31 May 2026, Questions & Answers
100 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
100 questions · 0 topics covered · 20 min revision
Start Interactive Quiz →
This page contains 100 current affairs questions with answers from 31 May 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
Use this page for:
- Daily revision
- Prelims preparation
- Quick self-assessment
- Mains answer enrichment
Want to test yourself first? Try the interactive quiz before checking answers.
Take the 31 May 2026 Quiz →31 May 2026, Questions with Answers
100 QsThe Strait of Hormuz connects which two larger bodies of water?
- A.Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman✓ Correct Answer
- B.Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea
- C.Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal
- D.Gulf of Aden and Indian Ocean
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
As stated in the article, the Strait of Hormuz is the narrow corridor connecting the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman, which then joins the Arabian Sea. This is a fundamental geographic fact.
Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Hormuz:
1. At its narrowest point, it is 33 km wide, falling within the overlapping territorial waters of Iran and Oman.
2. Before the 2026 conflict, approximately 25% of the world's seaborne oil passed through it daily.
3. All eight major islands in the strait are controlled and administered by Iran.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct: 25% of seaborne oil passed through. Statement 3 is incorrect: There are eight major islands, Iran controls seven; the ownership of Abu Musa and the Tunbs is contested with the UAE, though Iran controls them de facto.
According to the article, what was the approximate daily volume of oil and oil products passing through the Strait of Hormuz in 2025?
- A.15 million barrels
- B.18 million barrels
- C.20 million barrels✓ Correct Answer
- D.22 million barrels
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article cites the U.S. Energy Information Administration stating that in 2025 alone, 20 million barrels of oil and oil products passed through the Strait of Hormuz every day. This is a key data point for prelims.
What was Iran's primary strategic objective in taking control of the Strait of Hormuz following the US-Israeli attack?
- A.To permanently annex Omani territory
- B.To launch a direct naval invasion of Gulf Arab states
- C.To weaponize the global economy and impose disproportionate costs through asymmetric warfare✓ Correct Answer
- D.To seize control of all oil fields in the Persian Gulf region
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article frames Iran's action as a use of asymmetric warfare. By closing the chokepoint with cheap, disruptive weapons, Iran aimed to inflict severe economic pain (rising fuel prices, insurance costs) on the global economy, thereby leveraging its geographic advantage against conventionally superior adversaries.
Which committee is responsible for setting the repo rate in India?
- A.Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC)
- B.Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of RBI✓ Correct Answer
- C.Central Board of Directors of RBI
- D.Standing Committee on Finance
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is a statutory committee constituted under the RBI Act to determine the interest rate (repo rate) to achieve the inflation target. The article explicitly mentions the MPC's upcoming meeting on June 5.
Consider the following statements regarding the economic scenario discussed in the article:
1. The RBI has kept the repo rate unchanged at 5.25% since its April policy review.
2. Headline CPI inflation in April 2026 was 3.48%, which is above the RBI's medium-term target of 4%.
3. The West Asia conflict is expected to have a direct impact of around 35 basis points on headline CPI inflation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as mentioned: 'The RBI had kept the main policy instrument, the repo rate... unchanged at 5.25% in the April policy review.' Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states CPI inflation at 3.48% is 'below the RBI's 4 per cent medium-term target.' Statement 3 is correct as per the article: 'The cumulative increase... is estimated to have a direct impact of around 35 bps on headline CPI inflation.'
According to the article, what was the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) inflation rate for April 2026?
- A.3.48%
- B.4.0%
- C.5.25%
- D.8.3%✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'High WPI inflation in April, at 8.3%, increases the risk of faster pass-through to consumers.' CPI inflation was 3.48% and the repo rate is 5.25%, making the other options close but incorrect distractors.
What is the primary reason cited in the article for the RBI MPC likely deferring a rate hike in its June meeting?
- A.To aggressively combat rising core inflation
- B.To support economic growth which is below potential and faces external risks✓ Correct Answer
- C.To align with the recent rate hikes by the US Federal Reserve
- D.To reduce the fiscal deficit by tightening monetary policy
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article emphasizes that growth 'is expected to remain below the economy's estimated potential growth rate of 7 per cent' and that 'growth continues to require policy support.' It also states core inflation is benign (2.1%), ruling out aggressive tightening. The US Fed held rates, and monetary policy is not directly used to reduce fiscal deficit.
The Supreme Court judgment clarified the application of the POCSO Act alongside which other two laws in cases of trafficking for Commercial Sexual Exploitation?
- A.Indian Penal Code (IPC) and Juvenile Justice Act
- B.Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) and Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act✓ Correct Answer
- C.Code of Criminal Procedure and Indian Evidence Act
- D.Information Technology Act and Child Labour Act
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that when the victim is a child, provisions of the POCSO Act may apply alongside Sections 143 and 144 of the BNS and/or the provisions of the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act (ITPA).
Consider the following statements regarding the recent Supreme Court judgment on trafficking:
1. The consent of an adult victim to intended exploitation is irrelevant if means like coercion or deception are used.
2. The POCSO Act applies only if the child victim did not consent to the sexual exploitation.
3. Article 23 of the Constitution, which prohibits trafficking, is enforceable only against the State and not private individuals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Court held that a child's consent is irrelevant regardless of means used. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article states Article 23 is enforceable against private individuals as well.
The Supreme Court Bench that delivered the judgment on the applicability of the POCSO Act in trafficking cases comprised which Justices?
- A.Justices D.Y. Chandrachud and Hima Kohli
- B.Justices Sanjay Kishan Kaul and S. Ravindra Bhat
- C.Justices J.B. Pardiwala and R. Mahadevan✓ Correct Answer
- D.Justices K.M. Joseph and B.V. Nagarathna
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article clearly mentions that the Bench delivering the judgment consisted of Justices J.B. Pardiwala and R. Mahadevan. The other options are names of other Supreme Court judges not mentioned in the context.
According to the Supreme Court judgment, what is the primary implication of applying the POCSO Act to cases of child trafficking for Commercial Sexual Exploitation?
- A.It reduces the burden of proof on the prosecution.
- B.It mandates a more sensitive and child-protective procedure for investigation and trial.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It automatically increases the minimum punishment for the trafficker.
- D.It transfers the jurisdiction of such cases exclusively to Juvenile Justice Boards.
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states that once the POCSO Act applies, procedures for reporting, recording the victim's statement, and medical examination are governed by its specific provisions, which are designed to be more sensitive and protective of the child's interests.
Under which ministry does the Online Gaming Authority of India (OGAI) operate?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Home Affairs
- D.Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
As per the article, OGAI is a unified regulator under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), with its Chairperson being an Additional Secretary of MeitY.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court verdict on GST for online gaming:
1. The Court upheld the constitutional validity of a retrospective 18% GST levy.
2. The Court treated the 2023 GST amendments as clarificatory, allowing retrospective application.
3. The verdict revives tax demands of nearly ₹2.5 lakh crore against gaming companies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the GST rate upheld was 28%, not 18%. Statement 2 is correct as the article states the court treated the amendments as clarificatory. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the verdict revives tax demands of nearly ₹2.5 lakh crore.
According to the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act, 2025, what is the maximum jail term for a repeat offender offering an online money gaming service?
- A.One year
- B.Three years
- C.Five years✓ Correct Answer
- D.Seven years
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that for repeat offences under the Act, the jail term can extend to five years (and the fine to Rs 2 crore). The maximum for a first-time offender is three years.
What was the primary legal reasoning that allowed the government to apply the 28% GST levy retrospectively on online gaming companies?
- A.The Supreme Court deemed the sector's profits to be excessively high.
- B.The 2023 GST amendments were treated as introducing a completely new tax.
- C.The 2023 GST amendments were interpreted as clarificatory of existing law.✓ Correct Answer
- D.The companies had voluntarily agreed to pay back taxes.
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The core of the dispute and the Court's verdict, as per the article, was that the government's interpretation prevailed, and the 2023 amendments were treated as 'clarificatory'. This legal characterization is what permits retrospective application, as it suggests the law was always meant to be read that way.
Under which Article of the Constitution is the Election Commission of India established?
- A.Article 323
- B.Article 324✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 325
- D.Article 326
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The Election Commission of India, a permanent constitutional body, is established under Article 324 of the Constitution. It is vested with the superintendence, direction, and control of elections.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's judgment on the Special Intensive Revision (SIR):
1. The Supreme Court upheld the Election Commission's power to conduct SIR under Section 16 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950.
2. The judgment stated that exclusion of a person from the electoral roll by the ECI is equivalent to a declaration of that person being a non-citizen.
3. The court directed that cases of doubtful citizenship identified during SIR must be referred to the Central Government for a final decision.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the SC upheld ECI's power. Statement 2 is incorrect; the court clarified that exclusion from the roll is NOT a declaration of non-citizenship. Statement 3 is correct as the court mandated referral to the Central Government under the Citizenship Act, 1955.
In how many states and Union Territories had the Election Commission of India completed the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) process, as mentioned in the article, before notifying dates for others?
- A.5
- B.11✓ Correct Answer
- C.19
- D.25
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states that after the SIR in Bihar before the November 2025 polls, the ECI had completed the process in 11 more states and Union Territories. It had also notified dates for SIRs in 19 others.
What is the primary constitutional and legal basis, as per the Supreme Court judgment, for the Election Commission's authority to scrutinize citizenship during electoral roll revision?
- A.Its powers under Article 324 of the Constitution read with the Citizenship Act, 1955.
- B.The mandate of the Delimitation Commission Act, 1972.
- C.Section 16 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, which bars non-citizens from voting.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Directives issued by the Ministry of Home Affairs concerning national security.
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The Supreme Court's judgment specifically links the ECI's authority to examine citizenship to Section 16 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950. This section explicitly disqualifies a person from being registered in an electoral roll if they are not a citizen of India.
The recent landmark ruling on trademark infringement in digital advertising was delivered by which High Court?
- A.Bombay High Court
- B.Delhi High Court✓ Correct Answer
- C.Madras High Court
- D.Karnataka High Court
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that the 'pathbreaking ruling' was delivered by the Delhi High Court in the case involving Hindware Limited and Google.
Consider the following statements regarding the Delhi High Court's ruling on Google keyword advertising:
1. The court ruled that Google's practice of auctioning trademarks as keywords amounts to 'free-riding' on the brand's goodwill.
2. The case was initiated after Hindware discovered its trademark was being used as a keyword by its rivals, Cera and Grohe, in 2013.
3. Google has always allowed the use of trademarks as keywords in its AdWords program across all countries, including India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the court observed Google's conduct amounts to 'free-riding'. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions the discovery happened in early 2013. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article notes Google changed its policy in India post-2009, and its policy differs from that in the EU/EFTA.
In which year did Google change its policy in India to permit the use of trademarks as keywords in its AdWords program?
- A.2005
- B.2009✓ Correct Answer
- C.2013
- D.2018
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article clearly states: 'Until 2009, Google did not permit the use of trademarks as keywords in India, but the policy was changed post the year 2009.' This is a key factual data point from the news.
What was the primary legal reasoning used by the Delhi High Court to restrain Google from using trademarks as keywords?
- A.It violated India's data localization laws.
- B.It amounted to 'free-riding' on the investments and goodwill of the trademark owner.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It constituted a breach of contract between Google and the advertisers.
- D.It was a violation of the Competition Act, 2002, regarding predatory pricing.
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The court's core observation was that by auctioning trademarks, Google monetizes the brand's reputation built by the owner over years, which is 'free-riding' on that goodwill. The other options, like data localization or competition law, are not mentioned in the article as the court's basis.
Which Union Ministry is primarily responsible for the coal gasification initiative mentioned in the news?
- A.Ministry of Power
- B.Ministry of Coal and Mines✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
- D.Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article mentions Union Coal and Mines Minister G. Kishan Reddy promoting surface coal gasification. The Ministry of Coal and Mines oversees coal resources and mining policies.
Consider the following statements regarding coal gasification in India:
1. The Union Cabinet approved a ₹37,500 crore incentive package to encourage coal gasification.
2. The high-ash content of Indian coal makes fixed-bed gasification the most suitable technology.
3. The Talcher Coal-based Ammonia-urea complex is expected to be commissioned in FY2029-30.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; fluidised-bed gasification is considered suitable for high-ash Indian coal, not fixed-bed. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Talcher project is expected in FY2027-28, not FY2029-30.
According to the article, what is the total coal reserve in India?
- A.47 billion tonnes
- B.100 billion tonnes
- C.401 billion tonnes✓ Correct Answer
- D.500 billion tonnes
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states that India possesses approximately 401 billion tonnes of coal. 47 billion tonnes is the lignite reserve, 100 billion tonnes is the gasification target by 2030, and 500 billion tonnes is not mentioned.
What is the primary objective behind India's push for coal gasification as highlighted in the news?
- A.To increase exports of coal-based products
- B.To reduce import dependence on downstream products like urea and methanol✓ Correct Answer
- C.To replace all thermal power plants with gasification plants
- D.To reduce the environmental impact of coal mining
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states the rationale is to reduce import dependence, as India imports one-fifth of its urea requirement and 80-90% of its methanol requirement. The other options are not the primary objective mentioned.
The Parliamentary Standing Committee that summoned officials over the CBSE evaluation issue pertains to which of the following areas?
- A.Education, Women, Children, Youth, and Sports✓ Correct Answer
- B.Human Resource Development
- C.Science & Technology, Environment, and Forests
- D.Information Technology
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that the 'Parliamentary Standing Committee on Education, Women, Children, Youth, and Sports' summoned the officials. This is a static fact about the committee's nomenclature.
Consider the following statements regarding the On-Screen Marking (OSM) system discussed in the article:
1. CBSE first tried OSM on a smaller scale in 2013-14.
2. The CBSE Governing Body in June 2025 suggested implementing OSM in all subjects immediately.
3. Teachers were informed about the OSM implementation barely 10 days before the first Class 12 board exam in 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Only 2 and 3
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's history section. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Governing Body suggested implementing OSM 'only after completion of pilot projects', not immediately. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article.
What was the pass percentage for CBSE Class 12 in the year 2026, as per the article?
- A.85.29%✓ Correct Answer
- B.86.50%
- C.87.78%
- D.88.39%
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article clearly states: 'The CBSE’s pass percentage has dipped to 85.29% this year from 88.39% last year.' 88.39% is the previous year's percentage, making it a close distractor.
What was a primary reason cited in the article for the struggle in implementing OSM successfully in CBSE, compared to bodies like Cambridge?
- A.Lack of political will from the central government.
- B.Higher number of exam centres and students with uneven digital infrastructure.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Resistance from teachers' unions against digital evaluation.
- D.Inferior quality of the software used by CBSE.
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article contrasts successful OSM use in Cambridge/IB by noting they have 'far fewer exam centres and students, and more centralised scanning infrastructure'. It explicitly states CBSE's challenge includes 33,000 affiliated schools with 'uneven digital infrastructure and teacher training'.
Which government department is responsible for forecasting heatwaves and studying long-term temperature trends in India, as mentioned in the article?
- A.National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)
- B.India Meteorological Department (IMD)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
- D.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC)
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article repeatedly cites data and forecasts from the India Meteorological Department (IMD), such as its outlook for May 2026 and its study of the Core Heatwave Zone from 1961-2020. IMD is the primary national agency for meteorological observations and weather forecasting.
Consider the following statements regarding the findings mentioned in the article:
1. According to an IMD study (1961-2020), heatwave frequency in India's Core Heatwave Zone is increasing by 0.1 days per decade.
2. A 2024 study in Nature Cities found that Indian cities are warming at about 0.53°C per decade, and attributed 100% of this warming to urbanisation itself.
3. The article states that El Niño tends to weaken the monsoon's moisture-bearing uplift, which can lengthen dry spells.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the IMD study cited. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Nature Cities study attributed only around 38% of the urban warming (0.53°C/decade) to urbanisation itself. Statement 3 is correctly mentioned in the article's conclusion on El Niño impact. Hence, option C is correct.
According to the IMD study cited in the article, what is the rate at which night-time temperatures are warming in the Core Heatwave Zone?
- A.0.10°C per decade
- B.0.21°C per decade✓ Correct Answer
- C.0.44°C per decade
- D.0.53°C per decade
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article specifically states: "The study also found that nights warmed faster than days, at roughly 0.21°C per decade." The other options are distractors: 0.1 days/decade is the heatwave frequency increase, 0.44 days/decade is the duration increase, and 0.53°C/decade is the urban warming rate.
What is the primary reason, as explained in the article, why a ranking of 'world's hottest cities' based on a single day's data should be read with caution?
- A.Because it uses data from a private website instead of the IMD.
- B.Because one day's temperature cannot establish a long-term climate trend.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Because it excludes cities from West Asia, Africa, and Australia.
- D.Because it uses 24-hour average temperature which penalises desert cities.
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article's core caution is about mistaking weather for climate. It explicitly says: "One day cannot establish a trend, as the article itself acknowledges." While the other options (private data source, geographical bias, methodology issue) are also mentioned as flaws, the fundamental scientific error is using a single-day event to represent a climate signal.
Under which flagship government mission was the ASHA (Accredited Social Health Activist) program launched?
- A.National Urban Health Mission
- B.National Rural Health Mission✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ayushman Bharat Yojana
- D.Swachh Bharat Mission
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The ASHA program was launched in 2005 under the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM), a flagship program to provide accessible healthcare to rural populations. Ayushman Bharat was launched later, in 2018.
Consider the following statements regarding the ASHA program and community health in India:
1. The ASHA program is based on the 'Gadchiroli model' which focused on training community workers to manage childhood pneumonia.
2. According to the experts cited, India's combined public health expenditure is around 10% of its GDP.
3. A key recommendation is to introduce a male community health worker counterpart to ASHA, named 'Ashok'.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the Gadchiroli model involved training healthcare workers to treat pneumonia in children and became the blueprint for ASHA. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states India spends only 1% of GDP on health, not 10%. Statement 3 is correct as the article proposes a male health worker named 'Ashok'.
As per the article, what is the approximate current number of ASHA workers in India?
- A.5 Lakh
- B.10 Lakh (1 Million)✓ Correct Answer
- C.15 Lakh
- D.20 Lakh (2 Million)
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states, "So currently there are one million ASHAs in India." One million is equal to ten lakh. The other options are distractors based on proposed future numbers or common misremembered figures.
What is the primary rationale proposed in the article for expanding India's community health workforce and introducing male 'Ashok' workers?
- A.To replace doctors at Primary Health Centres (PHCs)
- B.To specifically address the challenge of maternal mortality
- C.To manage the growing burden of Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs) in rural areas✓ Correct Answer
- D.To reduce the overall health budget by employing more volunteers
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article emphasizes that in the age of NCDs, every village has many patients with hypertension and diabetes, requiring more health workers. It states the need for 2-3 workers per village and a male worker ('Ashok') to improve access for the male population, directly addressing the NCD challenge.
The BrahMos missile is a joint venture between India and which country?
- A.United States
- B.France
- C.Israel
- D.Russia✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article mentions the BrahMos missile system is supplied by India. Static GK confirms it is a joint venture between India's DRDO and Russia's NPO Mashinostroyeniya.
Consider the following statements regarding defence exports mentioned in the article:
1. The Philippines was the first foreign buyer of the BrahMos missile system in 2022.
2. The deal with Indonesia for BrahMos missiles has been officially signed and publicly announced.
3. Defence Secretary stated that India shares advanced defence technologies only with nations it regards as friendly partners.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'The Philippines had become the first foreign buyer...in 2022'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article says the Indonesia deal is in 'final stages' and details are 'yet to be made public'. Statement 3 is correct as Defence Secretary said, 'Obviously, you share technology with people you trust' and 'we treat all of you as "friendly foreign countries"'.
According to the Defence Secretary, what was the approximate value of the BrahMos missile deal signed with the Philippines in 2022?
- A.$250 million
- B.$375 million✓ Correct Answer
- C.$500 million
- D.$625 million
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'Signing a contract worth nearly 375 million dollars, The Philippines had become the first foreign buyer...in 2022'.
As per the Defence Secretary's comments at the Shangri-La Dialogue, what is a primary strategic reason for India's decision to share advanced defence technologies like BrahMos with certain countries?
- A.To generate maximum revenue from arms sales
- B.To counter the influence of a specific global power
- C.To build resilient supply chains and trusted partnerships✓ Correct Answer
- D.To reduce its own dependence on Russian defence imports
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The Secretary stated, 'Nations today require resilient, trusted, diversified, and technologically adaptive defence industrial ecosystems' and that India is ready 'to build resilient supply chains and trusted defence partnerships'. While revenue and strategic counter-balances might be indirect outcomes, the primary objective articulated is building trusted partnerships for collective security.
As per the news, which Union Ministry is responsible for the directive on monitoring demographic changes in border districts?
- A.Ministry of Defence
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of External Affairs
- D.Ministry of Rural Development
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The directive was issued by Union Home and Cooperation Minister Amit Shah, who heads the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). The MHA is the nodal ministry for internal security, border management, and policing.
Consider the following statements regarding the directives issued in the review meeting:
1. District Magistrates must form security coordination groups including the Coast Guard and the Lead Bank Manager.
2. The responsibility for implementing laws related to customs in border districts lies solely with the Border Security Force.
3. A major survey in border areas should be launched by the Income Tax department in collaboration with the RBI.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the security coordination group should include Coast Guard and Lead Bank Manager. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article says the responsibility for customs laws (among others) is of the DMs, SPs, and IG of the border range, not solely the BSF. Statement 3 is correct as per the directive that the Income Tax department should launch a major survey in collaboration with the RBI.
The review meeting chaired by Amit Shah, focusing on border district security, was held in which city of Gujarat?
- A.Gandhinagar
- B.Ahmedabad
- C.Bhuj✓ Correct Answer
- D.Rajkot
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that the review meeting was held in Bhuj on Friday, during Shah's visit to the Kutch district. The other cities are major cities in Gujarat but were not the venue for this specific meeting.
What is the primary objective behind directing DMs to monitor demographic changes in border districts, as per the article?
- A.To plan better infrastructure development based on population density.
- B.To identify patterns of illegal settlement and infiltration for national security.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To ensure accurate voter list preparation for upcoming elections.
- D.To allocate central funds to states based on population figures.
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article links demographic monitoring directly to security, mentioning the need for SOPs to identify 'already-settled infiltrators'. While other options are general functions of demographic data, the specific context of the meeting and the directives point towards a national security objective.
Which institute acted as the nodal agency for conducting the National Family Health Survey-6 (NFHS-6)?
- A.National Statistical Office (NSO)
- B.International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS), Mumbai✓ Correct Answer
- C.National Sample Survey Office (NSSO)
- D.Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that the International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS), Mumbai acted as the nodal agency for NFHS-6. IIPS is a deemed university and a key institution for demographic surveys in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the National Family Health Survey-6 (NFHS-6):
1. It was conducted during the period 2023-24 by the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
2. It covered nearly 6.79 lakh households across all districts of India.
3. The survey findings indicated significant progress in maternal and child health, including improvements in vaccination.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article says it covered 715 districts, not all districts. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions progress in maternal and child health including vaccination. Hence, option C is correct.
According to the news, across how many districts was the National Family Health Survey-6 (NFHS-6) conducted?
- A.640 districts
- B.715 districts✓ Correct Answer
- C.750 districts
- D.680 districts
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article clearly states that NFHS-6 covered households across 715 districts. The other options are close but incorrect numbers.
What is the primary purpose of conducting the National Family Health Survey (NFHS) as indicated in the news?
- A.To assess the performance of private healthcare providers
- B.To provide vital evidence for evidence-based planning and programme implementation up to the district level✓ Correct Answer
- C.To exclusively monitor the progress of the Ayushman Bharat scheme
- D.To compare India's health indicators with other South Asian nations
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states that the survey 'provides vital evidence on population, health, nutrition and family welfare indicators and supports evidence-based planning and programme implementation up to the district level.' This is its core objective. Other options are either too narrow or not mentioned.
Which high-level government body's secretariat did General Subramani serve in as Military Advisor before becoming CDS?
- A.National Security Council Secretariat (NSCS)✓ Correct Answer
- B.Department of Military Affairs (DMA)
- C.Cabinet Secretariat
- D.Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that General Subramani was serving as the Military Advisor at the National Security Council Secretariat (NSCS) prior to his appointment as CDS. The NSCS is the executive agency of the National Security Council.
Consider the following statements regarding General N.S. Raja Subramani's appointment as Chief of Defence Staff (CDS):
1. He succeeded General Anil Chauhan, who completed his tenure as CDS on May 30, 2026.
2. His primary mandate includes implementing the military theaterisation plan to enhance tri-service synergy.
3. He was serving as the Chief of Integrated Defence Staff to the Chairman, Chiefs of Staff Committee (CISC) before his appointment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'He succeeded General Anil Chauhan, who signed off after completing his tenure... on Saturday (May 30, 2026).' Statement 2 is correct: '...primary mandate to implement the ambitious military theaterisation plan and bolster tri-service synergy.' Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states he was serving as Military Advisor at the NSCS, not as CISC.
On which date was General N.S. Raja Subramani commissioned into the Indian Army?
- A.December 14, 1980
- B.December 14, 1985✓ Correct Answer
- C.July 1, 1984
- D.May 31, 1986
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article provides the exact commissioning date: 'He was commissioned into the eighth battalion of the Garhwal Rifles on December 14, 1985.' The other options are close distractors based on other significant dates mentioned (like his tenure as Vice Chief starting July 1, 2024).
What is the primary objective of the military theaterisation plan, which is a key mandate for the new CDS?
- A.To increase the number of personnel in the armed forces
- B.To enhance tri-service synergy through integrated military commands✓ Correct Answer
- C.To solely focus on the modernization of the Indian Air Force
- D.To reduce the defence budget by consolidating military bases
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
As per the article, the CDS's 'primary mandate' is to implement theaterisation, and his task is 'rolling out integrated military commands.' The core objective is to move from single-service commands to integrated ones for better jointness and synergy among the Army, Navy, and Air Force, not just to increase personnel, focus on one service, or reduce costs.
Which autonomous body is responsible for conducting the National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test (NEET)?
- A.Medical Council of India
- B.University Grants Commission
- C.National Testing Agency✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Education
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The National Testing Agency (NTA) is the autonomous body established by the Government of India to conduct entrance examinations like NEET, JEE (Main), and others.
Consider the following statements regarding the shift of NEET to Computer-Based Testing (CBT):
1. The shift to CBT is planned to commence from the 2027 examination cycle.
2. A primary advantage of CBT is the elimination of all risks associated with paper leaks and impersonation.
3. The article highlights that a major challenge for successful CBT implementation is India's uneven examination centre infrastructure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states NEET will shift to CBT from 2027 onwards. Statement 2 is incorrect; while CBT reduces risks, the article cautions that it does not automatically create a secure ecosystem and cannot compensate for weak infrastructure. Statement 3 is correct as the article's core argument is that infrastructure, not software, is the real challenge.
According to the article, approximately how many aspirants take the NEET examination, making its digital delivery a massive logistical challenge?
- A.Over 10 lakh
- B.Over 15 lakh
- C.Over 22 lakh✓ Correct Answer
- D.Over 30 lakh
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article specifically mentions that conducting a secure digital examination for 'over 22 lakh aspirants' is a unique challenge. The other figures are plausible distractors but not cited in the text.
What is the primary significance of Bihar's Aadarsh Pariksha Kendra initiative, as discussed in the article?
- A.It demonstrates the successful implementation of AI-based proctoring for exams.
- B.It provides a model for building dedicated, standardized examination infrastructure with integrity at its core.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It shows how private companies can completely manage high-stakes public examinations.
- D.It has significantly reduced the cost of conducting examinations for the state government.
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article emphasizes that the Aadarsh Pariksha Kendra model's significance lies in its design philosophy: creating purpose-built centres with controlled entry, biometric verification, and integrated surveillance, rather than adapting existing, often inadequate, infrastructure. This is presented as a blueprint for a national framework.
The Calcutta High Court, which delivered the judgment in this case, has jurisdiction over which of the following territories?
- A.West Bengal only
- B.West Bengal and Sikkim
- C.West Bengal and Andaman & Nicobar Islands✓ Correct Answer
- D.West Bengal, Bihar, and Odisha
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
As per the Indian judiciary structure, the Calcutta High Court has jurisdiction over the state of West Bengal and the Union Territory of Andaman & Nicobar Islands. The High Court of Sikkim is a separate court.
Consider the following statements regarding the Calcutta High Court judgment mentioned in the news:
1. The court acquitted the accused because the medical evidence conclusively proved his innocence.
2. The court found a 'clear risk of bias' as the Special Public Prosecutor had previously represented the accused's estranged wife.
3. The court directed the state to pay compensation, noting that the victim compensation scheme can sometimes incentivize false complaints.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The court acquitted due to failure of prosecution to establish foundational facts and biased investigation, not because medical evidence 'conclusively proved innocence'. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is correct as the judgment highlighted a concerning trend regarding the victim compensation scheme.
What amount of compensation did the Calcutta High Court direct the state to pay to the wrongfully incarcerated professor?
- A.₹5 Lakh
- B.₹10 Lakh✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹20 Lakh
- D.₹25 Lakh
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Calcutta High Court directed the state to pay the professor Rs 10 lakh as compensation for the wrongful incarceration he endured for more than four years.
What was the primary reason cited by the Calcutta High Court for ordering compensation in this case?
- A.To punish the investigating officer for misconduct.
- B.To provide rehabilitation to the minor victim.
- C.To hold the state accountable for systemic failures of its functionaries.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To refund the legal fees incurred by the professor.
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The judgment emphasised that 'the state must remain accountable for the systemic failures of its functionaries,' which included gross incompetence in investigation and ethically deficient conduct of the prosecutor. Compensation was for the wrongful incarceration caused by these failures.
Which of the following institutions was NOT part of the collaborative study on Wet-Bulb Globe Temperature in Pune?
- A.India Meteorological Department (IMD)
- B.Indian Institute of Science Education and Research (IISER) Pune
- C.Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Bombay✓ Correct Answer
- D.Fergusson College
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly mentions the collaborative team was from the India Meteorological Department (IMD), Fergusson College, and the Indian Institute of Science Education and Research (IISER), Pune. IIT Bombay is not mentioned in the context of this study.
Consider the following statements regarding the study on Wet-Bulb Globe Temperature (WBGT) in Pune:
1. The WBGT index was originally developed for occupational heat stress assessment in industrial settings.
2. The study found that maximum heat stress in Pune typically occurs between 1 pm and 3 pm.
3. The research established WBGT thresholds of 31.5°C, 32°C, and 33°C corresponding to low, moderate, and extreme heat stress respectively.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states WBGT was originally invented in the 1950s for training US Army and Marine troops, not for industrial settings. Statements 2 and 3 are directly mentioned as findings of the study in the article.
According to the study conducted in Pune, what is the Wet-Bulb Globe Temperature (WBGT) threshold identified for 'extreme heat stress'?
- A.31.5 degree Celsius
- B.32.0 degree Celsius
- C.32.2 degree Celsius
- D.33.0 degree Celsius✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article clearly states the study established WBGT threshold limits for Pune as 31.5°C, 32°C, and 33°C, corresponding to low, moderate, and extreme heat stress levels, respectively. 32.2°C is the approximate US threshold mentioned for comparison.
What is the primary significance of measuring Wet-Bulb Globe Temperature (WBGT) over standard air temperature for urban planning in India?
- A.It is a cheaper and easier method to deploy across cities.
- B.It provides a more accurate assessment of human physiological heat stress for vulnerable populations.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It helps in predicting long-term monsoon patterns more reliably.
- D.It is primarily used for calibrating air conditioning systems in public buildings.
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
As explained in the article, WBGT factors in humidity, wind, and radiation, giving a holistic measure of heat stress directly relevant to human health, especially for the elderly and outdoor workers. This data is crucial for designing effective public health and urban resilience strategies, which is the core implication discussed.
Which ministry is responsible for the PM-SETU scheme mentioned in the news?
- A.Ministry of Education
- B.Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.Ministry of Labour and Employment
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states the National Steering Committee meeting was chaired by the Secretary of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE). PM-SETU is a skilling and employability transformation scheme, which falls under the mandate of MSDE.
Consider the following statements regarding the PM-SETU scheme:
1. It aims to transform 1,000 Government ITIs across the country through an industry-led model.
2. The scheme has a total financial outlay of ₹50,000 crore for its implementation.
3. Andhra Pradesh is the first state to onboard an Anchor Industry Partner under this scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article which states the scheme aims to transform 1,000 Government ITIs. Statement 2 is incorrect; the total outlay is ₹60,000 crore, not ₹50,000 crore. Statement 3 is correct as Andhra Pradesh is stated to be the first state to onboard an Anchor Industry Partner. Hence, option C is correct.
What is the approved investment amount for the first Strategic Investment Plan (SIP) under the PM-SETU scheme, as mentioned in the news?
- A.₹150.50 crore
- B.₹200.21 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹250.75 crore
- D.₹300.00 crore
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that the National Steering Committee approved a ₹200.21-crore Strategic Investment Plan for Visakhapatnam’s ITI Cluster. The other options are close but incorrect distractors.
What is the primary objective of the PM-SETU scheme's 'Hub-and-Spoke' model, as highlighted in the news?
- A.To centralize all skilling programs under a single national authority.
- B.To modernize infrastructure and align vocational training with industry requirements.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To provide direct financial assistance to ITI students for higher education.
- D.To replace all private vocational training centers with government ITIs.
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states the PM-SETU scheme aims to transform ITIs through an industry-led 'Hub-and-Spoke' model, designed specifically to modernise infrastructure and align vocational training with the requirements of advanced manufacturing and emerging technologies.
Which organization is primarily responsible for the operational rules and security framework of the Unified Payments Interface (UPI)?
- A.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
- B.National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- D.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The NPCI is the umbrella organization that owns and operates the UPI platform. While the RBI provides the overarching regulatory framework, the NPCI sets the technical and operational guidelines, including security protocols like the biometric authentication mandate mentioned in the article.
Consider the following statements regarding the new rules effective from June 1, 2026:
1. UPI apps will require biometric verification for all transactions, regardless of value.
2. Individuals with an active Piped Natural Gas (PNG) connection are barred from booking a new LPG connection.
3. The mandatory gap between LPG cylinder refills is 45 days for urban areas and 25 days for rural areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: biometric verification is mandated for high-value UPI transactions, not all transactions. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's LPG guidelines. Statement 3 is incorrect: the refill gap is 25 days for urban areas and 45 days for rural areas, not the other way around. This is a classic data-swapping trap.
According to the new LPG distribution guidelines, what is the mandatory waiting period for ordering a new LPG cylinder in rural areas?
- A.15 days
- B.25 days
- C.45 days✓ Correct Answer
- D.60 days
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) have revised the mandatory gap between ordering gas cylinders to 45 days for rural areas. The urban gap is 25 days. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned.
What is a primary objective of the new rule requiring UPI apps to show the verified recipient's name before payment?
- A.To increase transaction speed and reduce processing time.
- B.To prevent misdirected payments and enhance user security.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To integrate UPI with social media platforms for easier sharing.
- D.To allow users to customize transaction receipts.
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
As stated in the article, the 'Pre-Transaction Name Verification' rule is introduced 'in order to stop misdirected payments.' By showing the full official name from a secure database, it aims to reduce errors and fraud, directly enhancing payment security. The other options are not supported by the article's content.
Which department in the Government of India is represented by Chief Negotiator Darpan Jain in the India-US trade talks?
- A.Department of Economic Affairs
- B.Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
- C.Department of Commerce✓ Correct Answer
- D.Department of Revenue
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
As stated in the article, India's chief negotiator is Darpan Jain, who is an additional secretary in the Department of Commerce. This department under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry handles India's multilateral and bilateral trade relations.
Consider the following statements regarding the India-US trade talks:
1. The talks aim to finalize the legal text for an interim Bilateral Trade Agreement (BTA) framework agreed upon in February 2026.
2. India has expressed its intention to purchase $500 billion worth of US energy products, aircraft, and technology over the next ten years.
3. The US Trade Representative (USTR) has launched Section 301 investigations against India over issues related to excess capacity and forced labor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the proposed purchase is over the next five years, not ten years. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the USTR launched two unilateral Section 301 investigations against India over excess capacity and failures to eradicate forced labor.
What was the value of India's trade surplus with the United States in the fiscal year 2025-26, as per the article?
- A.$40.89 billion
- B.$34.4 billion✓ Correct Answer
- C.$52.9 billion
- D.$87.3 billion
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states that the trade surplus declined to $34.4 billion in 2025-26 from $40.89 billion in 2024-25. $40.89 billion is the previous year's surplus, $52.9 billion is the import value, and $87.3 billion is the export value.
What is a primary reason cited in the article for the need to recalibrate the India-US interim trade pact framework?
- A.A ruling by the Indian Supreme Court on trade tariffs.
- B.The imposition of a uniform 10% tariff by the United States on all trading partners.✓ Correct Answer
- C.India's decision to withdraw from certain World Trade Organization commitments.
- D.A significant increase in India's trade deficit with the United States.
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explains that after the US Supreme Court ruling, the US President announced 10% tariffs on all countries. This changed the tariff landscape, meaning India's comparative advantage was affected, and thus 'the pact requires recalibration.' The other options are not mentioned as reasons in the article.
BrahMos Aerospace, the manufacturer of the BrahMos missile, is a joint venture between which two entities?
- A.DRDO (India) and Rosoboronexport (Russia)
- B.DRDO (India) and NPO Mashinostroyeniya (Russia)✓ Correct Answer
- C.ISRO (India) and Rostec (Russia)
- D.HAL (India) and United Aircraft Corporation (Russia)
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
As per the article, BrahMos Aerospace is a joint venture between India's Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and Russia's NPO Mashinostroyeniya. This is a key static fact regarding India's defence indigenisation.
Consider the following statements regarding developments mentioned in the news:
1. The Philippines was the first foreign buyer of the BrahMos missile system from India.
2. India's domestic solar cell mandate requires all solar panels to be assembled within the country from June 1, 2026.
3. The Supreme Court has taken suo motu cognizance of illegal sand mining in the National Chambal Gharial Sanctuary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Philippines signed a $375 million contract in 2022, becoming the first foreign buyer. Statement 2 is incorrect: The mandate requires the use of domestically manufactured solar cells, not assembly of panels. Statement 3 is correct: The article states the Supreme Court took suo motu cognizance of the matter in March.
As per the India Meteorological Department's report mentioned in May 2026, what was the monsoon forecast for the season?
- A.88% of the Long Period Average
- B.90% of the Long Period Average✓ Correct Answer
- C.92% of the Long Period Average
- D.95% of the Long Period Average
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that the IMD cut its monsoon forecast to 90% of the Long Period Average (LPA) in May 2026, which is noted as the lowest forecast in 20 years. The other options are close distractors.
What is the primary objective behind the Indian government's mandate requiring the use of domestically manufactured solar cells in projects from June 1, 2026?
- A.To immediately reduce the cost of solar power for end consumers
- B.To reduce India's import dependence and strengthen the domestic solar manufacturing ecosystem✓ Correct Answer
- C.To phase out all existing solar projects that use imported components
- D.To exclusively promote large-scale utility solar projects over rooftop installations
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article clearly states the mandate is 'aimed at reducing India's dependence on imports and strengthening the domestic solar manufacturing ecosystem.' While cost reduction may be a long-term goal, the stated primary objective is indigenisation and supply chain security.
Under which part of the Indian Constitution is the provision related to prohibiting cow slaughter placed?
- A.Part III - Fundamental Rights
- B.Part IV - Directive Principles of State Policy✓ Correct Answer
- C.Part V - The Union
- D.Part XII - Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
As per the Constituent Assembly debate detailed in the article, the provision for cow protection was placed in the Directive Principles of State Policy (Article 48) and not in Fundamental Rights, as the latter pertained to human rights.
Consider the following statements regarding the historical and constitutional aspects of the cow slaughter debate in India:
1. During the Constituent Assembly debates, the provision for cow protection was initially proposed to be included in the Fundamental Rights.
2. Mahatma Gandhi, while advocating cow protection, supported the use of legal coercion against Muslims to prevent cow slaughter.
3. The first state to accept a committee report recommending a ban on cow slaughter in the 1950s was Uttar Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Thakurdas Bhargava and Seth Govind Das initially wanted it in Fundamental Rights but agreed with Ambedkar to place it in DPSP. Statement 2 is incorrect: Gandhi focused on 'gau seva' and persuasion, not coercion, stating he would never harm a Muslim. Statement 3 is correct: On February 10, 1955, the S. Sampoornanand-led UP government accepted the Dr Sitaram Committee report recommending a ban.
According to the Animal Slaughter Control Act, 1950, as strictly enforced in West Bengal, what is the minimum age of cattle that can be slaughtered with certification?
- A.Above 10 years
- B.Above 12 years
- C.Above 14 years✓ Correct Answer
- D.Above 16 years
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that under the Animal Slaughter Control Act, 1950, in West Bengal, only cattle above 14 years of age can be slaughtered after mandatory certification. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned.
What was the primary rationale, as discussed in the Constituent Assembly, for placing the provision on cow protection in the Directive Principles rather than the Fundamental Rights?
- A.To make it a justiciable right for all citizens.
- B.Because Fundamental Rights pertained to humans, while this was a question of animal rights.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To ensure uniformity in cattle slaughter laws across all states.
- D.To delegate the matter entirely to religious authorities.
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states that proponents agreed with B.R. Ambedkar that cow protection be part of DPSP instead of FR because 'the Fundamental Rights pertained to humans and this was a question of animal rights.' This highlights the constitutional philosophy behind the classification.
The news discusses the use of Unmanned Ground Vehicles (UGVs) in modern warfare. Which of the following is a primary characteristic of such autonomous military systems?
- A.They are always controlled by an onboard human pilot.
- B.They operate on land without a human physically present inside the vehicle.✓ Correct Answer
- C.They are exclusively used for medical evacuation purposes.
- D.They cannot be armed with any form of weaponry.
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Unmanned Ground Vehicles (UGVs) are robotic systems that operate on land surfaces without a human occupant. They are remotely controlled or autonomous, which aligns with the article's description of 'remotely piloted tanks' and 'combat robots'.
Consider the following statements regarding the technological shift in the Russia-Ukraine war as per the article:
1. Ukraine has deployed combat robots and remotely piloted tanks to address manpower shortages.
2. Since January 2026, unmanned systems have carried out over 30,000 missions.
3. The use of this technology has helped in significantly reducing battlefield casualties for Ukraine.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states robotic systems helped overcome manpower shortages. Statement 2 is incorrect; the exact number is 22,000 missions, not over 30,000. Statement 3 is correct as the military said operations by unmanned systems helped reduce casualties. Hence, option C is correct.
According to the article, how many missions had been carried out by Ukraine's unmanned systems since January 2026?
- A.15,000 missions
- B.20,000 missions
- C.22,000 missions✓ Correct Answer
- D.25,000 missions
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that President Zelensky claimed unmanned systems had carried out 22,000 missions since January. The other options are close distractors to test precise factual recall.
What is a primary strategic implication of Ukraine's large-scale deployment of robotic systems in its conflict, as highlighted in the article?
- A.It has made the country completely immune to cyber warfare attacks.
- B.It has reduced the strategic importance of technical personnel and engineers.
- C.It has transformed battlefield tactics by emphasizing remote coordination and technical expertise.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It has allowed Ukraine to completely replace its traditional infantry units.
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states that the technology has 'transformed battlefield tactics by throwing the spotlight on technical expertise, remote coordination and military innovation.' It does not claim complete immunity to cyber attacks, reduction in importance of engineers, or full replacement of infantry.
Which institution's assessment found that 31 out of 128 Aravalli hills in Rajasthan had disappeared?
- A.Wildlife Institute of India (WII)
- B.Forest Survey of India (FSI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.India Meteorological Department (IMD)
- D.Centre for Ecology Development and Research (CEDAR)
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states: "A Forest Survey of India (FSI) assessment of 2018 found that 31 of the 128 Aravalli hills in Rajasthan had disappeared..." The WII study from 2009 is also mentioned but it identified gaps in the range, not the count of lost hills.
Consider the following statements regarding the Aravalli range and dust storms:
1. The Aravallis intercept dust-laden westerly winds from the Thar Desert, protecting the Indo-Gangetic plains.
2. According to the IMD's Climate Hazards Atlas, parts of Northwest India average between 2.5 to 3.5 dust-storm days annually.
3. A 2009 study by the Wildlife Institute of India identified 12 critical gaps in the Aravalli range that have expanded due to degradation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's explanation of the range's protective role. Statement 2 is incorrect; the IMD atlas shows a frequency of 0.89 to 1.55 dust-storm days, not 2.5-3.5. Statement 3 is correct as directly mentioned in the article. Hence, option C is correct.
According to the IMD's Climate Hazards Atlas cited in the article, what is the dust-storm frequency range (in days) for the highest frequency class in parts of northwest India?
- A.0.50 to 0.88 days
- B.0.89 to 1.55 days✓ Correct Answer
- C.1.56 to 2.20 days
- D.2.21 to 2.50 days
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states: "...shows that parts of northwest India fall in the highest dust-storm frequency class, averaging 0.89 to 1.55 dust-storm days." The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What is a primary consequence of the degradation of the Aravalli range, as highlighted in the news article?
- A.Increased frequency of earthquakes in the Gangetic plains
- B.Reduced intensity of the monsoon over Rajasthan
- C.Enhanced transport of Thar Desert dust to the northern plains even with less intense storms✓ Correct Answer
- D.Formation of new perennial rivers in the Aravalli region
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The core argument of the article is that the weakening Aravalli shield allows dust to be carried to regions like Delhi at lower wind speeds (35-40 kmph) than before, when only intense storms could do so. This directly impacts air quality and climate in the Indo-Gangetic plains.
Which constitutional article allows the President or Governor to dismiss a civil servant without inquiry in matters concerning the security of the state?
- A.Article 310
- B.Article 311(2)(c)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 356
- D.Article 21
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Article 311(2)(c) of the Constitution of India explicitly states that the requirement for an inquiry does not apply where the President/Governor is satisfied that holding an inquiry is not expedient for the security of the State.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent Jammu & Kashmir High Court judgment:
1. The court upheld the dismissal of a government employee under Article 311(2)(c) without a departmental inquiry.
2. The court defined 'security of the State' to include only terrorism and espionage.
3. The court stated that judicial review of such dismissals is completely barred.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the Division Bench upheld the dismissal. Statement 2 is incorrect because the court defined 'security of the State' to include terrorism, espionage, militant links, activities threatening sovereignty, and grave anti-national conduct. Statement 3 is incorrect as the court stated judicial review is 'very limited and constricted', not completely barred.
According to the article, how many government employees have been dismissed under Article 311(2)(c) by the Jammu & Kashmir Lieutenant Governor's administration since 2021?
- A.51
- B.91✓ Correct Answer
- C.121
- D.151
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that 91 government employees have been dismissed since 2021. This is a concrete data point for Prelims-type factual recall.
What is the primary legal basis cited by the Jammu & Kashmir High Court for allowing dismissal without inquiry in this case?
- A.The doctrine of pleasure under Article 310.
- B.The exception under Article 311(2)(c) concerning security of the State.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The provisions of the Ranbir Penal Code applicable until 2019.
- D.The discretionary power of the Governor under Article 161.
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The core legal provision invoked is Article 311(2)(c), which permits bypassing the inquiry requirement when the President/Governor is satisfied it is not expedient for state security. The doctrine of pleasure (Article 310) is the broader principle, but the specific exception applied is Clause (2)(c) of Article 311.
Related Current Affairs Resources
More Current Affairs Questions
Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?
For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.
- Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
- Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
- Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.
Frequently Asked Questions
What are the important current affairs questions for 31 May 2026?▼
This page contains 100 current affairs questions from 31 May 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
How to use 31 May 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼
Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.
How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼
Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.
Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼
Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.
What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼
Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.
All Questions in This Set
- Q1. The Strait of Hormuz connects which two larger bodies of water?
- Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Horm…
- Q3. According to the article, what was the approximate daily volum…
- Q4. was Iran's primary strategic objective in taking control of th…
- Q5. committee is responsible for setting the repo rate in India?
- Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the economic scena…
- Q7. According to the article, what was the Wholesale Price Index (…
- Q8. is the primary reason cited in the article for the RBI MPC lik…
- Q9. The Supreme Court judgment clarified the application of the PO…
- Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Supreme…
- Q11. The Supreme Court Bench that delivered the judgment on the app…
- Q12. According to the Supreme Court judgment, what is the primary i…
- Q13. Under which ministry does the Online Gaming Authority of India…
- Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
- Q15. According to the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act…
- Q16. was the primary legal reasoning that allowed the government to…
- Q17. Under which Article of the Constitution is the Election Commis…
- Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
- Q19. In how many states and Union Territories had the Election Comm…
- Q20. is the primary constitutional and legal basis, as per the Supr…
- Q21. The recent landmark ruling on trademark infringement in digita…
- Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the Delhi High Cou…
- Q23. In which year did Google change its policy in India to permit …
- Q24. was the primary legal reasoning used by the Delhi High Court t…
- Q25. Union Ministry is primarily responsible for the coal gasificat…
- Q26. Consider the following statements regarding coal gasification …
- Q27. According to the article, what is the total coal reserve in In…
- Q28. is the primary objective behind India's push for coal gasifica…
- Q29. The Parliamentary Standing Committee that summoned officials o…
- Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the On-Screen Mark…
- Q31. was the pass percentage for CBSE Class 12 in the year 2026, as…
- Q32. was a primary reason cited in the article for the struggle in …
- Q33. government department is responsible for forecasting heatwaves…
- Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the findings menti…
- Q35. According to the IMD study cited in the article, what is the r…
- Q36. is the primary reason, as explained in the article, why a rank…
- Q37. Under which flagship government mission was the ASHA (Accredit…
- Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the ASHA program a…
- Q39. As per the article, what is the approximate current number of …
- Q40. is the primary rationale proposed in the article for expanding…
- Q41. The BrahMos missile is a joint venture between India and which…
- Q42. Consider the following statements regarding defence exports me…
- Q43. According to the Defence Secretary, what was the approximate v…
- Q44. As per the Defence Secretary's comments at the Shangri-La Dial…
- Q45. As per the news, which Union Ministry is responsible for the d…
- Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the directives iss…
- Q47. The review meeting chaired by Amit Shah, focusing on border di…
- Q48. is the primary objective behind directing DMs to monitor demog…
- Q49. institute acted as the nodal agency for conducting the Nationa…
- Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the National Famil…
- Q51. According to the news, across how many districts was the Natio…
- Q52. is the primary purpose of conducting the National Family Healt…
- Q53. high-level government body's secretariat did General Subramani…
- Q54. Consider the following statements regarding General N.S. Raja …
- Q55. On which date was General N.S. Raja Subramani commissioned int…
- Q56. is the primary objective of the military theaterisation plan, …
- Q57. autonomous body is responsible for conducting the National Eli…
- Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the shift of NEET …
- Q59. According to the article, approximately how many aspirants tak…
- Q60. is the primary significance of Bihar's Aadarsh Pariksha Kendra…
- Q61. The Calcutta High Court, which delivered the judgment in this …
- Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the Calcutta High …
- Q63. amount of compensation did the Calcutta High Court direct the …
- Q64. was the primary reason cited by the Calcutta High Court for or…
- Q65. of the following institutions was NOT part of the collaborativ…
- Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the study on Wet-B…
- Q67. According to the study conducted in Pune, what is the Wet-Bulb…
- Q68. is the primary significance of measuring Wet-Bulb Globe Temper…
- Q69. ministry is responsible for the PM-SETU scheme mentioned in th…
- Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the PM-SETU scheme…
- Q71. is the approved investment amount for the first Strategic Inve…
- Q72. is the primary objective of the PM-SETU scheme's 'Hub-and-Spok…
- Q73. organization is primarily responsible for the operational rule…
- Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the new rules effe…
- Q75. According to the new LPG distribution guidelines, what is the …
- Q76. is a primary objective of the new rule requiring UPI apps to s…
- Q77. department in the Government of India is represented by Chief …
- Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the India-US trade…
- Q79. was the value of India's trade surplus with the United States …
- Q80. is a primary reason cited in the article for the need to recal…
- Q81. BrahMos Aerospace, the manufacturer of the BrahMos missile, is…
- Q82. Consider the following statements regarding developments menti…
- Q83. As per the India Meteorological Department's report mentioned …
- Q84. is the primary objective behind the Indian government's mandat…
- Q85. Under which part of the Indian Constitution is the provision r…
- Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the historical and…
- Q87. According to the Animal Slaughter Control Act, 1950, as strict…
- Q88. was the primary rationale, as discussed in the Constituent Ass…
- Q89. The news discusses the use of Unmanned Ground Vehicles (UGVs) …
- Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the technological …
- Q91. According to the article, how many missions had been carried o…
- Q92. is a primary strategic implication of Ukraine's large-scale de…
- Q93. institution's assessment found that 31 out of 128 Aravalli hil…
- Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the Aravalli range…
- Q95. According to the IMD's Climate Hazards Atlas cited in the arti…
- Q96. is a primary consequence of the degradation of the Aravalli ra…
- Q97. constitutional article allows the President or Governor to dis…
- Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Jammu &…
- Q99. According to the article, how many government employees have b…
- Q100. is the primary legal basis cited by the Jammu & Kashmir High C…