2 June 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

Para 6(1) of the Tenth Schedule vests the power to decide disqualification petitions in the Presiding Officer (the Speaker or the Chairman) of the House. This reflects constitutional faith in this office as an impartial authority.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Tenth Schedule was introduced by the 52nd Amendment. Statement 2 is correct: The 91st Amendment (2003) removed the 'split' exception. Statement 3 is incorrect: In Kihoto Hollohan vs Zachillhu (1992), the Supreme Court held that the Speaker's decisions are subject to judicial review.

Explanation

The article states that in 1967, 'A Haryana MLA Gaya Lal changed his party thrice within the same day', which popularised the phrase 'Aya Ram, Gaya Ram'. The other states are distractors.

Explanation

As per the article, the Statement of Objects and Reasons of the 52nd Amendment stated that the 'evil of political defections' needed to be combated as it threatened democracy. The law aimed to discourage unprincipled defections and protect governmental stability.

Explanation

The article states that the Supreme Court directed the state to place the eviction plan before the CEC (Central Empowered Committee) and that the CEC will undertake ground verification and submit quarterly reports. The CEC is a Supreme Court-appointed body for environmental matters.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article mentions stringent action for violation of the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980. Statement 2 is correct: The court imposed a blanket moratorium on extension of welfare schemes in encroached areas. Statement 3 is incorrect: The charges are to be deposited with the Tamil Nadu State Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA), not the State Biodiversity Board.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "as per the DM's report, 116 government and public utility structures were constructed inside forest lands without prior approval." This is a direct factual data point from the news.

Explanation

The bench stated the proceedings "strike at the very heart of environmental governance and the constitutional obligation of the State to preserve and protect ecologically sensitive regions... for the benefit of present and future generations." This reflects the doctrine of public trust and intergenerational equity, going beyond mere punishment or compliance.

Explanation

As per the All India Services rules, the cadre-controlling authority for the IPS is the Ministry of Home Affairs. Hence, it holds the final authority on matters like voluntary retirement, as highlighted in the article where the Supreme Court directed the Union Home Ministry to re-examine the VRS plea.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Supreme Court did not grant VRS directly; it set aside the Centre's 2019 order and directed the Home Ministry to re-examine the application. Statement 2 is incorrect. His first application in 2017 was due to being overlooked for promotion; his anti-CAA stance became a factor later. Statement 3 is correct as explicitly mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article's headline and opening paragraph state it was a 'nearly seven-year-long legal and administrative battle'. The officer first applied for VRS in 2017, and the Supreme Court order came in 2026.

Explanation

The core implication was judicial review. The Court found the rejection lacked proper consideration ('non-application of mind') and directed a fresh, reasoned decision. It did not change the fundamental authority (which remains with the Centre), nor did it say contemplated proceedings are always valid; in fact, it scrutinized their validity.

Explanation

The National Testing Agency (NTA) is an autonomous body under the Department of Higher Education, which falls under the Union Ministry of Education. It is responsible for conducting major entrance exams like NEET-UG and JEE Main.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: CFI's proposal involves a 'Secure Isolation' model. Statement 2 is incorrect; the proposed encryption standard is AES-256, not RSA-2048. Statement 3 is correct as FAIMA has sought a monitoring committee leading to a formal NEIC. Hence, both 1 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that CFI estimates installing two high-speed printers at 5,400 centres would cost around Rs 162 crore. The figures ₹500–800 crore refer to the cost of cancelling and reconducting a national exam, which is provided as a comparison.

Explanation

The article states that CFI argued the pressure from competition for limited seats drives malpractice. Therefore, it has called for expanding government MBBS seats to 2–3 lakh over the next decade to reduce this excessive competition, which is seen as a root cause.

Explanation

The article states that 'the official spokesperson of the Ministry of External Affairs, Randhir Jaiswal' announced the visit. The MEA handles all high-level diplomatic visits and bilateral engagements.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'ACTING PRESIDENT of Venezuela Delcy Rodriguez is coming to India for a five-day visit from June 3 to 7.' Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states Venezuela was a supplier of oil to India, not the other way around: 'Caracas was New Delhi’s fifth-largest supplier of oil in 2019'. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned: 'The bilateral trade between India and Venezuela was $6.40 billion in 2019-20'.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Caracas was New Delhi’s fifth-largest supplier of oil in 2019, providing close to 16 million tonnes of crude to Indian refiners.' The other options are close distractors not mentioned in the text.

Explanation

The article emphasizes energy as a core topic, noting India's significant PSU investments in Venezuela's energy sector and the resumption of oil imports. While other areas like pharmaceuticals are mentioned, the primary strategic driver, as detailed in the discussions and historical context, is energy security and investment.

Explanation

The article's byline explicitly states the author is 'DAE-Homi Bhabha Chair, TIFR-National Centre for Biological Sciences, Bengaluru.' This is a direct factual extraction from the provided content.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'In 2010, the American scientist J. Craig Venter... chemically synthesised a complete bacterial genome.' Statement 2 is correct as the article highlights the 'ability to convert information into a self-replicating product' as a unique feature. Statement 3 is incorrect; Venter's work is a 'top-down' approach. The 'bottom-up' approach is pioneered by Jack Szostak.

Explanation

The article provides specific gene counts: E. coli (~4,300), fruit fly (~17,000), mouse (~21,000), and human (~22,000). The other options are the gene counts for the other organisms listed.

Explanation

The article explicitly frames the 'genie conundrum' around the power and peril of the technology. It states that engineering life has the unique 'ability to convert information into a self-replicating product,' unlike spaceships or nuclear plants, which makes regulation particularly challenging.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions Union Minister of Electronics and Information Technology Ashwini Vaishnaw was present at the foundation-stone laying ceremony. This ministry is responsible for policy matters relating to IT, electronics, and internet governance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the hub's expected power demand is 1 GW, making it a hyperscale hub. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions the project is integrated into the America-India Connect initiative. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article alleges that the state government assigned the project to a category that allowed it to sidestep a full EIA and public hearings.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Google facility is part of a larger digital infrastructure push in Visakhapatnam, expected to involve investments running to ₹1.25 lakh crore. The other figures are plausible distractors but not mentioned.

Explanation

The article explicitly states, "the Hub suggests AI is now an infrastructure problem: power, land, and water are the bottlenecks." It then elaborates on the strain on the local power grid and the massive water consumption, making resource availability the core challenge.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that IMEC was officially announced at the G-20 Summit in New Delhi in September 2023. This is a factual detail directly from the source.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article describes IMEC as a 'holistic and multidimensional' project. Statement 2 is incorrect; the central section traverses the UAE, Saudi Arabia, Jordan, and Israel (Iran is not mentioned). Statement 3 is correct as the article states IMEC seeks to connect India with Europe 'bypassing the traditional choke point of the Suez Canal'.

Explanation

The article provides the specific data point: 'India imports nearly 88% of its crude oil requirements, amounting to about 1.8 billion barrels annually.' The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that a 'critical fault line' for IMEC is the 'deep faultlines and divergence in the positions adopted by Saudi Arabia and the UAE', citing the UAE's OPEC exit and coordination with Israel as examples that could widen differences.

Explanation

The NFHS is conducted by the International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS), Mumbai, which serves as the nodal agency under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW), Government of India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as TFR stabilized at 2.0, which is below the replacement level of 2.1. Statement 2 is incorrect because exclusive breastfeeding declined from 63.7% (NFHS-5) to 55.8% (NFHS-6). Statement 3 is correct as obesity rose from 22.9% to 27.3% among men and from 24% to 30.7% among women.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that NFHS-6 data revealed India's Total Fertility Rate (TFR) had stabilised at 2.0. The replacement level of 2.1 is a close distractor.

Explanation

The 'dual public health burden' specifically refers to the simultaneous challenge of persistent issues like malnutrition (undernutrition) and the rapidly growing problem of obesity and lifestyle diseases (overnutrition), as detailed in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the report is from the Parliamentary Standing Committee on Home Affairs. This committee reviews matters related to the Ministry of Home Affairs, which oversees prison administration in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions prison capacity increased by 24% in that period. Statement 2 is incorrect; Delhi had the highest occupancy rate (194%), not the lowest. Statement 3 is correct as per the report which noted almost half of sanctioned posts were vacant in about 8 States/UTs.

Explanation

The article clearly states: "the country had about 1,333 jails with a capacity of 4.53 lakh inmates. However, with an inmate population of over 5.11 lakh..." This indicates overcrowding, with more inmates than capacity.

Explanation

The article directly quotes the committee report stating that overcrowding "strains resources, compromises living standards, increases tensions among inmates and limits their access to healthcare and rehabilitation facilities." The other options are not supported by the article's content.

Explanation

Article 361 of the Indian Constitution specifically grants immunity to the President and Governors. It states that they shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of their official powers and duties.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the court held the opposite: immunity under Article 361 does NOT extend to acts performed in another public capacity like Chancellor. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions reliance on Bhuri Nath case. Statement 3 is correct as per the article's content.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Chhattisgarh High Court considered the Madhya Pradesh High Court's landmark decision in 'Dr S C Barat v Hari Vinayak Pataskar (1962)'. The other years are distractors related to other constitutional events.

Explanation

The core ruling of the judgment, as stated in the article, is that actions taken by a Governor as Chancellor are open to judicial scrutiny. It clarifies that constitutional immunity does not apply to this separate statutory role, thereby ensuring accountability.

Explanation

The NFHS is conducted by the International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS), Mumbai, which is the nodal agency appointed by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. NIN and ICMR are research bodies, while NITI Aayog is a policy think tank.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states 'Close to 30 per cent of Indians are obese'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article says 'more than 80 per cent of infants... do NOT receive an adequate diet'. Statement 3 is correct as per the line 'more than 31 per cent of children are still underweight'.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'one in six Indians reported high sugar levels' according to NFHS VI. This is a precise data point frequently asked in prelims to test factual recall from key reports.

Explanation

The article states that government nutrition programs 'have focused excessively on supply-side interventions without adequately appreciating how the family, especially mothers, influences children’s food intake.' This highlights the need for behavioral and demand-side strategies alongside providing food.

Explanation

The article mentions JoSAA in the context of seat allocation for premier engineering institutes. While NTA conducts JEE-Main, JoSAA handles the centralized counselling and seat allocation process for IITs, NITs, IIITs, and other GFTIs.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article headline and data. Statement 2 is incorrect; the scheme was introduced in 2018, not 2020. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 24.9% of the 40,562 women candidates who appeared cleared JEE-Advanced 2026. Option A (13.47%) was the pass rate in 2018, making it a close distractor. Options B and C are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article quotes Prof. Deepankar Choudhury stating that the increase is linked to IITs introducing programmes in AI, Data Science, Biotechnology, and basic sciences, providing a wider range of options. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article is explicitly written by the UK Business and Trade Secretary, as stated in the byline. This is the ministerial position responsible for trade negotiations and business relations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's data. Statement 2 is incorrect; the figures are swapped—it will eliminate 99% of UK tariffs and 90% of Indian tariffs. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions new business mobility commitments for service professionals.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that trade between the UK and India was £48bn in 2025. The other options are close distractors to test precise recall of the figure.

Explanation

The article's core argument is that in a world of volatility, the UK-India relationship provides certainty. Vision 2035 sets a 10-year course to deepen collaboration across trade, tech, and defence to unlock stable, long-term growth for both nations.

Explanation

Article 124(2) of the Constitution states that every judge of the Supreme Court shall be appointed by the President after consultation with the Chief Justice of India and other judges as deemed necessary. The article was mentioned in the news regarding the appointment of the five new judges.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Ordinance, 2026 increased the strength from 33 to 37. Statement 2 is incorrect: V.S. Mohana is the second woman elevated directly from the Bar; the first was Justice Indu Malhotra in 2018. Statement 3 is correct: The collegium comprised CJI Kant and Justices Vikram Nath, J.K. Maheshwari, B.V. Nagarathna, and M.M. Sundresh.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the ordinance to increase judicial strength was aimed at addressing the Court's mounting backlog of over 93,000 cases. This factual data is a key point for prelims-style questions.

Explanation

The article clearly links the increase in sanctioned strength via the ordinance to the objective of addressing the Court's mounting backlog of cases and facilitating the regular convening of Constitution Benches. The other options are not mentioned as primary objectives.

Explanation

The article discusses the need to expand India's space industry 'beyond the Indian Space Research Organisation,' indicating ISRO is the primary nodal agency for India's space program, including satellite design and launch operations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'In January 2007, it targeted its own satellite from earth.' Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states SJ/TJS series satellites are 'designed to interfere with or dislodge other satellites from orbit,' indicating a military purpose. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned: 'laser-based systems that can dazzle or blind satellites, disrupting navigation and communications.'

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'India has around 60 operational satellites as against 400-plus Chinese military satellites alone.' The other options are distractors: 30 is too low, 120 is not mentioned, and 400 is the approximate number for China's military satellites.

Explanation

The article states that China 'cannot inflict crippling damage without destroying a large number of Indian satellites and risking severe Kessler Syndrome consequences.' This risk of creating a cascading debris field in space acts as a restraint, making reversible, non-kinetic attacks a more likely first step.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the bill sought to amend the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956. This is the primary legislation that determines the maximum number of judges in the Supreme Court.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the collegium is headed by the Chief Justice of India (CJI Surya Kant), not the President. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the last increase was in 2019.

Explanation

The article clearly states: "With this, the Supreme Court now has a working strength of 37 judges against a sanctioned strength of 38." The other numbers are distractors: 34 was the old sanctioned strength, and 38 is the new sanctioned strength.

Explanation

The article states that CJI Kant recommended the increase "so that a permanent constitution bench could be put in place to hear pending matters." This is the stated administrative and functional objective behind the expansion.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) notified the amendments. MHA handles internal security, border management, and matters related to foreigners and citizenship.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the new provision. Statement 2 is incorrect; the previous deadline was within 14 days, not 30 days. Statement 3 is correct as the notification revises provisions for medical institutions. Hence, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

The notification states that if a child acquires citizenship of a foreign country while in India, either parent must inform the registration officer within 30 days of acquiring the citizenship.

Explanation

The change from allowing registration after 180 days to requiring it before visa expiry removes procedural ambiguity and compels visitors to act proactively if they wish to extend their stay, thereby streamlining management.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that State governments constitute State Finance Commissions under clause 1 of Article 243(I) and (Y) of the Constitution. Article 280 is for the Union Finance Commission.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the mismatch is with the 16th Union Finance Commission, not the 15th. Statement 3 is correct as the SFC notes such adjustment is unavoidable to ensure UFC grants are fully availed and utilised.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The 7th SFC is for the period from 2026-27 to 2030-31.' The other options are close distractors based on typical five-year periods.

Explanation

The core problem is that UFC grants for urban bodies are high, but much of Kerala's urban growth is happening in areas under rural local governments (Census towns). The overhaul aims to resolve this mismatch so grants are used where the urban population actually resides.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the farm loan waiver was a major promise made by the Bharatiya Janata Party-led (BJP) Mahayuti alliance before the 2024 Assembly elections.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the scheme covers loans 'up to ₹2 lakh'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the scheme is expected to benefit 'nearly 56 lakh farmers', not 65 lakh. The 65 lakh figure refers to the number of loan accounts. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the Cabinet decided to provide an incentive of up to ₹50,000 to farmers with regular repayment.

Explanation

According to the article, 'loans worth ₹36,585 crore of nearly 56 lakh farmers are expected to be waived'. The other options are plausible distractors but not the exact figure mentioned in the source.

Explanation

The article clearly states that 'an official announcement is unlikely at present as the Model Code of Conduct is in force due to the Legislative Council elections'. This is a standard electoral practice to avoid influencing voters.

Explanation

Article 123 of the Indian Constitution grants the President the power to promulgate ordinances when Parliament is not in session. This is a core static GK fact directly mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the ordinance addresses over 93,000 pending cases. Statement 2 is incorrect; an ordinance can be issued when Parliament is not in session (not specifically when Lok Sabha is dissolved). Statement 3 is correct as per the article's description of Article 123.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the Supreme Court's mounting caseload is 'now exceeding 93,000 pending matters'. The other options are plausible distractors but not the exact figure mentioned.

Explanation

The article's core argument is that the routine resort to ordinances reflects the 'steady displacement' of Parliament as the primary site of democratic deliberation, reducing it to a ratifying body. This is the central constitutional concern highlighted.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the court noted the gestational period had exceeded the statutory limit prescribed under the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, 1971. The other Acts, while related to minors or crimes, do not govern abortion timelines.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the court declined permission for termination. Statement 2 is incorrect as the court explicitly stated the right cannot be construed as absolute and is subject to medical assessment. Statement 3 is correct as the court issued directions for free medical care and counselling.

Explanation

The article's headline and content specify the minor was '27 weeks pregnant' and that the pregnancy had 'advanced to nearly 27 weeks'. The 24-week limit is the standard under the MTP Act for special categories, but this specific case was at 27 weeks.

Explanation

The court emphasized that the 'paramount consideration... must be the minimisation of risk to the minor’s health' and the 'preservation of life'. This was based on the Medical Board's opinion that termination posed a serious threat, making safety the primary judicial concern.

Explanation

The National Family Health Survey (NFHS) is conducted by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW). It is the primary source for data on demographic and health indicators in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The number of key indicators decreased from 131 in NFHS-5 to 101 in NFHS-6. Statement 2 is correct: Anaemia prevalence data was omitted as the survey method changed. Statement 3 is correct: Insurance coverage jumped from 41% to 60.2%.

Explanation

The article states that the number of women who have ever used the internet jumped from 33.3% in NFHS-5 to 64.3% in NFHS-6. Option A is the NFHS-5 figure, and option D is the figure for men in NFHS-6.

Explanation

The article quotes sources stating the omission was an 'attempt at data harmonisation' to reduce confusion, as several data points are already reported independently by other government surveys like SRS and NSSO.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) is an agency of the United Nations. This is a key static fact about international organizations relevant for UPSC and SSC exams.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's definition. Statement 2 is correct as it defines the El Niño threshold. Statement 3 is correct because the article states the latest index value was -0.5°C, which is below the La Niña threshold of -0.5°C.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'the certainty of El Niño development... during June-August was now 80 per cent.' The 90% figure is a separate statement by the UN Secretary-General about El Niño arriving with certainty, not the specific WMO forecast probability.

Explanation

The article directly quotes UN Secretary-General Antonio Guterres: 'El Niño conditions will pour fuel on the fire of a warming world.' This metaphorical statement highlights how El Niño exacerbates existing global warming trends, making it a critical climate warning.

Explanation

The India Meteorological Department (IMD), under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, is the principal agency responsible for meteorological observations, weather forecasting, and seismology in India, including declaring the monsoon onset.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the onset is expected around June 4, while the typical date is June 1. Statement 2 is correct as the forecast is for 90% of LPA rainfall. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article clearly states that the IMD classifies a season as 'deficient' if rainfall is less than 90% of the LPA, not 95%.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The LPA of seasonal rainfall over the country as a whole, based on data from 1971 to 2020, is 87 cm.' The other figures are plausible distractors but not the correct value as per the provided content.

Explanation

The article directly links the below-normal rainfall forecast to 'the emergence of El-Nino conditions, which lead to less rain during the monsoon in the country.' The other options, while related to Indian weather, are not mentioned as reasons in this specific forecast.

Explanation

The Battle of Plassey in 1757 was fought between the British East India Company, led by Robert Clive, and the Nawab of Bengal, Siraj-ud-Daulah. The Company's victory marked a major step in the British conquest of India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's core argument. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article explicitly states China's aim has NOT been territorial annexation but to tie India down. Statement 3 is incorrect; the historical analogy is with 18th-century British, not French, imperial power built through wealth capture from India.

Explanation

The article specifically states: "India must therefore think strategically... Its real leverage against China's $20 trillion economy is not a Himalayan stalemate but its maritime geography." The other figures are plausible distractors but not mentioned.

Explanation

The article uses the British example—where a distant island nation used naval power and captured Indian wealth (resources) to finance its rise—to illustrate that strategic power can be projected remotely. The lesson for India is to leverage its own maritime position for influence, not just focus on continental defenses.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions Dr Pragya Yadav as the Director-in-Charge of the National Institute of One Health, Nagpur, and the corresponding author of the Nature report. The other institutes, while relevant to public health, are not mentioned in this context.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because West Bengal's outbreaks are linked to consumption of date palm sap, not fruits, and the risk peaks during the sap-harvesting season (Nov-Apr), not the monsoon. Statement 3 is correct as per the details of the 2001 Siliguri outbreak provided in the article.

Explanation

The article states the 2001 Siliguri outbreak resulted in 66 cases with a case fatality rate of 68.2%. The other options are close distractors: 75% was the proportion of infections among healthcare workers and visitors, not the CFR.

Explanation

The article states that in Kerala, Nipah outbreaks consistently occur between April and September, when hot, humid conditions coincide with fruiting seasons. During this period, bats feed near human settlements, increasing contamination risk. The other options, while potentially relevant to disease ecology, are not the primary factor cited for Kerala's seasonal pattern.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the discussions are about deploying nuclear weapons in additional European 'North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) states' and that talks are ongoing 'in NATO channels.'

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The report states the talks are for deployment in 'additional European NATO states,' meaning countries already in NATO. Statement 2 is correct as per the article which says the move involves hosting 'U.S. dual-capable aircraft (DCA), which are able to deliver nuclear strikes.' Statement 3 is incorrect; the report specifies interest from 'Countries on NATO's eastern flank including Poland and some Baltic states,' not western flank nations.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'U.S. officials have signaled openness to additional deployments beyond the existing six countries hosting nuclear-capable bombers.' Therefore, the current number is six.

Explanation

The article's context indicates the move is a response to security concerns, particularly from eastern flank nations. Deploying nuclear assets closer to potential adversaries is a tangible demonstration of the U.S. security commitment, thereby strengthening the credibility of its extended deterrence guarantee under the NATO alliance.