25 May 2026, Questions & Answers

132 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.

132 questions  ·  0 topics covered  ·  27 min revision

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This page contains 132 current affairs questions with answers from 25 May 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.

These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.

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25 May 2026, Questions with Answers

132 Qs
Q1.

Under which section of the Indian Penal Code was the offence of sedition originally codified?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Section 121A
  • B.Section 124A✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Section 153A
  • D.Section 505
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The colonial offence of sedition was codified under Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC). This is the core legal provision discussed in the article regarding its use to quell dissent.

Source: Supreme Court's May 2026 Sedition Ruling: Section 124A IPC Cases Can Proceed With Accused Consent, Contrasting 2022 Stay in S.G. Vombatkere Case →
Q2.

Consider the following statements regarding the sedition law as discussed in the article:

1. In May 2022, the Supreme Court, in the S.G. Vombatkere case, imposed a complete stay on the registration of new FIRs and coercive action under Section 124A IPC.

2. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), which took effect in 2024, repealed Section 124A and did not include any provision similar to sedition.

3. The Supreme Court's observation in May 2026 allows courts to proceed with pending sedition cases only if the accused person gives their consent.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the 2022 stay asked governments to refrain from registering new FIRs. Statement 2 is incorrect: the BNS replaced Section 124A IPC with Section 152, which is 'sedition by a new name'. Statement 3 is correct as the May 2026 clarification said courts may proceed if the accused has no objection.

Source: Supreme Court's May 2026 Sedition Ruling: Section 124A IPC Cases Can Proceed With Accused Consent, Contrasting 2022 Stay in S.G. Vombatkere Case →
Q3.

According to the article, what is the minimum sentence prescribed for the offence that replaced sedition under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.3 years
  • B.5 years
  • C.7 years✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Life imprisonment
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that when the BNS took effect in 2024, it replaced Section 124A IPC with Section 152 and 'increased the minimum sentence to seven years'. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Source: Supreme Court's May 2026 Sedition Ruling: Section 124A IPC Cases Can Proceed With Accused Consent, Contrasting 2022 Stay in S.G. Vombatkere Case →
Q4.

What is a primary criticism, as per the article, of the Supreme Court's May 2026 clarification on proceeding with sedition cases based on accused consent?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.It expedites the judicial process for all economic classes equally.
  • B.It provides a final and binding interpretation of the constitutional validity of sedition.
  • C.It may lead to coerced consent from poorer accused who lack robust legal representation.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It empowers state governments to independently repeal the sedition law.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core argument is that consent under such circumstances may be coerced, creating a 'Hobson's choice' where the alternative is indefinite delay in incarceration. This disproportionately affects poorer prisoners unable to secure bail through sustained litigation.

Source: Supreme Court's May 2026 Sedition Ruling: Section 124A IPC Cases Can Proceed With Accused Consent, Contrasting 2022 Stay in S.G. Vombatkere Case →
Q5.

Which committee's recommendations originally formed the basis for the RBI's Economic Capital Framework and Contingent Risk Buffer range?

EasyUPSC, Banking
  • A.Raghuram Rajan Committee
  • B.Bimal Jalan Committee✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Urjit Patel Committee
  • D.Y.V. Reddy Committee
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions that an expert committee led by former governor Bimal Jalan recommended a CRB range of 5.5–6.5% in 2019, which formed the basis of the RBI's Economic Capital Framework.

Source: RBI Approves Record ₹2.87 Lakh Crore Dividend After CRB Cut to 6.5% Amid Fiscal Strain →
Q6.

Consider the following statements regarding the RBI's dividend and Contingent Risk Buffer (CRB):

1. The RBI's central board approved a dividend transfer of ₹2.87 lakh crore to the Centre for the financial year 2025-26.

2. The Contingent Risk Buffer (CRB) was increased from 6.5% to 7.5% of the balance sheet for FY 2025-26.

3. The lowering of the CRB to 6.5% resulted in an additional ₹92,000 crore being available for dividend transfer compared to maintaining it at 7.5%.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the CRB was lowered from 7.5% to 6.5%, not increased. Statement 3 is correct as calculations show the dividend would have been ₹92,000 crore lower if the CRB remained at 7.5%. Hence, option C is correct.

Source: RBI Approves Record ₹2.87 Lakh Crore Dividend After CRB Cut to 6.5% Amid Fiscal Strain →
Q7.

According to the article, what was the size of the RBI's balance sheet for the financial year 2025-26?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.₹76.25 lakh crore
  • B.₹91.97 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹5.72 lakh crore
  • D.₹3.45 lakh crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the RBI's balance sheet expanded 20.6% in 2025-26 to ₹91.97 lakh crore. ₹76.25 lakh crore was the size for 2024-25. ₹5.72 lakh crore is 7.5% of the 2024-25 balance sheet, and ₹3.45 lakh crore is a hypothetical dividend figure mentioned for a different scenario.

Source: RBI Approves Record ₹2.87 Lakh Crore Dividend After CRB Cut to 6.5% Amid Fiscal Strain →
Q8.

What was the primary reason cited by the RBI for lowering the Contingent Risk Buffer (CRB) to 6.5%?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To meet statutory capital requirements
  • B.Due to improved profitability of public sector banks
  • C.Taking into consideration current macroeconomic factors and financial performance✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To align with international Basel III norms
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the RBI board decided to keep the CRB at 6.5% 'taking into consideration the current macroeconomic factors, financial performance of the Bank and maintenance of appropriate risk buffers'. The other options are not mentioned in the article as reasons for this decision.

Source: RBI Approves Record ₹2.87 Lakh Crore Dividend After CRB Cut to 6.5% Amid Fiscal Strain →
Q9.

As per the Supreme Court's direction, which ministry has been designated as the nodal ministry for filing compliance reports in the matter of providing sanitary facilities in schools?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Women and Child Development
  • B.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  • C.Ministry of Education✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Ministry of Jal Shakti
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'the Ministry of Education would be the nodal Ministry for the purpose of filing all further compliance reports in the matter.' This aligns with the subject of school infrastructure falling under the education portfolio.

Source: SC Directs Free Oxo-Biodegradable Sanitary Napkins & Gender-Segregated Toilets in All Schools Under Article 21 →
Q10.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's judgment on menstrual hygiene in schools:

1. The judgment declared that the right to menstrual health is part of the Right to Life under Article 21.

2. It directed that sanitary napkins provided must be compostable as per a specific ISO standard.

3. The Court has decided to monitor the compliance of its directions every six months.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article quotes the judgment saying 'The right to life under Article 21 of the Constitution includes the right to menstrual health.' Statement 2 is incorrect; the napkins must be 'oxo-biodegradable' manufactured as per 'ASTM D-6954 standards', not compostable per an ISO standard. Statement 3 is incorrect; monitoring is 'every three months', not six months.

Source: SC Directs Free Oxo-Biodegradable Sanitary Napkins & Gender-Segregated Toilets in All Schools Under Article 21 →
Q11.

According to the article, under the government's Shuchi scheme, how many sanitary napkins are distributed to a girl student per year?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.100 napkins
  • B.110 napkins
  • C.120 napkins✓ Correct Answer
  • D.130 napkins
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'Under Shuchi scheme, the government distributes 12 Shuchi Kits, each with 10 sanitary napkins, per year for a student.' Therefore, 12 kits * 10 napkins = 120 napkins per year. The other options are close but incorrect distractors.

Source: SC Directs Free Oxo-Biodegradable Sanitary Napkins & Gender-Segregated Toilets in All Schools Under Article 21 →
Q12.

What is the primary constitutional basis cited by the Supreme Court for directing the provision of free sanitary napkins in schools?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Directive Principles of State Policy under Article 39(f)
  • B.Fundamental Right to Equality under Article 14
  • C.Fundamental Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Fundamental Right against Exploitation under Article 23
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly quotes the Supreme Court's judgment: 'The right to life under Article 21 of the Constitution includes the right to menstrual health.' The Court derived the obligation to provide sanitary facilities from this expansive interpretation of Article 21, linking it to health, dignity, and access to education.

Source: SC Directs Free Oxo-Biodegradable Sanitary Napkins & Gender-Segregated Toilets in All Schools Under Article 21 →
Q13.

Which fundamental right, as interpreted by the Supreme Court, encompasses reproductive autonomy?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Right to Equality (Article 14)
  • B.Right to Freedom (Article 19)
  • C.Right to Life and Personal Liberty (Article 21)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Right against Exploitation (Article 23)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Supreme Court, in Justice K S Puttaswamy vs Union of India (2017), affirmed privacy as a fundamental right under Article 21 and specifically recognized the constitutional right of women to make reproductive choices as part of personal liberty under Article 21.

Source: Supreme Court Affirms Reproductive Autonomy Under Article 21, MTP Act Expanded to 24 Weeks in 2021 Amendment →
Q14.

Consider the following statements regarding reproductive rights in India:

1. The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, as amended in 2021, allows termination up to 24 weeks of gestation for all women.

2. The Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (PCPNDT) Act, 1994, was enacted to prohibit prenatal diagnostic techniques for determining the sex of the fetus.

3. The Surrogacy (Regulation) Act, 2021, permits commercial surrogacy for married Indian couples.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The MTP Act amendment allows termination up to 24 weeks only for certain women (minors, survivors of rape, mentally ill, and differently abled), not for all women. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Surrogacy Act permits only altruistic surrogacy and bans commercial surrogacy.

Source: Supreme Court Affirms Reproductive Autonomy Under Article 21, MTP Act Expanded to 24 Weeks in 2021 Amendment →
Q15.

According to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, amended in 2021, up to what weeks of gestation is termination permitted for minors, survivors of rape, mentally ill, and differently abled women?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.20 weeks
  • B.24 weeks✓ Correct Answer
  • C.28 weeks
  • D.32 weeks
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the MTP Act, amended in 2021, expanded the permissibility of abortions from 20 weeks up to 24 weeks of gestation for certain categories of women, including minors, survivors of rape, mentally ill, and differently abled.

Source: Supreme Court Affirms Reproductive Autonomy Under Article 21, MTP Act Expanded to 24 Weeks in 2021 Amendment →
Q16.

What is a primary concern highlighted regarding the Surrogacy (Regulation) Act, 2021, in the context of reproductive justice?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It excessively promotes commercial surrogacy.
  • B.It bans altruistic surrogacy for NRIs and OCIs.
  • C.The outsourcing of reproductive labour to women of the Global South and the weak bargaining power of surrogates.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It mandates financial compensation beyond medical expenses for the surrogate.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions that while the Act bans commercial surrogacy, the outsourcing of reproductive labour to women of the Global South remains a concern. A 2021 study highlighted the weak bargaining power of surrogates due to lack of effective regulation.

Source: Supreme Court Affirms Reproductive Autonomy Under Article 21, MTP Act Expanded to 24 Weeks in 2021 Amendment →
Q17.

As per the news, which is the apex body for consumer dispute redressal in India that heard the appeal against SBI?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.District Consumer Commission
  • B.Karnataka State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
  • C.National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Banking Ombudsman
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC) heard the second appeal filed by SBI. The NCDRC is the national apex body under the Consumer Protection Act.

Source: NCDRC Orders SBI Refund of ₹12.93 Lakh Under RBI's 'Zero Liability' Rule for 2019 Digital Fraud →
Q18.

Consider the following statements regarding the NCDRC judgment on the SBI fraud case:

1. The ruling was based on the RBI circular titled 'Customer Protection – Limiting Liability of Customers in Unauthorised Electronic Banking Transactions' dated July 6, 2017.

2. The commission held that sharing Aadhaar details automatically constitutes sharing payment credentials, making the customer liable.

3. The bank was directed to refund the fraud amount with applicable savings bank interest and pay compensation for mental agony.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly mentions this RBI circular. Statement 2 is incorrect; the NCDRC held that sharing Aadhaar details could NOT be equated with sharing payment credentials. Statement 3 is correct as the district commission's directions, upheld by NCDRC, included refund with interest and compensation.

Source: NCDRC Orders SBI Refund of ₹12.93 Lakh Under RBI's 'Zero Liability' Rule for 2019 Digital Fraud →
Q19.

What was the exact amount that the National Consumer Commission ordered SBI to refund to the retired professor in the digital fraud case?

MediumSSC, Banking
  • A.₹12,50,000
  • B.₹12,93,922✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹13,00,000
  • D.₹12,75,500
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifies the fraudulent amount siphoned off was Rs 12,93,922. The NCDRC ordered SBI to refund this entire sum. The other options are close but incorrect distractors.

Source: NCDRC Orders SBI Refund of ₹12.93 Lakh Under RBI's 'Zero Liability' Rule for 2019 Digital Fraud →
Q20.

What is the primary significance of the NCDRC citing Paragraph 6(ii) of the RBI's July 2017 circular in its judgment?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.It imposes full liability on the customer for any delay in reporting fraud.
  • B.It grants 'zero liability' protection to customers when a deficiency lies neither with them nor the bank, provided they report within 3 days.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It allows banks to waive all liability if they have sent an SMS alert for the transaction.
  • D.It mandates that the Banking Ombudsman's decision is final in all digital fraud cases.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, Paragraph 6(ii) of the RBI circular grants complete ('zero liability') protection to customers in cases of third-party fraud where the fault lies elsewhere in the system, conditional on reporting the unauthorised transaction within three working days. This was the core of the NCDRC's ruling.

Source: NCDRC Orders SBI Refund of ₹12.93 Lakh Under RBI's 'Zero Liability' Rule for 2019 Digital Fraud →
Q21.

According to the article, which major waterway is highlighted as a critical strategic vulnerability for India's energy imports?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Strait of Malacca
  • B.Suez Canal
  • C.Strait of Hormuz✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Panama Canal
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Strait of Hormuz carries nearly one-fifth of global oil trade and is a major strategic vulnerability for India, as a large share of its crude oil and LPG imports transits through these waters.

Source: U.S. Tightens Sanctions on Russian Seaborne Oil, Straining India's Energy Diversification Strategy Amidst 90% Crude Import Dependency →
Q22.

Consider the following statements regarding the implications of the U.S. ending the Russia oil waiver:

1. It directly challenges India's strategy of using Russian crude as an economic stabilizer and supply diversifier.

2. The move is expected to immediately cause a severe physical shortage of oil in global markets.

3. A key contradiction highlighted is that tighter sanctions can raise global oil prices, potentially offsetting the impact on Russian revenues.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article describes Russian oil as an 'economic stabiliser' and 'diversification mechanism' for India. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article notes that markets react to the 'fear of shortages' and that physical supply losses may be 'limited at first'. Statement 3 is correct, as the article explains the 'contradiction' where higher global prices can allow Russia to earn substantial revenues despite lower volumes.

Source: U.S. Tightens Sanctions on Russian Seaborne Oil, Straining India's Energy Diversification Strategy Amidst 90% Crude Import Dependency →
Q23.

As per the article, what percentage of its crude oil does India import?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Nearly 75%
  • B.Nearly 80%
  • C.Nearly 85%
  • D.Nearly 90%✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article provides the specific data point: 'India imports nearly 90% of its crude oil'. This is a critical fact for understanding India's energy security vulnerability.

Source: U.S. Tightens Sanctions on Russian Seaborne Oil, Straining India's Energy Diversification Strategy Amidst 90% Crude Import Dependency →
Q24.

According to the author, what is the primary lesson for India's long-term energy strategy from these developments?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To permanently align with a single geopolitical bloc for secure energy supplies.
  • B.To build a broader and more resilient energy framework reducing dependence on vulnerable chokepoints.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To focus exclusively on accelerating the transition to renewable energy sources.
  • D.To increase diplomatic pressure on the U.S. to maintain permanent waivers for Russian oil.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's 'Future Outlook' section argues that 'India cannot rely indefinitely on opportunistic crude sourcing' and needs 'a broader and more resilient energy framework', including diversifying sources and reducing 'dependence on vulnerable maritime chokepoints' like the Strait of Hormuz. The other options are either contrary to the article's emphasis on strategic autonomy or represent only a partial aspect of the suggested strategy.

Source: U.S. Tightens Sanctions on Russian Seaborne Oil, Straining India's Energy Diversification Strategy Amidst 90% Crude Import Dependency →
Q25.

Which international organization declared the Bundibugyo ebolavirus outbreak a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC)?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.World Health Organization (WHO)✓ Correct Answer
  • B.United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF)
  • C.World Bank
  • D.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'The World Health Organization declared the Bundibugyo ebolavirus...outbreak...to be a public health emergency of international concern on May 17.' WHO is the specialized UN agency responsible for international public health.

Source: Bundibugyo Ebola Outbreak Exposes Vaccine Gap for NTDs; WHO Declares PHEIC; 25-90% Mortality Rate →
Q26.

Consider the following statements regarding the challenges in developing vaccines for diseases like Ebola:

1. Developing a vaccine requires working in Biosafety Level 4 (BSL-4) facilities, which are strongly isolated and have negative air pressure.

2. The different species of ebolavirus (like Zaire and Bundibugyo) have the same surface proteins, so a vaccine for one provides cross-protection against others.

3. Non-human primates are considered the gold standard for assessing the safety and efficacy of Ebola vaccines before human trials.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's description of BSL-4 facilities. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clearly states that different ebolavirus species have different surface proteins and immunity to one does not confer sufficient cross-protection. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the 'Primate trials' section.

Source: Bundibugyo Ebola Outbreak Exposes Vaccine Gap for NTDs; WHO Declares PHEIC; 25-90% Mortality Rate →
Q27.

According to the article, what is the approximate mortality rate range for ebolavirus infections?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.10% to 30%
  • B.25% to 90%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.5% to 20%
  • D.50% to 100%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states, '...a disease with a mortality rate of 25% to 90%.' This high and variable mortality rate is a key characteristic of ebolavirus infections and underscores the urgency of vaccine development.

Source: Bundibugyo Ebola Outbreak Exposes Vaccine Gap for NTDs; WHO Declares PHEIC; 25-90% Mortality Rate →
Q28.

What is the primary reason cited in the article for the 'neglect' in Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs) like the Bundibugyo ebolavirus?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Scientific complexity makes vaccines impossible to develop.
  • B.They are caused by viruses that mutate too rapidly.
  • C.They primarily affect poor, rural, and politically marginalized populations with little purchasing power.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.International treaties prohibit research on these pathogens.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly explains that 'NTDs are almost always diseases of poor, rural, and politically marginalised populations... these people are neglected — and that’s why their diseases are neglected as well.' This leads to market failure, as pharmaceutical companies see minimal financial incentive.

Source: Bundibugyo Ebola Outbreak Exposes Vaccine Gap for NTDs; WHO Declares PHEIC; 25-90% Mortality Rate →
Q29.

Which organization is the nodal agency for implementing the Mumbai-Ahmedabad High Speed Rail project mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Indian Railways
  • B.Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL)
  • C.National High Speed Rail Corporation Ltd (NHSRCL)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.National Capital Region Transport Corporation (NCRTC)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions NHSRCL as 'the government agency behind the implementation of bullet train projects'. Indian Railways is the overall network operator, RVNL executes rail projects, and NCRTC is for regional rail in the NCR.

Source: Mumbai-Ahmedabad Bullet Train: 2.05 Lakh Track Slabs Cast for 508-km Corridor; Surat-Bilimora Stretch by August 2027 →
Q30.

Consider the following statements regarding the Mumbai-Ahmedabad High Speed Rail project:

1. The track slab system being used is based on the Japanese Shinkansen technology.

2. The entire 508-km corridor is targeted to be made operational by the year 2027.

3. The Surat-Bilimora section is the first stretch scheduled for completion.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article details the use of the Shinkansen slab track system. Statement 2 is incorrect; the target for the entire corridor is 2029, not 2027 (2027 is the target for the Surat-Bilimora stretch). Statement 3 is correct as the article states the Surat-Bilimora stretch is scheduled to be completed first, by August 2027.

Source: Mumbai-Ahmedabad Bullet Train: 2.05 Lakh Track Slabs Cast for 508-km Corridor; Surat-Bilimora Stretch by August 2027 →
Q31.

According to the article, what is the total number of track slabs required for the complete Mumbai-Ahmedabad High Speed Rail corridor?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.75,473 slabs
  • B.96,000 slabs
  • C.2.05 lakh slabs✓ Correct Answer
  • D.36,112 slabs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'a total of 2.05 lakh track slabs is required for the entire project.' 75,473 is the number already cast, 96,000 is the target for the Kim facility, and 36,112 is the serial number of a specific slab produced.

Source: Mumbai-Ahmedabad Bullet Train: 2.05 Lakh Track Slabs Cast for 508-km Corridor; Surat-Bilimora Stretch by August 2027 →
Q32.

What is a primary technical advantage of the Shinkansen slab track system, as highlighted in the article, over the conventional ballasted track system used by Indian Railways?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It allows for significantly higher operational speeds with greater stability.✓ Correct Answer
  • B.It is significantly cheaper and faster to construct.
  • C.It uses locally sourced materials, reducing import costs.
  • D.It requires no specialized machinery for installation.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article establishes the slab track as a 'unique feature of the Japanese high speed system' and implicitly contrasts it with India's conventional system. The core advantage of slab tracks is their superior stability and lower maintenance, which is essential for safe high-speed operations (320 km/h). The article does not claim it is cheaper, uses local materials, or requires no specialized machinery.

Source: Mumbai-Ahmedabad Bullet Train: 2.05 Lakh Track Slabs Cast for 508-km Corridor; Surat-Bilimora Stretch by August 2027 →
Q33.

The article mentions the 'Jean Monnet Chair'. This academic title is associated with which international organization?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.The United Nations (UN)
  • B.The European Union (EU)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
  • D.The World Trade Organization (WTO)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Jean Monnet Chair is awarded by the European Commission to professors for excellence in teaching and research on European Union studies. Jean Monnet was a key architect of European integration.

Source: India-Italy Sign Defence Industrial Roadmap; EU's $1 Trillion ReArm Europe Plan Targets Russia as 'Enduring Threat' →
Q34.

Consider the following statements regarding the news article:

1. The India-Italy Defence Industrial Roadmap was adopted during Prime Minister Modi's visit to several European countries.

2. The EU's 'ReArm Europe' project was later recast as 'Readiness 2030' following objections from Spain and Italy.

3. India's defence exports, valued at around $4 billion annually, are entirely based on indigenous platforms with no foreign technology.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct; the article states the recasting followed objections from Spain and Italy. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article explicitly mentions a significant share of exports is based on co-production and integration of technologies from Russian-origin platforms like BrahMos and Sukhoi.

Source: India-Italy Sign Defence Industrial Roadmap; EU's $1 Trillion ReArm Europe Plan Targets Russia as 'Enduring Threat' →
Q35.

According to the article, what is the approximate scale of the European Union's planned defence investment under the 'Readiness 2030' project?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.$500 Billion
  • B.$750 Billion
  • C.$1 Trillion✓ Correct Answer
  • D.$1.5 Trillion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that EU member states are set to invest close to $1 trillion in defence in the coming years under the initiative recast as 'Readiness 2030'.

Source: India-Italy Sign Defence Industrial Roadmap; EU's $1 Trillion ReArm Europe Plan Targets Russia as 'Enduring Threat' →
Q36.

What is identified as a primary challenge for India in integrating into European defence supply chains, as per the analysis in the article?

MediumUPSC
  • A.Lack of funding for defence projects
  • B.India's non-aligned foreign policy stance
  • C.Continued dependence on Russian-origin defence platforms✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Absence of a bilateral treaty with the EU
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core analysis points out that unless India reduces its dependence on Russia by developing robust indigenous platforms, integration into European supply chains will be difficult, especially as the EU's White Paper identifies Russia as an enduring threat.

Source: India-Italy Sign Defence Industrial Roadmap; EU's $1 Trillion ReArm Europe Plan Targets Russia as 'Enduring Threat' →
Q37.

The article discusses major reforms for fertiliser subsidies and suggests integration with an existing income support scheme. Which central government scheme is mentioned for this potential integration?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.PM Fasal Bima Yojana
  • B.PM Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Mahatma Gandhi NREGA
  • D.Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the proposed Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) system for fertilisers should be 'integrated with the PM-Kisan scheme.' PM-KISAN is a central sector scheme providing income support to farmers.

Source: Fiscal Deficit Could Exceed 5% of GDP, FY27 Fertiliser Subsidy Likely to Touch ₹2.5 Lakh Crore Amid Economic Pressures →
Q38.

Consider the following statements regarding the economic challenges and reforms discussed in the article:

1. The article projects that India's GDP growth for FY27 could fall below 6% if the Strait of Hormuz remains closed for an extended period.

2. The proposed 'brahmastra' reform for fertiliser subsidies involves bringing urea under the existing Nutrient-Based Subsidy (NBS) scheme immediately.

3. The article cites data from Bihar showing that actual on-farm fertiliser usage is more than 50% lower than the quantity supplied, indicating large-scale diversion.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's projection. Statement 2 is incorrect; the 'brahmastra' reform is moving to a DBT system per acre. Bringing urea under NBS is mentioned as a third, less-preferred alternative. Statement 3 is correct, as the article mentions this data mismatch from Bihar's Cost of Cultivation surveys.

Source: Fiscal Deficit Could Exceed 5% of GDP, FY27 Fertiliser Subsidy Likely to Touch ₹2.5 Lakh Crore Amid Economic Pressures →
Q39.

According to the article, what is the budgeted amount for the food subsidy bill in the financial year 2026-27 (FY27)?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹1.71 lakh crore
  • B.₹2.28 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹2.50 lakh crore
  • D.₹2.00 lakh crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'The food subsidy bill for FY27 is budgeted at Rs 2.28 lakh crore.' Option A is the budgeted fertiliser subsidy, and option C is the likely upper limit for the fertiliser subsidy bill.

Source: Fiscal Deficit Could Exceed 5% of GDP, FY27 Fertiliser Subsidy Likely to Touch ₹2.5 Lakh Crore Amid Economic Pressures →
Q40.

What is identified as the root cause for the diversion and smuggling of subsidised fertilisers, as per the analysis in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Lack of border surveillance with neighbouring countries.
  • B.Inefficient supply chain management by cooperatives.
  • C.The enormous subsidy covering nearly 90% of urea's cost, creating a high arbitrage opportunity.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Absence of a unique farmer identification system.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly states: 'The root cause is the enormous subsidy on urea, which today covers nearly 90 per cent of its cost.' This large price difference between the subsidised price and market price creates an incentive for diversion and smuggling for profit.

Source: Fiscal Deficit Could Exceed 5% of GDP, FY27 Fertiliser Subsidy Likely to Touch ₹2.5 Lakh Crore Amid Economic Pressures →
Q41.

Which constitutional body, as mentioned in the article, was involved in reviewing the state of the economy and energy sources?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Prime Minister's Council of Ministers✓ Correct Answer
  • B.NITI Aayog
  • C.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
  • D.Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that on his return from a tour, the Prime Minister held a meeting with his council of ministers to review the state of the economy and explore alternative energy sources. This is a constitutional body aiding the Prime Minister.

Source: India's Energy Import Dependency Rises: Coal 23%, Crude 90%, Gas 50% Amid Renewables Push →
Q42.

Consider the following statements regarding India's energy scenario as per the article:

1. India's net energy import dependency for coal is more than 23 percent.

2. India ranks third globally in installed capacity for wind power.

3. Per capita electricity consumption in India rose by 46 percent between 2013-14 and 2023-24.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states coal import dependency is 'more than 23 per cent'. Statement 2 is incorrect; India ranks fourth in wind power capacity, not third. Statement 3 is correct as per the government data cited in the article. Hence, option C is correct.

Source: India's Energy Import Dependency Rises: Coal 23%, Crude 90%, Gas 50% Amid Renewables Push →
Q43.

According to the article, what was the approximate import dependency for crude oil in India, as compared to a decade ago?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Almost 85%, up from 80%
  • B.Almost 90%, up from 85%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Almost 50%, up from 40%
  • D.Almost 79%, up from 70%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that dependence on imports is 'almost 90 per cent, up from 85 per cent a decade ago' for crude oil. Option C refers to natural gas, and D refers to coal's share in domestic supply, not import dependency.

Source: India's Energy Import Dependency Rises: Coal 23%, Crude 90%, Gas 50% Amid Renewables Push →
Q44.

What is the primary concern highlighted by India's high 'net energy import dependency' as discussed in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It leads to a permanent depreciation of the Indian Rupee.
  • B.It reflects a substantive weakness making the economy vulnerable to external shocks.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It indicates a failure in the initial austerity measures like work-from-home.
  • D.It shows that renewable energy capacity growth is ineffective.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article argues that the falling rupee is a symptom, not the core problem. The primary concern is that high import dependency is a 'substantive weakness' in the economy, making it vulnerable to geopolitical events (like the US-Iran war) and price volatility, which threatens energy security and growth.

Source: India's Energy Import Dependency Rises: Coal 23%, Crude 90%, Gas 50% Amid Renewables Push →
Q45.

The Uniform Civil Code is a directive principle mentioned under which article of the Indian Constitution?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 39
  • B.Article 44✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Article 48
  • D.Article 51
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 44 of the Directive Principles of State Policy states that 'The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.' This is the constitutional basis for the UCC debate.

Source: Assam Introduces UCC Bill 2026 To Ban Polygamy, Mandate Live-In Registration, Set Marriage Ages at 21/18 →
Q46.

Consider the following statements regarding the Assam Uniform Civil Code Bill, 2026:

1. It seeks to ban polygamy and make registration of live-in relationships compulsory.

2. It sets the minimum age of marriage at 21 years for women and 18 years for men.

3. If passed, Assam will become the second state in India to have a UCC, after Gujarat.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because it swaps the ages; the bill sets 21 for men and 18 for women. Statement 3 is incorrect; Assam would be the third state after Uttarakhand (first in 2024) and Gujarat.

Source: Assam Introduces UCC Bill 2026 To Ban Polygamy, Mandate Live-In Registration, Set Marriage Ages at 21/18 →
Q47.

According to the news, what is the scheduled date for the discussion of the Uniform Civil Code Bill in the Assam Assembly?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.May 25, 2026
  • B.May 26, 2026
  • C.May 27, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • D.May 28, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The Bill has been scheduled for discussion on May 27.' May 25 is the date it was tabled, making the other dates close distractors.

Source: Assam Introduces UCC Bill 2026 To Ban Polygamy, Mandate Live-In Registration, Set Marriage Ages at 21/18 →
Q48.

What is a primary objective cited for introducing a legal framework for live-in relationships in the Assam UCC Bill?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To discourage such relationships through bureaucratic hurdles.
  • B.To generate revenue for the state through registration fees.
  • C.To formally recognize and protect the rights of partners and any children born from such unions.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To align state laws with central government directives on population control.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As stated by the Chief Minister in the Bill's 'Statement of Object and Reasons', the requirement for registration 'ensures that the rights of partners— and any children born from such unions— are formally recognised and protected.' The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Source: Assam Introduces UCC Bill 2026 To Ban Polygamy, Mandate Live-In Registration, Set Marriage Ages at 21/18 →
Q49.

The regulation of fertiliser quality, price, and distribution in India is primarily governed by which central order?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Essential Commodities Act, 1955
  • B.The Fertiliser Control Order, 1985✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Nutrient-Based Subsidy Scheme, 2010
  • D.The Agricultural Produce Market Committee Act
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, non-subsidised nutrient products are approved under the Centre's Fertiliser Control Order (FCO), 1985. This order, issued under the Essential Commodities Act, is the key regulatory framework for fertilisers in India.

Source: India's Fertiliser Import Bill Hits $27.2 Billion in FY26; Urea, DAP Prices Double Amid Rupee Depreciation & Geopolitical Tensions →
Q50.

Consider the following statements regarding India's fertiliser imports:

1. In 2025-26, India's total fertiliser import bill, including raw materials, was $27.2 billion.

2. The fertiliser sector accounted for more than 60% of India's consumption of regasified LNG in the last fiscal year.

3. States like Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh have issued orders banning the cross-selling of subsidised and non-subsidised fertilisers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article which states the total bill was $27.2 billion. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clearly states the fertiliser sector's share was 47.2%, not more than 60%. Statement 3 is correct as UP (Jan 13), MP (May 14), and Maharashtra (May 20) issued such orders.

Source: India's Fertiliser Import Bill Hits $27.2 Billion in FY26; Urea, DAP Prices Double Amid Rupee Depreciation & Geopolitical Tensions →
Q51.

According to the article, what was the approximate landed price per tonne of Di-Ammonium Phosphate (DAP) contracted by India in May 2026?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.$410-420
  • B.$725
  • C.$935✓ Correct Answer
  • D.$1,050
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: "India’s latest... DAP imports have been contracted at landed... prices of... $935 per tonne respectively, as against their corresponding year-ago rates of... $725 per tonne." Option A is the year-ago price for urea, Option B is the year-ago price for DAP, and Option D is a previous high during the Russia-Ukraine war.

Source: India's Fertiliser Import Bill Hits $27.2 Billion in FY26; Urea, DAP Prices Double Amid Rupee Depreciation & Geopolitical Tensions →
Q52.

What is the primary reason cited by state governments for banning the cross-selling of subsidised and non-subsidised fertilisers by companies?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce the overall fiscal burden of fertiliser subsidies on the state exchequer
  • B.To prevent companies from forcing farmers to buy non-subsidised products along with subsidised ones, a practice known as 'tagging'✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To promote the use of domestically manufactured bio-fertilisers over imported chemical fertilisers
  • D.To simplify the supply chain and ensure timely delivery of only essential subsidised fertilisers
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that state governments justified the ban "citing allegations of companies resorting to 'tagging' – forcing farmers to buy non-subsidised fertilisers along with subsidised fertilisers." The other options, while plausible, are not the reasons mentioned in the provided content.

Source: India's Fertiliser Import Bill Hits $27.2 Billion in FY26; Urea, DAP Prices Double Amid Rupee Depreciation & Geopolitical Tensions →
Q53.

The National Testing Agency (NTA), which conducts the NEET-UG exam, functions under which Union Ministry?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Education✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  • C.Ministry of Science and Technology
  • D.Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The National Testing Agency (NTA) is an autonomous agency under the Department of Higher Education in the Ministry of Education. It was established to conduct entrance examinations for higher educational institutions.

Source: SC Directs NTA, Centre on NEET-UG 2026 Paper Leak; CBI Arrests 11, Re-exam Scheduled for June 21 →
Q54.

Consider the following statements regarding the NEET-UG 2026 paper leak case:

1. The Supreme Court issued notices to the Union Government and the National Testing Agency (NTA).

2. The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) has arrested over 15 accused in the case.

3. The re-examination for the cancelled NEET-UG 2026 has been scheduled for July 21, 2026.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the CBI has arrested 11 accused, not over 15. Statement 3 is incorrect; the re-exam is scheduled for June 21, 2026, not July 21.

Source: SC Directs NTA, Centre on NEET-UG 2026 Paper Leak; CBI Arrests 11, Re-exam Scheduled for June 21 →
Q55.

According to the news, on which date was the NEET-UG 2026 exam originally conducted before being cancelled?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.May 1, 2026
  • B.May 3, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.May 5, 2026
  • D.June 21, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the NEET (UG) 2026 exam was held on May 3, 2026. It was cancelled two days later. June 21 is the date for the re-examination.

Source: SC Directs NTA, Centre on NEET-UG 2026 Paper Leak; CBI Arrests 11, Re-exam Scheduled for June 21 →
Q56.

What is the primary significance of the Supreme Court's expression of disappointment in this case, as highlighted in the news?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It indicates the Court's support for abolishing the NEET exam.
  • B.It highlights the failure to implement past judicial directives to secure examinations.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It shows the Court's intention to take over the functioning of the NTA.
  • D.It primarily criticizes the protesting student union, NSUI.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Supreme Court said it was "really sad" to see the same mishap happening despite detailed orders and a monitoring committee it had set up earlier. This underscores a governance failure in implementing judicial mandates to prevent recurring paper leaks, which is the core issue.

Source: SC Directs NTA, Centre on NEET-UG 2026 Paper Leak; CBI Arrests 11, Re-exam Scheduled for June 21 →
Q57.

Which company, mentioned as the industry leader in chip manufacturing, projected it would produce 1.4nm chips by 2028?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Intel Corporation
  • B.Samsung Electronics
  • C.Taiwan Semiconductor Manufacturing Company (TSMC)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.GlobalFoundries
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Taiwan's TSMC, the industry leader, has projected it will be able to produce 1.4nm chips by 2028. This is a direct factual recall from the news content.

Source: Huawei Proposes 'Tau Scaling Law' to Produce 1.4nm Chips by 2031 Amid US Sanctions →
Q58.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. Huawei's new chipmaking principle is called the 'Tau Scaling Law' or 'Her's Law'.

2. The new technique is claimed to eliminate the need for lithography machines entirely.

3. Huawei aims to produce 5-nanometer chips using this technology by 2031.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the 'Tau Scaling Law' or 'Her's Law'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article says it might sidestep the need for *Extreme Ultraviolet (EUV)* lithography machines, not all lithography machines. Statement 3 is incorrect; Huawei's target is 1.4nm chips by 2031, not 5nm.

Source: Huawei Proposes 'Tau Scaling Law' to Produce 1.4nm Chips by 2031 Amid US Sanctions →
Q59.

By which year does Huawei aim to produce next-generation 1.4-nanometer chips using its new technique?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2026
  • B.2028
  • C.2031✓ Correct Answer
  • D.2035
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The head of Huawei's semiconductor division, He Tingbo, stated that the company will be able to produce next-generation 1.4-nanometer chips by 2031. TSMC's target of 2028 is a close distractor.

Source: Huawei Proposes 'Tau Scaling Law' to Produce 1.4nm Chips by 2031 Amid US Sanctions →
Q60.

What is the primary strategic objective behind Huawei's development of the 'Tau Scaling Law'?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce the overall cost of consumer smartphones
  • B.To circumvent US sanctions restricting access to advanced chipmaking equipment✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To collaborate openly with international semiconductor consortia
  • D.To focus exclusively on the domestic Chinese consumer market
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core theme is that Huawei developed this new way of making semiconductors to get around its U.S.-enforced lack of access to the most advanced chipmaking equipment, specifically EUV lithography machines. This is a direct response to the sanctions imposed since 2019.

Source: Huawei Proposes 'Tau Scaling Law' to Produce 1.4nm Chips by 2031 Amid US Sanctions →
Q61.

Hainan, where China has launched a Free Trade Port, is primarily which type of administrative division?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.A Special Administrative Region (SAR)
  • B.A province of China✓ Correct Answer
  • C.An autonomous region
  • D.A municipality directly under the central government
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states Hainan is China's southernmost province. Hong Kong is a Special Administrative Region (SAR), which is a key point of distinction highlighted in the news.

Source: China Launches Hainan Free Trade Port (FTP) on Dec 18, 2025: Zero Tariffs, Visa-Free for 86 Nations →
Q62.

Consider the following statements regarding China's Hainan Free Trade Port (FTP):

1. The FTP was officially launched on December 18, 2025, with the closure of ordinary customs operations on the island.

2. Under the FTP, goods entering Hainan from abroad face regular customs tariffs, while goods moving from Hainan to the Chinese mainland are tariff-free.

3. The initiative offers visa-free entry to citizens from 86 countries to boost tourism and consumption.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the policy is 'freer access at the first line' (tariff-free imports to Hainan) and 'regulated access at the second line' (regular tariffs apply to goods entering mainland China from Hainan). Statement 3 is correct as mentioned.

Source: China Launches Hainan Free Trade Port (FTP) on Dec 18, 2025: Zero Tariffs, Visa-Free for 86 Nations →
Q63.

According to the article, what is the estimated annual tariff savings expected from the Hainan Free Trade Port initiative?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.560 million RMB
  • B.753 million RMB
  • C.860 million RMB✓ Correct Answer
  • D.1.2 billion RMB
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes spokesperson Wang Bin stating the FTP would help save 860 million RMB in tariffs annually. The value of 753 million yuan refers to goods imported in the first few months, not annual savings.

Source: China Launches Hainan Free Trade Port (FTP) on Dec 18, 2025: Zero Tariffs, Visa-Free for 86 Nations →
Q64.

What is a primary strategic objective behind establishing the Hainan Free Trade Port, as indicated in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To replace Hong Kong as China's sole financial hub
  • B.To serve as a 'new frontier of opening up' and an engine for economic globalization✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To exclusively promote trade with Western developed nations
  • D.To decentralize political authority from Beijing to provincial governments
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly quotes Wang Bin stating Hainan will be a 'new frontier of opening up, hub for regional cooperation and engine for economic globalisation.' While it may compete with Hong Kong, it is not aimed at replacing it. The focus is on broader global engagement, not just the West.

Source: China Launches Hainan Free Trade Port (FTP) on Dec 18, 2025: Zero Tariffs, Visa-Free for 86 Nations →
Q65.

Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the Uniform Civil Code (UCC) mentioned as a Directive Principle of State Policy?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 14
  • B.Article 25
  • C.Article 44✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Article 51A
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 44 of the Constitution, under the Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV), states that "The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India." The Assam UCC Bill is an attempt to implement this principle at the state level.

Source: Assam UCC Bill 2026: Mandatory Marriage Registration, 21/18 Minimum Age, Polygamy Ban, Excludes Scheduled Tribes →
Q66.

Consider the following statements regarding the Uniform Civil Code Bill, Assam, 2026:

1. It mandates compulsory registration of all marriages and divorces.

2. It applies uniformly to all residents of the state of Assam, including those residing outside its territory.

3. It explicitly exempts members of all Scheduled Tribes from its application.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Bill makes registration of marriages and divorces compulsory. Statement 2 is incorrect; while the Bill extends to residents of Assam living outside, it does NOT apply to Scheduled Tribes. Statement 3 is correct as the article clearly states the Bill "will not apply to members of any Scheduled Tribes."

Source: Assam UCC Bill 2026: Mandatory Marriage Registration, 21/18 Minimum Age, Polygamy Ban, Excludes Scheduled Tribes →
Q67.

According to the Assam Uniform Civil Code Bill, 2026, what is the minimum age prescribed for marriage for men?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.18 years
  • B.20 years
  • C.21 years✓ Correct Answer
  • D.23 years
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Bill seeks to set standard conditions for marriage, including "a minimum age of marriage, 21 for men and 18 for women." This is a key data point differentiating it from the national Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, which sets 21 and 18 as the minimum age for men and women respectively.

Source: Assam UCC Bill 2026: Mandatory Marriage Registration, 21/18 Minimum Age, Polygamy Ban, Excludes Scheduled Tribes →
Q68.

What is a primary stated objective of introducing uniform inheritance rules under the Assam UCC Bill as per the article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To increase state revenue from property taxes
  • B.To ensure the transfer of assets is handled justly for all residents✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To promote gender neutrality by removing all distinctions
  • D.To simplify the legal process for banks and financial institutions
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly quotes the statement of object and reasons of the Bill, stating it seeks to introduce "uniform rules for inheritance" with the aim of "ensuring that the transfer of assets is handled justly for all residents of the state." The other options, while possible indirect effects, are not the primary objective mentioned in the source material.

Source: Assam UCC Bill 2026: Mandatory Marriage Registration, 21/18 Minimum Age, Polygamy Ban, Excludes Scheduled Tribes →
Q69.

Under which Ministry/Department does the National Testing Agency (NTA) primarily function?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Education✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  • C.Ministry of Science and Technology
  • D.Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The National Testing Agency (NTA) is an autonomous body established under the aegis of the Ministry of Education (formerly Ministry of Human Resource Development). It is responsible for conducting entrance examinations for higher educational institutions.

Source: Supreme Court Directs NTA Overhaul After NEET 2026 Leak; Demands Compliance with 2024 Monitoring Committee Recommendations →
Q70.

Consider the following statements regarding the NEET UG 2026 paper leak case in the Supreme Court:

1. The bench comprised Justices PS Narasimha and Alok Aradhe.

2. The petition was filed solely by the United Doctors Front (UDF).

3. The court directed the NTA to file an affidavit on compliance with the recommendations of the K Radhakrishnan Committee.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the petition was filed jointly by FAIMA and UDF. Statement 3 is incorrect; the court directed an affidavit on compliance with the recommendations of the 2024 monitoring committee, not specifically the K Radhakrishnan Committee (though the petitioners requested its implementation).

Source: Supreme Court Directs NTA Overhaul After NEET 2026 Leak; Demands Compliance with 2024 Monitoring Committee Recommendations →
Q71.

As per the Supreme Court's direction in the NEET 2026 case, by when was the NTA required to file its affidavit?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.By Wednesday, May 27
  • B.By Thursday, May 28✓ Correct Answer
  • C.By Friday, May 29
  • D.By Monday, June 1
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the bench 'asked the National Testing Agency (NTA) to file an affidavit by Thursday'. Given the hearing was on Monday, May 25, and the next hearing is on Friday, May 29, the Thursday referred to is May 28.

Source: Supreme Court Directs NTA Overhaul After NEET 2026 Leak; Demands Compliance with 2024 Monitoring Committee Recommendations →
Q72.

What is a primary objective of the petitioners (FAIMA & UDF) in seeking the replacement of the NTA, as per the news article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce the examination fee for medical aspirants
  • B.To increase the number of medical seats in government colleges
  • C.To establish a more secure and autonomous mechanism for conducting NEET-UG✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To transfer the examination conducting responsibility to the state governments
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core demand in the plea, as stated in the article, is to 'replace or overhaul the NTA and establish a more secure and autonomous mechanism' for conducting NEET-UG. This is directly aimed at addressing the systemic failures and security lapses leading to paper leaks.

Source: Supreme Court Directs NTA Overhaul After NEET 2026 Leak; Demands Compliance with 2024 Monitoring Committee Recommendations →
Q73.

The Sample Registration System (SRS) Statistical Report, which provides data on birth rate and infant mortality, is released by which office in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Office of the Registrar General & Census Commissioner✓ Correct Answer
  • B.National Statistical Office (NSO)
  • C.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  • D.NITI Aayog
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, the Sample Registration System (SRS) is a demographic survey released by the Office of the Registrar General & Census Commissioner, India. This office under the Ministry of Home Affairs is responsible for demographic data collection including the census.

Source: RBI Transfers Record ₹2.86 Lakh Cr Surplus, Boosts Contingency Buffer to 6.5%; SRS Report Shows TFR at 1.9 & IMR at 24 →
Q74.

Consider the following statements regarding developments mentioned in the news:

1. The RBI maintained its Contingency Risk Buffer (CRB) at 6.5% of its balance sheet as per the revised Economic Capital Framework.

2. The India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) was announced during a G20 Leaders' event and includes a railway route connecting India to Europe.

3. The first instance of a Western hoolock gibbon using an artificial canopy bridge was recorded in the Saranda forest division of Jharkhand.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states the revised ECF allows CRB between 4.5% and 7.5%, and it was maintained at 6.5%. Statement 2 is correct: IMEC was announced during the G20 in New Delhi (2023) and includes a railway route. Statement 3 is incorrect: The gibbon using the canopy bridge was recorded in Assam's Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary, not in Saranda forest of Jharkhand.

Source: RBI Transfers Record ₹2.86 Lakh Cr Surplus, Boosts Contingency Buffer to 6.5%; SRS Report Shows TFR at 1.9 & IMR at 24 →
Q75.

According to the Sample Registration System (SRS) Statistical Report 2024, what is the estimated Total Fertility Rate (TFR) at the national level?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.1.2
  • B.1.9✓ Correct Answer
  • C.2.1
  • D.2.9
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The SRS Report 2024 estimates the national Total Fertility Rate (TFR) at 1.9. Bihar recorded the highest TFR at 2.9, while Delhi had the lowest at 1.2. Option C (2.1) is the replacement level fertility, a common distractor.

Source: RBI Transfers Record ₹2.86 Lakh Cr Surplus, Boosts Contingency Buffer to 6.5%; SRS Report Shows TFR at 1.9 & IMR at 24 →
Q76.

What was a primary strategic outcome of Prime Minister Modi's visit to the Netherlands as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Signing of a defence pact for joint military exercises in the Indian Ocean.
  • B.Elevation of bilateral ties to a Strategic Partnership with a five-year roadmap.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Agreement on extradition of economic offenders between the two countries.
  • D.Dutch commitment to invest in India's National Education Policy implementation.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that during PM Modi's visit to the Netherlands, both leaders decided to elevate bilateral ties to a 'Strategic Partnership' by agreeing on a comprehensive five-year roadmap (2026–30). While 17 pacts were signed spanning various areas, the elevation of the relationship itself was a key strategic outcome.

Source: RBI Transfers Record ₹2.86 Lakh Cr Surplus, Boosts Contingency Buffer to 6.5%; SRS Report Shows TFR at 1.9 & IMR at 24 →
Q77.

Which High Court issued the directive for immediate police protection to the same-sex couple in the news article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Delhi High Court
  • B.Punjab and Haryana High Court✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Kerala High Court
  • D.Supreme Court of India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Punjab and Haryana High Court, through Justice H S Grewal, directed the Senior Superintendent of Police (SSP), Patiala, to provide protection. The Supreme Court's role was as the source of the precedent (Devu G Nair case), not the issuing court for this specific order.

Source: Punjab and Haryana HC Directs Immediate Police Protection for Same-Sex Couple Citing SC Precedent on Social Stigma →
Q78.

Consider the following statements regarding the court order mentioned in the news:

1. The court directed that police protection be granted only after a thorough assessment proving a direct threat to life.

2. The order was based on guidelines laid down by the Supreme Court in the case of Devu G Nair vs State of Kerala.

3. The court clarified that granting protection would not provide immunity from any ongoing criminal proceedings against the petitioners.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both -2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the core of the news is that the court ordered protection WITHOUT first checking risk levels or proving direct threat. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions reliance on the SC's precedent in Devu G Nair vs State of Kerala. Statement 3 is correct, as per the April 22 order which stated protection does not grant immunity from criminal proceedings.

Source: Punjab and Haryana HC Directs Immediate Police Protection for Same-Sex Couple Citing SC Precedent on Social Stigma →
Q79.

As per the Supreme Court guidelines cited in the news, for which categories of couples must courts grant immediate interim police protection?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Only same-sex couples
  • B.Same-sex and transgender couples only
  • C.Same-sex, transgender, inter-faith, and inter-caste couples✓ Correct Answer
  • D.All couples irrespective of their background
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly quotes the Supreme Court's precedent, stating that courts must grant immediate protection to petitions by intimate partners who are "same sex, transgender, inter-faith or inter-caste couple." This specific list is the testable factual point.

Source: Punjab and Haryana HC Directs Immediate Police Protection for Same-Sex Couple Citing SC Precedent on Social Stigma →
Q80.

What is the primary judicial rationale, as per the article, for granting immediate protection to such couples without first establishing 'grave risk'?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To reduce the workload of the police in investigating threats.
  • B.To acknowledge the social stigma and potential for violence they face, which affects their fundamental freedoms.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To encourage more live-in relationships in society.
  • D.To override the wishes of the families in all personal matters.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states the court's reasoning: it must acknowledge that such couples face social stigma, and a neutral approach could adversely affect their fundamental freedoms. The other options are either incorrect inferences or not supported by the text.

Source: Punjab and Haryana HC Directs Immediate Police Protection for Same-Sex Couple Citing SC Precedent on Social Stigma →
Q81.

The Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007, is administered by which ministry at the central level?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Ministry of Law and Justice
  • C.Ministry of Women and Child Development
  • D.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Act falls under the domain of social welfare and protection of vulnerable sections, which is the primary mandate of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. This ministry oversees policies for senior citizens, disabled persons, and other marginalized groups.

Source: Punjab & Haryana HC Imposes ₹50,000 Fine, Quotes Taittiriya Upanishad, Upholds Maintenance Act 2007 in Parental Care Case →
Q82.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent Punjab and Haryana High Court judgment:

1. The court imposed a fine of ₹50,000 on a daughter for denying residence to her father.

2. The judgment quoted the 'Matru Devo Bhava' verse from the Brihadaranyaka Upanishad.

3. The case was filed under the provisions of the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the fine was imposed on a son, not a daughter, for denying residence to his mother. Statement 2 is incorrect as the verse was quoted from the Taittiriya Upanishad, not the Brihadaranyaka Upanishad. Statement 3 is correct as the article clearly states the mother approached the tribunal under the 2007 Act.

Source: Punjab & Haryana HC Imposes ₹50,000 Fine, Quotes Taittiriya Upanishad, Upholds Maintenance Act 2007 in Parental Care Case →
Q83.

What was the amount of costs imposed by the Punjab and Haryana High Court on the petitioner son in the case concerning his mother's residence?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹25,000
  • B.₹50,000✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹75,000
  • D.₹1,00,000
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the High Court imposed costs of ₹50,000, to be deposited in the mother's account. The other figures are plausible distractors for a monetary penalty but are not mentioned in the report.

Source: Punjab & Haryana HC Imposes ₹50,000 Fine, Quotes Taittiriya Upanishad, Upholds Maintenance Act 2007 in Parental Care Case →
Q84.

What is the primary significance of the Punjab and Haryana High Court invoking 'Matru Devo Bhava' in its judgment?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To emphasize that ancient texts have superior legal authority over modern statutes.
  • B.To interpret a statutory welfare law in light of foundational cultural and moral values.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To mandate the teaching of Sanskrit scriptures in all schools.
  • D.To overturn the orders passed by the Maintenance Tribunal.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court used the Upanishadic verse to provide a philosophical and ethical context for the legal duty under the Maintenance Act, 2007. It did not grant superior authority to the text over the statute (A), nor did it mandate teaching Sanskrit (C). The court upheld the Tribunal's orders, not overturned them (D).

Source: Punjab & Haryana HC Imposes ₹50,000 Fine, Quotes Taittiriya Upanishad, Upholds Maintenance Act 2007 in Parental Care Case →
Q85.

Which country's leader did Pakistan's Prime Minister Shehbaz Sharif meet in Beijing on May 25, 2026, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.President of Russia
  • B.President of China✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Prime Minister of Japan
  • D.President of the United States
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Pakistan's Prime Minister Shehbaz Sharif met Chinese President Xi Jinping in Beijing on Monday (May 25, 2026). This is a direct factual recall from the news.

Source: Pakistan PM Sharif, Army Chief Munir Visit China May 23-26 for Iran-U.S. Mediation Talks →
Q86.

Consider the following statements regarding the diplomatic efforts mentioned in the news:

1. Pakistan hosted the only direct negotiations between U.S. and Iranian officials since the Iran war began.

2. China played the primary and most public role in mediating between the U.S. and Iran.

3. Pakistan's Army Chief Asim Munir visited Tehran on May 22-23, 2026 as part of mediation efforts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article says Pakistan hosted in April the only direct negotiations. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article describes China's role as 'quieter', not primary or most public. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions Mr. Munir's visit to Tehran on Friday (May 22) and Saturday (May 23) 2026.

Source: Pakistan PM Sharif, Army Chief Munir Visit China May 23-26 for Iran-U.S. Mediation Talks →
Q87.

According to the article, when did Pakistan's Prime Minister Shehbaz Sharif begin his four-day official visit to China?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.May 20, 2026
  • B.May 22, 2026
  • C.May 23, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • D.May 25, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifies that Mr. Sharif kicked off his four-day official visit to China in Hangzhou on Saturday (May 23, 2026). The other dates are close distractors mentioned for other events (Munir's Tehran visit on May 22, meeting in Beijing on May 25).

Source: Pakistan PM Sharif, Army Chief Munir Visit China May 23-26 for Iran-U.S. Mediation Talks →
Q88.

What is the primary objective of Pakistan's diplomatic engagement with China as described in the context of the Iran war?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To secure military aid from China for Pakistan's defense
  • B.To coordinate mediation efforts and seek China's support for peace in the Middle East✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To negotiate a new bilateral trade agreement
  • D.To discuss the expansion of the China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's context is the Iran war and Pakistan's mediation role. Sharif thanked China's support to promote peace, and China said it would work with Pakistan for Middle East stability. While other options might be part of broader relations, the primary objective in this specific news is coordinating on the Iran conflict.

Source: Pakistan PM Sharif, Army Chief Munir Visit China May 23-26 for Iran-U.S. Mediation Talks →
Q89.

The PIL in the news seeks a directive for the Central Government to exercise its powers under which section of the Child and Adolescent Labour Act, 1986?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Section 3
  • B.Section 4✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Section 14
  • D.Section 24
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the plea seeks directions to the Central Government to exercise its powers under Section 4 of the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 (CALPRA) to amend the Schedule. Section 4 deals with the power to add occupations to the Schedule.

Source: SC Seeks Centre's Response on PIL to Ban Child Employment in Orchestras & Spas, Citing CALPRA 1986 Ambiguity →
Q90.

Consider the following statements regarding the news article:

1. The Supreme Court bench hearing the PIL was led by Chief Justice Surya Kant.

2. The Child and Adolescent Labour Act, 1986, currently lists 'orchestras' and 'dance troupes' under Part B of its Schedule.

3. The petition cited a 2023 report which found that 44.04% of all identified trafficking victims in India are minors.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the Bench comprising Chief Justice Surya Kant. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article clearly says 'orchestra' and 'dance troupe' sectors remain entirely unlisted in the CALPRA Schedule. Statement 3 is correct as the petition cited the Bharatiya Institute of Research and Development (BIRD) 2023 report with this exact figure.

Source: SC Seeks Centre's Response on PIL to Ban Child Employment in Orchestras & Spas, Citing CALPRA 1986 Ambiguity →
Q91.

According to the data from rescue operations cited in the PIL, how many minors were rescued from massage parlours and spas in Delhi and Rajasthan between March 2025 and May 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.8
  • B.12✓ Correct Answer
  • C.18
  • D.24
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article provides specific data: '12 minors were rescued from massage parlours and spas in Delhi and Rajasthan' during the mentioned period. The other numbers are close distractors.

Source: SC Seeks Centre's Response on PIL to Ban Child Employment in Orchestras & Spas, Citing CALPRA 1986 Ambiguity →
Q92.

What is the primary legal ambiguity exploited by traffickers, as highlighted in the PIL?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The lack of a national law against human trafficking.
  • B.The difference in the legal age of consent across states.
  • C.The classification of spas/massage parlours as 'regulated' and orchestras as 'unlisted' under CALPRA.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The absence of a dedicated fast-track court system for POCSO cases.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core argument of the PIL, as detailed in the article, is that traffickers exploit the 'statutory ambiguity' created because these sectors are not absolutely prohibited (Part A) under CALPRA. Spas are in Part B (regulated), and orchestras are not listed at all, allowing disguised exploitation.

Source: SC Seeks Centre's Response on PIL to Ban Child Employment in Orchestras & Spas, Citing CALPRA 1986 Ambiguity →
Q93.

Which High Court delivered the judgment enhancing maintenance and citing Articles 15(3) and 39 of the Constitution?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Delhi High Court
  • B.Allahabad High Court✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Bombay High Court
  • D.Madras High Court
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Allahabad High Court delivered this judgment, with Justice Dr Ajay Kumar-II presiding. This is a direct factual recall from the news content.

Source: Allahabad HC Enhances Maintenance to ₹47,500 pm, Cites Section 498A IPC & Articles 15(3), 39 as Legal Basis →
Q94.

Consider the following statements regarding the Allahabad High Court judgment:

1. The court held that maintenance is a right and not an act of charity.

2. The court reduced the maintenance amount, noting the wife was a qualified fashion designer.

3. The judgment cited Articles 15(3) and 39 of the Constitution to uphold the maintenance provision.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court explicitly observed that 'maintenance is not charity but a right'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the court enhanced the maintenance, it did not reduce it. The court noted the wife's qualification but emphasized that capability to earn cannot deny maintenance without evidence of actual income. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the court relied on Articles 15(3) and 39.

Source: Allahabad HC Enhances Maintenance to ₹47,500 pm, Cites Section 498A IPC & Articles 15(3), 39 as Legal Basis →
Q95.

According to the Allahabad High Court order, what was the total enhanced maintenance amount payable per month from the date of the family court's order?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹34,000
  • B.₹47,500✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹75,000
  • D.₹1,25,000
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'Justice Dr Ajay Kumar-II increased the maintenance to Rs 47,500 per month from the date of the family court’s order.' ₹34,000 was for an earlier period, ₹75,000 was the amount the wife prayed for, and ₹1,25,000 was the husband's admitted salary.

Source: Allahabad HC Enhances Maintenance to ₹47,500 pm, Cites Section 498A IPC & Articles 15(3), 39 as Legal Basis →
Q96.

What was a key legal reason cited by the Allahabad High Court that constituted sufficient grounds for the wife to live separately from her husband?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The husband's unemployment status
  • B.Mutual consent for separation
  • C.A pending criminal case under Section 498A IPC against the husband✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The wife's desire to pursue a career independently
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court noted that 'a criminal case under Sections 498A (cruelty) of the Indian Penal Code and the Dowry Prohibition Act was pending against the husband and his parents, which constituted sufficient reason for the wife to live separately.' This is a direct application of the legal provision mentioned in the article to the facts of the case.

Source: Allahabad HC Enhances Maintenance to ₹47,500 pm, Cites Section 498A IPC & Articles 15(3), 39 as Legal Basis →
Q97.

The panel that identified road dust as a major pollution source in Delhi was constituted by which regulatory body?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
  • B.Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC)
  • D.National Green Tribunal (NGT)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that a January 2026 report by a panel of top experts was constituted by the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM). The CAQM is the statutory body responsible for air quality management in the National Capital Region.

Source: RBI Cuts Contingent Risk Buffer to 6.5%, Transfers Record ₹2.87 Lakh Crore Dividend Amid Rupee Depreciation & Balance of Payments Pressure →
Q98.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent economic analysis of the Indian Rupee:

1. The pressure on the rupee is currently driven by a widening Current Account Deficit (CAD).

2. Net Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) into India has completely dried up since the year 2024.

3. A weaker rupee can help narrow the CAD and boost domestic activity through 'expenditure switching'.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article clarifies that the current account deficit has remained benign, and pressures are emanating from the capital account, not the current account. Statement 2 is correct as per the line: 'net FDI... completely drying up since 2024.' Statement 3 is correct as it describes the theoretical benefit of depreciation for expenditure switching.

Source: RBI Cuts Contingent Risk Buffer to 6.5%, Transfers Record ₹2.87 Lakh Crore Dividend Amid Rupee Depreciation & Balance of Payments Pressure →
Q99.

For the financial year 2025-26, what was the total surplus (dividend) approved for transfer by the RBI's central board to the Centre?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.₹1.95 lakh crore
  • B.₹2.87 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹5.72 lakh crore
  • D.₹91.97 lakh crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'The central board of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on Friday approved the transfer of a record Rs 2.87 lakh crore to the Centre as surplus — or dividend — for 2025-26.' ₹1.95 lakh crore is the amount it would have been if the CRB was not lowered.

Source: RBI Cuts Contingent Risk Buffer to 6.5%, Transfers Record ₹2.87 Lakh Crore Dividend Amid Rupee Depreciation & Balance of Payments Pressure →
Q100.

What is the primary implication of the US Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS) policy change mentioned in the article for Indian professionals?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It reduces the total number of Green Cards available to Indians.
  • B.It requires applicants to return to their home country for consular processing.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It eliminates the H-1B visa category for skilled Indian workers.
  • D.It prioritizes Green Cards for applicants from countries other than India.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that the new policy memo targets the popular 'adjustment of status' route for Green Card applications within the US. It mandates that applicants must now return to their home countries for consular processing, reversing a decades-old practice and creating significant logistical and legal hurdles.

Source: RBI Cuts Contingent Risk Buffer to 6.5%, Transfers Record ₹2.87 Lakh Crore Dividend Amid Rupee Depreciation & Balance of Payments Pressure →
Q101.

The Strait of Hormuz, a key subject in the US-Iran talks, is a chokepoint connecting which two bodies of water?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden
  • B.The Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Mediterranean Sea and the Atlantic Ocean
  • D.The South China Sea and the Philippine Sea
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per static geography, the Strait of Hormuz is the narrow passage that links the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea. This makes it a critical route for oil exports from the Middle East.

Source: US-Iran Truce Talks in Doha Focus on Strait of Hormuz (20% Global Oil) and Iran’s Uranium Stockpile →
Q102.

Consider the following statements regarding the US-Iran talks mentioned in the news:

1. The talks are being held in Doha, with Qatar acting as the mediator.

2. A primary Iranian demand is the introduction of a tolling system for commercial ships passing through the Strait of Hormuz.

3. The United States has agreed to unfreeze Iranian assets regardless of the outcome on the uranium stockpile issue.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states Iranian negotiators reached Qatar's capital Doha for talks. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions Iran has been discussing a tolling system. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article clearly states a US official confirmed there will be no sanctions relief, including unfreezing assets, if Iran doesn't give up its enriched uranium.

Source: US-Iran Truce Talks in Doha Focus on Strait of Hormuz (20% Global Oil) and Iran’s Uranium Stockpile →
Q103.

According to the article, what percentage of the world's oil and natural gas is estimated to pass through the Strait of Hormuz?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.15%
  • B.20%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.25%
  • D.30%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Strait of Hormuz 'deals with the passage of an estimated 20 percent of the world’s oil and natural gas.' This is a key factual data point for prelims.

Source: US-Iran Truce Talks in Doha Focus on Strait of Hormuz (20% Global Oil) and Iran’s Uranium Stockpile →
Q104.

What is the primary reason cited in the article for the US insistence on Iran handing over its highly enriched uranium stockpile?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To use the uranium for America's own civilian nuclear energy program.
  • B.To act as a confidence-building measure for future technological cooperation.
  • C.To serve as a non-negotiable precondition for any sanctions relief and unfreezing of assets.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To fulfill a requirement of a United Nations Security Council resolution from 2015.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly quotes a US official confirming that 'if Iran doesn’t give up its enriched uranium stockpile, there will be no sanctions relief, including unfreezing of assets.' This frames it as the primary US condition for a deal.

Source: US-Iran Truce Talks in Doha Focus on Strait of Hormuz (20% Global Oil) and Iran’s Uranium Stockpile →
Q105.

The Finance Minister delivered the speech addressing the '3Fs' challenge at an event organized by which institution?

EasyUPSC, Banking
  • A.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
  • B.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
  • C.Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Finance Minister spoke at "a Small Industries Development Bank of India’s (SIDBI) event in Mumbai." SIDBI is the principal financial institution for promoting, financing, and developing the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprise (MSME) sector.

Source: FM Sitharaman Addresses '3Fs' Challenge: Forex Reserves Down $40bn, Rupee at 95.23/$ Amid West Asia Crisis →
Q106.

Consider the following statements regarding the economic situation discussed in the article:

1. The Finance Minister attributed the current economic challenges primarily to external factors like the West Asia crisis.

2. Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) have been net buyers of Indian bonds and stocks since the war began in late February.

3. The Reserve Bank of India's gross forex sales in March 2026 were the highest in 13 months.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The FM said challenges are "more external driven" and highlighted the '3Fs' (fuel, fertiliser, forex for gold) linked to global prices. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article states FPIs have "dumped" (sold) Indian bonds and stocks worth $24.4 billion since the war began, indicating net outflows, not purchases. Statement 3 is correct: It is directly mentioned that "RBI’s gross forex sales of $29.6 billion in March was the highest in 13 months."

Source: FM Sitharaman Addresses '3Fs' Challenge: Forex Reserves Down $40bn, Rupee at 95.23/$ Amid West Asia Crisis →
Q107.

As per the article, by how much had the rupee depreciated against the US dollar since February 27?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Nearly 3%
  • B.Nearly 5%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Nearly 7%
  • D.Nearly 10%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article provides the exact data point: "the rupee has slumped by nearly 5% since February 27." The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Source: FM Sitharaman Addresses '3Fs' Challenge: Forex Reserves Down $40bn, Rupee at 95.23/$ Amid West Asia Crisis →
Q108.

What was the primary objective behind the Prime Minister's appeal to avoid non-essential foreign travel and gold purchases for a year, as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To promote domestic tourism and jewellery manufacturing
  • B.To reduce the fiscal deficit and control inflation
  • C.To conserve the country's foreign exchange reserves✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To implement environmental conservation measures
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly links these appeals to forex conservation: "These actions would help save the country’s foreign exchange reserves as most of these activities and purchases require import." The other options, while possibly secondary effects, are not the stated primary objective.

Source: FM Sitharaman Addresses '3Fs' Challenge: Forex Reserves Down $40bn, Rupee at 95.23/$ Amid West Asia Crisis →
Q109.

The study on Indo-Gangetic Plain pollution was conducted by researchers at which institute?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Delhi
  • B.Bose Institute, Kolkata✓ Correct Answer
  • C.National Physical Laboratory (NPL)
  • D.Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the study was conducted by researchers at the Bose Institute in Kolkata, led by Prof Abhijit Chatterjee.

Source: Indo-Gangetic Plain PM2.5 Pollution Rose Over 20% in 2010-19, Affects Himalayas: NCAP Impact Limited, Study Finds →
Q110.

Consider the following statements regarding the study on pollution in the Indo-Gangetic Plain:

1. Particulate matter pollution across the IGP increased by more than 20 per cent during 2010-2019 compared to the previous decade.

2. The study found that dust pollution, concentrated over the western IGP, showed an increasing trend.

3. The research identified the eastern IGP – particularly Bihar and southern West Bengal – as a persistent and worsening aerosol hotspot.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's opening. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states dust pollution showed an overall declining trend. Statement 3 is correct as the article identifies the eastern IGP as a persistent aerosol hotspot.

Source: Indo-Gangetic Plain PM2.5 Pollution Rose Over 20% in 2010-19, Affects Himalayas: NCAP Impact Limited, Study Finds →
Q111.

According to the study, what was the highest Aerosol Optical Depth (AOD) recorded in the lower Indo-Gangetic Plain?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.0.51
  • B.0.61
  • C.0.71✓ Correct Answer
  • D.0.81
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that the lower IGP recorded the highest aerosol optical depth of 0.71. This is a precise data point from the study.

Source: Indo-Gangetic Plain PM2.5 Pollution Rose Over 20% in 2010-19, Affects Himalayas: NCAP Impact Limited, Study Finds →
Q112.

What is a key recommendation made by the researchers regarding India's National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) based on their findings?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase the number of non-attainment cities from 131 to 200
  • B.To shift its focus entirely from urban to rural areas
  • C.To expand its ambit to include rural regions and ecologically sensitive areas like the Himalayas✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To merge NCAP with the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article concludes by stating the researchers argue that NCAP's successor must expand beyond its current focus on 131 non-attainment cities to include rural regions and ecologically sensitive areas, including the Himalayas, Sundarbans, and Northeast India's biosphere reserves.

Source: Indo-Gangetic Plain PM2.5 Pollution Rose Over 20% in 2010-19, Affects Himalayas: NCAP Impact Limited, Study Finds →
Q113.

As per the Indus Waters Treaty, disputes are first to be resolved through which bilateral commission?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Indus River Commission
  • B.Permanent Indus Commission✓ Correct Answer
  • C.India-Pakistan Water Commission
  • D.Joint Permanent Commission
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article IX of the Indus Waters Treaty establishes a three-tier dispute resolution mechanism. The first step is resolution through the Permanent Indus Commission (PIC), which comprises a commissioner from each country.

Source: India Rejects Court of Arbitration Award, Holds Indus Waters Treaty in Abeyance After Pahalgam Attack →
Q114.

Consider the following statements regarding the Indus Waters Treaty:

1. It was signed in 1960 by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and President Ayub Khan.

2. As per the treaty, India has exclusive rights over the waters of the Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab rivers.

3. The treaty provides for a dispute resolution mechanism that begins with the World Bank-appointed Neutral Expert.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect: India has exclusive rights over the Eastern Rivers (Sutlej, Beas, Ravi), while Pakistan controls the Western Rivers (Indus, Jhelum, Chenab). Statement 3 is incorrect: the dispute mechanism first goes to the Permanent Indus Commission (PIC), not the Neutral Expert.

Source: India Rejects Court of Arbitration Award, Holds Indus Waters Treaty in Abeyance After Pahalgam Attack →
Q115.

According to the Indus Waters Treaty, what approximate percentage of the total waters of the Indus river system is allocated to Pakistan?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.20%
  • B.50%
  • C.65%
  • D.80%✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The treaty allocates the three Western Rivers (Indus, Jhelum, Chenab) to Pakistan, which amounts to about 135 million acre-feet (MAF) or approximately 80% of the total water of the Indus system. India receives the remaining 20% from the Eastern Rivers.

Source: India Rejects Court of Arbitration Award, Holds Indus Waters Treaty in Abeyance After Pahalgam Attack →
Q116.

What was the immediate reason cited by India for deciding to hold the Indus Waters Treaty 'in abeyance' as per the article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Pakistan's objection to the Baglihar Dam project
  • B.The award issued by the Court of Arbitration in May
  • C.The Pahalgam terror attack on April 22✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Pakistan's failure to respond to the modification notice
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'India decided to keep the IWT in abeyance after the April 22 Pahalgam terror attack'. While India rejected the Court of Arbitration award, the decision for abeyance is directly linked to the terrorist incident.

Source: India Rejects Court of Arbitration Award, Holds Indus Waters Treaty in Abeyance After Pahalgam Attack →
Q117.

Motor Accident Claims Tribunals (MACTs) are established under which Indian legislation?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Indian Penal Code, 1860
  • B.The Motor Vehicles Act, 1988✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Civil Procedure Code, 1908
  • D.The Workmen's Compensation Act, 1923
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

MACTs are specialized tribunals created under the provisions of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, to provide a speedy remedy for accident victims. The other acts govern different legal areas: IPC for crimes, CPC for civil procedure, and the Workmen's Compensation Act for employment-related injuries.

Source: Punjab & Haryana HC Enhances MACT Compensation to ₹27.1 Lakh for Minor, Sets Precedent on Disability & 'Loss of Dignity' →
Q118.

Consider the following statements regarding the Punjab and Haryana High Court judgment on motor accident compensation:

1. The court enhanced the compensation for a minor victim from ₹4.96 lakh to ₹27.1 lakh.

2. The court ruled that a minor victim should be treated as a non-earning individual for calculating loss of future income.

3. The court awarded ₹5 lakh under the specific head of 'loss of marriage prospects'.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the compensation was enhanced from ₹4.96 lakh to ₹27.1 lakh. Statement 2 is incorrect; the court explicitly rejected treating the minor as a non-earner and instead used minimum wages for a skilled worker. Statement 3 is correct as the court awarded ₹5 lakh for loss of marriage prospects. Hence, option C is correct.

Source: Punjab & Haryana HC Enhances MACT Compensation to ₹27.1 Lakh for Minor, Sets Precedent on Disability & 'Loss of Dignity' →
Q119.

According to the Punjab and Haryana High Court judgment, what multiplier was applied to calculate the future income loss of the 9-year-old accident victim?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.15
  • B.16
  • C.17
  • D.18✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the court applied an appropriate multiplier of 18 in view of the minor's age. The other options (15, 16, 17) are standard multipliers for different age groups as per the Sarla Verma guidelines and are potential distractors.

Source: Punjab & Haryana HC Enhances MACT Compensation to ₹27.1 Lakh for Minor, Sets Precedent on Disability & 'Loss of Dignity' →
Q120.

What was the core legal principle established by the Punjab and Haryana High Court regarding permanent disability in this case?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Disability only affects physical mobility and requires medical reassessment every year.
  • B.Permanent disability results in a quantifiable 'loss of dignity' beyond just physical and cognitive impairment.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Compensation for disability should be capped at a fixed percentage of the victim's assessed income.
  • D.The multiplier method is not applicable for victims who are minors at the time of the accident.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court's key observation was that turning from a healthy person to an invalid, deprived of normal companionship and a productive life, constitutes a 'loss of dignity'. This principle expands the scope of compensable damages. The other options are incorrect as per the article: disability reassessment was suggested after five years, not yearly; no cap was mentioned; and the multiplier method was explicitly applied to the minor.

Source: Punjab & Haryana HC Enhances MACT Compensation to ₹27.1 Lakh for Minor, Sets Precedent on Disability & 'Loss of Dignity' →
Q121.

Which of the following countries is NOT a member of the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (Quad) as per the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.India
  • B.Japan
  • C.Australia
  • D.United Kingdom✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Quad members, as explicitly mentioned in the article, are India, the United States, Japan, and Australia. The United Kingdom is not a member of this grouping.

Source: Quad FM Meeting Focuses on Strait of Hormuz Closure, Critical Minerals Security & Indo-Pacific Freedom of Navigation →
Q122.

Consider the following statements regarding the Quad Foreign Ministers' meeting:

1. The meeting was hosted by External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar at Hyderabad House in New Delhi.

2. A primary concern discussed was the impact of the West Asia conflict on the closure of the Strait of Malacca.

3. The ministers recommitted to the goal of a free and open Indo-Pacific.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states EAM Jaishankar hosted the meeting at Hyderabad House. Statement 2 is incorrect because the concern discussed was the closure of the Strait of Hormuz, not the Strait of Malacca. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the ministers recommitted to a free and open Indo-Pacific.

Source: Quad FM Meeting Focuses on Strait of Hormuz Closure, Critical Minerals Security & Indo-Pacific Freedom of Navigation →
Q123.

According to the article, when was the previous Quad Foreign Ministers' meeting held before the current one in May 2026?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.January 2025
  • B.July 2025✓ Correct Answer
  • C.September 2025
  • D.March 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Quad foreign ministers had last met in July 2025 in Washington DC.

Source: Quad FM Meeting Focuses on Strait of Hormuz Closure, Critical Minerals Security & Indo-Pacific Freedom of Navigation →
Q124.

What is identified in the article as a significant reason for the Quad's heightened focus on maritime security during this meeting?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.The need to counter piracy in the Gulf of Aden.
  • B.The impact of the West Asia conflict on global shipping lanes and energy security.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The increasing frequency of cyclones in the Bay of Bengal.
  • D.The territorial disputes in the South China Sea.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly links the discussion on maritime security to the war in West Asia, which has impacted maritime and energy security. It specifically mentions the concern over the closure of the Strait of Hormuz and its effect on freedom of navigation.

Source: Quad FM Meeting Focuses on Strait of Hormuz Closure, Critical Minerals Security & Indo-Pacific Freedom of Navigation →
Q125.

The encyclical 'Magnifica Humanitas' was released by which religious institution?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The World Council of Churches
  • B.The Vatican (Holy See)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Anglican Communion
  • D.The Eastern Orthodox Church
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the document was released by Pope Leo XIV. The Pope is the head of the Roman Catholic Church and the sovereign of the Vatican City State (Holy See).

Source: Pope Leo XIV's Encyclical Magnifica Humanitas Calls for Global AI Regulation, Declares Just War Theory Outdated →
Q126.

Consider the following statements regarding the encyclical 'Magnifica Humanitas':

1. It calls for strong global regulation of artificial intelligence.

2. It declares the Catholic 'just war' theory as fully applicable to modern warfare.

3. It draws parallels between the AI revolution and the Industrial Revolution addressed in 'Rerum Novarum'.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article says the Pope 'called for strong global regulation of artificial intelligence'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the Pope declared the theory 'outdated'. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the Pope 'linked the AI revolution to the Industrial Revolution addressed by... Pope Leo XIII in... Rerum Novarum'.

Source: Pope Leo XIV's Encyclical Magnifica Humanitas Calls for Global AI Regulation, Declares Just War Theory Outdated →
Q127.

According to the news article, what is the length of the encyclical document 'Magnifica Humanitas'?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.150 pages
  • B.200 pages
  • C.235 pages✓ Correct Answer
  • D.300 pages
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The 235-page document is already being described by academics...' Therefore, the correct length is 235 pages.

Source: Pope Leo XIV's Encyclical Magnifica Humanitas Calls for Global AI Regulation, Declares Just War Theory Outdated →
Q128.

What is a primary ethical concern regarding AI in warfare raised in Pope Leo XIV's encyclical?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.The high financial cost of developing military AI systems.
  • B.The risk of AI systems making irreversible lethal decisions autonomously.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The potential for AI to create cyber-espionage vulnerabilities.
  • D.The difficulty in training soldiers to use AI-powered weaponry.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly quotes the Pope's warning: 'He said it was "not permissible" to allow AI systems to make irreversible lethal decisions in warfare.' This is the core ethical concern highlighted regarding military applications.

Source: Pope Leo XIV's Encyclical Magnifica Humanitas Calls for Global AI Regulation, Declares Just War Theory Outdated →
Q129.

Which ministry is the nodal body for India's engagement in the Quad Foreign Ministers' Meeting?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Defence
  • B.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  • D.Ministry of Home Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA), headed by the External Affairs Minister, is responsible for managing India's foreign relations and strategic dialogues, including participation in the Quad forum.

Source: Quad FMs Meet in India: Focus on Indo-Pacific Maritime Security, Critical Minerals, Infrastructure & Disaster Relief →
Q130.

Consider the following statements regarding the Quad Foreign Ministers' Meeting mentioned in the news:

1. The meeting was held in India and involved the Australian Foreign Minister.

2. The Quad's agenda is now focused on delivering concrete outcomes in areas like maritime security and critical minerals.

3. The Quad is a formal military alliance treaty between its member nations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states Penny Wong visited India for the Quad FMs' meeting. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions the Quad is delivering concrete outcomes on shared interests. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Quad is an informal strategic dialogue, not a formal military alliance treaty.

Source: Quad FMs Meet in India: Focus on Indo-Pacific Maritime Security, Critical Minerals, Infrastructure & Disaster Relief →
Q131.

Which edition of the Australia-India Foreign Ministers' Framework Dialogue was held alongside the Quad meeting?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.15th
  • B.16th
  • C.17th✓ Correct Answer
  • D.18th
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that Penny Wong would hold the '17th Australia-India Foreign Ministers' Framework Dialogue' with External Affairs Minister Dr. S. Jaishankar during the visit.

Source: Quad FMs Meet in India: Focus on Indo-Pacific Maritime Security, Critical Minerals, Infrastructure & Disaster Relief →
Q132.

What is a primary strategic objective of the Quad's focus on 'critical minerals supply', as per the context of the news?

MediumUPSC
  • A.To reduce the cost of electronic goods for consumers
  • B.To ensure supply chain resilience and reduce dependency on a single source✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To promote mining activities within the member countries exclusively
  • D.To export critical minerals to European nations
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Collaboration on critical minerals within the Quad aims to build secure and resilient supply chains for minerals essential for technology and defense, reducing over-dependence on any single nation (like China) which currently dominates processing.

Source: Quad FMs Meet in India: Focus on Indo-Pacific Maritime Security, Critical Minerals, Infrastructure & Disaster Relief →

Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?

For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.

  • Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
  • Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
  • Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.

Frequently Asked Questions

What are the important current affairs questions for 25 May 2026?▼

This page contains 132 current affairs questions from 25 May 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.

How to use 25 May 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼

Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.

How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼

Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.

Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼

Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.

What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼

Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.

All Questions in This Set

  1. Q1. Under which section of the Indian Penal Code was the offence o…
  2. Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the sedition law a…
  3. Q3. According to the article, what is the minimum sentence prescri…
  4. Q4. is a primary criticism, as per the article, of the Supreme Cou…
  5. Q5. committee's recommendations originally formed the basis for th…
  6. Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the RBI's dividend…
  7. Q7. According to the article, what was the size of the RBI's balan…
  8. Q8. was the primary reason cited by the RBI for lowering the Conti…
  9. Q9. As per the Supreme Court's direction, which ministry has been …
  10. Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
  11. Q11. According to the article, under the government's Shuchi scheme…
  12. Q12. is the primary constitutional basis cited by the Supreme Court…
  13. Q13. fundamental right, as interpreted by the Supreme Court, encomp…
  14. Q14. Consider the following statements regarding reproductive right…
  15. Q15. According to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, a…
  16. Q16. is a primary concern highlighted regarding the Surrogacy (Regu…
  17. Q17. As per the news, which is the apex body for consumer dispute r…
  18. Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the NCDRC judgment…
  19. Q19. was the exact amount that the National Consumer Commission ord…
  20. Q20. is the primary significance of the NCDRC citing Paragraph 6(ii…
  21. Q21. According to the article, which major waterway is highlighted …
  22. Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the implications o…
  23. Q23. As per the article, what percentage of its crude oil does Indi…
  24. Q24. According to the author, what is the primary lesson for India'…
  25. Q25. international organization declared the Bundibugyo ebolavirus …
  26. Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the challenges in …
  27. Q27. According to the article, what is the approximate mortality ra…
  28. Q28. is the primary reason cited in the article for the 'neglect' i…
  29. Q29. organization is the nodal agency for implementing the Mumbai-A…
  30. Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the Mumbai-Ahmedab…
  31. Q31. According to the article, what is the total number of track sl…
  32. Q32. is a primary technical advantage of the Shinkansen slab track …
  33. Q33. The article mentions the 'Jean Monnet Chair'. This academic ti…
  34. Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the news article: …
  35. Q35. According to the article, what is the approximate scale of the…
  36. Q36. is identified as a primary challenge for India in integrating …
  37. Q37. The article discusses major reforms for fertiliser subsidies a…
  38. Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the economic chall…
  39. Q39. According to the article, what is the budgeted amount for the …
  40. Q40. is identified as the root cause for the diversion and smugglin…
  41. Q41. constitutional body, as mentioned in the article, was involved…
  42. Q42. Consider the following statements regarding India's energy sce…
  43. Q43. According to the article, what was the approximate import depe…
  44. Q44. is the primary concern highlighted by India's high 'net energy…
  45. Q45. The Uniform Civil Code is a directive principle mentioned unde…
  46. Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the Assam Uniform …
  47. Q47. According to the news, what is the scheduled date for the disc…
  48. Q48. is a primary objective cited for introducing a legal framework…
  49. Q49. The regulation of fertiliser quality, price, and distribution …
  50. Q50. Consider the following statements regarding India's fertiliser…
  51. Q51. According to the article, what was the approximate landed pric…
  52. Q52. is the primary reason cited by state governments for banning t…
  53. Q53. The National Testing Agency (NTA), which conducts the NEET-UG …
  54. Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the NEET-UG 2026 p…
  55. Q55. According to the news, on which date was the NEET-UG 2026 exam…
  56. Q56. is the primary significance of the Supreme Court's expression …
  57. Q57. company, mentioned as the industry leader in chip manufacturin…
  58. Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. Huaw…
  59. Q59. By which year does Huawei aim to produce next-generation 1.4-n…
  60. Q60. is the primary strategic objective behind Huawei's development…
  61. Q61. Hainan, where China has launched a Free Trade Port, is primari…
  62. Q62. Consider the following statements regarding China's Hainan Fre…
  63. Q63. According to the article, what is the estimated annual tariff …
  64. Q64. is a primary strategic objective behind establishing the Haina…
  65. Q65. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the Uniform …
  66. Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the Uniform Civil …
  67. Q67. According to the Assam Uniform Civil Code Bill, 2026, what is …
  68. Q68. is a primary stated objective of introducing uniform inheritan…
  69. Q69. Under which Ministry/Department does the National Testing Agen…
  70. Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the NEET UG 2026 p…
  71. Q71. As per the Supreme Court's direction in the NEET 2026 case, by…
  72. Q72. is a primary objective of the petitioners (FAIMA & UDF) in see…
  73. Q73. The Sample Registration System (SRS) Statistical Report, which…
  74. Q74. Consider the following statements regarding developments menti…
  75. Q75. According to the Sample Registration System (SRS) Statistical …
  76. Q76. was a primary strategic outcome of Prime Minister Modi's visit…
  77. Q77. High Court issued the directive for immediate police protectio…
  78. Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the court order me…
  79. Q79. As per the Supreme Court guidelines cited in the news, for whi…
  80. Q80. is the primary judicial rationale, as per the article, for gra…
  81. Q81. The Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act…
  82. Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Punjab …
  83. Q83. was the amount of costs imposed by the Punjab and Haryana High…
  84. Q84. is the primary significance of the Punjab and Haryana High Cou…
  85. Q85. country's leader did Pakistan's Prime Minister Shehbaz Sharif …
  86. Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the diplomatic eff…
  87. Q87. According to the article, when did Pakistan's Prime Minister S…
  88. Q88. is the primary objective of Pakistan's diplomatic engagement w…
  89. Q89. The PIL in the news seeks a directive for the Central Governme…
  90. Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the news article: …
  91. Q91. According to the data from rescue operations cited in the PIL,…
  92. Q92. is the primary legal ambiguity exploited by traffickers, as hi…
  93. Q93. High Court delivered the judgment enhancing maintenance and ci…
  94. Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the Allahabad High…
  95. Q95. According to the Allahabad High Court order, what was the tota…
  96. Q96. was a key legal reason cited by the Allahabad High Court that …
  97. Q97. The panel that identified road dust as a major pollution sourc…
  98. Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the recent economi…
  99. Q99. For the financial year 2025-26, what was the total surplus (di…
  100. Q100. is the primary implication of the US Citizenship and Immigrati…
  101. Q101. The Strait of Hormuz, a key subject in the US-Iran talks, is a…
  102. Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the US-Iran talks …
  103. Q103. According to the article, what percentage of the world's oil a…
  104. Q104. is the primary reason cited in the article for the US insisten…
  105. Q105. The Finance Minister delivered the speech addressing the '3Fs'…
  106. Q106. Consider the following statements regarding the economic situa…
  107. Q107. As per the article, by how much had the rupee depreciated agai…
  108. Q108. was the primary objective behind the Prime Minister's appeal t…
  109. Q109. The study on Indo-Gangetic Plain pollution was conducted by re…
  110. Q110. Consider the following statements regarding the study on pollu…
  111. Q111. According to the study, what was the highest Aerosol Optical D…
  112. Q112. is a key recommendation made by the researchers regarding Indi…
  113. Q113. As per the Indus Waters Treaty, disputes are first to be resol…
  114. Q114. Consider the following statements regarding the Indus Waters T…
  115. Q115. According to the Indus Waters Treaty, what approximate percent…
  116. Q116. was the immediate reason cited by India for deciding to hold t…
  117. Q117. Motor Accident Claims Tribunals (MACTs) are established under …
  118. Q118. Consider the following statements regarding the Punjab and Har…
  119. Q119. According to the Punjab and Haryana High Court judgment, what …
  120. Q120. was the core legal principle established by the Punjab and Har…
  121. Q121. of the following countries is NOT a member of the Quadrilatera…
  122. Q122. Consider the following statements regarding the Quad Foreign M…
  123. Q123. According to the article, when was the previous Quad Foreign M…
  124. Q124. is identified in the article as a significant reason for the Q…
  125. Q125. The encyclical 'Magnifica Humanitas' was released by which rel…
  126. Q126. Consider the following statements regarding the encyclical 'Ma…
  127. Q127. According to the news article, what is the length of the encyc…
  128. Q128. is a primary ethical concern regarding AI in warfare raised in…
  129. Q129. ministry is the nodal body for India's engagement in the Quad …
  130. Q130. Consider the following statements regarding the Quad Foreign M…
  131. Q131. edition of the Australia-India Foreign Ministers' Framework Di…
  132. Q132. is a primary strategic objective of the Quad's focus on 'criti…