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore stated that the policy's primary objective was to boost the State's economy to $350 billion by 2028-29. The other options are close distractors with different figures or timelines.
What is a key strategic objective of Rajasthan's new industrial policy, as highlighted in the article?
- A.To increase government revenue through higher taxation
- B.To promote foreign direct investment in retail sectors
- C.To build world-class industrial infrastructure through talent economy and private participation✓ Correct Answer
- D.To reduce fiscal deficit by cutting subsidies
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Explanation
The article states the policy has a focus on talent economy and private sector participation to establish a world-class industrial infrastructure. While FDI and revenue are possible outcomes, the stated objective is building infrastructure through talent and private investment.
The 'Century of Humiliation' in Chinese history is primarily associated with the period of intervention by which of the following?
- A.Only Western imperial powers
- B.Only Japanese imperialism
- C.Both Western and Japanese imperialism✓ Correct Answer
- D.Internal warlord conflicts and dynastic collapse
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Explanation
As inferred from the article's context linking Tsarist Russia to this period, the 'Century of Humiliation' (c. 1839-1949) refers to subjugation by multiple external powers, including Western nations like Britain, France, and Russia, as well as Japan.
Consider the following statements regarding the Sino-Russian relationship as discussed in the article:
1. The current 'no limits' partnership was elevated from the Sino-Russian Treaty of Friendship signed in 2001.
2. The Sino-Soviet Split led Beijing to tilt towards Washington during the Cold War.
3. Vladimir Putin's recent visit to Beijing successfully secured a contract to double Russian natural gas exports to China.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct as the article states the split led Beijing to tilt towards Washington. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article explicitly states Putin 'failed' to secure the pipeline contract.
According to the article, Vladimir Putin's recent visit to Beijing was which numbered official visit in the years since the 2001 treaty?
- A.20th
- B.25th✓ Correct Answer
- C.30th
- D.35th
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Explanation
The article clearly states: "Vladimir Putin arrived in Beijing for what was his 25th official visit in the 25th year since the signing of the Sino-Russian Treaty of Friendship."
What is the primary strategic lesson for India, as inferred from the article's analysis of the changing US-China-Russia dynamics?
- A.To formally ally with the United States against China.
- B.To rely solely on Russia for its defense and energy needs.
- C.To substitute alliances for the hard work of domestic reform and modernization.
- D.To strengthen its own domestic capabilities while managing complex relations with all major powers.✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article concludes that 'alliances cannot substitute for the hard work of domestic reform and modernisation' and that India must build its own capabilities while cooperating with the US in tech, sourcing energy from Russia, and managing the border with China.
Which DRDO laboratory acted as the nodal lab for the development of the ULPGM-V3 missile, as per the article?
- A.Defence Research and Development Laboratory, Hyderabad
- B.Research Centre Imarat, Hyderabad✓ Correct Answer
- C.Terminal Ballistics Research Laboratory, Chandigarh
- D.High Energy Materials Research Laboratory, Pune
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the ULPGM missile has been developed by Research Centre Imarat, Hyderabad as the nodal lab, along with other DRDO laboratories.
Consider the following statements regarding the ULPGM-V3 missile:
1. It can operate in both air-to-ground and air-to-air modes, engaging targets like tanks and drones.
2. It features a two-way data link, allowing target updates after launch.
3. The ULPGM-V1 variant introduced propulsion and longer range, while V2 introduced dual-mode capability.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect: V2 introduced propulsion and longer range, while V3 added the dual-mode capability (air-to-ground and air-to-air).
Where were the final development trials of the ULPGM-V3 missile conducted, according to the news article?
- A.Pokhran Test Range, Rajasthan
- B.Integrated Test Range, Chandipur
- C.National Open Area Range, Kurnool, Andhra Pradesh✓ Correct Answer
- D.Aeronautical Test Range, Chitradurga
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Explanation
The article specifies that the final development trials were carried out at DRDO's National Open Area Range test range in Kurnool, Andhra Pradesh.
What is a key strategic significance of developing systems like the ULPGM-V3, as highlighted in the article?
- A.To reduce the manpower requirement in the infantry
- B.To shift towards network-centric warfare integrating drones, sensors, and command systems✓ Correct Answer
- C.To primarily boost India's arms export potential
- D.To replace all manned aircraft in the Indian Air Force
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Explanation
The article emphasizes that such systems reflect the growing shift towards network-centric warfare, where drones, sensors, and command systems work together in real-time for precision strikes, a key theme in modern combat.
What are the government securities issued by the Indian government called?
- A.Treasurys
- B.Gilts
- C.Government Securities (G-Secs)✓ Correct Answer
- D.JGBs
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Explanation
As mentioned in the article, government bonds are called G-Secs or government securities in India. Treasurys are for the US, Gilts for the UK, Bunds for Germany, and JGBs for Japan.
Consider the following statements regarding government bonds and yields:
1. Government bonds are considered the least risky loans because the government can resort to printing money to repay.
2. A sharp rise in government bond yields is beneficial for the economy as it reduces government borrowing.
3. When government bond yields rise, the prices of existing bonds with lower coupons fall in the market.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the government is the least risky borrower and can print money. Statement 2 is incorrect; rising yields are bad news as they increase borrowing costs and pressure on budgets. Statement 3 is correct: the article explains that old bonds with lower coupons become sub-optimal and their prices fall.
According to the article, government bond yields globally are reaching their highest levels since which major financial crisis?
- A.1991 Economic Crisis
- B.2008 Global Financial Crisis✓ Correct Answer
- C.2011 European Debt Crisis
- D.2020 COVID-19 Pandemic Crisis
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the interest rates (yields) lenders are charging governments are reaching their highest levels since the global financial crisis of 2008.
What is the primary consequence for a government when its bond yields rise sharply?
- A.It reduces the fiscal deficit automatically.
- B.It increases the cost of servicing its debt, leading to budget pressure.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It makes borrowing easier and cheaper for private businesses.
- D.It leads to an immediate increase in tax revenues.
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Explanation
The article explains that higher yields mean governments spend more of their annual budgets on interest payments. This forces them to either cut spending (welfare/defense) or increase taxes, creating fiscal pressure.
Renaissance Philanthropy, discussed in the article, is primarily a
- A.Government-funded research agency
- B.Venture capital firm focused on tech startups
- C.US-based non-profit catalysing philanthropic funding for science✓ Correct Answer
- D.International multilateral development bank
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Explanation
The article explicitly states Renaissance Philanthropy is a 'US-based non-profit' that catalyses philanthropic funding for science, technology, and innovation. It is not a government agency, venture capital firm, or development bank.
Consider the following statements regarding Renaissance Philanthropy's initiatives:
1. It runs a 'Big If True Science Accelerator' offering coaching to researchers to increase ambition.
2. One of its programmes explores potassium-enriched salt to address cardiovascular disease linked to potassium deficiency.
3. It focuses solely on funding startups expecting financial returns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the 'Big If True Science Accelerator'. Statement 2 is correct as the article discusses exploring potassium-enriched salt for health outcomes. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article clarifies donors write cheques 'without expecting financial returns', and the model is philanthropic, not focused on startup financial returns.
According to the article, what amount did Renaissance Philanthropy award to researchers globally for building AI tools for mathematical research?
- A.$5 Million
- B.$12 Million
- C.$18 Million✓ Correct Answer
- D.$25 Million
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Explanation
The article specifically states: 'We awarded over $18 million to researchers globally to build tools that make it easier for mathematicians to use AI in their work.' The other options are close distractors.
What is identified as a key bottleneck in innovation systems that Renaissance Philanthropy's approach aims to address?
- A.Lack of basic scientific research
- B.Shortage of philanthropic capital globally
- C.Slow and inefficient clinical trial systems✓ Correct Answer
- D.Absence of international collaboration frameworks
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Explanation
The article explicitly discusses bottlenecks, citing the example of India's Phase 1 clinical trial system becoming 'slow', causing ideas to go elsewhere. This is a specific bottleneck their approach aims to address, beyond just funding or basic research.
The 2026 Review Conference that failed to reach an agreement was for which major international treaty?
- A.Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT)
- B.Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)✓ Correct Answer
- C.New START Treaty
- D.Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that negotiators were reviewing the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT), which is described as the cornerstone of nuclear weapons control. The CTBT bans nuclear explosions, New START is a bilateral US-Russia treaty, and the CWC deals with chemical weapons.
Consider the following statements regarding the news on UN nuclear non-proliferation talks:
1. The 2026 UN Review Conference for the NPT was the third consecutive conference to fail in reaching a consensus agreement.
2. According to the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI), the total number of nuclear warheads globally had decreased significantly by January 2025.
3. The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT) has been signed by almost all states, with India, Pakistan, and Israel being notable exceptions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions previous reviews in 2015 and 2022 were also unsuccessful, making 2026 the third consecutive failure. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article cites SIPRI data stating there were 12,241 nuclear warheads in January 2025, but it does not mention a significant decrease—it notes some countries are modernizing or increasing stockpiles. Statement 3 is correct as per the article's final paragraph which lists Israel, India, and Pakistan as notable exceptions to the NPT.
According to the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI) data cited in the article, how many nuclear warheads did the nine nuclear-armed states possess in January 2025?
- A.Approximately 9,500
- B.12,241✓ Correct Answer
- C.14,800
- D.Over 15,000
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Explanation
The article directly quotes the SIPRI data, stating "the nine nuclear-armed states... possessed 12,241 nuclear warheads in January 2025." The other options are plausible distractors but are not the exact figure provided in the source.
What is the primary implication highlighted by experts regarding the repeated failure of NPT Review Conferences, as mentioned in the article?
- A.It automatically terminates the NPT, requiring a new treaty to be drafted.
- B.It forces nuclear-armed states to unilaterally disarm.
- C.It means the treaty continues to exist but with diminished legitimacy.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It leads to the immediate expulsion of non-compliant states like Iran and North Korea from the UN.
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Explanation
The article explicitly quotes experts stating that "even in the absence of a review agreement for the third time in a row, the treaty continues to exist, but with diminished legitimacy." This is the core analytical point about the impact of the failure. The other options describe extreme legal or political actions not supported by the article's content.
Which international organization's existing health project in the Democratic Republic of Congo is being leveraged to respond to the Ebola outbreak, according to the article?
- A.World Health Organization (WHO)
- B.World Bank Group✓ Correct Answer
- C.Gavi, the Vaccine Alliance
- D.Africa Centres for Disease Control and Prevention (Africa CDC)
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Explanation
The article states that the DRC has an existing $250 million health project with the World Bank that was approved in March 2024. About $200 million of those funds remain undisbursed and available for the Ebola response.
Consider the following statements regarding the Ebola outbreak mentioned in the news:
1. The World Bank is coordinating the response with partners including the World Health Organization and Africa CDC.
2. The United Nations released $60 million from an emergency fund to help contain the outbreak.
3. The Bundibugyo strain of Ebola associated with this outbreak has an available vaccine.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'the World Bank was coordinating with partners... including the World Health Organization and Africa Centres for Disease Control and Prevention.' Statement 2 is correct: 'The United Nations on Friday released around $60 million from an emergency fund.' Statement 3 is incorrect: the article explicitly states 'there was no vaccine or therapeutic treatment available for the Bundibugyo strain of Ebola.'
According to the article, what is the fatality rate of the Bundibugyo Ebola virus (BDBV)?
- A.Up to 25%
- B.Up to 30%
- C.Up to 40%✓ Correct Answer
- D.Up to 50%
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Explanation
The article directly states: 'Bundibugyo Ebola virus (BDBV) has a fatality rate of up to 40%.' The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What is the primary concern expressed by the World Bank official regarding neighboring states South Sudan and Burundi in relation to the Ebola outbreak?
- A.Their lack of political will to cooperate.
- B.Their weak healthcare response systems.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Their refusal to accept international aid.
- D.Their geographical distance from the outbreak epicenter.
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Explanation
Monique Vledder stated that the bank was 'very concerned about neighbouring states, South Sudan and Burundi, which have weak healthcare response systems.' This is the direct reason for concern, not political will, refusal of aid, or distance.
Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL), cited in the news for its job multiplier effect, operates under which administrative ministry?
- A.Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways
- B.Ministry of Defence✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Heavy Industries
- D.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
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Explanation
Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL) is a defense public sector undertaking (DPSU) and India's leading shipyard, primarily building warships and submarines for the Indian Navy. It falls under the administrative control of the Ministry of Defence.
Consider the following statements regarding the Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047:
1. It aims to place India among the top five shipbuilding nations by 2047.
2. The vision includes a target to achieve an annual shipbuilding capacity of 4.5 million deadweight tonnage (DWT).
3. A Union Cabinet package of ₹69,725 crore approved in 2025 provides financial assistance for this vision.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the target is 4.5 million Gross Tonnage (GT), not Deadweight Tonnage (DWT). These are different maritime measurement units. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the ₹69,725 crore Union Cabinet package from September 2025.
According to Captain Jagmohan's statement at the Maharashtra Infrastructure Conclave, how many jobs in ancillary industries are supported by the 4,500 workers at MDL working on Project 17A frigate?
- A.Nearly 20,000
- B.Nearly 25,000
- C.Nearly 28,000✓ Correct Answer
- D.Nearly 32,000
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Project 17A frigate serves as a live example where 4,500 MDL workers support nearly 28,000 positions in ancillary industries. This aligns with the 1:6.4 job multiplier mentioned.
What is the primary strategic objective behind the Indian government's push for the Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047, as indicated in the news?
- A.To primarily boost tourism through cruise ship construction
- B.To achieve self-reliance (Aatmanirbharta) in strategic defense and commercial shipbuilding✓ Correct Answer
- C.To increase the revenue of major port trusts under the Ministry of Ports
- D.To replace the automobile sector as the largest employer in the manufacturing sector
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Explanation
While the vision will have economic benefits, its core strategic objective, as part of broader 'Aatmanirbhar Bharat' initiatives, is to develop domestic capacity in the critical and strategic sector of shipbuilding. This reduces import dependence, especially for naval defense, and captures a share of the global commercial market.
The Employees' State Insurance Corporation (ESIC) functions under which Union Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
- B.Ministry of Labour and Employment✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
- D.Ministry of Finance
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Explanation
ESIC is a statutory body established under the ESI Act, 1948, and it operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. This ministry handles social security schemes for workers.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent Allahabad High Court judgment:
1. The court directed the ESIC to issue a joining letter to a candidate selected for the post of Multi-tasking Staff.
2. The court held that the pendency of criminal cases against an adult can be a valid ground to indefinitely deny government employment.
3. The judgment relied on the protections afforded by the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the court directed ESIC to issue the joining letter. Statement 2 is incorrect; the judgment specifically dealt with cases against a *juvenile* and ruled that pendency cannot be used for indefinite denial. The article does not comment on cases against adults. Statement 3 is correct as the court explicitly relied on the Juvenile Justice Act.
As per the news, by what deadline did the Allahabad High Court direct the ESIC to issue the joining letter to the petitioner?
- A.Within 15 days
- B.Within 30 days✓ Correct Answer
- C.Within 45 days
- D.Within 60 days
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Explanation
The article explicitly states in its final paragraph: "the court directed ESIC to issue the joining letter to the petitioner within 30 days." The other options are common administrative timeframes used as distractors.
What was the primary legal rationale used by the Allahabad High Court to grant relief to the petitioner?
- A.The petitioner had already been acquitted in all cases.
- B.The charges against the petitioner were of a very minor and bailable nature.
- C.The Juvenile Justice Act protects juveniles from disqualification due to proceedings or conviction for offences committed during juvenility.✓ Correct Answer
- D.The police verification process for the petitioner was found to be procedurally flawed.
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Explanation
The core of the judgment, as stated in the article, is the protection under the Juvenile Justice Act. The court observed that the Act clearly protects juveniles from suffering disqualification, and even a conviction for juvenile offences cannot be held against a person seeking employment. The other options describe possible scenarios but were not the central legal pillar of the court's decision.
As per the Indian Constitution, who appoints the Lieutenant Governor of a Union Territory?
- A.The Prime Minister of India
- B.The President of India✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Chief Justice of India
- D.The Union Home Minister
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Explanation
As per the constitutional framework, the President of India appoints the Lieutenant Governor for a Union Territory. This is a standard static GK fact linked to the governance structure of UTs discussed in the article.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent agreement for Ladakh:
1. It proposes an elected Chief Minister with control over the bureaucracy.
2. It uses Article 370 as a constitutional safeguard for Ladakh's environment and culture.
3. It shifts 100% of the budgetary decision-making power to the elected representatives.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article which states the chief minister will have control over the bureaucracy. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article mentions Article 371, not Article 370, as the proposed safeguard. Statement 3 is correct as it is explicitly mentioned that 100% of the budget will now be decided by the elected body.
According to the news, what percentage of Ladakh's budget was previously decided by the Lieutenant Governor before the new agreement?
- A.75%
- B.85%
- C.90%✓ Correct Answer
- D.100%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that earlier 90% of the Union Territory's budget was decided by the Lieutenant Governor (LG) who is not an elected representative. This is a key data point highlighting the shift in financial authority.
What is a primary objective of using Article 371 in the proposed governance arrangement for Ladakh?
- A.To grant it the special status of a state with its own high court.
- B.To serve as a measure of safeguard for its environment, land, and culture.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To increase central government funding for infrastructure projects.
- D.To merge it administratively with the neighboring state of Jammu and Kashmir.
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Explanation
The article directly quotes that Article 371 will be used 'as a measure of safeguard for environment, land, culture and nature.' This addresses a core local demand for protecting Ladakh's unique identity against unchecked development or demographic change.
Which ministry is responsible for publishing the draft rules for the Viksit Bharat – Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) Act?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Rural Development✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Panchayati Raj
- D.Ministry of Labour and Employment
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Explanation
As per the article, officials in the Ministry of Rural Development are involved in framing the rules for VB-G RAM G, which is a rural employment guarantee scheme. This falls under the mandate of the Ministry of Rural Development.
Consider the following statements regarding the Viksit Bharat – Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) Act, 2025:
1. It guarantees 125 days of wage employment per rural household per financial year.
2. It will be implemented across all States and Union Territories from July 1, 2026.
3. It operates under a funding model where the Central government bears 40% of the cost and States bear 60%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the Act raises the entitlement to 125 days. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions implementation from July 1, 2026. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article mentions a 60:40 Centre-State funding model, meaning the Centre bears 60% and States 40% of the cost.
According to the news, how many States had already allocated funds for the VB-G RAM G programme as conveyed to the Parliamentary Standing Committee?
- A.20 States
- B.25 States✓ Correct Answer
- C.28 States
- D.All States and UTs
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Explanation
The article specifically states that the Rural Development Secretary conveyed to the Parliamentary Standing Committee that 25 States have already allocated funds for the VB-G RAM G programme.
What is a primary criticism raised by opposition parties and civil society groups regarding the new VB-G RAM G Act, as mentioned in the article?
- A.It reduces the number of guaranteed employment days.
- B.It weakens the rights-based guarantee by turning it into an allocation-based scheme.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It abolishes the role of Gram Panchayats in implementation.
- D.It increases the administrative burden on the Central government alone.
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Explanation
The article states that opposition parties criticise that the Act weakens MGNREGA’s rights-based guarantee by turning it into a more allocation-based scheme, which could make work less enforceable if funds are limited.
Which international agency is responsible for verifying compliance with nuclear safeguards under the NPT, as mentioned in the article?
- A.United Nations Security Council (UNSC)
- B.International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)✓ Correct Answer
- C.World Health Organization (WHO)
- D.Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW)
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Explanation
The article states that the NPT requires countries to open nuclear sites for inspection by the UN nuclear watchdog agency, which is the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA). The IAEA is specifically tasked with promoting peaceful nuclear use and verifying safeguards.
Consider the following statements regarding the 11th NPT Review Conference:
1. It concluded without agreement among the 191 parties to the treaty.
2. It was the first such review conference to fail to reach consensus.
3. The conference chair was Vietnam's UN Ambassador Do Hung Viet.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the conference concluded without agreement. Statement 2 is incorrect; it was the third consecutive failure, not the first. Statement 3 is correct as Vietnam's UN Ambassador Do Hung Viet was the chair. Hence, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
According to the article, how many parties are there to the Nuclear Nonproliferation Treaty (NPT)?
- A.185
- B.191✓ Correct Answer
- C.193
- D.197
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that there was no consensus among the 191 parties to the Nuclear Nonproliferation Treaty (NPT). The other numbers are close distractors representing other UN membership counts.
What was cited as a primary reason for the failure of the NPT Review Conference, according to the Iranian mission's statement in the article?
- A.Russia's invasion of Ukraine
- B.Obstructionism by the United States and its allies✓ Correct Answer
- C.North Korea's nuclear challenge
- D.Lack of commitment to peaceful nuclear energy use
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Explanation
The article quotes the Iranian embassy's statement on X: 'The NPT Review Conference failed for the third consecutive time due to obstructionism by the United States and its allies.' While other issues were sidelined in the draft, the Iranian statement directly blamed the US.
Which Union Ministry has the primary responsibility for internal security and law & order in states like Manipur under the Indian Constitution?
- A.Ministry of Defence
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Law and Justice
- D.Ministry of Tribal Affairs
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Explanation
The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) is the nodal ministry for internal security, police, and law & order, which falls under the State List but is coordinated by the Centre. The article references a 'Union Home Ministry official' discussing the Manipur situation.
Consider the following statements regarding the Naga-Kuki conflict in Manipur as per the article:
1. The violence initially erupted in the Litan-Sareikhong area of Ukhrul district in February 2026.
2. A key factor behind the conflict is the shift of illicit drug smuggling routes from the Naga-dominated Kamjong district to the Kuki-controlled Moreh town.
3. The Kuki National Army-Burma (KNA-B), a banned faction operating from Myanmar, is suspected to be involved in attacks near the Indo-Myanmar border.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article states violence 'initially erupted in and around the mixed-population Litan-Sareikhong area of Ukhrul district on February 7'. Statement 2 is incorrect: The shift is opposite; routes are moving *from* Kuki-controlled Moreh *to* Naga-dominated Kamjong. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions KNA-B is 'suspected to have been behind the attack' on border villages.
According to the article, on which date did the abduction of 21 Naga passengers on the Ukhrul-Imphal road take place, marking an escalation in the Naga-Kuki conflict?
- A.February 7, 2026
- B.March 11, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.March 19, 2026
- D.May 13, 2026
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'On March 11, 21 Naga passengers travelling on the Ukhrul-Imphal road were allegedly abducted near Mongkot Chepu by suspected armed Kuki volunteers.' February 7th is the date of the initial clash, March 19th saw fresh gunfights, and May 13th is when tensions erupted after the killing of three church leaders.
What is identified in the article as a major political demand that has intersected with the recent Naga-Kuki violence in Manipur?
- A.Demand for the implementation of the National Register of Citizens (NRC)
- B.Demand for a separate administrative arrangement for Meitei, Naga, and Kuki-Zo communities✓ Correct Answer
- C.Demand for the revocation of the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA)
- D.Demand for the creation of a Union Territory for the Naga tribes
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Explanation
The article states: 'the Kuki-Zo Council renewed its demand for separate administration for Kukis, Nagas and Meiteis in a memorandum addressed to Prime Minister Narendra Modi.' This is presented as a political dimension intersecting with the violence. The other demands, while relevant to the Northeast, are not mentioned in this specific article.
Which international convention's framework is Iran primarily relying on to justify its new transit regime in the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.The 1982 United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)
- B.The 1958 Geneva Convention on the Territorial Sea✓ Correct Answer
- C.The 1994 Agreement relating to the Implementation of Part XI of UNCLOS
- D.The 1973 International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL)
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Explanation
The article states that Iran, having signed but not ratified UNCLOS, relies on the older 1958 Geneva Convention framework which provides for the right of 'innocent passage'. UNCLOS provides for 'transit passage', which Iran is challenging.
Consider the following statements regarding Iran's new transit regime for the Strait of Hormuz:
1. The Persian Gulf Strait Authority (PGSA) claims oversight over an area of more than 22,000 sq km.
2. The Strait of Hormuz is classified under UNCLOS as a 'strait used for international navigation', granting ships the right of 'transit passage'.
3. Iran has both signed and ratified the 1982 United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the PGSA claims oversight across an area of more than 22,000 sq km. Statement 2 is correct as UNCLOS classifies the strait as used for international navigation, granting 'transit passage'. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article explicitly states Iran signed UNCLOS but never ratified it.
According to the article, what is the approximate width of the Strait of Hormuz at its narrowest point?
- A.12 nautical miles
- B.17.8 nautical miles✓ Correct Answer
- C.22 nautical miles
- D.33 nautical miles
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Explanation
The article provides the exact figure: the Strait of Hormuz is just 17.8 nautical miles (or 33 km) wide at its narrowest point. The 12 nautical miles option is a distractor, being the standard limit for territorial seas.
What is the primary dilemma created for countries like India by Iran's establishment of the PGSA and the subsequent US warning?
- A.Choosing between investing in alternative energy routes or increasing domestic production.
- B.Deciding whether to support the UNCLOS framework or the 1958 Geneva Convention.
- C.Choosing between paying Iran for safe passage of energy shipments or risking US sanctions.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Balancing diplomatic relations with Iran against those with Oman and the UAE.
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Explanation
The article directly states the dilemma: nations must choose between paying the PGSA to secure energy shipments or risk sanctions from the US, as warned by the US Foreign Office of Assets Control (OFAC) on May 1. India, which depends on the strait for oil imports, is cited as being in this situation.
Which High Court delivered the judgment discussed in the news, granting bail to two Bangladeshi nationals?
- A.Delhi High Court
- B.Rajasthan High Court✓ Correct Answer
- C.Calcutta High Court
- D.Bombay High Court
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Rajasthan High Court, with Justice Anoop Kumar Dhand, granted bail to the two Bangladeshi petitioners in the kidney racket case.
Consider the following statements regarding the Rajasthan High Court judgment:
1. It held that the protection under Article 21 of the Constitution is available to foreign nationals facing trial in India.
2. It stated that Section 306(4) of the CrPC mandates that an approver must remain in custody indefinitely, regardless of the trial's progress.
3. It granted bail to the petitioners, noting that their prolonged detention of over two years violated their right to a speedy trial.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the court explicitly said Article 21 extends to all persons, including foreigners. Statement 2 is incorrect; the court rejected this interpretation, holding that Section 306(4) CrPC cannot result in indefinite incarceration violating Article 21. Statement 3 is correct as the court granted bail citing detention since April 2024 (over two years) as a violation of the right to speedy trial.
For how long had the two Bangladeshi petitioners been in custody before the Rajasthan High Court granted them bail?
- A.Since April 2023 (over 3 years)
- B.Since April 2024 (over 2 years)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Since May 2025 (1 year)
- D.Since June 2024 (2 years)
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Explanation
The article states that the petitioners had been in custody since April 23, 2024. The bail order was passed in May 2026, meaning their detention period was over two years, which the court cited as a violation of their right to a speedy trial.
What was the primary constitutional basis for the Rajasthan High Court's decision to grant bail to the foreign national approvers?
- A.Violation of their right to equality under Article 14
- B.Violation of their right to freedom of speech under Article 19
- C.Violation of their right to life and personal liberty under Article 21✓ Correct Answer
- D.Violation of their right against self-incrimination under Article 20
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Explanation
The core of the judgment is the application of Article 21. The court held that prolonged detention without a speedy trial violated the petitioners' fundamental right to life and personal liberty, which extends to all persons, including foreign nationals.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for the oversight of Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) like Indian Oil, as mentioned in the article?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.Ministry of Power
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Explanation
The article mentions the Petroleum Ministry providing data on OMC losses. The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas is the nodal ministry responsible for the exploration, production, refining, distribution, and marketing of petroleum products and natural gas in India, which includes overseeing Public Sector OMCs.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent fuel price hikes:
1. The price hikes mark the first increase in retail petrol and diesel prices in over four years.
2. The government had earlier cut excise duty on petrol and diesel by Rs 10 per litre in late March to provide relief to OMCs.
3. The combined daily losses of OMCs on fuel sales were reduced to about Rs 750 crore after the initial Rs 3 hike on May 15.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the May 15 hike was 'the first price increase in over four years'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the excise duty cut was to blunt the impact on OMCs, but the article states it was to blunt the impact of high international prices on the OMCs, not to provide relief to them—the relief was for the OMCs, not a direct consumer relief measure as implied. Statement 3 is correct as per the article which says the Rs 3 hike reduced daily losses 'by a fourth, or about Rs 250 crore, to about Rs 750 crore a day'.
According to the article, what were the retail prices of petrol and diesel in Delhi after the price hike on May 23, 2026?
- A.Petrol: Rs 99.51/l, Diesel: Rs 92.49/l✓ Correct Answer
- B.Petrol: Rs 98.64/l, Diesel: Rs 91.58/l
- C.Petrol: Rs 100.38/l, Diesel: Rs 93.40/l
- D.Petrol: Rs 95.74/l, Diesel: Rs 87.68/l
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'As of Saturday morning, a litre of petrol was priced at Rs 99.51, while that of diesel was at Rs 92.49 in the capital.' The other options are close distractors using figures from the cumulative hikes or previous prices.
What is the primary reason cited in the article for adopting a staggered approach to fuel price hikes instead of a one-time steep increase?
- A.To immediately eliminate all under-recoveries of the OMCs
- B.To keep fuel prices below psychological barriers like Rs 100/litre
- C.To gradually pass on costs while monitoring public reaction and inflationary impact✓ Correct Answer
- D.To comply with directives from the World Bank on subsidy rationalization
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Explanation
The article states: 'Calibrated price hikes give the government the opportunity to pass on the higher prices to consumers gradually, while keeping a tab on the public reaction and the inflationary impact on an ongoing basis, instead of the inflationary shock and backlash that a steep hike might lead to.' The other objectives are not cited as the primary reason.
The anticipatory bail plea in the news was dismissed by which High Court?
- A.Delhi High Court
- B.Punjab and Haryana High Court✓ Correct Answer
- C.Himachal Pradesh High Court
- D.Chandigarh High Court
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the Punjab and Haryana High Court dismissed the anticipatory bail plea. This High Court has jurisdiction over the states of Punjab and Haryana and the Union Territory of Chandigarh.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The court invoked the 'Speech Act Theory' developed by John Searle and J.L. Austin to analyze the impact of the petitioner's words.
2. The accused was a junior clerk in the Uttar Haryana Bijli Vitran Nigam Limited (UHBVNL).
3. The court held that the remarks, being part of a private conversation, significantly diluted the seriousness of the allegations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly mentions the application of 'Speech Act Theory' by John Searle and J.L. Austin. Statement 2 is incorrect because the accused was a Superintending Engineer (a senior post), not a junior clerk. Statement 3 is incorrect as the court rejected the petitioner's contention that the private nature of the conversation diluted the seriousness, especially since the contents entered the public domain.
Under which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, was the case against the government official registered?
- A.Section 150(1)
- B.Section 196(1)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Section 124A
- D.Section 295A
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Explanation
The article states the case was registered under Section 196(1) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023. The other options are distractors: Section 124A (sedition) and 295A (deliberate and malicious acts intended to outrage religious feelings) are from the old IPC, while 150(1) is not mentioned.
What was the primary reason cited by the Punjab and Haryana High Court for denying anticipatory bail to the senior official?
- A.The petitioner had a poor previous service record.
- B.The need to equilibrate between individual rights and protecting societal interests.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The offence was a minor one with no wider impact.
- D.The investigation into the matter had already been concluded.
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Explanation
The court's order emphasized that while considering anticipatory bail, it must balance (equilibrate) individual liberty with societal interests. It cited the potential of the remarks to incite communal disharmony, the petitioner's senior position, and the nascent stage of investigation as reasons favoring societal interest in this case.
The concept of 'Satyagraha', which inspired the term 'Neural Satyagraha' in the article, is most closely associated with which Indian leader?
- A.Mahatma Gandhi✓ Correct Answer
- B.B.R. Ambedkar
- C.Jawaharlal Nehru
- D.Subhas Chandra Bose
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Mahatma Gandhi launched Satyagraha in the 1920s. 'Neural Satyagraha' is proposed as a modern analogue to this Gandhian philosophy of non-cooperation with an exploitative structure.
Consider the following statements regarding the arguments made in the article:
1. It argues that India's Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) makes the country perfectly legible and predictable to foreign AI models.
2. It claims that the 'value leakage' from the Indian economy due to foreign predictive modelling is estimated at $120 billion annually.
3. It proposes 'Neural Satyagraha' as a doctrine involving the intentional creation of 'strategic irrationality' to protect sovereignty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article's core argument is that DPI-led transparency leads to predictability. Statement 2 is incorrect; the estimated 'value leakage' is $150 billion, not $120 billion. Statement 3 is correct as 'Neural Satyagraha' is defined as a refusal to cooperate with an exploitative predictive structure through strategic irrationality.
According to the April 2026 Global Data Flow Report cited in the article, what is the estimated annual 'value leakage' from the Indian economy due to predictive modelling by foreign entities?
- A.$100 billion
- B.$120 billion
- C.$150 billion✓ Correct Answer
- D.$180 billion
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'the "value leakage" from the Indian economy due to predictive modelling by foreign entities has reached an estimated $150 billion annually.' The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What is the primary strategic objective of the 'Neural Satyagraha' doctrine as proposed in the article?
- A.To increase India's data exports to global tech companies.
- B.To make India's economy and citizens perfectly predictable for efficient global integration.
- C.To protect India's economic sovereignty by making it 'algorithmically opaque' and unpredictable to foreign AI.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To dismantle India's Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) to ensure complete data privacy.
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Explanation
The article states Neural Satyagraha is a 'refusal to cooperate with an exploitative predictive structure' and aims to move India from being 'algorithmically legible' to 'algorithmically opaque.' It is a defensive, sovereignty-protecting doctrine, not about increasing exports, enhancing predictability, or dismantling DPI.
Which organization publishes the 'India State of Forest Report (ISFR)' cited in the article?
- A.National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)
- B.Forest Survey of India (FSI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE)
- D.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
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Explanation
The India State of Forest Report (ISFR) is a biennial publication by the Forest Survey of India (FSI), which is under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. The article uses data from this report to compare forest cover across states.
Consider the following statements regarding the reasons for higher temperatures in Punjab and Haryana compared to Rajasthan:
1. Extensive wheat-paddy monocropping and stubble burning have weakened the region's natural cooling systems.
2. Higher forest cover in Punjab and Haryana contributes to heat retention compared to Rajasthan's deserts.
3. Increased humidity from irrigation networks and concrete expansion creates a 'heat-trap' effect, leading to warmer nights.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article, which cites experts blaming monocropping and stubble burning. Statement 2 is incorrect; Punjab (3.67%) and Haryana (3.7%) have lower forest cover than Rajasthan (4.8-4.9%). Statement 3 is correct, as the article explains that humidity from irrigation and concrete surfaces traps heat, preventing nighttime cooling.
According to the India State of Forest Report data mentioned in the article, what is the approximate forest cover percentage of Haryana?
- A.2.8%
- B.3.7%✓ Correct Answer
- C.4.2%
- D.4.9%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Haryana's forest cover is around 3.7%, based on the India State of Forest Report. Rajasthan's cover is 4.8–4.9%, and Punjab's is 3.67%. The other options are close distractors based on figures for neighboring states.
What is the primary reason, as explained in the article, why 44°C in Punjab often feels more uncomfortable than 44°C in Rajasthan?
- A.Punjab has higher average wind speeds.
- B.Rajasthan's urban areas have better green infrastructure.
- C.Higher humidity levels in Punjab and Haryana trap heat.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Rajasthan's population density is significantly lower.
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Explanation
The article states that increased atmospheric moisture from irrigation and paddy cultivation raises humidity in Punjab and Haryana. This humidity traps heat, making temperatures feel harsher and preventing nighttime cooling, unlike Rajasthan's drier atmosphere which allows faster cooling after sunset.
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