28 May 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

Article 324 of the Indian Constitution vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in the Election Commission of India. This is the source of its 'plenary powers', as cited in the article regarding the SIR exercise.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Supreme Court upheld the SIR. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court explicitly stated that deletion 'does not amount to a declaration that the individual is not a citizen of India.' Statement 3 is correct as the Court directed the ECI to refer deletions for citizenship adjudication. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India recorded 5,737 dowry deaths in 2024, which translates to nearly 16 women every day. The other figures are distractors not mentioned in the provided content.

Explanation

Unlike MGNREGS where the Centre paid 100% of the wage bill, the VB-G RAM G Act shifts 40% of the wage bill funding burden onto state governments. This is a fundamental change in the fiscal responsibility model for rural employment guarantee schemes.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the 'International Energy Agency (IEA)' as the source of the 'World Energy Investment 2026' report. The other organizations are not mentioned in the context of this report.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states energy investment is set to reach $170 billion in 2026. Statement 2 is correct as it mentions 25% annual growth for solar PV and 23% for oil refining. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states these two sectors contributed to one-fourth (not one-third) of the investment growth.

Explanation

The article clearly states that India's current nuclear capacity is 9 GW and the country is targeting 100 GW of nuclear capacity by 2047. The other options present incorrect figures not mentioned in the report.

Explanation

The article states the reform 'ended the state monopoly of nuclear power, allowing private companies with up to 49% foreign ownership to build and operate reactors and small modular reactors (SMRs).' This directly aims to enhance private sector participation to accelerate capacity growth. While promoting FDI is a related aspect, the core objective is to break the state monopoly and involve private players.

Explanation

The article mentions that the 28% GST rate for online gaming was approved by the GST Council. The GST Council is the constitutional body established under Article 279A to make recommendations on GST.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Court upheld the levy on the full face value of bets, not just the Gross Gaming Revenue. Statement 2 is correct as the Court treated the amendment as clarificatory, allowing retrospective application. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the ruling overturns relief granted by the Karnataka High Court to GamesKraft.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the verdict 'effectively revives tax demands running into nearly Rs 2.5 lakh crore'. The other figures are specific notices to individual companies mentioned later (GamesKraft: ₹21,000 crore; Dream11: ₹40,000 crore).

Explanation

The article states the government moved to ban online gaming 'citing national security concerns, including the use of digital wallets and cryptocurrencies for money laundering and illicit fund transfers'. The other options are not mentioned as primary reasons in the provided text.

Explanation

The article mentions the Department of Fertilisers in the context of reporting overall fertiliser reserves. This department operates under the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilisers and is the nodal agency for fertiliser policy, subsidy, and supply management in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'with an import dependency level of close to 90%... About 40% of the country’s oil imports used to come via the Strait of Hormuz.' Statement 2 is incorrect because India imports 9-10 million tonnes of urea against annual consumption of 39-40 mt, making it 15-20% import-dependent. Statement 3 is correct: 'FII outflows in the January-May period were Rs 1.97 lakh crore.'

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'According to Commerce Ministry data, crude oil imports in 2025-26 stood at about $135 billion.' The other figures are close distractors: $115 is the price per barrel of the Indian crude basket in April 2026, while $100 and $150 are plausible but incorrect figures for the total import bill.

Explanation

Analyst Udit Misra in the article argues that austerity measures like cutting gold purchases are not sustainable. The lasting fix is structural: 'The only way out... is for India to boost both its domestic production and productivity... to grow its share in the global exports market.' This involves improving ease of doing business to attract investment.

Explanation

The Enforcement Directorate is an economic intelligence and law enforcement agency under the Department of Revenue, which falls under the Ministry of Finance. It is responsible for enforcing economic laws like FEMA and PMLA.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: strength enhanced by 60% to 3,256. Statement 2 is incorrect; the last restructuring was in 2011, not 2005. Statement 3 is incorrect; ECIRs jumped 39% to 1,080 in FY26 from 775 in FY25, indicating an increase, not a decrease.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that in the 2025-26 financial year, the ED attached properties worth Rs 81,422.63 crore. Rs 30,036.41 crore was the figure for 2024-25, Rs 1,19,386.25 crore was the total for 2014-2024, and Rs 5,171.32 crore was the total for 2005-2014.

Explanation

The article mentions that the expansion comes 'amid rising cases, complex investigations, including cybercrimes, Artificial Intelligence and cryptocurrency'. This directly points to enhancing the agency's capacity to deal with new-age financial crimes. The other options are not supported by the article's content.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the ED is investigating the matter under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA). The ED is the specialized agency for enforcing PMLA. CBI investigates general crimes, NIA investigates terror offences, and FIU is an intelligence unit, not an investigative agency.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article details the allegation of fund diversion to related entities. Statement 2 is incorrect; the ED is investigating and has provisionally attached assets, but the article does not mention completion of investigation or conviction. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states homebuyers are being offered only the principal amounts paid over a decade ago, without interest.

Explanation

The article states that the ED found that out of nearly ₹14,559 crore collected by JAL and JIL from over 25,000 homebuyers, substantial amounts were diverted. ₹400 crore is the value of assets provisionally attached by ED. ₹1,455 crore and ₹25,000 crore are not mentioned.

Explanation

Mr. Bhushan explicitly stated, 'This issue keeps recurring project after project... Funds are collected from homebuyers, diverted elsewhere, and the companies eventually go into bankruptcy.' He further argued that diverted funds are 'either never identified, or not identified and brought back in time,' leaving homebuyers stranded. The other options are not the core systemic issue described.

Explanation

The Supreme Court, in its judgment, stated that the right to trauma care is an integral part of the right to life enshrined under Article 21 of the Constitution. Article 21 guarantees protection of life and personal liberty.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Court directed integration into helpline 112, not 108. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect; the curriculum is notified by the National Commission for Allied and Healthcare Professions (NCAHP), not the National Medical Commission (NMC).

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "A total of 1.77 lakh people died in road accidents in 2024, making India’s toll the highest in the world." The other figures are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

The Court's objective, as stated, is to establish "a uniform and robust system of trauma care" to reduce preventable deaths by ensuring swift and coordinated emergency response. The integration simplifies the process for citizens and improves efficiency.

Explanation

Article 324 of the Indian Constitution vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in the Election Commission of India. This was the constitutional basis cited by the Supreme Court for the ECI's authority to conduct the Special Intensive Revision.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the judgment anchored the SIR in Section 21(3) of the RP Act and Article 324. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court specifically held that deletion does NOT amount to a declaration of non-citizenship, which remains with authorities under the Citizenship Act. Statement 3 is correct as the Court gave a four-week deadline for such referrals.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'In West Bengal alone, over 90 lakh names were deleted from the draft rolls.' The figure for Tamil Nadu (nearly 74 lakh) is a close distractor. These numbers highlight the scale of potential disenfranchisement.

Explanation

The article criticizes the remedy of judicial review as being designed for citizens with resources and time, making it practically no remedy for a poor daily wage labourer who lacks legal literacy, money, and time to file a court petition.

Explanation

PRAGATI (Pro-Active Governance And Timely Implementation) is a multi-modal platform launched and chaired by the Prime Minister, making it an initiative of the PMO. It is used for reviewing projects and addressing grievances.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states seven projects worth ₹30,000 crore were reviewed. Statement 2 is incorrect; the meeting was chaired by the Prime Minister, not the Cabinet Secretary. Statement 3 is correct as the Ken-Betwa project was reviewed and set as a model.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that seven critical infrastructure projects across railways, power and road sectors covering nine States worth around ₹30,000 crore were reviewed in the meeting.

Explanation

The article states that installing solar panels along canals would help optimise land use, reduce evaporation losses, generate renewable energy and create additional economic value. The other options are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that CBAM is the European Union's policy, proposed in July 2021 and entering its definitive phase in January 2026. The other organizations, while related to trade or climate, are not the implementing body for CBAM.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article describes CBAM as a price-based, quantifiable charge. Statement 2 is incorrect; the definitive phase started on January 1, 2026, not 2025. Statement 3 is correct as preventing carbon leakage and encouraging carbon pricing are stated aims of CBAM.

Explanation

The article clearly states: "the European Union (EU)'s Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM)... entered its definitive phase from January 1, 2026." July 2021 is when it was proposed, and May 2026 is the article's publication date.

Explanation

The article explains that as major fertilizer exporters to the EU (like Egypt and Russia) face CBAM costs, they may pass these on through higher global prices. Since India is a net importer of fertilizers, its import bill is likely to increase, impacting agriculture.

Explanation

The Information Technology Act, 2000 and its subordinate rules, including the IT Rules, are administered by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). This ministry is responsible for policy and legislation related to the internet, cyber security, and information technology.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct; the article mentions the Supreme Court and Bombay High Court have disparaged such usage and imposed costs. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states the stipulated timeline for resolving personal complaints is within 36 hours, not 24 hours.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the amended IT Rules, 2026 "mandate that personal complaints filed by users must be solved within 36 hours of its filing." The other options are plausible distractors based on common regulatory timeframes.

Explanation

The article concludes that "beyond the quintessential legal and regulatory frameworks, there is a need for developing digital and AI literacy amongst the public at large." It argues that unless users can critically evaluate digital content, the problems will persist. The other options represent more extreme or less sustainable measures not advocated in the article.

Explanation

The Sample Registration System (SRS) is a demographic survey conducted by the Office of the Registrar General & Census Commissioner, India, under the Ministry of Home Affairs. It provides annual estimates of vital statistics.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct; the article states cardiovascular diseases accounted for 37.3% of deaths in the 30-69 age group. Statement 3 is incorrect; while suicide was the leading cause (19%), the percentage given (16.3%) was for the 2015-2017 period, not 2022-2024.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that NCDs were the cause of 60% of all deaths in the 2022-2024 reporting period. 52.8% was the share in 2015-2017. 56.9% was the share among women. 63.5% was the share in 'other States' (non-EAG).

Explanation

As described in the article, the 'double burden' refers to the public health challenge where chronic NCDs are becoming the dominant cause of death (epidemiological transition), while infectious (communicable) diseases continue to remain a significant problem, straining the health system.

Explanation

The National Health Authority (NHA) is the apex body responsible for implementing India's flagship public health insurance scheme, Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY. It is an attached office of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The coverage is ₹10 lakh, combining ₹5 lakh from AB PM-JAY and ₹5 lakh from the Delhi government. Statement 2 is incorrect: Out of 233 hospitals, 181 are private and 52 are government, so private hospitals are the majority. Statement 3 is incorrect: Non-VVS cards (4.81 lakh) are more than VVS cards (2.9 lakh).

Explanation

The article explicitly states that "46,963 citizens have received treatment" under the Ayushman Bharat scheme in Delhi. The other options are close distractors based on other numbers in the article (2.9 lakh, 7.72 lakh).

Explanation

The core objective of AB PM-JAY is to reduce out-of-pocket expenditure and provide financial protection during hospitalization. The Delhi implementation with ₹10 lakh cashless coverage directly serves this goal. The scheme focuses on secondary and tertiary hospitalization, not exclusively on primary care or establishing colleges.

Explanation

The Armed Forces Tribunal (AFT) is the specialized statutory body established under the Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2007, to adjudicate service matters of armed forces personnel. In this case, the retired DSC personnel first secured relief from the AFT, whose order was later upheld by the Gauhati High Court.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the article states the Centre withdrew its challenge ('not pressed'), not that it pressed the petition. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Supreme Court clarified that a second pension through DSC is a separate and independent right. Statement 3 is correct as the veteran sought condonation under Regulation 125. Hence, only statement 3 is correct, making option C invalid; the correct answer should be only statement 3, but based on the given options and correct_option 'C', the intended correct pair is 1 and 3. However, per the article, statement 1 is false. There is a contradiction in the question design. Based strictly on the article, only statement 3 is correct, which is not an option. For the purpose of this exercise and the provided options, the intended correct answer according to the schema is C.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the retired DSC personnel, Manoranjan Ozah, had a service shortfall of '10 months and two days' from the 15-year benchmark required for a second pension. The Armed Forces Tribunal directed authorities to condone this specific deficiency.

Explanation

The article concludes by stating that the judgment 'reinforces the principle that pension rules should be interpreted in a manner that advances welfare for retired servicemen rather than defeating legitimate claims on technical grounds.' This welfare-centric interpretation is the core principle established by the Supreme Court's ruling.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the reports were obtained through Freedom of Information (FOI) requests, which is described as a legal framework similar to India's RTI Act. The other options are not mentioned.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per findings from Luxembourg's inspection. Statement 2 is incorrect; a 2024 Schengen evaluation specifically noted VFS was NOT compliant with GDPR. Statement 3 is correct, detailing the 'visa shopping' practice and its impact as noted in the Luxembourg report.

Explanation

The article's second paragraph clearly states 'revelations in 150 inspection reports by European authorities covering VFS Global visa centres... from 2020-2025'. The other numbers are close distractors.

Explanation

The Swedish mission's 2025 report stated VFS must 'mention VAS services as optional and this information must be clearly visible to the applicant.' The report did not focus on pricing, authorization, or making services mandatory.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the new analysis was published in the journal 'Nature Sustainability'. This is a direct factual recall from the provided content.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the global average loss was 5.8%, not 7.7% (which was China's percentage loss). Statement 3 is correct as the article states China reduced losses by about 1.4% a year from 2013 to 2023.

Explanation

The article states that the 9.6% reduction in India's solar power generation in 2023 was equivalent to around 15 terawatt-hours (TWh). 61.3 TWh was the loss for China, and 74 TWh was the average annual loss for India between 2017-2023.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that China reduced losses by retrofitting coal plants with high-efficiency filters that curtailed sulphur dioxide and particulate emissions. Other options are not mentioned in the provided content.

Explanation

The National Testing Agency (NTA) is an autonomous body established by the Government of India to conduct entrance examinations like NEET-UG, JEE Main, and CUET. UPSC conducts civil service exams, NCERT develops curriculum, and the Ministry of Education is the policymaking body.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article's core argument is a paradigm shift from security to integrity. Statement 2 is incorrect; 'Measurement Integrity' deals with validity, reliability, and comparability of tests, not just preventing leaks. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly mentions piloting computer-adaptive testing as a reform step.

Explanation

The article states that the announcement of a retest after the NEET leak included a shift to computer-based testing by 2027. This is a specific timeline mentioned in the context of the proposed reforms.

Explanation

The article argues that a narrow security-focused approach limits the policy debate to containment (preventing leaks, cheating) and misses the broader, fundamental issues that determine credibility: the design of the exam, its measurement quality, procedures, and fairness (equity).

Explanation

The WMCC is a diplomatic mechanism involving the foreign ministries of both countries, as evidenced by the Indian delegation being led by an MEA Joint Secretary and the Chinese by a Director General from their Foreign Ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the WMCC meeting was held in Beijing. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's core agreement. Statement 3 is incorrect; the WMCC meeting involved diplomatic officials (Joint Secretary and DG), not the NSAs. The Special Representatives meeting involves the NSAs.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "The Indian delegation was led by Sujit Ghosh, Joint Secretary (East Asia) in the MEA." This is a factual data point from the news.

Explanation

The core agreement reported was the recognition that 'maintaining border peace and tranquillity enabled progress in the normalisation of overall relations' and the commitment to work on 'substantive preparation' for the next Special Representatives meeting. Other options are not mentioned as outcomes.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that scientists from the Physical Research Laboratory (PRL) used observations from Chandrayaan-2's DFSAR payload for this study. PRL is an autonomous unit of the Department of Space.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions DFSAR. Statement 2 is correct; the article states temperatures are -25K (~ -248°C) in these regions. Statement 3 is correct as the article concludes the findings have implications for ISRU. All statements are directly from the provided content.

Explanation

The article directly quotes: "where Circular Polarization Ratio (CPR) values greater than 1, together with Degree of Polarization (DOP) values lower than 0.13, indicate volumetric scattering potentially associated with subsurface ice."

Explanation

The article concludes that the findings "have significant implications for future lunar exploration missions, including identification of potential ice-bearing regions for future landing and in-situ resource utilisation (ISRU) activities." Water ice can be used for life support and producing rocket fuel, enabling long-term presence.

Explanation

As per the article, the initiative is led by the Department of Economic Affairs (DEA) in the Finance Ministry. The DEA is responsible for economic policy and budget formulation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions visits to all types of manufacturing units and externally aided projects. Statement 2 is incorrect; the aim is to gather ground-level feedback for policymaking, not tax collection. Statement 3 is correct as per the programme guidelines mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that detailed sectoral reports from the visits are to be submitted to the secretary of economic affairs within 10 days of completion. This is a specific data point for factual recall.

Explanation

The article links the need for granular insights to challenges arising from the ongoing West Asia crisis, which is driving up crude oil prices, weakening the rupee, widening the CAD, and disrupting supply chains. The other options are not mentioned as direct contextual factors in the provided article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) issued the directive on May 15, 2026. CBSE is the board that governs the affiliated schools and implements such curriculum policies.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article says the policy mandates at least two native Indian languages. Statement 2 is correct as an earlier circular from April 9, 2026, implemented the rule from Class 6 onward. Statement 3 is correct as the policy is explicitly aligned with NCFSE-2023.

Explanation

The article states, using data from The Hindu, that the figure for Sanskrit in the third-language slot rises sharply to 82.2% in Uttarakhand. 56% is the figure for Bihar, and 65.2% is for Uttar Pradesh.

Explanation

Educators like Sarika Dhave argue that learning a foreign language opens doors to critical thinking and global communication, providing career advantages. The policy's rigid domestic focus is seen as undermining this broader purpose of language acquisition and India's global partnership goals.

Explanation

The article's byline explicitly states: 'The writer is Professor, Centre for West Asian Studies, Jamia Millia Islamia, New Delhi'. This tests attention to detail regarding the source of opinion pieces.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the article's core thesis is that 'habit, not the China threat' explains the Quad's endurance. Statements 2 and 3 are correct as per the article, which details the multi-track structure and the role of practical cooperation in non-security domains for building durable habits.

Explanation

The article states: 'the cumulative effect of cooperative practice built since the grouping was revived in 2017'. The Quad was initially formed in 2007, but its revival after a hiatus occurred in 2017.

Explanation

The article argues that the Quad's 'relational substrate'—comprising habits of consultation, shared analytical frameworks, and mutual recognition—is what makes it durable. This contrasts with transactional arrangements that depend on fleeting interest alignment. The Quad is informal (not a treaty) and works on non-security issues as well.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the report is by the United Nations Human Settlements Programme (UN-Habitat). UNEP focuses on environment, UNDP on development, and ILO on labour, though the latter is mentioned in the article's historical context.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the affordability threshold is a price-to-income ratio of three, not five (ratios above five indicate severe unaffordability). Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The report notes that while more than half of new units were affordable in 2018, this declined to fewer than two out of every ten units (i.e., fewer than 20%) by 2025.

Explanation

The article states that in markets with limited supply and weak protections, increased capital flows from financialisation can lead to evictions, rent hikes, and speculative redevelopment. The other options are contrary to the report's findings.

Explanation

The article states the report was by 'the UN weather agency and the U.K.’s Met Office'. The UN weather agency is the World Meteorological Organization (WMO), a specialized UN agency for meteorology and atmospheric science.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The forecast is 1.3°C to 1.9°C above the 1850-1900 pre-industrial period, not the 1991-2020 baseline. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is correct; the article states Arctic winter temperatures will rise at 'more than 3-1/2 times the global average'.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the temperature forecast is 'above the 1850-1900 pre-industrial period'. This is the standard baseline used for measuring warming relative to pre-industrial times in climate science and the Paris Agreement.

Explanation

As explained by scientist Melissa Seabrook in the article, a temporary single-year breach does not mean the Paris Agreement has failed, as that target is based on a long-term average. However, she notes that 'as the world gets closer to that threshold, it was increasingly likely to pass it more often.'

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Kazakhstan is the world's biggest producer of uranium. This static fact is central to understanding the context of the nuclear power plant agreement.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the agreement was signed on Thursday, May 28, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect; Russia will lend around 85%, not 100%, of the cost. Statement 3 is correct as Ulken on Lake Balkhash is designated as the site.

Explanation

The article clearly states that Kazakhstan plans to have 2.4 gigawatts of nuclear capacity by 2035. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

The article states that Kazakhstan voted in a 2024 referendum in favour of constructing a nuclear power plant. This highlights the use of direct democracy for a major national infrastructure decision.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the ICAR Director General stating the rice area target. ICAR is the apex autonomous body for agricultural research and education in India. NITI Aayog is a policy think tank, the Ministry is the executive body, and FAO is a UN agency.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the IMD's first-stage forecast mentioned in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the WMO indicated a probable return of El Nino conditions, not La Nina. Statement 3 is correct as stated by the ICAR Director General. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states, "India is on track to achieve a record foodgrain production of 376.56 million tonnes in the 2025-26 crop year (July-June)." The other options are close distractors: 357.76 is last year's production (376.56 - 18.8), while 392.36 and 365 are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article directly quotes the ICAR DG: "If we have to offload 15 million hectares, redirecting that to oilseeds and pulses could make us self-reliant in those crops." While water conservation (A) is a related benefit, the stated primary objective in the news is achieving self-reliance in pulses and oilseeds.

Explanation

The National Health Accounts (NHA) estimates are prepared and released by the National Health Systems Resource Centre (NHSRC), which is the technical support institution under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as THE was ₹8,81,359 crore, amounting to 3.37% of GDP. Statement 2 is incorrect because OOPE was 49.90% of CHE, which is less than 50%. Statement 3 is incorrect as preventive care formed only 8.88% of CHE, not over 15%.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that households contributed 56.44% of the Current Health Expenditure (CHE). 43.41% is OOPE as a percentage of Total Health Expenditure, 49.90% is OOPE as a percentage of CHE, and 60% is the share of deaths due to NCDs.

Explanation

The article links low preventive spending (8.88% of CHE) with the fact that NCDs cause 60% of deaths, indicating the system is skewed towards treating illnesses rather than preventing them. This mismatch is a major policy challenge for managing the country's disease burden effectively.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 'National Health Accounts Estimates for India 2022-23' was released by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. This ministry is the nodal agency for health data and policy in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: OOPE rose to 43.4% in FY23, reversing a declining trend since 64.2% in 2013-14. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Union government's share in GHE decreased to about 36.3% from about 41.8%. Statement 3 is correct: THE as a share of GDP came down to 3.3% from 3.8%.

Explanation

The report states that the per capita OOPE increased to Rs 2,767 in 2022-23 from Rs 2,600 a year ago. Rs 6,373 and Rs 6,602 are the per capita Total Health Expenditure (THE) figures for 2022-23 and 2021-22 respectively, which are common distractors.

Explanation

As stated in the article, OOPE indicates the extent of financial protection available. A high and rising OOPE means households are paying directly for healthcare, which can lead to catastrophic health expenditure and push them into poverty. This is the core concern highlighted in the report.

Explanation

The Information Technology Act, 2000, and the rules framed under it, including the Intermediary Guidelines, fall under the administrative domain of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states the compliance window was reduced from 36 hours to 180 minutes (3 hours), not from 48 hours. Statement 2 is correct as the Sahyog Portal is mentioned. Statement 3 is correct as the article discusses treating creators as 'digital news broadcasters'.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the new 'three-hour rule', which corresponds to 180 minutes. This is the key factual data point from the amendment, reducing the time from the previous 36-hour deadline.

Explanation

The article argues that a 3-hour deadline is too short for accurate human evaluation of content legality, especially for platforms handling millions of posts. To comply and retain safe harbour protection, platforms will be forced to use automated AI filters, which are poor at understanding nuance, satire, or context, leading to over-censorship.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Working Party is 'normally chaired by a Geneva-based ambassador from a WTO member'. The Director-General and General Council Chair are not mentioned in this role, making option B the correct static fact from the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's first step. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Working Party is composed of WTO members, and 'any WTO member can join the Working Party at any stage'—it is not selected by the applicant. Statement 3 is correct, as the article states the applicant must 'inscribe WTO rules into its national legal system' and amend non-compliant laws.

Explanation

The article clearly lists the five documents: Working Party report, Goods schedule, Services schedule, Protocol of accession, and a Decision by the General Council/Ministerial Conference. This is a precise data point testable in Prelims.

Explanation

The article states: 'At the time of accession, all tariffs and commitments on goods and services are offered on the same terms to all WTO Members under the principle of Most Favoured Nation.' This defines the core non-discriminatory application of the MFN principle during accession, unlike the other options which present distortions or incorrect limitations.

Explanation

The PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana is a rooftop solar scheme aimed at promoting renewable energy, which is the core mandate of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE). MNRE is responsible for policy formulation and implementation for all new and renewable energy sources.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the mandate applies to net-metering and open-access projects commissioned after June 1. Statement 2 is correct as it accurately states the module capacity (~200 GW) and cell capacity (~30 GW). Statement 3 is incorrect because the government clarified there would be 'no blanket' relief; relaxations would be granted on a case-by-case basis.

Explanation

The article states: 'India’s annual solar module production is estimated at nearly 60–65 GW'. The ~45 GW option refers to solar capacity installations in 2025-26. ~30 GW is the domestic cell manufacturing capacity, and ~100 GW is the projected cell capacity by December 2027.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the mandate 'is aimed at reducing India’s dependence on imports and strengthening the domestic solar manufacturing ecosystem.' While consolidation and cost impacts are discussed as potential consequences, they are not the primary objectives. The policy is designed for supply chain resilience and self-reliance.

Explanation

The article mentions review meetings chaired by the Mission Director of the National Health Mission (NHM). NHM is the overarching umbrella program for healthcare system strengthening, with a major focus on reproductive, maternal, newborn, child, and adolescent health (RMNCH+A).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Sidhi's MMR was 211, while Madhya Pradesh's average was 159. Statement 2 is incorrect: Only 5 deaths occurred at the Sidhi district hospital; 16 died at a referral centre 70 km away, 13 in transit, and 13 at home. Statement 3 is correct: The review flagged anaemia as a contributing factor in 16 deaths.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "India’s maternal mortality rate... fell to 87 in the latest Sample Registration System estimates for 2022–24." The other options are distractors: 113 was the estimate for 2016-18, and 97 for 2018-20.

Explanation

The article details that the hospital has only one anaesthesiologist who works only day shifts, leaving no coverage for emergency night deliveries. This critical gap forces the hospital to refer patients needing C-sections to Rewa, which is 70 km away.

Explanation

JSSK, launched in 2011, entitles all pregnant women delivering in public health institutions to free delivery, including C-section, drugs, blood, diet, and free transport from home to institution and back. JSY provides cash incentives, while PMMVY is a maternity benefit scheme. PMSMA provides free antenatal check-ups.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states deaths occurred 'between April 2025 and March 2026'. Statement 2 is incorrect; while ambulance unavailability was cited, PMGSY is a rural roads scheme, not an ambulance scheme. The relevant ambulance service is under JSSK. Statement 3 is correct as multiple cases, like Archana Kushwaha and Beena Baiga, died of postpartum haemorrhage.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'She was among 53 women who died between April 2025 and March 2026 in the state’s Sidhi district'. The number 20 refers to the families The Indian Express spoke to, not the total deaths.

Explanation

The cases detail failures in managing childbirth complications (haemorrhage, anaemia), lack of blood for transfusion, and breakdowns in the referral chain from PHCs to higher centres. These are core components of emergency obstetric care and the referral system under the National Health Mission, not directly related to vaccination, NCDs, or food fortification.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 'CBI investigation' into the alleged leak has found specific evidence. The CBI is the premier central investigating agency for such corruption and criminal cases.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article which mentions recovery of original documents. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article says the paper was received for ₹10 lakh, not ₹5 lakh. Statement 3 is correct as it mentions retired teacher P V Kulkarni was involved in the exam process and provided Chemistry questions.

Explanation

The article clearly states that Mangilal received the leaked paper from Yash Yadav for Rs 10 lakh. The other figures are distractors: ₹5 lakh was cash recovered, and ₹3 lakh was paid per student by two other doctors.

Explanation

The article details that one method was to take possession of a candidate’s original documents which would be returned once payment was made after the exam. The other options, while possible malpractices, are not mentioned in this specific article.