29 May 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The Election Commission of India (ECI), established under Article 324 of the Constitution, is the autonomous constitutional authority responsible for superintendence, direction, and control of all electoral processes, including the revision of electoral rolls.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Supreme Court validated the SIR under Section 21(3). Statement 2 is incorrect because the Court distinguished SIR as an 'inquisitorial' exercise, not an 'adjudicatory' one. Statement 3 is correct as per the article which mentions the deletion of nearly 6.5 crore voters.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the impact of the SIR was 'a net trim of the rolls by more than 10%'. The other options are distractors not mentioned in the provided content.

Explanation

The article details the objection that requiring enrolled electors to prove eligibility afresh inverts the presumption of validity. The Court addressed this by classifying SIR as an 'inquisitorial' exercise where this presumption does not hold.

Explanation

The Supreme Court explicitly stated that "right to trauma care of citizens is an integral part of right to life enshrined under Article 21 of the Constitution." Article 21 guarantees the Right to Life and Personal Liberty.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Court directed operationalisation of helpline number '112', not '108'. Statement 2 is correct as the order was passed on a plea by the SaveLife Foundation. Statement 3 is correct as the Court directed establishing a Good Samaritan grievance redressal system.

Explanation

The article states: "all states and UTs that have not yet adopted the cashless treatment... shall take necessary steps to fully operationalise the said schemes within a period of three months." The other timeframes apply to different directives (e.g., 1 month for campaigns, 4 months for trauma registries).

Explanation

The Court stated that a robust mechanism must take a "bottom-up approach" which accounts for various stakeholders. This approach recognizes the critical role of bystanders (Good Samaritans), first responders, ambulance services, and hospitals in the chain of survival, aiming to integrate them systematically.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the Competition Commission of India (CCI) as the competition regulator whose order was set aside by the Supreme Court. The CCI is established under the Competition Act, 2002.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court concluded the CCI acted outside its statutory authority. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Court said fair treatment means equal treatment, not special treatment.

Explanation

The article states: "Amazon's 2019 investment of ₹1,431 crore in Future Coupons." ₹202 crore is the penalty amount, a close distractor.

Explanation

The Court explicitly stated the Act "promotes as well as protects" and is enacted to prevent adverse effects on competition, promote/sustain competition, protect consumers, and ensure freedom of trade. It criticized viewing the Act as purely punitive.

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), as the central bank, publishes its Annual Report which reviews the economy and provides projections. NITI Aayog focuses on policy, the Finance Ministry presents the Budget, and the IMF is an international agency.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The RBI projects 6.9% GDP growth with risks tilted to the downside, not upside. Statement 2 is correct as the report mentions labour codes supporting labour markets. Statement 3 is correct as the report says positive IOD may offset El Niño impacts.

Explanation

The RBI's Annual Report explicitly states, "CPI inflation for 2026-27 is projected at 4.6% with risks tilted to the upside." The other figures are close distractors based on other reports or past trends.

Explanation

The report emphasizes that India's growth prospects are supported by strong macroeconomic fundamentals, including robust domestic demand and relatively lower dependence on exports. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as the report highlights lower export dependence, continued government capex thrust, and a robust outlook for services exports.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the RBI's Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) will announce the new interest rate policy on June 5. The MPC is a statutory committee established under the RBI Act for inflation targeting.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the report identifies the West Asia conflict as the 'dominant drag on global growth', not a minor factor, and specifies it began in 'end-February 2026', not early 2026. Statement 3 is correct as stated in the report.

Explanation

The article clearly states: "CPI inflation for 2026-27 is projected at 4.6% with risks tilted to the upside." The other options are close distractors often seen in economic forecasts.

Explanation

The article states: "the Indian economy exhibited resilience in 2025-26, amidst several external headwinds, supported by strong private consumption, sustained investment and sound macroeconomic fundamentals." The other options, while potentially beneficial, are not highlighted as the primary reasons for resilience in this report.

Explanation

The National Testing Agency (NTA) is an autonomous body established by the Government of India that operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Education. It is responsible for conducting various national-level entrance examinations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Supreme Court explicitly stated the leaks were traumatic "not just for students, but for their families too." Statement 2 is correct as the Bench directed the Centre, through the Ministry of Education, to file an affidavit within six weeks. Statement 3 is correct as the Court observed that one key problem facing institutions like NTA is ad-hocism and a chronic lack of institutional memory.

Explanation

The Supreme Court, in its observations, specifically mentioned that the "NEET-UG 2024 and 2026 paper leaks had left students and their families traumatised." The article also notes the cancellation of NEET-UG 2026, which was conducted on May 3.

Explanation

While CBT offers other benefits, the primary objective in this context, as part of the corrective measures following paper leaks, is to enhance security. The transition aims to prevent leaks by moving away from the vulnerable pen-and-paper mode, which involves physical printing, transport, and storage of question papers—key points of failure identified in the leaks.

Explanation

The article repeatedly mentions DRDO as the key organization funding laboratories in IITs/IISc, establishing DIA-CoEs, and receiving a portion of the defence budget for R&D. It is the nodal agency for military R&D under the Ministry of Defence.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The article states India's GERD remains below 0.7% of GDP. Statement 2 is correct: Defence Minister Rajnath Singh announced this in 2022. Statement 3 is correct: The article specifies that under iDEX, PRIME grants can provide up to ₹10 crore.

Explanation

The article lists a steady increase in government allocations for defence R&D: ₹21,330 crore (2022-23), ₹23,263 crore (2023-24), ₹23,855 crore (2024-25), and ₹26,816 crore (2025-26). The other options are allocations for previous years.

Explanation

The article states that DIA-CoEs aim to 'bridge the gap between academic research and deployable military systems while supporting research in advanced technology domains.' This addresses the core 'prototype problem' of moving from lab research to operational use.

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is India's central bank and is responsible for compiling and publishing the country's Balance of Payments (BoP) data, as mentioned in the article which cites the 'RBI’s annual report for 2025-26'.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the BoP deficit was $30.8 billion. Statement 2 is incorrect; the deficit was financed by the RBI's foreign exchange reserves, not the government's fiscal reserves. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the CAD came in at a three-year high of $30.2 billion.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'India’s overall merchandise trade deficit ... stood $251.6 billion in 2025-26'. $286.9 billion was the figure for the previous year (2024-25), making it a close distractor.

Explanation

The article connects the BoP deficit data to recent policy actions, stating that a large part of dollar outflows goes to pay for gold imports, and thus the government hiked import duty to 15% to stem these outflows and address the widening Current Account Deficit.

Explanation

The data is from the 'RBI Annual Report for 2025-26' as explicitly mentioned in the article. The RBI is the central banking institution responsible for such reports on the banking sector.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: Cases fell to 10,114 in FY26 from 23,722 in FY25. Statement 2 is correct: The article states 'frauds were concentrated in the advances category'. Statement 3 is incorrect: The amount for PSBs rose sharply to ₹35,709 crore in FY26 from ₹23,617 crore in FY25.

Explanation

The article states: 'The amount involved in frauds at private banks stood at ₹11,399 crore in 2025-26'. ₹8,927 crore is the figure for FY25, ₹23,617 crore is for PSBs in FY25, and ₹2,667 crore is for private banks in FY24.

Explanation

The article states the platform 'facilitates cyber drill exercises based on simulated scenarios... thereby strengthening sectoral preparedness, response capabilities, and resilience.' It is a training and preparedness tool, not an investigative, lending, or customer data repository body.

Explanation

The article mentions that the August 23, 2010 notification was issued by the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE). NCTE is the statutory body established by the NCTE Act, 1993, to regulate teacher education in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article, which states the 2025 order held the RTE Act applies to all minority institutions. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Court explicitly stated subordinate legislation (like the NCTE notification) cannot override the parent statute. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Court extended the deadline to August 31, 2028, not 2027.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Supreme Court, while dismissing the review petitions, extended the time for TET qualification for in-service teachers till August 31, 2028. The original deadline set in the 2025 order was August 31, 2027.

Explanation

The Court's judgment is fundamentally child-centric. It reiterated that TET is a 'constitutional necessity flowing from the right to quality education under Article 21A' and that 'service of teachers cannot come at the cost of the educational future of children'. This was the core principle overriding other considerations.

Explanation

As per the article, the Supreme Court Collegium recommended the elevation of judges. The Collegium system, comprising the CJI and senior judges, is the body responsible for recommending appointments to the higher judiciary in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the ordinance increased strength from 34 to 38. Statement 2 is incorrect because the problem is the 'expansive' or excessive use of Article 136, not restrictive use. Statement 3 is correct as the NJDG pendency figure is 93,966 cases (over 90,000).

Explanation

The article explicitly states that pendency before the Supreme Court currently stands at 93,966 cases, which is approximately 94,000 cases. The other options are distractors close to this figure.

Explanation

The article highlights that the absence of meaningful guidelines for the discretionary use of Article 136 (Special Leave Petitions) has contributed to case accumulation. Experts suggest developing a robust filtering mechanism and clear guidelines as a key reform to manage the inflow of cases.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the 'DST Task Force report', where DST stands for the Department of Science & Technology. This department is responsible for promoting science and technology in the country.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states that symmetric cryptography (AES) is 'less threatened', and the existential exposure is concentrated in public-key infrastructure. Statements 2 and 3 are directly mentioned in the article as key recommendations and projections of the report.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that for India, the transition 'means a new budgetary allocation of at least ₹5,000 crore'. This is a concrete data point from the report.

Explanation

The article highlights the 'shorter-term problem' where adversaries can harvest encrypted data today and decrypt it later using future quantum computers. This 'harvest now, decrypt later' threat creates immediate urgency for adopting PQC, independent of the exact 'Q-Day' timeline.

Explanation

As stated in the article, the term 'brinkmanship' was coined by Western political scientists in the 1950s and 1960s while analyzing crises such as the Berlin Blockade and the Cuban Missile Crisis. These events epitomized pushing a conflict to the brink of disaster.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as it is the exact definition provided in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article clearly states brinkmanship is a 'legacy of the Cold War era' and was coined in the 1950s-60s. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly says 'Terrorism has emerged as a principal instrument of brinkmanship'.

Explanation

The article categorizes the Hamas attack as an example of 'proxy brinkmanship', which it describes as a brand of asymmetric brinkmanship engaged in by actors like Pakistan and Iran against stronger powers, using proxies designated as terrorist outfits.

Explanation

The article's core argument is that the growing reliance on brinkmanship 'threatens an already fragile global order'. It concludes that diplomacy is no longer the preferred choice, and brinkmanship risks escalation spiraling out of control, making option C the most accurate reflection of the primary concern.

Explanation

Article 48 of the Directive Principles of State Policy directs the State to take steps for prohibiting the slaughter of cows, calves, and other milch and draught cattle. This is the constitutional basis cited in the article for various state laws on cow protection.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states 'Over 20 States in India have laws prohibiting cow slaughter.' Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clearly states the Supreme Court in Mohd. Hanif Quareshi vs State of Bihar (1958) held that cow slaughter on Bakr-Eid is NOT an essential Islamic practice. Statement 3 is correct as the data shows cow population grew by 49.63% while buffalo population grew by 153.8% since 1951.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'since 1951, the cow population in the country has grown by only 49.63%.' The figure 153.8% is the growth rate for the buffalo population, making it a close distractor. The other options are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article's core economic analysis states that these laws 'penalise... farmers themselves' by removing a source of income. It contrasts West Bengal, where farmers earned from legal sales, with prohibition states where such sales are illegal and likely yield lower returns. While fodder scarcity is mentioned as a related issue, it is not the primary economic argument against the laws.

Explanation

The article clearly states the judgment was delivered by the Calcutta High Court, specifically by Justice Ananya Bandyopadhyay.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the HC set aside the 7-year RI. Statement 2 is incorrect; the court actually said such delay CANNOT be evaluated by a clinical stopwatch. Statement 3 is correct as per the court's observation quoted in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the Calcutta High Court set aside the 'seven-year rigorous imprisonment sentence' awarded by the trial court.

Explanation

The judgment notes that the prosecution 'failed to establish the foundational parameters of a violation... beyond a reasonable doubt' and that the appellant was granted 'the full, unvarnished benefit of reasonable doubt.'

Explanation

The article clearly states that leaders of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) will meet with President Putin. ASEAN is the relevant regional bloc in this context.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the summit in Kazan on those dates. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states Myanmar's leader will likely not be allowed to attend due to ASEAN's sanctions post the 2021 coup. Statement 3 is correct as a Philippine government official confirmed President Marcos Jr.'s attendance.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the summit is scheduled for June 17-18, 2026, in Kazan, Russia. This is a key factual data point from the news.

Explanation

The article highlights that while most ASEAN members condemned Russia's invasion at the UN, the bloc maintains dialogue. This reflects ASEAN's core diplomatic principle of strategic autonomy, avoiding alignment with any single power bloc and engaging with multiple partners to safeguard its own interests.

Explanation

Article 21 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to life and personal liberty. The Supreme Court has interpreted this to include the right to a speedy trial. The recent directive setting deadlines for judgment pronouncement aims to enforce this very right and prevent its denial through inordinate delays.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Supreme Court set a deadline of three months, not six months, for High Courts to pronounce judgments. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Court ordered reasons to be uploaded within one week, not one month.

Explanation

The Supreme Court specifically set a three-month deadline for High Courts to pronounce judgment from the date a case is reserved. The conventional 'reasonable time' was 2-6 months, but the Court has now made the 3-month timeline binding.

Explanation

The Supreme Court stated that if a Bench does not follow the binding guidelines, the case would be allocated to another Bench. This internal administrative measure is the primary enforcement tool specified in the directive to ensure compliance with the 3-month deadline.

Explanation

Article 324 of the Constitution vests the superintendence, direction, and control of the conduct of elections, including the preparation of electoral rolls, in the Election Commission of India. Articles 325-329 deal with other aspects of elections like non-discrimination, adult suffrage, and Parliament's power to make laws.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Supreme Court rejected the narrow interpretation and held that the EC is empowered to conduct SIR for 'many' or 'all' constituencies in a state. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Court ruled that inclusion gives rise to a presumption of validity but does not impose a blanket prohibition on the EC's SIR power. Statement 3 is correct as per the article, which states that deletions on citizenship grounds should be referred to the competent authority under the Citizenship Act.

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, the petitioners argued that Rule 21A of the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960, mandates that no name already entered in the electoral roll can be deleted without prior notice to the elector concerned and an opportunity of hearing. This rule is a key procedural safeguard for voters.

Explanation

The article states that the Court held the SIR exercise is traceable to Section 21(3) read with Article 324 of the Constitution to fulfil the constitutional requirement of free and fair elections. The other options are not supported by the content of the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that IN-SPACe is the single-window agency for all space sector activities of private entities in the country and is taking the initiative for PSLV technology transfer. ISRO is the research body, DoS is the parent ministry, and DRDO is focused on defence.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as Mission Drishti is described as the world's first OptoSAR satellite. Statement 2 is incorrect because Pixxel's contract is with the US National Reconnaissance Office (NRO), not NASA. Statement 3 is correct as Skyroot raised $60 million at a $1.1 billion valuation to become India's first space-tech unicorn.

Explanation

The article clearly states that Skyroot Aerospace raised $60 million at a valuation of $1.1 billion to become India's first space-tech unicorn. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

The article states that IN-SPACe's initiative is for 'end-to-end realisation, operation and commercialisation of the launch vehicle by a suitable private Indian industry.' This aligns with the broader policy goal of fostering a competitive private space industry, not merely outsourcing ISRO's work or phasing out PSLV.

Explanation

The article states that from SEBI's perspective, the primary constituency is shareholders, investors, stock exchanges, and the securities market. RBI's framework, in contrast, focuses on depositors and financial stability.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the article states RBI had NO material concerns. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's mention of allegations. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article questions the adequacy of the current compartmentalised architecture.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that HDFC Bank is a bank with nearly 12 crore account holders. This is a direct factual recall from the provided content.

Explanation

The article's central argument is that institutions like HDFC Bank have become complex ecosystems spanning multiple financial sectors, but regulation remains compartmentalised (RBI for banking, SEBI for markets), creating potential supervisory gaps.

Explanation

The article states the Abraham Accords were 'presented by the US as a framework' and were 'Introduced during Trump's first term'. The US is the primary broker and facilitator of these agreements.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's definition. Statement 2 is incorrect; the accords were introduced during Trump's first term in 2020. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article explicitly states Saudi Arabia has NOT signed the accords and maintains preconditions for doing so.

Explanation

The article states: 'A poll by the Pew Center on May 1 reported that 62% of Americans surveyed disapprove of Trump’s handling of the military action against Iran.' 61% is the figure from March, 51% relates to perception of success, and 45% is the April figure for the Gallup index.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'Saudi Arabia has not signed the accords, maintaining that Israel must end its war on Gaza and assent to a two-state solution with an “irreversible, credible, and time-bound path” to an independent Palestinian state.'

Explanation

The article explicitly states the court cited the 1854 Macaulay Committee report. The Kothari Commission (1964-66) was on education, and the Mudaliar Commission (1952-53) was on secondary education. The Santhanam Committee (1962) was on prevention of corruption.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court set aside the regularisation. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clearly states "Regularisation cannot be claimed as a matter of right." Statement 3 is correct as the court noted the state's shift in policy to mandate TRB-conducted exams.

Explanation

The article states: "In 2020, the state government issued an order proposing to regularise 1,146 guest lecturers..." The other numbers are not mentioned.

Explanation

The court's insistence on a transparent, merit-based competitive process directly upholds Article 16 of the Constitution, which guarantees equality of opportunity in matters of public employment. While education is a Directive Principle (Article 45), the core legal issue here is the method of appointment to public posts.

Explanation

As stated in the article, the India Meteorological Department (IMD) puts out the rainfall forecast for the monsoon season. While MoES is the parent ministry, the operational forecasting is done by IMD.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clearly states the LPA baseline is the 50-year period 1971-2020. Statement 3 is directly mentioned in the article. Therefore, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the IMD's downward revision forecasts the country to receive rains that are only 90 per cent of the long period average. The 92% figure was the initial April forecast.

Explanation

The article states the downward revision was prompted by an improved assessment of the emerging El Nino and the Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD). It clarifies that El Nino suppresses rainfall and the IOD is now expected to remain neutral, failing to counter El Nino's effect.

Explanation

The article quotes Ashutosh A.T. Pednekar, Joint Secretary and Director General of Labour Welfare, Ministry of Labour and Employment, discussing the operationalisation of the Code on Social Security. Labour laws and social security fall under the mandate of this ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the Code was notified on May 8. Statement 2 is incorrect; it reverses the numbers. The current number is ~1 crore, projected to reach 2.5 crore. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the June 22 deadline for updating details on the e-Shram portal.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the potential is to reach around 2.5 crore workers by the end of the decade. The current number is 1 crore, making 2.5 crore the correct projection.

Explanation

The article quotes the official saying the e-Shram portal has the potential to change 'the way benefits are given to workers, along with the portability of benefits, which is a challenge worldwide.' The other options are not mentioned as primary aims in the provided content.

Explanation

All Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs), including the BSF, are under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). The Ministry of Defence controls the Army, Navy, and Air Force.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the work is 70% complete, not fully completed. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the project entails an investment of thousands of crores.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "the ongoing work to secure the vulnerable sections of the Harami Nala and Sir Creek areas... was almost 70% complete." The other options are plausible distractors.

Explanation

The article states the new paradigm 'will involve the participation of the general public, civil administration, local police, and the military.' It is meant to complement, not replace, traditional border security and applies to land borders.

Explanation

The article mentions the IMD bulletin. The India Meteorological Department (IMD) is the principal agency responsible for meteorological observations and forecasts and functions under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the NGT directed responses to be filed *before* the next hearing date. Statement 3 is incorrect as the order explicitly calls for distinguishing between urban and rural conditions and region-specific strategies.

Explanation

The article directly quotes the NGT Bench stating, "the highest temperature recorded at 48°C in Banda, Uttar Pradesh." The other options are plausible distractors for other heatwave-affected regions.

Explanation

The article states the NGT requires responses "to have a short-term and long-term adaptation strategy" and highlights the need for "area-specific microplanning." The other options are either punitive, constitutional, or specific measures not mentioned as the primary objective.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the High-Powered Steering Committee is headed by former ISRO chairman K Radhakrishnan. This is a direct factual recall from the news content.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The exam was conducted at 5,432 centres in India and 14 abroad. Statement 2 is incorrect: The exam was conducted on May 3, but inputs of malpractice were received on May 7, and it was cancelled later, on May 12. Statement 3 is correct as per the detailed security measures listed in the affidavit.

Explanation

The article provides the exact figure: 'Approximately 1.85 lakh CCTV cameras were deployed across examination halls, strong rooms, biometric counters, entry gates and corridors.' The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The NTA's defence, as per the article, is that it cancelled the exam after 'receiving inputs of alleged malpractice just days after the examination'. The other options are not mentioned as reasons in the provided content.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Ministry of External Affairs' (MEA) official spokesperson, Randhir Jaiswal, provided the details of the visit. The MEA is the nodal ministry for managing India's foreign relations and diplomatic engagements.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect: the border length is over 1,643 km and the bordering states are Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, and Mizoram (Assam is not mentioned). Statement 3 is correct as per the MEA announcement. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that India shares a long land border of over 1643 kms with Myanmar. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that the 1,643-km land border and maritime boundary with Myanmar makes engagement crucial for security and defence domains. While other options are mentioned as aspects of the visit (Bodh Gaya tourism, business forum), the core strategic imperative, as stated by officials, is border security.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar defined India's approach as 'multi-alignment'. This is a key concept in contemporary Indian foreign policy discourse.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Dennis Kux termed them 'estranged democracies' during the Cold War. Statement 2 is correct: The Civil Nuclear Agreement authored by Bush and Singh converted them to 'engaged democracies'. Statement 3 is incorrect: The article states Trump downgraded the strategic partnership to a 'purely transactional relationship', not less transactional.

Explanation

The article states: 'Barely two years ago... India has slipped back to the sixth rank.' This is a specific data point highlighting the impact of domestic and global developments on India's economic standing.

Explanation

The article explains that the diaspora, especially second- and third-generation immigrants, have become part of MAGA and are 'non-returning Indians', which limits their role in 'making India great'. This reflects a deeper integration into the US socio-political fabric.

Explanation

The article mentions that Petroleum Ministry Joint Secretary Sujata Sharma made the announcement. The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas is the nodal ministry for policies related to petroleum products, natural gas, and refineries in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states 'India depends on imports to meet about 60% of its LPG consumption'. Statement 2 is correct: 'India’s LPG consumption stood at about 90,000 tonnes a day before the war'. Statement 3 is correct: 'the Strait of Hormuz effectively saw the movement of around 54% of India’s LPG consumption'.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'LPG consumption has declined to about 72,000 tonnes a day, according to Petroleum Ministry estimates.' The figure of 90,000 tonnes was the pre-war consumption level, making it a key distractor.

Explanation

The article's core theme is the supply squeeze due to the West Asia war and the closure of the Strait of Hormuz. The directive for 30-day reserves is a direct response to this crisis, aiming to create a buffer against future supply disruptions, which is a fundamental aspect of energy security.

Explanation

As per the affidavit, the High-Powered Steering Committee (HPSC) is headed by former ISRO chairman K. Radhakrishnan. This committee was constituted by the Ministry of Education to monitor the implementation of examination reforms.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the affidavit explicitly states the 85% AI translation target. Statement 2 is incorrect; the affidavit notes that NEET-UG 2026 was conducted in Pen & Paper Test (PPT) mode, with a transition to CBT planned for the future. Statement 3 is correct as the article details a five-tier monitoring structure involving NTA observers, district committees, HEI hubs, and control rooms.

Explanation

The article specifies that one of the security measures was the preservation of CCTV footage 'for at least 90 days'. This is a specific data point from the 'elaborate set of measures' recommended by the HPSC.

Explanation

The affidavit directly states the objective is to 'minimise human intervention…and lower the probability of any security compromise'. This is a direct response to the paper leak where human translators were implicated. While other options might be secondary benefits, the stated primary goal is security enhancement.

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, 'Prison and prison administration fall under the State List of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.' This is a fundamental static GK fact for Polity.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: Furlough, not parole, is seen as a matter of right. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect: The article states prisoners under UAPA are NOT eligible for parole.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Haryana Act provides for a maximum release of 91 days collectively for parole and furlough. This is a precise data point from the news.

Explanation

The article states that furlough 'is seen as a matter of right for a prisoner, to be granted periodically irrespective of any reason, and merely to enable the prisoner to retain family and social ties.' Parole, in contrast, is granted for specific reasons.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Supreme Court set aside SEBI's March 2017 order. SEBI is the statutory regulator for the securities market in India, making it the correct answer.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the Court set aside the disgorgement order. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Court set aside SAT's finding of fraud, calling it an 'egregious error'. Statement 3 is correct as the Court ordered the return of the ₹250 crore deposit. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article specifies that RIL realized ₹4500 crore from the cash segment and ₹513 crore from the futures segment, totaling ₹5013 crore. ₹87,000 crore was the target fundraise, not the amount realized from the specific share sale in question.

Explanation

The Court concluded that SAT committed an 'egregious error' on the question of fraud under Regulations 3 and 4 of the PFUTP Regulations. The judgment focused on the legal interpretation of fraud, not on jurisdiction, delay, or sufficiency of evidence regarding price manipulation.

Explanation

The news article is based on the 'Reserve Bank of India’s Annual Report'. The RBI, as India's central bank, is responsible for regulating the banking sector and publishing such reports.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states a 46% rise to ₹48,021 crore. Statement 2 is incorrect because PSBs accounted for ₹35,709 crore, which is higher than the ₹11,399 crore for private banks. Statement 3 is incorrect as frauds in cards/digital payments fell sharply to ₹29 crore from ₹517 crore.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Amount involved in advances of banks shot up to Rs 40,774 crore in 8,640 fraud cases.' ₹48,021 crore is the total fraud amount across all categories, and ₹32,803 crore is the total for the previous year (FY25).

Explanation

The article defines a kill switch as 'a mechanism that allows a system, device, account, or service to be shut down, disabled or blocked immediately in an emergency' and states it would help 'controlling frauds in digital payment transactions' by blocking debits.

Explanation

The NIA was created as a federal agency by the National Investigation Agency Act, 2008, following the 2008 Mumbai attacks. The UAPA is the substantive law it often enforces, but the agency itself is constituted under its own 2008 Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the SC said states may set up dedicated NIA courts if more than 10 cases were pending. Statement 2 is correct as the SC expected 'one NIA case is concluded in a month' with day-to-day hearings. Statement 3 is incorrect: the order states that where trials exceed 25, three courts will be set up, not two.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'There are 43 NIA cases pending before the court being tried under the UAPA.' The figure of 81 cases includes both the 43 UAPA cases and 38 other non-NIA cases. The figure of 25 is the threshold for setting up three courts.

Explanation

The article details that in seven UAPA cases with 87 accused, Judge Sharma is hearing arguments afresh after previous judges were transferred. This 'prolongs the process especially in complex cases' and, given the difficulty of bail under UAPA, leads to longer undertrial incarceration.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'It is because of the emerging El Niño that the India Meteorological Department (IMD) has forecast below-normal rainfall for the upcoming June-September monsoon season.' NOAA and CPC are US agencies tracking the Pacific Ocean.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's definition. Statement 2 is incorrect; the 2022 heat coincided with a La Niña phase. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article emphasizes the relationship is 'probabilistic and not deterministic' and that 'there is no one-to-one correlation'.

Explanation

The article states: 'Past records, however, show that monsoon rainfall has remained below normal during an El Niño year in 70% of the instances.' The other percentages are close distractors not mentioned.

Explanation

The article directly links the forecast to El Niño: 'It is because of the emerging El Niño that the India Meteorological Department (IMD) has forecast below-normal rainfall...' The heat dome and urban heat island are factors for European/Indian heatwaves, not the monsoon forecast. Climate whiplash is a broader trend.

Explanation

The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) is the nodal agency for India's foreign policy and diplomatic relations, including its complex engagement with West Asian nations like Israel, Gulf countries, and Iran.

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct as per the article's description of the security-oriented West Asia (Israel) and the economic/human West Asia (Gulf). Statement 3 is incorrect because the article highlights Iran's importance for geographic access via Chabahar port and routes to Afghanistan/Central Asia, not primarily as a source of cheap oil.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that West Asia enters India through impacts on 'oil and fertiliser prices, pressure on foreign exchange reserves, a weaker rupee and anxious families.' Oil price volatility is the most direct and significant economic transmission channel.

Explanation

The article argues that India's policy is driven by pragmatic interest-protection. It aims to 'preserve access rather than spend it on a louder line' and success is judged by the ability to 'protect its interests, keep channels open.' This underscores a multi-vector approach over alignment with any single power or moral stance.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) reports that Iran currently possesses 440.9 kilograms of uranium enriched to 60% purity..." The IAEA is the global nuclear watchdog responsible for monitoring nuclear programs.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article clarifies the deal is a tentative 'memorandum of understanding (MoU)' and that President Trump "has yet to approve the deal" and "is yet to respond positively." Statement 2 is correct: the article says Iran commits "to relinquish its stockpile of highly enriched uranium." Statement 3 is correct: "The Strait of Hormuz will gradually reopen as the U.S. lifts its blockade."

Explanation

The article provides a specific data point: "The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) reports that Iran currently possesses 440.9 kilograms of uranium enriched to 60% purity." The 90% option is a distractor as it represents weapons-grade level, which the article mentions is a "short technical step away."

Explanation

The article states the Strait of Hormuz carried "about 20% of the world's oil supply daily" and its closure "disrupted the global oil market" and drove gas prices high. Reopening it would reverse this disruption, easing supply constraints and likely lowering oil prices. While fertilizer production was affected, it's not the primary economic implication.