5 June 2026, Questions & Answers
180 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
180 questions · 0 topics covered · 36 min revision
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This page contains 180 current affairs questions with answers from 5 June 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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180 QsThe Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) that decides the key policy rates is a statutory body constituted under which Act?
- A.The Banking Regulation Act, 1949
- B.The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Finance Act, 2021
- D.The Companies Act, 2013
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Explanation
The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) was constituted as a statutory body under Section 45ZB of the amended Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. Its primary objective is to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent RBI Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) decision:
1. The MPC voted unanimously to keep the policy repo rate unchanged at 5.25%.
2. The committee decided to change its monetary policy stance from 'neutral' to 'withdrawal of accommodation'.
3. The MPC lowered its Real GDP growth projection for FY27 to 6.6% from 6.9%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the MPC decided to continue with the 'neutral' stance, not change it. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the growth forecast was lowered to 6.6% from 6.9%. Hence, option C is correct.
According to the RBI Governor's statement, what is the projected Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation for the financial year 2026-27 (FY27)?
- A.4.1%
- B.4.7%
- C.5.1%✓ Correct Answer
- D.5.9%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the CPI inflation for FY27 is projected at 5.1%, which is 50 basis points more than the earlier projection. The other options are distractors: 4.1% is not mentioned, 4.7% is the core inflation projection, and 5.9% is the Q3 FY27 projection.
What was the primary reason cited by the RBI Governor for the MPC's cautious 'wait-and-watch' approach, despite rising inflation projections?
- A.A significant rise in domestic demand and consumption.
- B.The need to support the government's fiscal deficit targets.
- C.Uncertainty regarding the duration of global conflicts and their spillover effects on supply chains.✓ Correct Answer
- D.A sharp depreciation of the Indian Rupee against the US Dollar.
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Explanation
The Governor stated that considerable risks to the baseline assessment exist due to uncertainty about the duration and intensity of the conflict, magnitude of its spillovers, and the pace of supply chain restoration. This uncertainty was a key reason for maintaining the status quo. The other factors were either not mentioned or not cited as primary reasons.
Which committee of the Reserve Bank of India is responsible for deciding the policy repo rate?
- A.Board for Financial Supervision (BFS)
- B.Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Committee on Financial Sector Assessment (CFSA)
- D.Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC)
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Explanation
The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is a six-member statutory committee constituted under the RBI Act, 1934. Its primary objective is to determine the policy interest rate (repo rate) required to achieve the inflation target, as mentioned in the article regarding the interest rate decision.
Consider the following statements regarding the RBI's Monetary Policy announced in June 2026:
1. The Monetary Policy Committee decided to increase the policy repo rate.
2. The RBI revised its GDP growth forecast for FY27 upwards to 6.9%.
3. The core inflation forecast for the current year was increased to 4.7% from 4.4%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) None of the above
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the MPC decided to leave the policy repo rate unchanged at 5.25%. Statement 2 is incorrect because the RBI revised the FY27 GDP growth forecast downwards to 6.6% from 6.9%. Statement 3 is correct as explicitly mentioned in the article: 'The core inflation forecast for the current year has also been increased to 4.7% from 4.4%'.
According to the RBI's June 2026 monetary policy, what is the projected Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation for the quarter October-December 2026 (Q3 FY27)?
- A.4.7%
- B.5.1%
- C.5.4%
- D.5.9%✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article provides the revised quarterly inflation forecasts: '5.9% in October-December 2026'. This is a critical data point as it shows inflation nearing the upper bound of the RBI's target range (6%) during that quarter.
What is the primary implication of the RBI raising its core inflation forecast, as mentioned in the news?
- A.It indicates a sharp decline in agricultural output.
- B.It signals persistent underlying demand pressures in the economy.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It suggests a significant reduction in government expenditure.
- D.It points towards a collapse in global crude oil prices.
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Explanation
Core inflation excludes volatile food and fuel prices. An increase in its forecast, as stated in the article ('indicator of underlying demand'), suggests that price pressures are becoming broad-based and driven by domestic demand factors, which is a key concern for monetary policy.
Which ministry is responsible for releasing the provisional estimates of GDP growth in India?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.NITI Aayog
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Explanation
The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) is the nodal agency for collecting, compiling, and disseminating official statistics in India, including the National Income accounts and GDP estimates.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent GDP data for 2025-26:
1. The provisional GDP growth for the full year 2025-26 is estimated at 7.7%, which is higher than the 7.6% estimated earlier in February 2026.
2. The growth rate of the manufacturing sector in 2025-26 was lower than its growth rate in the fourth quarter of the same year.
3. The Reserve Bank of India has projected the GDP growth for 2026-27 to be 6.6%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the provisional estimate of 7.7% is slightly faster than the 7.6% estimated in February 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: manufacturing grew at 10.7% for the full year but slowed to 7.3% in Q4. Statement 3 is correct: RBI Governor projected growth for 2026-27 at 6.6%.
According to the provisional estimates for 2025-26, what was the growth rate of the agriculture sector?
- A.4.2%
- B.3.8%
- C.3.6%
- D.3.0%✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article states that the agriculture sector is expected to see growth slowing to 3% in 2025-26. Option A (4.2%) is the growth for the previous year (2024-25). Option C (3.6%) is the Q4 growth for 2025-26. Option B (3.8%) is the Q4 growth for 2024-25.
What is a key reason cited by economists for the expected slowdown in GDP growth for the year 2026-27?
- A.Decline in foreign direct investment
- B.Pressure on demand and price levels from the West Asia crisis✓ Correct Answer
- C.Implementation of new GST rates
- D.Reduction in government capital expenditure
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that economists have warned growth in 2026-27 is expected to slow due to pressure on demand and price levels being exerted by the crisis in West Asia, along with the expectation of a lower-than-normal monsoon. The other options are not mentioned in the article as reasons for the projected slowdown.
Which constitutional articles did the Supreme Court cite as the basis for establishing a right to rehabilitation for trafficking victims?
- A.Articles 14 and 15
- B.Articles 19 and 21
- C.Articles 21 and 23✓ Correct Answer
- D.Articles 32 and 226
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Explanation
The Supreme Court held that victims of trafficking for commercial sexual exploitation have a constitutional right to rehabilitation, which flows from Articles 21 (Right to Life) and 23 (Prohibition of traffic in human beings) of the Constitution.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's judgment on the Victim Protection Plan:
1. The Court directed the creation of a new Organised Crime Investigation Agency (OCIA) to investigate trafficking cases.
2. The judgment mandates that Anti-Human Trafficking Units (AHTUs) must be headed by an officer of the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police.
3. The Court recognized a distinction between voluntary and involuntary sex work under the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Court declined to create the OCIA; instead, it noted the Centre had empowered the NIA in 2019. Statement 2 is correct as the judgment directs that AHTUs be strengthened and headed by DySP-rank officers. Statement 3 is correct as the Court examined Section 17 of the ITPA, 1956, and emphasized the need to distinguish between voluntary and involuntary sex work.
In which year was the original petition, which led to the Supreme Court framing the Victim Protection Plan, first filed?
- A.1998
- B.2004✓ Correct Answer
- C.2015
- D.2022
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Explanation
The litigation traces back to a petition filed in 2004 by Prajwala, a Hyderabad-based anti-trafficking organisation. The petition argued that victims were treated as criminals and that the absence of a Victim Protection Plan made rehabilitation ineffective.
What is a primary objective of the Victim Protection Plan framed by the Supreme Court, as per the judgment?
- A.To increase the conviction rate of traffickers by creating a special agency.
- B.To shift the legal focus from punishing perpetrators to empowering and rehabilitating victims.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To mandate compulsory institutionalization of all rescued victims in protective homes.
- D.To decriminalize all forms of sex work by repealing the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act.
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Explanation
The judgment emphasizes that 'the goal is not merely to punish the perpetrator but also to empower the victims by guaranteeing and realising their rights.' The Victim Protection Plan is designed to give victims 'centre stage' and prioritize their needs through consent-based rehabilitation, reflecting this victim-centric shift.
Which committee is responsible for setting the policy repo rate in India?
- A.Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC)
- B.Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)
- D.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
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Explanation
The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the Reserve Bank of India is the statutory body mandated to determine the policy repo rate to achieve the inflation target. The article discusses the decisions of the MPC's bi-monthly meeting.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent RBI Monetary Policy:
1. The MPC raised its CPI inflation projection for FY2027 by 50 basis points.
2. The MPC increased its real GDP growth projection for FY2027.
3. The committee cited upside risks to inflation from the sub-par monsoon and global supply-chain risks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The MPC raised the CPI inflation projection for FY2027 to 5.1% from 4.6%, a 50 bps hike. Statement 2 is incorrect: The MPC pared (cut) the real GDP growth projection for FY2027 by 30 bps to 6.6%. Statement 3 is correct: The article explicitly states that inflation risks remain tilted to the upside owing to sub-par monsoon and global supply-chain risks.
According to the article, what is the Current Account Deficit (CAD) projected for FY2027 by ICRA?
- A.0.9% of GDP
- B.1.5% of GDP
- C.2.0% of GDP✓ Correct Answer
- D.2.5% of GDP
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Explanation
The article states: 'We project it to more than double to around 2 per cent of GDP in FY2027 from the 0.9 per cent expected in FY2026.' The other options are distractors: 0.9% is the expected CAD for FY2026.
What was a primary objective of the RBI's announcements alongside the MPC's policy decision, as per the article?
- A.To directly increase the repo rate to combat inflation
- B.To attract foreign capital inflows, especially into government securities✓ Correct Answer
- C.To mandate higher reserve requirements for commercial banks
- D.To announce a new scheme for retail digital payments
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Explanation
The article clarifies that the RBI governor made announcements 'to attract capital flows' and that these were 'aimed at incentivising more foreign capital inflows, especially in government securities (G-secs).' This was done to address currency weakness and support the balance of payments, not to change the policy rate directly.
Which institution announced the measures to ease foreign borrowing rules for PSUs and provide hedging support for FCNR(B) deposits?
- A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Finance
- D.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announced these measures. RBI is India's central bank and the primary regulator for foreign exchange management, ECBs, and banking operations.
Consider the following statements regarding the RBI measures announced:
1. A concessional forex swap facility is available for PSUs' External Commercial Borrowings until September 30, 2026.
2. The RBI will cover the full hedging cost for banks raising fresh 3-5 year FCNR(A) deposits.
3. The Fully Accessible Route (FAR) for FIIs has been expanded to include all new issuances of 10-year and 20-year Government Securities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the hedging support is for FCNR(B) deposits, not FCNR(A). Statement 3 is incorrect as the FAR was expanded to include 15-, 30-, and 40-year bonds, not 10- and 20-year bonds.
According to the RBI data mentioned in the article, how much was raised by banks under the FCNR(B) route in FY26?
- A.$0.5 billion
- B.$946 million✓ Correct Answer
- C.$7 billion
- D.$30 billion
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Explanation
The article provides the exact figure: "Banks raised just $ 946 million in FY26 under the FCNR (B) route." The other options are distractors: $7 billion was the FY25 figure, and ~$30 billion was raised under the 2013 special swap scheme.
What is the primary objective of the RBI's measures to provide a concessional swap for PSU ECBs and full hedging for FCNR(B) deposits?
- A.To reduce the fiscal deficit of the central government
- B.To encourage capital inflows, support the rupee, and bolster foreign exchange reserves✓ Correct Answer
- C.To directly finance infrastructure projects through government spending
- D.To increase domestic credit availability for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs)
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Explanation
The article's opening states the coordinated policy push is "aimed at encouraging capital inflows, supporting the rupee and bolstering India’s foreign exchange reserves." The other options describe potential secondary effects or unrelated policy goals.
Which ministry is the source of the official data on India's installed solar and renewable energy capacity mentioned in the article?
- A.Ministry of Power
- B.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- D.Ministry of Science and Technology
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the official data comes from the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE). MNRE is the nodal ministry responsible for all matters relating to new and renewable energy in India.
Consider the following statements regarding India's renewable energy landscape as per the article:
1. As of April 2026, India's total installed solar capacity had reached 154.24 GW, with ground-mounted projects constituting the majority share.
2. The National Electricity Plan projects India's energy storage requirement to be 82.37 GWh by 2031-32.
3. Wind energy generation in several Indian regions often complements solar by intensifying during evening and monsoon periods.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 3
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article states solar capacity is 154.24 GW, with ground-mounted at 117.36 GW and rooftop at 26.75 GW, making ground-mounted the majority. Statement 2 is incorrect: The storage requirement of 82.37 GWh is for 2026-27, not 2031-32 (which is 411.4 GWh). Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions wind generation often intensifies during evening and monsoon, creating a complementary relationship with solar.
According to the article, what is India's projected energy storage requirement by the year 2031-32 as per the National Electricity Plan?
- A.82.37 GWh
- B.174 GWh
- C.411.4 GWh✓ Correct Answer
- D.2,380 GWh
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Explanation
The article clearly states that according to the National Electricity Plan, 2023, India's projected storage requirement is expected to surge to 411.4 GWh by 2031-32. 82.37 GWh is the requirement for 2026-27, and 2,380 GWh is a long-term projection for 2047.
What is identified as the primary strategic challenge for India's power sector in the wake of its rapid solar expansion?
- A.Reducing the cost of solar photovoltaic modules
- B.Acquiring sufficient land for ground-mounted solar parks
- C.Managing the temporal mismatch between solar generation and peak electricity demand✓ Correct Answer
- D.Increasing the domestic manufacturing capacity for wind turbines
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Explanation
The article identifies 'intermittent supply' as a core challenge. Solar produces during daylight, but national demand peaks in the evening. This temporal mismatch creates grid balancing issues, making its management the primary strategic challenge, shifting focus from mere capacity addition to grid stability and storage.
The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC), which decides the repo rate, is a statutory body constituted under which Act?
- A.The Banking Regulation Act, 1949
- B.The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956
- D.The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999
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Explanation
The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) was constituted under Section 45ZB of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, as amended in 2016. Its primary objective is to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.
Consider the following statements regarding measures announced by the RBI:
1. It has decided to increase the investment limits for Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) in equity instruments without SEBI registration.
2. It has expanded the Fully Accessible Route (FAR) by including all new issuances of 10-year and 20-year tenor Government Securities.
3. It has proposed to reduce the time for realisation of export proceeds from 15 months to 6 months.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the FAR was expanded to include 15-, 30-, and 40-year tenor G-Secs, not 10- and 20-year. Statement 3 is incorrect; the time was restored to nine months from 15 months, not reduced to six months.
As per the recent RBI announcement, what is the repo rate that has been kept unchanged?
- A.5.00%
- B.5.25%✓ Correct Answer
- C.5.50%
- D.5.75%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the RBI has decided to keep the repo rate unchanged at 5.25%. This is a precise data point frequently asked in prelims.
What is the primary objective behind the RBI's decision to expand the universe of 'specified securities' under the Fully Accessible Route (FAR)?
- A.To reduce the government's fiscal deficit directly.
- B.To attract foreign capital for government borrowing.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To provide cheaper credit to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs).
- D.To stabilize the rupee by direct intervention in the forex market.
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Explanation
The article quotes RBI Governor Sanjay Malhotra stating that these measures, along with tax benefits, "should help attract foreign capital for government borrowing." The FAR is specifically designed to make Indian government bonds more accessible to foreign investors.
Who is the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) as mentioned in the news article?
- A.Shaktikanta Das
- B.Urjit Patel
- C.Sanjay Malhotra✓ Correct Answer
- D.Raghuram Rajan
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions 'Reserve Bank Governor Sanjay Malhotra' as the official making the statement on forex reserves. The other names are former RBI Governors.
Consider the following statements regarding India's foreign exchange reserves as per the news article:
1. As of May 29, 2026, India's forex reserves stood at $682.3 billion.
2. These reserves provide an import cover of about 11 months.
3. The forex reserves had expanded to an all-time high of $728.494 billion during the week ended February 27, 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states 'India's foreign exchange reserves stood at a healthy $682.3 billion' as of May 29, 2026. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions the reserves are 'adequate to provide import cover for about 11 months'. Statement 3 is correct as it is mentioned that 'The kitty had expanded to an all-time high of $728.494 billion during the week ended February 27 this year'.
According to the RBI Governor, what was the ratio of India's external debt to its foreign exchange reserves as of the latest data?
- A.85.5%
- B.89.1%✓ Correct Answer
- C.92.7%
- D.95.0%
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Explanation
The RBI Governor stated that the reserves are adequate in terms of standard metrics, including 'external debt (89.1%)'. This means external debt as a percentage of forex reserves is 89.1%. The other options are close distractors.
According to the RBI Governor, what are the primary upside risks to India's Current Account Deficit (CAD) in 2026-27, as highlighted in the article?
- A.Declining services exports and lower FDI inflows
- B.Surge in energy prices and persistent trade policy uncertainties✓ Correct Answer
- C.Weakening rupee and high domestic inflation
- D.Slowdown in global growth and tightening of monetary policy by major central banks
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Governor pointed to 'the surge in energy prices and persistent trade policy uncertainties' as factors that 'continue to pose upside risks to India’s current account deficit in 2026-27'. The other options, while plausible economic risks, are not the specific ones mentioned.
Which statutory committee is responsible for fixing the repo rate in India?
- A.Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC)
- B.Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)✓ Correct Answer
- C.GST Council
- D.Economic Advisory Council (EAC)
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Explanation
The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is a statutory committee constituted under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. Its primary mandate is to determine the policy repo rate to achieve the inflation target set by the Government of India.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent RBI Monetary Policy:
1. The repo rate was kept unchanged at 5.25%.
2. The GDP growth forecast for FY27 was revised upwards to 6.9%.
3. The CPI inflation forecast for FY27 was revised to 5.1%, which is above RBI's medium-term target.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the repo rate was held at 5.25%. Statement 2 is incorrect; the GDP forecast was revised downwards to 6.6%, not upwards to 6.9%. Statement 3 is correct; the CPI inflation forecast was raised to 5.1%, which exceeds the RBI's medium-term target of 4%.
According to the RBI's assessment, what is the estimated direct impact of cumulative retail fuel price increases on headline CPI inflation?
- A.Around 15 basis points
- B.Around 25 basis points
- C.Around 35 basis points✓ Correct Answer
- D.Around 50 basis points
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Explanation
The article states that the cumulative increase in retail fuel prices following the West Asia conflict is estimated to have a direct impact of around 35 basis points (bps) on headline CPI inflation.
What is the primary implication of the RBI MPC's decision to keep the repo rate unchanged?
- A.Immediate increase in Equated Monthly Installments (EMIs) for borrowers.
- B.A stable interest rate environment for borrowers and businesses in the near term.✓ Correct Answer
- C.A direct reduction in the fiscal deficit of the central government.
- D.Mandatory increase in deposit rates offered by commercial banks.
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Explanation
As explained in the article, when the repo rate is kept unchanged, lending rates and deposit rates are unlikely to change immediately. This leads to stable EMIs for borrowers and predictable financing costs for businesses, fostering a stable interest rate environment.
The tax exemption on government securities announced in the news applies to Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) and which other international financial institution?
- A.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
- B.World Bank
- C.Bank for International Settlements (BIS)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Asian Development Bank (ADB)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the tax exemption applies to FIIs as well as the Bank for International Settlements (BIS), which is an organisation of central banks from around the world. The other institutions are not mentioned in the article.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent measures to attract foreign investment in government bonds:
1. The government has completely eliminated the long-term capital gains tax for Foreign Institutional Investors on government securities.
2. The Reserve Bank of India has removed all investment limits for Foreign Portfolio Investors under the General Route for government bonds.
3. The tax benefits are effective immediately from the date of the ordinance's promulgation in June 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article confirms the scrapping of both long-term and short-term capital gains tax. Statement 2 is correct: RBI Governor announced removal of limits pertaining to short-term investment, concentration and individual securities under the General Route. Statement 3 is incorrect: The changes come into effect from April 1, 2026, not immediately.
According to Axis Bank economists cited in the article, how much foreign inflow could the tax exemption on FII investment in government debt potentially attract over two years?
- A.$20-25 billion
- B.$30-35 billion
- C.$45-50 billion✓ Correct Answer
- D.$60-65 billion
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Explanation
The article directly quotes Axis Bank economists stating that 'no tax on FII investment in government debt could lead to $45-50 billion inflows over two years.' The other figures are distractors; $60 billion is the estimated BoP deficit.
What is the primary macroeconomic objective behind the government's decision to scrap taxes on FII investments in government bonds, as per the article?
- A.To increase direct tax revenue from foreign entities
- B.To reduce the fiscal deficit by lowering government borrowing costs
- C.To attract foreign capital to help bridge the Balance of Payments deficit and stabilize the rupee✓ Correct Answer
- D.To encourage domestic retail participation in the government securities market
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Explanation
The article's core premise is that the move is 'Amid pressure to attract foreign funds and also stabilise the rupee' and is expected to 'bridge to some extent the looming balance of payments (BoP) deficit'. While other options might be secondary effects, the primary objective is clearly managing external sector vulnerabilities.
Under which Act is the provision for expeditious disposal of election petitions, as highlighted in the Madras HC judgment, contained?
- A.The Constitution of India
- B.The Indian Penal Code, 1860
- C.The Representation of the People Act, 1951✓ Correct Answer
- D.The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
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Explanation
The judgment specifically refers to Section 86(7) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, which mandates that every election petition shall be tried as expeditiously as possible and efforts shall be made to conclude the trial within six months. This is the core legal framework for election disputes in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the Madras High Court judgment on the 2016 Radhapuram election:
1. The court declared that middle school headmasters are not gazetted officers for attesting postal ballots.
2. The original declared margin of victory was 49 votes in favour of AIADMK candidate I S Inbadurai.
3. The Supreme Court finally decided the legal question regarding the status of headmasters as gazetted officers in May 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Madras High Court held that middle school headmasters DO qualify as gazetted officers for attesting postal ballots, which was the basis for the recount. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Supreme Court, in May 2026, disposed of the appeal without deciding the core legal question, leaving it open for future determination.
According to the Madras High Court's recount, how many of the 203 disputed postal ballots were found to be valid votes in favour of M Appavu?
- A.49
- B.103
- C.153✓ Correct Answer
- D.203
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Explanation
The recount report showed that out of the 203 postal ballots initially rejected, 153 were valid votes cast in favour of DMK's M Appavu. This was the key data point that transformed his 49-vote loss into a 103-vote victory.
What was the primary reason cited by the Madras High Court for describing the prolonged litigation in this case as a 'grave mockery of justice'?
- A.The use of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) was found to be faulty.
- B.The election petition was filed by the wrong candidate.
- C.The mandate for speedy disposal under Section 86(7) of the RPA, 1951 was ignored.✓ Correct Answer
- D.The AIADMK candidate was found guilty of using money power.
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Explanation
The court's strong criticism centered on the inordinate delay in resolving the election dispute, which outlived the Assembly term itself. It emphasized that Section 86(7) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, requires election petitions to be decided expeditiously, preferably within six months, to uphold democratic integrity. The failure to do so undermined the voters' mandate.
Under which ministry does the Enforcement Directorate (ED) function?
- A.Ministry of Home Affairs
- B.Ministry of Finance✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Law and Justice
- D.Ministry of Corporate Affairs
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Explanation
The Enforcement Directorate is a law enforcement agency under the Department of Revenue, which is part of the Ministry of Finance. It is responsible for investigating economic crimes like money laundering and foreign exchange violations.
Consider the following statements regarding the Kerala High Court's recent ruling on PMLA:
1. The court held that the existence of a prior registered scheduled offence is a jurisdictional prerequisite for the ED to issue summons under Section 50 of the PMLA.
2. The court equated an Enforcement Case Information Report (ECIR) with a First Information Report (FIR) under the Code of Criminal Procedure.
3. The court relied on the Supreme Court's judgment in the Vijay Madanlal Choudhary case while delivering its ruling.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the court explicitly said "The existence of a prior registered scheduled offence is not a jurisdictional prerequisite" for actions under Section 50. Statement 2 is incorrect because the court held that "an ECIR cannot be equated with an FIR under the Code of Criminal Procedure". Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the court "relied heavily on the Supreme Court's judgment in Vijay Madanlal Choudhary".
As per the Kerala High Court ruling, which of the following is a prerequisite for initiating prosecution for the offence of money laundering under Section 3 of the PMLA?
- A.Registration of an Enforcement Case Information Report (ECIR)
- B.Existence of material suggesting proceeds of crime
- C.Registration of a scheduled offence✓ Correct Answer
- D.An order for provisional attachment of property
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Explanation
The court stressed that "prosecution for money laundering stands on a different footing" and "To initiate prosecution for offence under Section 3, PMLA registration of scheduled offence is a prerequisite". The other options relate to the inquiry stage, not prosecution.
What is the primary implication of the Kerala High Court's distinction between 'inquiry' and 'prosecution' under the PMLA?
- A.It prevents the ED from investigating any case without a court's prior permission.
- B.It allows the ED to begin gathering evidence based on suspicion of proceeds of crime, even before a predicate offence is formally registered.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It mandates that all ED inquiries must result in prosecution within a fixed timeframe.
- D.It transfers the power to investigate scheduled offences from state police to the ED.
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Explanation
The core ruling is that for an 'inquiry' (the foundational process), the ED can issue summons and seek documents under Section 50 PMLA when it receives information suggesting proceeds of crime. A prior registered scheduled offence is not needed at this stage, which grants the ED operational flexibility to initiate probes early.
The study on global heat vulnerability mentioned in the news was conducted by researchers from which university?
- A.University of Cambridge
- B.University of Oxford✓ Correct Answer
- C.Massachusetts Institute of Technology
- D.Harvard University
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the study "Moving beyond exposure: a globally comparable framework for heat risk assessment in cities" was an Oxford University study, with the lead author being a DPhil researcher at the Oxford Smith School.
Consider the following statements regarding the Oxford University study on heat vulnerability:
1. The study ranked 205 global cities with a population of more than one million.
2. Heat risk in the study was assessed solely on the basis of maximum temperature recorded.
3. The study cautioned that over-reliance on air conditioning could exacerbate urban warming.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article says the study analysed 205 cities with populations >1 million. Statement 2 is incorrect because risk was assessed on three factors (exposure, vulnerability, coping capacity), not just temperature. Statement 3 is correct as researchers warned about AC's role in a 'vicious cycle' of warming.
According to the Oxford University study, how many Indian cities feature among the world's 50 most heat-vulnerable cities?
- A.10
- B.12
- C.14✓ Correct Answer
- D.16
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Explanation
The article's opening line clearly states: "India has more cities among the world’s 50 most heat-vulnerable than any other country, with 14 cities featuring in an Oxford University study." The other options are close distractors.
What is the primary reason, as highlighted in the study, for cautioning against over-reliance on air conditioning as a solution to urban heat?
- A.It is too expensive for most urban populations.
- B.Its high energy demand and waste heat can worsen global warming.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It is ineffective in regions with high humidity.
- D.It leads to increased dependency on imported refrigerant gases.
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Explanation
The article quotes the report: "Increased fossil fuel-based electricity demand, high global-warming-potential refrigerant gases and waste heat emissions can exacerbate urban warming over time." This describes a feedback loop or 'vicious cycle' where AC use contributes to the very problem it tries to solve.
Which state government authority is primarily responsible for planning and development in the Mumbai Metropolitan Region, as mentioned in the context of the 'Third Mumbai' project?
- A.Maharashtra Housing and Area Development Authority (MHADA)
- B.Mumbai Metropolitan Region Development Authority (MMRDA)✓ Correct Answer
- C.City and Industrial Development Corporation (CIDCO)
- D.Maharashtra Industrial Development Corporation (MIDC)
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Explanation
The article states that the MMRDA signed an MoU with the Singapore-based company for the masterplan. MMRDA is the statutory body responsible for planning and development of the Mumbai Metropolitan Region.
Consider the following statements regarding the 'Third Mumbai' project:
1. It is officially named the Karnala-Sai-Chirner (KSC) New Town.
2. The masterplan for the project is being prepared by a Japanese consulting firm.
3. The project area encompasses villages in three tehsils of Raigad district.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the official name. Statement 2 is incorrect because the consultant is Singapore-based Surbana Jurong, not Japanese. Statement 3 is correct as the project covers 124 villages in Uran, Panvel, and Pen tehsils of Raigad district.
What is the approved cost for Phase 1 of the masterplan for the 'Third Mumbai' project, as per the news article?
- A.₹10.50 crore
- B.₹11.89 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹23.12 crore
- D.₹35.01 crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "Phase 1 of the masterplan is to be carried out at a cost of Rs 11.89 crore." ₹23.12 crore is the estimated cost for Phase 2, and ₹35.01 crore is the sum of both phases.
What is a primary strategic reason for locating the 'Third Mumbai' project in the specified area of Raigad district?
- A.To rehabilitate populations from flood-prone areas of Mumbai.
- B.To leverage proximity to the new Navi Mumbai International Airport and Atal Setu for economic growth.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To develop it as an exclusive residential zone for government employees.
- D.To preserve the agricultural land of the region by limiting industrial expansion.
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Explanation
The article clearly states that with the Atal Setu and NMIA nearby, Third Mumbai is planned as an urban hub to attract business and investments. This indicates the strategic intent to capitalize on this transport infrastructure.
Which Indian government department is responsible for issuing the official Long Range Forecast for the Southwest Monsoon?
- A.National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)
- B.Ministry of Earth Sciences
- C.India Meteorological Department (IMD)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Central Water Commission (CWC)
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Explanation
The India Meteorological Department (IMD), under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, is the principal agency responsible for meteorological observations and weather forecasting in India, including the crucial monsoon forecast as mentioned in the article.
Consider the following statements regarding the El Niño forecasts mentioned in the article:
1. According to NOAA's ENSO Diagnostic Discussion Report, there is an 82% chance of El Niño emerging during May-July 2026.
2. The same report predicts a 96% chance of El Niño conditions continuing through the winter of 2026-27.
3. The India Meteorological Department (IMD) has projected the 2026 monsoon rainfall at 92% of the long-period average, placing it in the 'deficient' category.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 and 2 are correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect. The IMD projection of 92% LPA places the monsoon in the 'below normal' category, not the 'deficient' category (which is less than 90% LPA). This is a classic examiner trap.
According to the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation's Consumer Price Index Press Release cited in the article, what was the rate of food inflation in April 2026?
- A.3.8%
- B.4.0%
- C.4.2%✓ Correct Answer
- D.4.5%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that according to the MoSPI Consumer Price Index Press Release (2026), food inflation rose to 4.2% in April 2026. The other numbers are close distractors.
The article argues that El Niño impacts the Indian economy through multiple channels. Which of the following is NOT identified as a primary transmission channel in the article?
- A.Heat stress reducing productivity of informal sector workers.
- B.Disruption in global supply chains affecting manufacturing exports.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Agricultural uncertainty leading to riskier sowing and higher irrigation costs.
- D.Food inflation transferring climate stress to household budgets.
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Explanation
The article clearly identifies three channels: heat stress, agricultural uncertainty, and inflation. It does not mention disruption to global supply chains or manufacturing exports as a primary transmission channel of El Niño's economic impact in India.
The article mentions the 'Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism' (CBAM). Which international body/grouping is primarily associated with implementing CBAM?
- A.World Trade Organization (WTO)
- B.European Union (EU)✓ Correct Answer
- C.United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
- D.Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)
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Explanation
The Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) is a policy instrument implemented by the European Union. It is designed to price carbon emissions on certain imported goods to prevent carbon leakage and ensure a level playing field for EU industries.
Consider the following statements regarding the arguments made in the article:
1. The single largest driver of the global SDG financing gap is the funding required for energy transition.
2. In India, fossil fuel combustion is responsible for nearly one million premature deaths annually.
3. The renewable energy sector in India has no significant potential for employment generation compared to traditional manufacturing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article which states 'half of the $4 trillion SDG financing gap lies in the energy transition alone.' Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions 'fossil fuel combustion accounts for 0.95 million premature deaths in India' annually. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article projects that 'India’s renewable sector could generate 3.4 million jobs by 2030.'
According to the article, what is the estimated annual investment required as a percentage of GDP for India to achieve its Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)?
- A.Approximately 4% of GDP
- B.Approximately 6% of GDP✓ Correct Answer
- C.Approximately 8% of GDP
- D.Approximately 10% of GDP
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'In India, estimates suggest that achieving the Sustainable Development Goals will require additional investments of around 6% of GDP annually.' The other figures are distractors.
What is the primary objective of the 'unified investment framework' advocated in the article?
- A.To separate climate finance from development finance for better accountability.
- B.To direct all capital exclusively towards large-scale infrastructure projects.
- C.To help capital deployers recognise and value the full spectrum of returns (financial and social) from investments.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To reduce government spending by shifting the entire investment burden to the private sector.
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Explanation
The article's core argument is that current investment decisions are based on an 'incomplete investment thesis' because they fail to account for co-benefits like health gains and job creation. The proposed framework aims to measure and value these combined returns to direct more capital towards high-impact solutions.
The National Coastal Mission, mentioned in the context of coastal adaptation spending, operates under which Union Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Earth Sciences
- B.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Jal Shakti
- D.Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways
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Explanation
The National Coastal Mission is a component of India's National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC), which is coordinated by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). It focuses on coastal sustainability and resilience.
Consider the following statements regarding coastal adaptation in India:
1. Over the last decade, coastal States have spent over ₹2,600 crore on hard protection measures like seawalls.
2. The budget for the National Coastal Mission increased from ₹195 crore in 2022-23 to ₹250 crore in 2024-25.
3. The Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes (MISHTI) aims to restore 540 square kilometres of mangroves.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article states coastal States spent ₹2,641 crore on hard protection measures over the last decade. Statement 2 is incorrect: The National Coastal Mission's budget actually fell from ₹195 crore in 2022-23 to ₹50 crore in 2024-25. Statement 3 is correct: The MISHTI programme aims at restoring 540 square kilometres of mangroves across nine States.
According to the article, what is the length of India's coastline that is vulnerable to climate change impacts?
- A.7,500 km
- B.11,000 km✓ Correct Answer
- C.13,500 km
- D.15,000 km
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that climate change is multiplying threats along India's 11,000-kilometre coastline. This is a standard static GK fact often asked in Prelims, but here it is directly sourced from the news context.
What is identified as a primary barrier preventing Ecosystem-based Adaptation (EbA) from being central to India's coastal adaptation agenda?
- A.Lack of scientific evidence for its effectiveness
- B.High initial cost compared to seawalls
- C.Ambiguity and overlapping terminology with concepts like Nature-based Solutions✓ Correct Answer
- D.Resistance from coastal communities dependent on fishing
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Explanation
The article identifies the most overlooked barrier as the ambiguity surrounding the term EbA, with a policy space crowded by overlapping concepts like Nature-based Solutions (NbS) and Eco-DRR. This creates uncertainty in classification, monitoring, and financing, keeping EbA interventions fragmented.
As per the article, which organization's report estimated that India needs an additional annual green investment of at least 2.5% of GDP until 2030?
- A.NITI Aayog
- B.Ministry of Finance
- C.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
- D.United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the 'Reserve Bank of India (RBI)’s own Report on Currency and Finance estimates that India needs an additional annual investment of at least 2.5% of GDP for green financing until 2030.'
Consider the following statements regarding India's climate finance challenge:
1. Decarbonizing the steel, cement, power, and road transport sectors will require an additional $467 billion between 2022 and 2030.
2. The Baku New Collective Quantified Goal (NCQG) commits $100 billion annually to developing countries for climate action.
3. India had issued $55.9 billion in green, social, sustainability, and sustainability-linked debt by the end of 2024.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the $100 billion annual promise was made at Paris, while the Baku NCQG commits $300 billion by 2035. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article.
According to the article, what is the estimated total cost for India to achieve net-zero emissions by 2070?
- A.$2.5 trillion
- B.$5.6 trillion
- C.$10.1 trillion✓ Correct Answer
- D.$15.3 trillion
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'the cost of achieving net-zero emissions by 2070 is estimated at $10.1 trillion'. $2.5 trillion is the cost for NDC by 2030.
What is the primary significance of the Reserve Bank of India's (RBI) 2025 Climate Finance Directions, as discussed in the article?
- A.It bans banks from lending to fossil fuel projects.
- B.It establishes a comprehensive framework integrating climate risks into bank lending and allows green activities as Priority Sector Lending (PSL).✓ Correct Answer
- C.It directly provides subsidies for green hydrogen production.
- D.It creates a new tax on carbon emissions for industries.
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Explanation
The article highlights that the RBI's 2025 Directions require banks to integrate climate risks and importantly, make eligible green activities qualify as PSL. This is a regulatory shift to steer bank credit, not a direct ban, subsidy, or tax.
The Critical Minerals Global Supply Chain Observatory is a joint initiative between India and which country?
- A.United States of America
- B.United Kingdom✓ Correct Answer
- C.Australia
- D.Japan
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Critical Minerals Global Supply Chain Observatory (GSCO) was launched by India and the United Kingdom (UK) on June 5, 2026.
Consider the following statements regarding the Critical Minerals Global Supply Chain Observatory (GSCO):
1. It was first announced during the visit of the UK Prime Minister to India in October 2025.
2. The platform will be operated jointly by India's TEXMiN Foundation and the Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru.
3. One of its stated objectives is to support clean energy transitions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Indian partner is IIT (ISM) Dhanbad, not the Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru. Statement 3 is correct as Union Minister G. Kishan Reddy stated the observatory is a step towards 'supporting clean energy transitions'.
When was the Critical Minerals Global Supply Chain Observatory (GSCO) formally launched by India and the UK?
- A.June 5, 2025
- B.June 5, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.October 2025
- D.January 1, 2026
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Explanation
The article clearly states the formal launch date was Thursday, June 5, 2026. October 2025 is the date when the observatory was first announced, not launched.
What is the primary objective of the India-UK Critical Minerals Global Supply Chain Observatory as highlighted in the news?
- A.To reduce tariffs on mineral trade between the two countries
- B.To create a data-driven platform for monitoring and analyzing global critical mineral supply chains✓ Correct Answer
- C.To establish joint mining operations in Africa and South America
- D.To develop new technologies for deep-sea mining exclusively
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Explanation
The core objective, as stated in the article, is to institute a 'data-driven platform to monitor and analyse global critical mineral supply chains'. While supporting clean energy and unlocking investment are broader goals, the primary mechanism is the data and analysis platform.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for conducting the National Family Health Survey (NFHS) mentioned in the article?
- A.Ministry of Women and Child Development
- B.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
- D.Ministry of Rural Development
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Explanation
The National Family Health Survey (NFHS) is conducted by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW), Government of India, with the International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS) as the nodal agency. The article references data from NFHS-6.
Consider the following statements regarding the findings discussed in the article:
1. The NFHS-6 data shows an improvement in all child nutrition indicators compared to NFHS-5.
2. The Vellore study found that the prevalence of overweight and obesity in children was higher than the prevalence of thinness by age nine.
3. The study identified the mother's Body Mass Index (BMI) as a predictor of childhood thinness.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states improvements in stunting, wasting, and severe wasting are 'neither uniform nor even,' with pockets of significant concern. Statement 2 is correct: at age nine, overweight/obesity was 14.6% and underweight was 21.6%. Statement 3 is correct as explicitly mentioned: 'the mother’s BMI was a predictor of childhood thinness'.
According to the NFHS-6 data cited in the article, what percentage of women aged 15-49 were overweight or obese in 2023-24?
- A.24.0%
- B.26.3%
- C.30.7%✓ Correct Answer
- D.45.0%
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'NFHS-6 which indicates that 30.7% of women aged 15-49 were overweight or obese in 2023-24, compared to 24% in NFHS-5'. 24% is the NFHS-5 figure, 26.3% is the thinness prevalence at age 7 from the Vellore study, and 45% is the stunting rate at age 2 from the same study.
What is the primary recommendation from public health experts, as per the article, for addressing India's double burden of malnutrition?
- A.Exclusively increasing the calorie content of food supplied under ICDS
- B.Shifting focus entirely from undernutrition to combating obesity
- C.Redesigning programs like ICDS to address both undernutrition and poor diet quality✓ Correct Answer
- D.Privatizing the Public Distribution System (PDS) to improve efficiency
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Explanation
The article concludes that a 'one-sided intervention' would be a mistake. It cites the FAO recommendation that 'programmes once designed primarily to combat undernutrition (ICDS, school meals, PDS) now need to be re-thought to address both inadequate calories/micronutrients and poor-quality, ultra-processed, high-sugar, high-fat diets.'
Which ministry's annual budget allocation is cited as being only 0.07% of the total Union Budget in the context of environmental governance?
- A.Ministry of Earth Sciences
- B.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
- D.Ministry of Jal Shakti
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) receives only 0.07% of the annual budget, highlighting chronic underfunding for environmental issues.
Consider the following statements regarding the arguments made in the article:
1. The proposed Annual Environmental Survey of India (EnvSI) should be modeled on the existing Economic Survey of India.
2. According to the Desertification and Land Degradation Atlas, less than 20% of India's total geographical area is degraded.
3. A survey by the Yale School of the Environment found that a majority of Indian respondents had experienced extreme weather events like heatwaves.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article clearly proposes the Economic Survey as the model for EnvSI. Statement 2 is incorrect; the correct figure is 29.7%, not 'less than 20%'. Statement 3 is correct as the Yale survey of 10,751 Indians found 71% experienced heatwaves.
According to the Desertification and Land Degradation Atlas of India cited in the article, what percentage of the country's land is estimated to be degraded?
- A.19.5%
- B.25.1%
- C.29.7%✓ Correct Answer
- D.33.4%
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Explanation
The article directly quotes the Desertification and Land Degradation Atlas of India, stating that 29.7% of the country's land is degraded. This is a key data point for understanding the scale of the land crisis.
What is presented as the primary objective of establishing an Annual Environmental Survey of India (EnvSI)?
- A.To centralize all environmental research funding under one agency.
- B.To replace the annual reporting functions of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
- C.To aggregate fragmented environmental data and provide independent, actionable assessments.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To directly enforce environmental regulations and penalize polluting industries.
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Explanation
The article argues that data already exists but is fragmented. The core objective of EnvSI is to create a unified platform that aggregates this evidence, conducts audits, and issues actionable assessments to inform policy, not to fund research, replace MoEFCC, or enforce regulations directly.
The 'Startup India' initiative and startup recognition guidelines are under the purview of which government department?
- A.Department of Economic Affairs
- B.Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
- D.NITI Aayog
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) started recognising companies aligning with government guidelines as startups. DPIIT operates under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Consider the following statements regarding India's startup ecosystem (2016-2025):
1. The recognition of startups by DPIIT is mandatory for their operation.
2. The share of new startups in Tier 3 towns surpassed that of Tier 1 cities by 2025.
3. The Compound Annual Growth Rate (CAGR) for women founders was lower than that for men founders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the article states 'DPIIT recognition not being mandatory for startups to operate'. Statement 2 is correct: Tier 3 towns accounted for 71% of new startups in 2025, surpassing Tier 1 cities (18%). Statement 3 is incorrect: Women founders' CAGR was 20%, higher than men's 14%.
According to the data cited in the article, what was the percentage of DPIIT-recognised startups out of the total functioning startups in 2016?
- A.3%✓ Correct Answer
- B.15%
- C.49%
- D.65%
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'From 288 in 2016, which was just 3% of the total startups functioning then, the DPIIT’s coverage has increased...' The other percentages correspond to different metrics: 15% was the share of Tier 3 towns in 2016, 49% was Tier 1 city share in 2020, and 65% was Tier 1 city share in 2016.
The significant shift in startup formation from Tier 1 cities to Tier 3 towns, as highlighted in the news, primarily indicates which of the following?
- A.A decline in the quality of innovation in metropolitan areas.
- B.The successful geographical decentralization of India's innovation ecosystem.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Government policy forcing startups to relocate to smaller towns.
- D.A reduction in the total number of new startups being created annually.
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Explanation
The data shows innovation and entrepreneurship spreading beyond major urban hubs, which is a positive sign of decentralized economic development and inclusive growth. This spread is likely due to improved digital infrastructure, local talent, and supportive policies, not a decline in metro innovation or forced relocation.
Under which broader project has the Kerala government proposed menstrual leave for schoolchildren?
- A.Project Women Empowerment
- B.Project Menstrual Dignity✓ Correct Answer
- C.Project School Health
- D.Project Sanitation for All
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the menstrual leave proposal is implemented as part of the 'Project Menstrual Dignity' of the Kerala government. This is the specific policy framework under which the initiative falls.
Consider the following statements regarding the menstrual leave proposal in Kerala:
1. It was first implemented in Kerala for university students in 2023 following a model from Cochin University of Science and Technology (Cusat).
2. The proposal has unanimous support, with no concerns raised about student privacy or potential misuse.
3. A key argument in favor is that it helps dismantle stigma and normalize menstruation as a biological process.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions Cusat pioneered the leave in Jan 2023 and the state later extended it to universities. Statement 2 is incorrect as the article details opposition from figures like Noorbina Rasheed and R. Sreelekha, who raised privacy concerns. Statement 3 is correct, directly quoting student Steffi's view that it helps dismantle stigma.
In which year did the Cochin University of Science and Technology (Cusat) first introduce menstrual leave benefits for its students, as mentioned in the article?
- A.2021
- B.2022
- C.2023✓ Correct Answer
- D.2024
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Explanation
The article clearly states: "Three years ago, in January 2023, the Cochin University of Science and Technology (Cusat) mainstreamed the issue..." This is the key factual date associated with the origin of this policy model.
What is a primary concern raised by critics of the menstrual leave proposal for schoolchildren in Kerala?
- A.It will significantly increase the financial burden on state schools.
- B.It could lead to a decline in the overall academic standards.
- C.Recording the leave may compromise student privacy and lead to psychological distress.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It will require a constitutional amendment to implement.
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Explanation
The article quotes critics like Noorbina Rasheed and R. Sreelekha who fear that recording menstrual leave could make private information public, causing psychological distress and potential bullying. Other options like financial burden or constitutional amendment are not discussed as primary concerns in the article.
Which multinational task force was formed by countries in the Lake Chad Basin to coordinate counter-terrorism efforts against groups like ISWAP?
- A.African Union Mission in Somalia (AMISOM)
- B.G5 Sahel Joint Force
- C.Multinational Joint Task Force (MNJTF)✓ Correct Answer
- D.United Nations Multidimensional Integrated Stabilization Mission in Mali (MINUSMA)
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Explanation
As per the article, Nigeria, Niger, Chad, Cameroon, and Benin formed the Multinational Joint Task Force (MNJTF) to coordinate counter-terrorism efforts in the Lake Chad Basin region against groups like ISWAP and Boko Haram.
Consider the following statements regarding the Islamic State West Africa Province (ISWAP):
1. It originated as a splinter faction from Boko Haram after pledging allegiance to the Islamic State (ISIS).
2. Unlike Boko Haram under Shekau, ISWAP relies on a consultative 'shura' command structure and taxes local economic activities for revenue.
3. It operates exclusively within Nigeria and does not have a presence in neighbouring countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as ISWAP was formed after a 2015 split within Boko Haram over allegiance to ISIS. Statement 2 is correct as the article states ISWAP uses a consultative structure and taxes fishing/farming. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article explicitly mentions ISWAP has a significant presence in neighbouring states like Niger, Chad, and Cameroon.
According to the news article, how many Islamic militants were reportedly killed in the joint operation by Nigerian forces and U.S. African Command in May 2026?
- A.150
- B.175✓ Correct Answer
- C.200
- D.225
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Explanation
The article states that the joint operation by Nigerian forces and U.S. African Command killed 175 Islamic militants. This operation targeted ISWAP and killed senior commander Abu-Bilal al-Minuki.
What is described as a primary factor that facilitated ISWAP's emergence as a dominant transnational threat in the Lake Chad Basin?
- A.Strong central governance and state capacity in the region.
- B.Porous borders and weak intelligence sharing among affected states.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Lack of external funding from global terrorist networks.
- D.Exclusive focus on attacking international military bases.
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Explanation
The article identifies porous borders, weak governance, and gaps in intelligence sharing among affected states (Nigeria, Niger, Chad, Cameroon) as key factors that contributed to ISWAP's growing influence and ability to operate across national boundaries.
The Sample Registration System (SRS) statistical report, which provides data on sex ratio at birth, is released by which government office?
- A.NITI Aayog
- B.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
- C.Office of the Registrar General & Census Commissioner, India✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
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Explanation
The SRS report is released by the Office of the Registrar General & Census Commissioner, India, which falls under the Ministry of Home Affairs. This office is responsible for demographic surveys and the census.
Consider the following statements regarding the sex ratio at birth (SRB) in Maharashtra as per the SRS Report 2024:
1. The overall SRB of Maharashtra is higher than the national average.
2. Urban Maharashtra has a higher SRB than its rural areas.
3. Maharashtra's urban SRB is the same as the overall SRB of Haryana.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) None of the above
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: Maharashtra's SRB (899) is lower than the national average (918). Statement 2 is incorrect: Urban SRB (885) is lower than rural SRB (910). Statement 3 is correct: Both Maharashtra's urban SRB and Haryana's overall SRB are 885.
According to the SRS Report 2024, what is the Total Fertility Rate (TFR) of Maharashtra?
- A.1.4 children per woman✓ Correct Answer
- B.1.9 children per woman
- C.2.1 children per woman
- D.2.6 children per woman
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Explanation
The article states that Maharashtra's TFR stands at 1.4 children per woman. The national average is 1.9. Options B, C, and D are the national average, replacement level, and the TFR of Uttar Pradesh respectively, acting as distractors.
What is a key implication of Maharashtra's declining urban sex ratio at birth despite progress on other socio-demographic indicators?
- A.It indicates a successful implementation of the PC&PNDT Act in cities.
- B.It suggests that son preference and sex-selective practices are now prevalent in urban, educated classes.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It shows that rural areas are becoming more progressive than urban areas in all aspects.
- D.It implies that the state's population will start declining immediately.
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Explanation
The article highlights this as an alarming divergence, indicating that the problem of son preference has penetrated urban societies, possibly facilitated by access to technology in private healthcare. The other options are contradicted by the article.
The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA), mentioned in the news, is headquartered in which city?
- A.Geneva
- B.Vienna✓ Correct Answer
- C.New York
- D.The Hague
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Explanation
The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) is headquartered in Vienna, Austria. It is an autonomous international organization within the United Nations system responsible for promoting the peaceful use of nuclear energy.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The IAEA reported it has been unable to inspect Iranian nuclear facilities affected by the war last June.
2. Iran's stockpile of 440.9 kg of uranium is enriched to 90% purity, which is weapons-grade.
3. The Bushehr nuclear power plant, inspected in June 2026, uses uranium enriched to 4.5% supplied by Russia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect: Iran's stockpile is enriched to 60% purity, not 90%; 90% is the weapons-grade threshold. Statement 3 is correct: The Bushehr plant uses Russian-supplied uranium enriched to 4.5% for power generation. Hence, option C is correct.
According to the IAEA report cited in the news, what is the quantity of uranium enriched up to 60% purity that Iran maintains?
- A.340.9 kg
- B.400.9 kg
- C.440.9 kg✓ Correct Answer
- D.480.9 kg
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Iran maintains a stockpile of 440.9 kg of uranium enriched up to 60% purity. The other options are close distractors to test precise recall of the figure.
What is the primary implication of the IAEA being 'unable to discharge its safeguards responsibilities' regarding Iran, as mentioned in the news?
- A.It signifies a temporary technical delay in reporting.
- B.It indicates a breach of Iran's legal obligations under the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It means the IAEA has certified Iran's nuclear program as purely peaceful.
- D.It shows that Iran has fully complied with all international inspections.
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Explanation
The IAEA's safeguards responsibilities are mandated by the Safeguards Agreement under the NPT. Being unable to discharge them means Iran is not providing the necessary access for verification, which constitutes a breach of its treaty obligations and raises serious non-proliferation concerns.
Which international body has imposed economic sanctions on North Korea due to its nuclear and missile development, as mentioned in the article?
- A.United Nations Security Council (UNSC)✓ Correct Answer
- B.North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
- C.International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)
- D.World Trade Organization (WTO)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the UN has imposed economic sanctions on North Korea. The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is the primary body responsible for imposing such international sanctions under Chapter VII of the UN Charter.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The visit by Chinese President Xi Jinping to North Korea is his first in nearly seven years, his last being in June 2019.
2. The announcement of the visit came a day after North Korea unveiled a new facility to produce conventional weapons for export to Russia.
3. Experts suggest North Korea's disclosure of a new nuclear facility ahead of the visit is to cement its status as a nuclear weapons state and push for sanctions relief.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article (first visit in nearly seven years, last in June 2019). Statement 2 is incorrect; the new facility is for producing nuclear bomb fuels (uranium enrichment), not conventional weapons. Statement 3 is correct as experts cited in the article say the disclosure implies Kim's eagerness to cement nuclear state status to demand lifting of sanctions.
According to the article, in which month and year did Xi Jinping last visit North Korea before the upcoming 2026 visit?
- A.June 2018
- B.June 2019✓ Correct Answer
- C.September 2019
- D.June 2020
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Explanation
The article clearly states that Xi Jinping's last visit to North Korea was in June 2019. This is a direct factual recall from the text, testing attention to specific dates in international diplomacy.
What is a primary strategic objective for China, as per analysts, in President Xi Jinping's visit to North Korea amidst Pyongyang's growing ties with Russia?
- A.To broker a denuclearization deal directly between North Korea and the United States.
- B.To reassert its influence over North Korea and safeguard its strategic interests in Northeast Asia.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To sign a new mutual defense treaty replacing the old one.
- D.To pressure North Korea into halting all uranium enrichment activities.
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Explanation
As quoted from analyst William Yang in the article, China seeks to use Xi's trip to 'reassert its influence over Pyongyang and safeguard its strategic interests in northeast Asia.' This is in response to North Korea building closer ties with Russia. The other options are not supported as primary objectives by the article's content.
The Strait of Hormuz, a key chokepoint mentioned in the news, is located between which two countries?
- A.Iran and Saudi Arabia
- B.Iran and Oman✓ Correct Answer
- C.Saudi Arabia and United Arab Emirates
- D.Oman and Yemen
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Explanation
The Strait of Hormuz is a narrow waterway that separates Iran to the north from the Musandam Peninsula of Oman to the south. It connects the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea.
Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Hormuz situation as per the news article:
1. In the week of May 25-31, 2026, ships with an 'Iran nexus' accounted for 35% of crossings through the Strait of Hormuz.
2. The Persian Gulf Strait Authority (PGSA) has stated it will prioritize transit permits for ships affiliated with the United States and Israel.
3. According to Lloyd's List analysis, among ships above 10,000 dwt that applied for PGSA permits, the largest share (28%) were bound for China.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the figure declined to 35% in the week of May 25-31. Statement 2 is incorrect; the PGSA said it would disallow U.S. and Israel-linked ships and prioritize nations friendly to Iran. Statement 3 is correct as the analysis estimates 28% of such ships were China-bound.
According to the Lloyd's List data cited in the article, what percentage of crossings through the Strait of Hormuz in mid-March 2026 were accounted for by ships with an 'Iran nexus'?
- A.85%
- B.90%
- C.95%
- D.97%✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Lloyd’s List data shows ships with an 'Iran nexus' accounted for nearly 97% of crossings in mid-March. This high figure underscores Iran's dominant control over the strait at that peak period.
What is a primary strategic implication of Iran's establishment of the Persian Gulf Strait Authority (PGSA) as mentioned in the news?
- A.To formally cede control of the strait to international maritime bodies.
- B.To create a new revenue stream by taxing all commercial traffic.
- C.To institutionalize its control over transit and challenge norms of innocent passage.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To facilitate joint patrols with Omani coast guard forces.
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Explanation
The PGSA's role in granting transit permits represents an institutionalized mechanism for Iran to exert sovereignty over the strait. This action challenges the established international law principle of 'innocent passage' through territorial waters and 'transit passage' through straits used for international navigation under UNCLOS.
Who warned that the Ukraine conflict risks spiralling 'out of control' during an emergency UN Security Council meeting mentioned in the article?
- A.The President of the UN General Assembly
- B.The UN Secretary-General✓ Correct Answer
- C.The US Ambassador to the UN
- D.The Russian Foreign Minister
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the UN Secretary-General António Guterres warned that the conflict risks spiralling 'out of control' during the emergency UN Security Council meeting. This is a direct factual extraction from the text.
Consider the following statements regarding the Ukraine conflict as per the article:
1. Russia describes the conflict as a 'special military operation' and has not declared it a 'war'.
2. A Ukrainian strike on an educational complex in Starobilsk resulted in significant civilian casualties.
3. The drone strike on the Romanian city of Galati was officially claimed by Russia as a warning to NATO.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's mention that Russia continues to describe it as a 'special military operation'. Statement 2 is correct, detailing the Ukrainian strike on Starobilsk. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article states Russia has denied responsibility for the Galati drone strike.
According to the article, what was Russia's approximate budget deficit by April 2026, attributed to the war and sanctions?
- A.Approximately 3.5 trillion roubles
- B.Approximately 4.7 trillion roubles
- C.Approximately 5.9 trillion roubles✓ Correct Answer
- D.Approximately 7.1 trillion roubles
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Explanation
The article provides the specific figure: 'Russia was already running a huge budget deficit of around 5.9 trillion roubles by April this year brought on by the war and Western sanctions.' The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
As per the analysis in the article, what is identified as a critical factor that could prevent the Ukraine conflict from expanding into a broader war involving NATO?
- A.Immediate ceasefire brokered by the United Nations
- B.Russia's unilateral withdrawal from annexed territories
- C.The U.S. refusing unanimous consent for invoking NATO's Article 5✓ Correct Answer
- D.European nations opening a direct communication line with Russia
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Explanation
The article's analysis states: 'the only hope against this happening is that the U.S.... refuses to acquiesce with the invocation of Article 5 as this requires a unanimous decision.' This is presented as a specific mechanism to prevent escalation.
Which UN body articulated the concept of 'managed retreat' as one of the four primary coastal adaptation strategies in its Sixth Assessment Report?
- A.United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
- B.Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)✓ Correct Answer
- C.United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
- D.World Meteorological Organization (WMO)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'managed retreat' is one of the four primary strategies for coastal adaptation articulated by the UN Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) in its Sixth Assessment Report.
Consider the following statements regarding climate adaptation strategies discussed in the article:
1. 'Managed retreat' as practiced in the Global North often involves state-funded buyouts and regulatory zoning.
2. The 1954 Kosi Agreement between India and Nepal successfully prevented all future floods by constructing large embankments.
3. Nigeria's 'Great Wall of Lagos' is cited as an example of a maladaptation project that protects valuable real estate while increasing erosion in neighbouring low-income areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states managed retreat has primarily taken the form of state-funded buyouts and regulatory zoning. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Kosi embankments led to siltation, raising the riverbed and causing catastrophic floods when breached. Statement 3 is correct as the article uses the Lagos project as a key example of maladaptation.
According to the article, in which year did the Odisha government relocate more than 500 families from the Satabhaya villages to Bagapatia?
- A.2015
- B.2018✓ Correct Answer
- C.2020
- D.2022
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Explanation
The article clearly states: "In 2018, the Odisha government moved more than 500 families in a cluster of seven villages called Satabhaya... to a rehabilitation colony in Bagapatia."
What is the primary criticism, as per the article, of using hard engineering solutions like seawalls for coastal adaptation in India?
- A.They are too expensive for the government to afford.
- B.They often lead to maladaptation by diverting more investment into high-risk zones and compounding future catastrophe.✓ Correct Answer
- C.They are technologically obsolete and ineffective against modern climate challenges.
- D.They violate international environmental treaties that India has signed.
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Explanation
The article's core argument is that hard engineering can be a trap of 'maladaptation'. It states that if engineering "diverts more investments in high-risk zones... it will only compound the catastrophe." The other options are not the primary criticism raised in the text.
Anthropic, the company that proposed a global AI development pause, is known for developing which family of AI models?
- A.GPT models
- B.Claude models✓ Correct Answer
- C.Gemini models
- D.Llama models
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Anthropic makes the Claude family of AI models. This is a direct static fact from the news content. The other options are models developed by OpenAI (GPT), Google (Gemini), and Meta (Llama).
Consider the following statements regarding the news about Anthropic's proposal:
1. The proposal calls for a temporary, globally coordinated pause on developing the most powerful AI systems.
2. A key challenge is that AI training is easier to hide than physical military infrastructure like missile silos.
3. The White House has fully endorsed the proposal, arguing it is essential for global safety.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's core proposal. Statement 2 is correct as Anthropic compared the verification challenge to nuclear arms control, stating AI training is harder to monitor. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article mentions the White House acknowledged the power of Anthropic's Mythos model but also notes the proposal faces pushback from officials who say it overstates risks.
According to the article, what is the duration of the preliminary review period for powerful AI models as per the recent US executive order signed by President Trump?
- A.15 days
- B.30 days✓ Correct Answer
- C.60 days
- D.90 days
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Explanation
The article clearly states that President Trump signed an executive order allowing the government '30 days to conduct a preliminary review of the most powerful U.S. AI models before their release.' The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What is the primary geopolitical reason cited in the article for the potential difficulty in implementing a global AI development pause?
- A.Lack of scientific consensus on AI risks
- B.Fear of ceding strategic advantage in the technology race with China✓ Correct Answer
- C.Opposition from environmental advocacy groups
- D.Legal hurdles related to international trade agreements
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that U.S. officials and tech executives argue any slowdown 'risks handing China a decisive strategic edge in what many see as the defining technology race of the century.' This is the core geopolitical obstacle highlighted. The other options are not mentioned as primary reasons.
Which apex medical research body conducted the study on newborn sickle cell screening challenges published in The Lancet in 2025?
- A.National Institute of Health
- B.Indian Council of Medical Research✓ Correct Answer
- C.World Health Organization
- D.Indian Medical Association
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the study was conducted by scientists from the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), New Delhi, along with ICMR-NIRBID, Mumbai. ICMR is India's apex body for biomedical research.
Consider the following statements regarding the findings of the ICMR study on sickle cell screening:
1. Social stigma and discrimination within communities were identified as major barriers to screening.
2. The study recommended reducing the role of community health workers to improve efficiency.
3. Logistical challenges included shortages of trained personnel and difficulties in sample transportation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions social discrimination as a key challenge. Statement 2 is incorrect; the study highlighted ASHAs and ANMs as crucial facilitators and recommended better training, not reducing their role. Statement 3 is correct as logistical challenges like staff shortages and sample transport issues were reported.
According to the National Sickle Cell Disease Control Programme dashboard data mentioned in the article, how many individuals were identified as carriers of the sickle cell trait?
- A.Over 2.66 lakh
- B.Over 7.57 crore
- C.Over 21.66 lakh✓ Correct Answer
- D.Over 1.66 crore
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Explanation
The article states that screening led to the identification of 'more than 21.66 lakh carriers of the sickle cell trait'. 'Over 2.66 lakh' refers to individuals with the disease, and 'over 7.57 crore' is the total number of people screened.
What is the primary objective of the National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission as per the article?
- A.To provide free treatment for all diagnosed cases by 2030
- B.To screen vulnerable populations and eliminate the disease by 2047✓ Correct Answer
- C.To establish advanced research centers in all states
- D.To integrate sickle cell care with cancer treatment protocols
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the mission 'seeks to screen vulnerable populations and eliminate the disease by 2047'. The other options are not mentioned as primary objectives in the provided content.
Which Indian ministry/department is leading the negotiations for the bilateral trade agreement with the U.S., as per the news?
- A.Ministry of External Affairs
- B.Department of Commerce, Ministry of Commerce and Industry✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Finance
- D.NITI Aayog
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Explanation
The article mentions India's chief negotiator is Darpan Jain, who is an Additional Secretary in the Department of Commerce. The Department of Commerce under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry is the nodal body for formulating India's foreign trade policy and conducting trade negotiations.
Consider the following statements regarding the India-U.S. trade negotiations:
1. The first phase of the bilateral trade agreement is targeted for execution by mid-July 2026.
2. The agreement framework was finalized in April 2026 after the U.S. imposed a 10% tariff.
3. India's key objective is to gain preferential tariff access over competitors like Sri Lanka and Bangladesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per Commerce Minister Piyush Goyal's statement. Statement 2 is incorrect; the framework was finalized in February 2026 (joint statement on Feb 7), before the U.S. tariff announcement in late February. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly states the pact aims to give India preferential access over competitors like Sri Lanka, Pakistan, and Bangladesh.
According to the article, what is the value of U.S. goods that India has expressed its intention to purchase over the next five years under the proposed trade agreement framework?
- A.$100 billion
- B.$250 billion
- C.$500 billion✓ Correct Answer
- D.$1 trillion
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'New Delhi has also expressed its intentions to purchase $500 billion of U.S. energy products, aircraft and aircraft parts, precious metals, technology products, and coking coal over the next five years.' This is a key data point for factual recall.
What is the primary strategic economic reason for India to pursue this bilateral trade agreement with the United States, as highlighted in the news article?
- A.To completely eliminate India's trade surplus with the U.S.
- B.To gain preferential tariff access in the U.S. market over competitor nations✓ Correct Answer
- C.To counter Chinese influence in the Indo-Pacific region
- D.To secure technology transfer for defense manufacturing
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Explanation
The article directly quotes Minister Goyal stating the pact 'will give preferential access to India over our competitors' and later emphasizes that 'It is important that India gets an advantage over its competitor nations on the tariff front.' While other options may be broader foreign policy goals, the article's core economic rationale is securing a competitive tariff advantage.
The Supreme Court's ruling on DNA tests balances a child's rights with which fundamental right under the Constitution?
- A.Right to Equality (Article 14)
- B.Right to Freedom of Speech (Article 19)
- C.Right to Life and Personal Liberty (Article 21)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Right against Exploitation (Article 23)
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Explanation
The article states that the Supreme Court's landmark decision in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017) ruled that the right to privacy is a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution. The 2026 ruling balances a child's right to know paternity against this right.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's stance on DNA tests in paternity disputes:
1. The court has held that DNA tests should be ordered as a matter of routine to ascertain truth.
2. Section 112 of the Evidence Act, 1872, presumes a child born during marriage is legitimate unless non-access is proven.
3. In the Goutam Kundu case (1993), the Supreme Court readily accepted blood tests as the first resort to determine paternity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The article explicitly states the Supreme Court has consistently held that 'DNA tests should not be ordered routinely'. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's description of Section 112. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states that in Goutam Kundu (1993), the court 'rejected the use of blood testing... as a first resort'.
Which landmark Supreme Court judgment first established the right to privacy as a fundamental right under Article 21, a principle central to the 2026 DNA test ruling?
- A.Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978)
- B.Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation (1985)
- D.A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras (1950)
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Explanation
The article directly mentions that after the Supreme Court's landmark decision of 'Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India' in 2017, which ruled that the right to privacy is a fundamental right under Article 21, the court has continuously ruled that compulsory DNA testing interferes with this right.
What is the primary legal consideration that the Supreme Court, as per the 2026 ruling, must balance when deciding on a DNA test in a paternity dispute?
- A.Speedy trial versus cost of litigation
- B.Child's right to know biological parent versus alleged father's right to privacy✓ Correct Answer
- C.Public interest versus national security
- D.Freedom of press versus contempt of court
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Explanation
The core of the 2026 ruling, as described in the article, is the balancing act. The court observed that 'a child's legitimate interest to know the biological parent must be balanced by the potential father's right to protect his privacy and dignity.' The other options are not mentioned in the context of this case.
Under which constitutional provision can the Government of India promulgate an ordinance to amend tax laws, as mentioned in the news?
- A.Article 123✓ Correct Answer
- B.Article 368
- C.Article 110
- D.Article 265
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Explanation
Article 123 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to promulgate ordinances when Parliament is not in session. The news mentions the tax exemption is being implemented via an ordinance-based amendment.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent tax exemption for FPIs:
1. The exemption applies to both short-term and long-term capital gains tax on investments in government securities.
2. The Fully Accessible Route (FAR) framework has been expanded to include Sovereign Green Bonds.
3. The overall quantitative limit for FPI investment in Central Government securities is 8% of the outstanding stock.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The article specifies the exemption is for the 12.5% long-term capital gains tax (LTCG), not for short-term gains. Statement 2 is correct, as SGBs have been included in the FAR basket. Statement 3 is incorrect; the limit is 6%, not 8%.
According to the news, what is the overall quantitative investment limit set for Foreign Portfolio Investment in State Government Securities (SGSs)?
- A.1% of outstanding stock
- B.2% of outstanding stock✓ Correct Answer
- C.4% of outstanding stock
- D.6% of outstanding stock
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the overall quantitative investment limit for FPI investment is set at two percent (2%) of the outstanding stock of State Government securities (SGSs). The limit for Central Government securities is 6%.
What is a primary objective of the government's move to exempt capital gains tax on FPI investment in G-Secs, as inferred from the news article?
- A.To increase government tax revenue from foreign investors
- B.To attract stronger foreign inflows into the Indian bond market✓ Correct Answer
- C.To directly stem the outflow of foreign capital from Indian equities
- D.To replace the Fully Accessible Route (FAR) framework entirely
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Explanation
The article quotes the government's statement about recognizing the need for a competitive tax regime to attract global capital and an expert saying it would make G-Secs more tax-efficient for overseas investors. While it may indirectly help the rupee, the direct objective is to boost bond market inflows, not to directly stop equity outflows.
The White Paper on Kerala's finances was drafted by a panel headed by a former Union Cabinet Secretary. Which constitutional body is primarily responsible for determining the formula for sharing central taxes with states?
- A.The Planning Commission (NITI Aayog)
- B.The Finance Commission✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Ministry of Finance
- D.The Inter-State Council
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Explanation
Article 280 of the Constitution mandates the establishment of a Finance Commission every five years to make recommendations on the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States. This is its core function, directly related to the issues raised in Kerala's White Paper.
Consider the following statements regarding the White Paper on Kerala's fiscal health:
1. It notes that Kerala's share from the divisible tax pool decreased under the 16th Finance Commission compared to the 15th.
2. It argues that the discontinuation of Revenue Deficit grants places an immediate adjustment burden on recipient states.
3. The document was presented in the Kerala Assembly by the state's Chief Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: Kerala's share increased from 1.92% (15th FC) to 2.38% (16th FC). Statement 2 is correct as per the article's quote on 'abrupt discontinuation'. Statement 3 is correct as CM V.D. Satheesan presented it on June 4, 2026.
According to the White Paper, what was the total amount of Revenue Deficit (RD) grants Kerala received over the five-year period of the 15th Finance Commission?
- A.₹2,412 crore
- B.₹37,814 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹40,226 crore
- D.₹1.92 lakh crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "Over the five-year period of the 15th Commission, Kerala had received ₹37,814 crore as RD grants." ₹2,412 crore was for state and sector-specific grants, making option A a close distractor.
What is the primary concern raised by Kerala's White Paper regarding the 16th Finance Commission's approach to Revenue Deficit grants?
- A.That the grants are insufficient to cover the state's planned capital expenditure.
- B.That discontinuing them ignores structural revenue constraints and imposes a sudden adjustment burden.✓ Correct Answer
- C.That the grants should be tied to specific performance indicators like ease of doing business.
- D.That they create an unhealthy dependency on central funds, discouraging tax collection efforts.
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Explanation
The White Paper directly counters the 16th FC's 'fiscal complacency' rationale, arguing that the deficits may be structural. It states the 'abrupt discontinuation places the immediate adjustment burden on recipient States', which is the core concern articulated in the article.
Who delivered the lecture on 'Artificial Intelligence and International Law' at Birkbeck College, as per the news?
- A.The Prime Minister of India
- B.The Chief Justice of India✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Minister of External Affairs
- D.The Attorney General of India
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Explanation
The article clearly states that Chief Justice of India Surya Kant delivered the public lecture on the given topic at Birkbeck College, University of London.
Consider the following statements regarding the views expressed by CJI Surya Kant on Artificial Intelligence:
1. He stated that AI is no longer a speculative technology but an operational reality.
2. He emphasized that technology is inherently harmful and must be resisted by legal frameworks.
3. He highlighted that AI could be a powerful instrument for advancing accessible and effective justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as it is the core message of the lecture. Statement 2 is incorrect because the CJI specifically said technology is neither inherently benevolent nor harmful, and the law's role is not to resist it. Statement 3 is correct as he mentioned AI's potential for timely and effective justice.
In which year did CJI Surya Kant deliver the lecture on AI and International Law in London, as per the article?
- A.2024
- B.2025
- C.2026✓ Correct Answer
- D.2027
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Explanation
The article's published date and the context of the news clearly indicate the lecture was delivered and reported in the year 2026.
According to CJI Surya Kant, what is the central challenge posed by Artificial Intelligence to the international community?
- A.To develop the most advanced AI systems before other countries
- B.To ensure humanity retains authorship of governing principles in the age of intelligent machines✓ Correct Answer
- C.To replace human decision-making entirely in governance for efficiency
- D.To create a single global AI regulatory body under the UN
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Explanation
The CJI explicitly stated that the central challenge is to ensure humanity retains authorship of the principles by which it is governed, even as decision-making is increasingly mediated by algorithmic systems.
Which ministry announced the exemption of capital gains tax on FPI investment in G-Secs?
- A.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- B.Ministry of Finance✓ Correct Answer
- C.Reserve Bank of India
- D.Securities and Exchange Board of India
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Finance Ministry issued the statement regarding the tax exemption. While RBI regulates the FAR framework and SEBI regulates FPIs, the specific tax policy announcement was made by the Ministry of Finance.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent changes for FPI investment in G-Secs:
1. The long-term capital gains tax of 12.5% on such investments has been exempted with effect from April 1, 2026.
2. The Fully Accessible Route (FAR) framework now allows investment in Sovereign Green Bonds without any quantitative restrictions.
3. The overall quantitative limit for FPI investment in State Government Securities has been set at 6% of the outstanding stock.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct as Sovereign Green Bonds have been included in the FAR basket. Statement 3 is incorrect; the limit for State Government Securities is 2%, not 6%. The 6% limit is for Central Government Securities.
According to the news, what is the long-term capital gains tax rate that has been exempted on FPI investments in Government Securities?
- A.10%
- B.12.5%✓ Correct Answer
- C.15%
- D.20%
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Explanation
The article clearly mentions the waiver of the '12.5% long term capital gains tax (LTCG)'. The other options are common tax rates in India but are not the specific rate mentioned in this context.
What is a primary objective of the government's decision to exempt capital gains tax on FPI investment in G-Secs?
- A.To increase direct tax revenue from foreign investors
- B.To align India's tax treatment on G-Secs with comparable global jurisdictions and attract capital✓ Correct Answer
- C.To specifically encourage foreign investment in the Indian equity market
- D.To reduce the fiscal deficit by increasing borrowing from foreign sources
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Explanation
The Finance Ministry's statement, as quoted in the article, says the step aims to 'rationalise the tax treatment' and 'align the taxation on G-Secs with many comparable jurisdictions' to attract global capital. The move targets debt, not equity, and is a tax exemption, not a revenue-raising measure.
Which regulatory body's norms govern the permissibility of differential interest rates on bank deposits in India?
- A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
- D.Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)
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Explanation
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central banking institution responsible for regulating monetary policy, banking operations, and deposit rates in India, as highlighted in the article where the Governor clarified the norms.
Consider the following statements regarding differential interest rates on deposits:
1. RBI permits banks to offer differential interest rates only for transparent categories like senior citizens or specific tenures.
2. Any undisclosed preferential differential interest rate is considered acceptable under RBI's current regulatory framework.
3. The recent scrutiny involved HDFC Bank's internal audit findings related to payments to the Maharashtra State Road Development Corporation (MSRDC).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per RBI Governor's clarification. Statement 2 is incorrect as undisclosed preferential rates are 'not acceptable'. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions HDFC Bank's internal audit findings on payments to MSRDC.
According to the article, what was the total amount of interest payments made by HDFC Bank to the Maharashtra State Road Development Corporation (MSRDC) for 2023-24 and 2024-25, as revealed by internal records?
- A.₹40 crore
- B.₹45 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹50 crore
- D.₹55 crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that HDFC Bank's internal records showed interest payments of ₹45 crore to MSRDC for the mentioned financial years. The other options are close distractors.
What is the primary regulatory concern highlighted by the RBI Governor regarding differential interest rates on deposits?
- A.Ensuring banks earn higher profits from corporate deposits
- B.Maintaining transparency and preventing undisclosed preferential rates✓ Correct Answer
- C.Encouraging competition by allowing completely unregulated rates
- D.Reducing the overall interest burden on banks
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Explanation
The core concern, as stated by the Governor, is transparency. Banks must clearly display rates, and any undisclosed differential rate beyond permissible categories is not acceptable, which safeguards fairness and market integrity.
Which Indian public sector undertaking is mentioned in the article as being in contact with Russia's Sukhoi Design Bureau for potential collaboration on the Su-57 fighter?
- A.Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL)
- B.Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL)
- D.Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that state-run Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) is in contact with the Sukhoi Design Bureau for possible collaboration on the Su-57 fighter jet. HAL is India's primary aircraft manufacturer under the Ministry of Defence.
Consider the following statements regarding the news about India-Russia defence cooperation:
1. Russia has offered India joint production of the Su-57 stealth fighter with full technology sharing and no restrictions.
2. India's indigenous fifth-generation fighter, the Advanced Multirole Combat Aircraft (AMCA), is scheduled to enter service with the Indian Air Force by 2030.
3. India had earlier exited a joint Fifth Generation Fighter Aircraft (FGFA) programme with Russia in 2021.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per President Putin's offer of 'no restrictions whatsoever'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the AMCA is unlikely to enter service before 2035, not by 2030. Statement 3 is correct as India formally withdrew from the FGFA programme in 2021.
According to the article, what is the approximate number of Su-57 fighter aircraft that India is reportedly considering for initial procurement?
- A.18 aircraft (1 squadron)
- B.24 aircraft
- C.36 aircraft (2 squadrons)✓ Correct Answer
- D.48 aircraft
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Explanation
The article states that the Indian government is considering procuring at least two squadrons – around 36 aircraft – of the Su-57, subject to technical specifications being met. A squadron typically consists of 16-18 aircraft.
What is a primary strategic reason, as indicated in the article, for Russia's offer of joint Su-57 production to India at this time?
- A.To counter China's growing military influence in the region
- B.To retain a key defence partner amid supply chain disruptions from the Ukraine war✓ Correct Answer
- C.To help India meet its climate change commitments under the Paris Agreement
- D.To jointly develop a sixth-generation fighter aircraft for future warfare
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Explanation
The article directly links Russia's outreach to 'supply chain disruptions caused by the war in Ukraine' which have pushed India to diversify its procurement, adding urgency to Moscow's offer to maintain its defence partnership with New Delhi.
The research on the first AI-designed vaccine, as per the news, is associated with which university?
- A.University of Oxford
- B.University of Cambridge✓ Correct Answer
- C.Massachusetts Institute of Technology
- D.Stanford University
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the research team developing the first AI-designed vaccine is from the University of Cambridge, led by Prof. Jonathan Heeney.
Consider the following statements regarding the AI-designed vaccine discussed in the news:
1. It is the first vaccine whose key component was designed entirely by Artificial Intelligence.
2. The initial human trial for safety assessment involved 200 participants.
3. The research team is also working on developing similar AI-designed vaccines for flu and Ebola.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's claim of a 'first.' Statement 2 is incorrect; the initial safety trial involved 39 people, with a 200-person trial planned next. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions separate vaccines for flu and Ebola are being developed.
As per the news article, how many participants were involved in the initial safety trial of the AI-designed coronavirus vaccine?
- A.39 people✓ Correct Answer
- B.100 people
- C.200 people
- D.50 people
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the trials designed to assess safety were conducted with 39 people. The 200-person figure is for the planned next trial.
What is the primary strategic objective behind developing the AI-designed 'super-antigen' vaccine mentioned in the news?
- A.To replace all existing COVID-19 vaccines
- B.To get ahead of viral mutations and protect against a wide family of coronaviruses✓ Correct Answer
- C.To reduce the cost of vaccine production significantly
- D.To treat individuals already infected with severe coronavirus
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Explanation
The core objective, as quoted from Prof. Heeney, is to 'get ahead of the curve.' The AI is used to design a 'super-antigen' that trains the immune system to protect against a wide family of viruses, addressing the challenge of mutations and new zoonotic infections.
The dispute in the news was initially adjudicated by which quasi-judicial body?
- A.District Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
- B.Permanent Lok Adalat✓ Correct Answer
- C.Cyber Appellate Tribunal
- D.Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal
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Explanation
The article states the cooperative bank first moved the Permanent Lok Adalat in 2021 seeking compensation. The Lok Adalat's order was later challenged in the High Court. Permanent Lok Adalats are established under the Legal Services Authorities Act for public utility service disputes.
Consider the following statements regarding the Karnataka High Court judgment in the BSNL SIM-swap case:
1. The court held that the civil claim for compensation was outside the jurisdiction of the Permanent Lok Adalat as criminal proceedings were initiated.
2. The court directed BSNL to pay compensation for both the net financial loss and consequential damages like reputational harm.
3. The judgment emphasized that the duty of care of telecom service providers in SIM issuance is peripheral to the digital financial system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The court rejected BSNL's contention on jurisdiction, holding that civil claims arising from fraud can go before a Permanent Lok Adalat. Statement 2 is correct as the court directed BSNL to pay ₹50,50,762 for net loss and ₹5,00,000 for consequential damages. Statement 3 is incorrect; the court stated this duty is 'central to the integrity of the digital financial system', not peripheral.
What was the total compensation amount (in ₹ lakh) that the Karnataka High Court directed BSNL to pay to the cooperative bank?
- A.₹5.0 Lakh
- B.₹50.5 Lakh
- C.₹55.5 Lakh✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹87.7 Lakh
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Explanation
The court directed BSNL to pay ₹50,50,762 for net financial loss and ₹5,00,000 for consequential damages, totaling ₹55,50,762 or approximately ₹55.5 lakh. ₹5 lakh was the earlier Lok Adalat award. ₹87.7 lakh was the total fraudulent amount siphoned.
According to the Karnataka High Court judgment, what is the primary rationale for holding telecom service providers liable for SIM-swap fraud?
- A.To increase government revenue through penalties on public sector undertakings.
- B.Because they are mere service providers with limited contractual obligations.
- C.As they act as gatekeepers and custodians of the mobile-number authentication anchor for the digital economy.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To reduce the case burden on criminal courts by shifting focus to civil liability.
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Explanation
The court's core reasoning is that telecom providers occupy a 'unique and irreplaceable position' as 'custodians of the mobile numbers that serve as authentication anchors.' Their negligence in SIM issuance introduces systemic vulnerability into India's OTP-based digital financial architecture, making their duty of care public and systemic.
The expert panel that attributed 23% of winter PM2.5 pollution to the transport sector in Delhi-NCR was tasked by which statutory body?
- A.Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
- B.Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC)
- D.National Green Tribunal (NGT)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the panel of air quality experts was 'tasked by the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) in Delhi-NCR'. The CAQM is the statutory body responsible for air quality management in the region.
Consider the following statements regarding the Clean Mobility Scheme for Delhi-NCR:
1. The scheme excludes government-owned trucks and buses from its incentives.
2. Under the scheme, BS-IV vehicles must be mandatorily scrapped and cannot be sold elsewhere.
3. The scheme is specifically targeted at BS-IV and older vehicles, not at promoting electric vehicles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states 'Government vehicles will be excluded from this scheme.' Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clarifies that 'BS-IV vehicles may either be scrapped or sold outside NCR' under certain conditions. Statement 3 is correct as the scheme 'specifically targets BS-IV vehicles as well as older trucks and buses' and is distinct from past EV-focused schemes like PM-eBus Sewa.
According to the article, what is the estimated number of bus owners in Delhi-NCR likely to benefit from the new Clean Mobility Scheme?
- A.12,549
- B.16,329✓ Correct Answer
- C.34,449
- D.1,26,549
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Explanation
The government statement cited in the article says the scheme is likely to benefit '2.07 lakh (1.91 lakh trucks and 16,329 buses) owners'. Option C (34,449) is the number of BS-VI compliant buses in the region, and option D (1,26,549) is the number of pre-BS to BS-IV compliant buses, both mentioned elsewhere in the article as context.
What is the primary rationale behind the Clean Mobility Scheme's focus on replacing older trucks and buses in Delhi-NCR?
- A.To modernize the public transport fleet and improve passenger comfort.
- B.To reduce the disproportionate emission load from a small segment of the vehicle fleet.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To generate revenue for the government through vehicle scrappage certificates.
- D.To align with global electric vehicle adoption targets under international climate agreements.
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Explanation
The article's core analysis highlights that while older trucks and buses constitute only 3% of the fleet, their emission load is disproportionately high (one pre-BS vehicle pollutes as much as 14 BS-VI vehicles). The scheme's objective, as stated, is to 'reduce air pollution', and this targeted approach addresses the most polluting segment efficiently. Other options are secondary or not the primary focus.
Which US government body proposed the new tariffs under Section 301, as per the news?
- A.United States Department of Commerce
- B.United States Trade Representative (USTR)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Office of the United States President
- D.United States International Trade Commission (USITC)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the 'US Trade Representative proposed tariffs'. The USTR is the principal US trade agency responsible for developing and coordinating trade policy and leading negotiations.
Consider the following statements regarding the US tariff proposals mentioned in the news:
1. The tariffs were proposed under Section 122 of the US Trade Act.
2. India falls in the category of countries proposed to face a 10% tariff.
3. The USTR will hold hearings on the proposed actions on July 7, 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) None of the above
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The new proposals are under Section 301, not Section 122 (which was used for the earlier 10% levy). Statement 2 is incorrect: India falls in the latter category facing a 12.5% tariff, not 10%. Statement 3 is correct as per the article.
According to the article, on which date does the 150-day tariff period imposed under Section 122 of the US Trade Act end?
- A.June 5, 2026
- B.July 7, 2026
- C.July 24, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- D.March 31, 2026
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'That period will end on July 24.' This date is directly linked to the 150-day maximum duration for the tariff levied under Section 122.
What is the primary rationale cited by the USTR for proposing tariffs against India in the news article?
- A.India's high trade surplus with the US
- B.India's failure to impose a legal prohibition on imports of goods produced by forced labour✓ Correct Answer
- C.India's subsidies to its manufacturing sector creating structural excess capacity
- D.India's non-compliance with a bilateral framework agreement
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Explanation
The article states that 54 countries, including India, are said to have 'failed "to impose a legal prohibition on the importation of goods" that have been produced by forced labour'. While a separate investigation on 'structural excess capacity' is mentioned, the primary rationale for the Section 301 tariff proposal is the forced labour issue.
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For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.
- Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
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What are the important current affairs questions for 5 June 2026?▼
This page contains 180 current affairs questions from 5 June 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
How to use 5 June 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼
Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.
How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼
Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.
Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼
Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.
What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼
Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.
All Questions in This Set
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- Q13. constitutional articles did the Supreme Court cite as the basi…
- Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
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- Q23. According to the RBI data mentioned in the article, how much w…
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- Q25. ministry is the source of the official data on India's install…
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- Q27. According to the article, what is India's projected energy sto…
- Q28. is identified as the primary strategic challenge for India's p…
- Q29. The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC), which decides the repo ra…
- Q30. Consider the following statements regarding measures announced…
- Q31. As per the recent RBI announcement, what is the repo rate that…
- Q32. is the primary objective behind the RBI's decision to expand t…
- Q33. is the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) as mentione…
- Q34. Consider the following statements regarding India's foreign ex…
- Q35. According to the RBI Governor, what was the ratio of India's e…
- Q36. According to the RBI Governor, what are the primary upside ris…
- Q37. statutory committee is responsible for fixing the repo rate in…
- Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the recent RBI Mon…
- Q39. According to the RBI's assessment, what is the estimated direc…
- Q40. is the primary implication of the RBI MPC's decision to keep t…
- Q41. The tax exemption on government securities announced in the ne…
- Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the recent measure…
- Q43. According to Axis Bank economists cited in the article, how mu…
- Q44. is the primary macroeconomic objective behind the government's…
- Q45. Under which Act is the provision for expeditious disposal of e…
- Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the Madras High Co…
- Q47. According to the Madras High Court's recount, how many of the …
- Q48. was the primary reason cited by the Madras High Court for desc…
- Q49. Under which ministry does the Enforcement Directorate (ED) fun…
- Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the Kerala High Co…
- Q51. As per the Kerala High Court ruling, which of the following is…
- Q52. is the primary implication of the Kerala High Court's distinct…
- Q53. The study on global heat vulnerability mentioned in the news w…
- Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the Oxford Univers…
- Q55. According to the Oxford University study, how many Indian citi…
- Q56. is the primary reason, as highlighted in the study, for cautio…
- Q57. state government authority is primarily responsible for planni…
- Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the 'Third Mumbai'…
- Q59. is the approved cost for Phase 1 of the masterplan for the 'Th…
- Q60. is a primary strategic reason for locating the 'Third Mumbai' …
- Q61. Indian government department is responsible for issuing the of…
- Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the El Niño foreca…
- Q63. According to the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implemen…
- Q64. The article argues that El Niño impacts the Indian economy thr…
- Q65. The article mentions the 'Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism' …
- Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the arguments made…
- Q67. According to the article, what is the estimated annual investm…
- Q68. is the primary objective of the 'unified investment framework'…
- Q69. The National Coastal Mission, mentioned in the context of coas…
- Q70. Consider the following statements regarding coastal adaptation…
- Q71. According to the article, what is the length of India's coastl…
- Q72. is identified as a primary barrier preventing Ecosystem-based …
- Q73. As per the article, which organization's report estimated that…
- Q74. Consider the following statements regarding India's climate fi…
- Q75. According to the article, what is the estimated total cost for…
- Q76. is the primary significance of the Reserve Bank of India's (RB…
- Q77. The Critical Minerals Global Supply Chain Observatory is a joi…
- Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the Critical Miner…
- Q79. was the Critical Minerals Global Supply Chain Observatory (GSC…
- Q80. is the primary objective of the India-UK Critical Minerals Glo…
- Q81. ministry is primarily responsible for conducting the National …
- Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the findings discu…
- Q83. According to the NFHS-6 data cited in the article, what percen…
- Q84. is the primary recommendation from public health experts, as p…
- Q85. ministry's annual budget allocation is cited as being only 0.0…
- Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the arguments made…
- Q87. According to the Desertification and Land Degradation Atlas of…
- Q88. is presented as the primary objective of establishing an Annua…
- Q89. The 'Startup India' initiative and startup recognition guideli…
- Q90. Consider the following statements regarding India's startup ec…
- Q91. According to the data cited in the article, what was the perce…
- Q92. The significant shift in startup formation from Tier 1 cities …
- Q93. Under which broader project has the Kerala government proposed…
- Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the menstrual leav…
- Q95. In which year did the Cochin University of Science and Technol…
- Q96. is a primary concern raised by critics of the menstrual leave …
- Q97. multinational task force was formed by countries in the Lake C…
- Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the Islamic State …
- Q99. According to the news article, how many Islamic militants were…
- Q100. is described as a primary factor that facilitated ISWAP's emer…
- Q101. The Sample Registration System (SRS) statistical report, which…
- Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the sex ratio at b…
- Q103. According to the SRS Report 2024, what is the Total Fertility …
- Q104. is a key implication of Maharashtra's declining urban sex rati…
- Q105. The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA), mentioned in th…
- Q106. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q107. According to the IAEA report cited in the news, what is the qu…
- Q108. is the primary implication of the IAEA being 'unable to discha…
- Q109. international body has imposed economic sanctions on North Kor…
- Q110. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q111. According to the article, in which month and year did Xi Jinpi…
- Q112. is a primary strategic objective for China, as per analysts, i…
- Q113. The Strait of Hormuz, a key chokepoint mentioned in the news, …
- Q114. Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Horm…
- Q115. According to the Lloyd's List data cited in the article, what …
- Q116. is a primary strategic implication of Iran's establishment of …
- Q117. warned that the Ukraine conflict risks spiralling 'out of cont…
- Q118. Consider the following statements regarding the Ukraine confli…
- Q119. According to the article, what was Russia's approximate budget…
- Q120. As per the analysis in the article, what is identified as a cr…
- Q121. UN body articulated the concept of 'managed retreat' as one of…
- Q122. Consider the following statements regarding climate adaptation…
- Q123. According to the article, in which year did the Odisha governm…
- Q124. is the primary criticism, as per the article, of using hard en…
- Q125. Anthropic, the company that proposed a global AI development p…
- Q126. Consider the following statements regarding the news about Ant…
- Q127. According to the article, what is the duration of the prelimin…
- Q128. is the primary geopolitical reason cited in the article for th…
- Q129. apex medical research body conducted the study on newborn sick…
- Q130. Consider the following statements regarding the findings of th…
- Q131. According to the National Sickle Cell Disease Control Programm…
- Q132. is the primary objective of the National Sickle Cell Anaemia E…
- Q133. Indian ministry/department is leading the negotiations for the…
- Q134. Consider the following statements regarding the India-U.S. tra…
- Q135. According to the article, what is the value of U.S. goods that…
- Q136. is the primary strategic economic reason for India to pursue t…
- Q137. The Supreme Court's ruling on DNA tests balances a child's rig…
- Q138. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
- Q139. landmark Supreme Court judgment first established the right to…
- Q140. is the primary legal consideration that the Supreme Court, as …
- Q141. Under which constitutional provision can the Government of Ind…
- Q142. Consider the following statements regarding the recent tax exe…
- Q143. According to the news, what is the overall quantitative invest…
- Q144. is a primary objective of the government's move to exempt capi…
- Q145. The White Paper on Kerala's finances was drafted by a panel he…
- Q146. Consider the following statements regarding the White Paper on…
- Q147. According to the White Paper, what was the total amount of Rev…
- Q148. is the primary concern raised by Kerala's White Paper regardin…
- Q149. delivered the lecture on 'Artificial Intelligence and Internat…
- Q150. Consider the following statements regarding the views expresse…
- Q151. In which year did CJI Surya Kant deliver the lecture on AI and…
- Q152. According to CJI Surya Kant, what is the central challenge pos…
- Q153. ministry announced the exemption of capital gains tax on FPI i…
- Q154. Consider the following statements regarding the recent changes…
- Q155. According to the news, what is the long-term capital gains tax…
- Q156. is a primary objective of the government's decision to exempt …
- Q157. regulatory body's norms govern the permissibility of different…
- Q158. Consider the following statements regarding differential inter…
- Q159. According to the article, what was the total amount of interes…
- Q160. is the primary regulatory concern highlighted by the RBI Gover…
- Q161. Indian public sector undertaking is mentioned in the article a…
- Q162. Consider the following statements regarding the news about Ind…
- Q163. According to the article, what is the approximate number of Su…
- Q164. is a primary strategic reason, as indicated in the article, fo…
- Q165. The research on the first AI-designed vaccine, as per the news…
- Q166. Consider the following statements regarding the AI-designed va…
- Q167. As per the news article, how many participants were involved i…
- Q168. is the primary strategic objective behind developing the AI-de…
- Q169. The dispute in the news was initially adjudicated by which qua…
- Q170. Consider the following statements regarding the Karnataka High…
- Q171. was the total compensation amount (in ₹ lakh) that the Karnata…
- Q172. According to the Karnataka High Court judgment, what is the pr…
- Q173. The expert panel that attributed 23% of winter PM2.5 pollution…
- Q174. Consider the following statements regarding the Clean Mobility…
- Q175. According to the article, what is the estimated number of bus …
- Q176. is the primary rationale behind the Clean Mobility Scheme's fo…
- Q177. US government body proposed the new tariffs under Section 301,…
- Q178. Consider the following statements regarding the US tariff prop…
- Q179. According to the article, on which date does the 150-day tarif…
- Q180. is the primary rationale cited by the USTR for proposing tarif…