4 June 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, Pyongyang withdrew from the Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) in 1993. The NPT is a cornerstone of global efforts to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons. The CTBT was opened for signature in 1996, after North Korea's withdrawal.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as Kim Jong Un noted a plan to increase nuclear forces exponentially. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article mentions three sites: Yongbyon, Kangson, and Kusong. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states North Korea has conducted six nuclear tests, not eight (eight is the number of missile tests in 2026).

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'North Korea has conducted eight missile tests this year [in 2026]...'. This is a direct factual recall from the provided content. The other numbers are distractors related to other data points like the total nuclear tests (6).

Explanation

Analyst Yang Moo-jin stated that by showcasing its capabilities while U.S.-Iran talks are ongoing, North Korea is 'deliberately showcasing' its expansion to signal that denuclearisation is 'not up for negotiation with Washington'. This is a key application of the news, understanding the strategic messaging behind the actions.

Explanation

Remittances are transfers of money by migrants and are classified as Secondary Income (or Private Transfers) within the Current Account of the Balance of Payments. FDI and FPI are recorded in the Financial Account.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the declining trend in net FPI started in Q4 of 2023-24, not Q2 2021-22. Statement 3 is correct as remittances are transfers and not investment claims.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India attracted the highest remittances (in $) by a wide margin and received $138 billion in remittances in 2024.

Explanation

The article explains that depreciation pressure on the rupee is structurally inherent due to India's persistent Current Account Deficit, which in turn stems from the persistent trade deficit. FDI/FPI declines and remittance costs are secondary factors.

Explanation

The National Testing Agency (NTA) is the autonomous organization established under the Ministry of Education to conduct major entrance examinations including NEET, JEE, and CUET.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as mentioned in the article. Statement 2 is correct as the article details the CBSE On-Screen Marking failures. Statement 3 is incorrect as the Parliamentary Standing Committee criticized NTA for inadequate safeguards and accountability.

Explanation

The article specifically states 'over 22 lakh students' appeared for the cancelled NEET. This is a critical data point for understanding the scale of the impact.

Explanation

The article identifies systemic flaws like inadequate institutional capacity, poor risk assessment, weak technological safeguards, and insufficient accountability mechanisms as root causes, as highlighted by the Radhakrishnan committee report.

Explanation

PESA Act, 1996, extends Panchayati Raj provisions to Scheduled Areas, which are defined and administered as per the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution (except in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, which are under the Sixth Schedule).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as PESA empowers Gram Sabhas. Statement 2 is incorrect because implementation was left to State Governments, leading to varied and often diluted application. Statement 3 is correct as the Act mandates Gram Sabha consent, a point highlighted in the article as being vulnerable to dilution (e.g., replacing 'consent' with 'consultation').

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Union Home Minister's press conference on May 19, 2026, was his first since March 31, 2026, when India was officially declared Maoist-free.

Explanation

While welfare schemes and infrastructure help, the article argues that larger issues of water, forest, and land (jal, jungle, zameen) will ultimately determine Adivasi trust. The effective implementation of the PESA Act, which addresses governance over these resources, is highlighted as the key unfinished agenda.

Explanation

The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is compiled and published monthly by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). This ministry is the nodal agency for official statistics in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the April 2026 print is the first release under the new 2022-23 base series. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article clearly mentions the weight of mining and quarrying has been reduced to 11.05% from 14.37%. Statement 3 is correct as a fourth major sector, 'Water Supply, Sewerage and Waste Management', has been introduced with a weight of 2.02%.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "Capital goods output expanded by a robust 16% year-on-year." The other options are distractors: 4.9% is the overall IIP growth, 4.3% is consumer durables growth, and 2.8% is consumer non-durables growth.

Explanation

The article states: "Such a system would allow official statistics to better keep pace with structural changes in the economy, making the IIP a more accurate and timely gauge of industrial health." A chain-linked index updates weights more frequently, making it more responsive to economic shifts like the rise of new industries.

Explanation

The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is the statutory and institutionalized framework under the RBI Act, 1934, for determining the policy interest rate (repo rate) to achieve the inflation target. The article mentions the MPC meeting in the context of the rupee and potential rate decisions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: a REER below 100 indicates undervaluation, and 90.96 implies roughly 9% undervaluation. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the 2013 rate hike "did not work," and what worked was the FCNR(B) deposit scheme. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article clearly states net FDI and FPI inflow is (-)$18.4 billion since April 2024, indicating negative inflows.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the amount raised through the FCNR(B) scheme in 2013 was $26 billion. The $50-60 billion figure is the potential requirement for a similar scheme in the present context, while (-)$18.4 billion is the net FDI+FPI outflow.

Explanation

As per Nomura economists quoted in the article, "if large rate hikes are used to defend FX, then weaker growth prospects will trigger more capital outflows." This is the key analytical takeaway on why the 2013 rate hike failed and remains a concern for current policy options. The article does not make the other options the primary lesson.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the National Green Tribunal (NGT), after due diligence, acknowledged the project's great significance for defence and national security. The NGT is the specialized body for environmental cases.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article (166.10 sq km). Statement 2 is incorrect; the distance is about 45 km, not 450 km. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions an International Container Transshipment Port as part of the project.

Explanation

The article states 'Around 1 lakh ships pass annually through the Malacca Strait-Six Degree Channel route.' One lakh is equivalent to 100,000.

Explanation

The article clearly states that a transshipment port at Great Nicobar can 'reduce dependence on foreign transshipment hubs' and improve supply-chain resilience. While other options might be indirect benefits, this is cited as a primary strategic objective.

Explanation

The Act East Policy is a foreign policy initiative aimed at strengthening ties with Southeast Asia. Formulation and execution of foreign policy is the primary responsibility of the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; Myanmar is described as the 'land bridge' for India's Act East Policy, not a maritime gateway. Statement 3 is correct as the article lists these areas of discussion. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India and Myanmar share a 1,600-km border. This is a key geographical fact often asked in prelims. The other options are close distractors based on borders with other neighbours.

Explanation

The article concludes that 'New Delhi's challenge... is to balance engagement with Naypyidaw and non-state actors who control stretches of the border.' This captures the core complexity of India's pragmatic diplomacy amid Myanmar's civil war.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the 'planar unit distance problem' was first posed by Hungarian mathematician Paul Erdős in 1946. These are collectively known as 'Erdős problems'.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the AI disproved the square-grid assumption, finding a better pattern. Statement 2 is correct: Thomas Bloom is mentioned among nine mathematicians who verified the result. Statement 3 is correct: Professor Sayan Ranu stated the model used tools from algebraic number theory on a discrete geometry problem.

Explanation

The article clearly mentions the challenge was 'first posed by Hungarian mathematician Paul Erdős in 1946'. This is a direct factual recall from the news content.

Explanation

The core significance, as highlighted by Thomas Bloom and Sayan Ranu, is that the AI produced a new construction not found in existing literature, demonstrating reasoning and creation. The other options are contradicted: experts state human verification is still needed, AI still makes errors, and it is not yet better than the best human specialists.

Explanation

The NHRC is a statutory body created by The Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993. It is not a constitutional body. The Act defines human rights and provides the NHRC with its powers and functions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states NHRC took suo motu cognisance. Statement 2 is incorrect because the average age was 26 years, not 30. Statement 3 is incorrect as Sidhi ranked among the bottom three, not the top three, in the grading. Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 53 deaths occurred 'between April 2025 and March 2026'. The other options are close distractors using different financial or calendar years.

Explanation

The NHRC statement quoted in the article specifically mentions 'a lack of basic infrastructure, including doctors and technical experts at Community Health Centres, Primary Health Centres and the District Hospital' as a key cause. While other options may be related issues, the article directly points to the human resource shortage.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Hezbollah is an "Iran-backed" group and renewed attacks against Israel "in support of Iran." This is a core aspect of the regional proxy conflict.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions "U.S.-led talks in Washington." Statement 2 is incorrect; the ceasefire is conditional on Hezbollah's actions. Statement 3 is correct as the article details the agreement to create 'pilot zones' for the Lebanese army.

Explanation

The article states, "with at least 130 emergency and health workers now killed since the Israel-Hezbollah war began in March." This is a specific data point highlighting the humanitarian cost.

Explanation

The article specifies that in these zones, the Lebanese armed forces "will take exclusive control of the territory to the exclusion of all non-state actors." The primary objective is to strengthen the Lebanese state's authority over areas traditionally controlled by the non-state actor Hezbollah.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the study was conducted by the Centre for Criminology and Victimology at National Law University (NLU) Delhi, based on official U.P. Police data and 100 verified encounter cases.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's description of the 'near-identical seven-step sequence'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Supreme Court in PUCL v. State of Maharashtra (2014) laid down strict guidelines for encounters, not endorsing them as a model. Statement 3 is correct, as mentioned in the article regarding the Allahabad High Court's observation in January 2026.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'In about 97% of cases, the accused survived with a bullet wound to the leg.' This high survival rate is a defining characteristic of the 'half-encounter' or 'Operation Langda' methodology.

Explanation

The article's concluding analysis states that the system is self-sustaining because 'Political endorsement, professional incentives, media transmission and the chronic weaknesses of the criminal justice process...reproduce it.' Piecemeal reforms fail as these interconnected factors continuously reinforce the practice.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Andhra Pradesh government has directed the Andhra Pradesh Industrial Infrastructure Corporation (APIIC) to oversee the development of essential external infrastructure like roads, power, and water supply for the project.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article which calls it a 'maiden project sanctioned to the State under the Union government’s India Semiconductor Mission'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the investment is in two phases (₹542.19 Cr + ₹1,845.61 Cr), not entirely in the first phase. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions plans to create 1,000 jobs—200 in the first phase and 800 in the subsequent phase.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'The project... envisages a total investment of ₹2,387.81 crore.' ₹1,845.61 crore is the investment for the second phase only. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article quotes an official stating, 'To ensure the rapid grounding of this high-tech facility, the State government has approved the allotment of 30 acres of land to the firm at a nominal rate of ₹1 per acre.' This indicates the objective is to attract and quickly establish the investment, not to generate revenue.

Explanation

The White Paper explicitly mentions that 'the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) ruling has effectively answered that' question. CAG is India's supreme audit institution under Article 149 of the Constitution.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the White Paper recommends a forensic audit and revamp of the Act. Statement 2 is incorrect as the paper advises KIIFB should NOT be permitted to borrow independently. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions these three districts absorb nearly half the total.

Explanation

The article specifically states: 'the State faces a combined obligation of roughly ₹56,000 crore in loan repayments and project funding commitments'. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

The White Paper notes that 'KIIFB borrowings are now State borrowings and that its financing costs are consistently higher than government borrowing rates.' Therefore, it recommends the Finance Department borrow at more favorable terms and channel funds.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the UN Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) and its forthcoming seventh assessment report. The IPCC is the UN body tasked with assessing the science related to climate change.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states RCP8.5 has been 'officially retired'. Statement 2 is correct as the article cites 'rapid transition to renewable energy' and 'emissions... plateauing in China' as key reasons. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article clearly states scenarios adhering to 1.5°C are 'no longer possible without overshoot'.

Explanation

The article states: 'Based on the current emissions trajectory, the world is close to the medium pathway in the new CMIP7 illustrative scenarios: with an expected warming of up to 2.8° C by the end of the century.' 3.5°C is the new highest emission scenario, not the current trajectory.

Explanation

The article quotes a climate researcher stating that India 'is highly exposed to extreme events, in all scenarios'. It emphasizes that the 'imperative to adapt... remains high' and that deep emissions cuts by developed nations are crucial, contradicting the other options.

Explanation

As per the UN Charter, the UN General Assembly, comprising all 193 member states, elects the ten non-permanent members of the Security Council for two-year terms. This fact is mentioned in the article as the election was held by the 193-member UNGA.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Austria (131 votes) and Portugal (134 votes) won the two seats for the Western European group. Statement 2 is incorrect: Kyrgyzstan defeated the Philippines after four intense rounds of voting (142-49), not a single round. Statement 3 is correct: Zimbabwe received 182 votes, which was the highest among the elected members as per the vote counts provided.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the five nations were elected for the two-year term beginning January 1, 2027, and ending on December 31, 2028. They will replace members whose terms end in 2026.

Explanation

The German Minister for Foreign Affairs, Johann Wadephul, acknowledged that Berlin's support for Ukraine and its position on Israel may have cost it votes in the UNSC election. While he also mentioned a late entry, the article highlights foreign policy as a key factor.

Explanation

The draft explicitly states that AI systems will be subject to the provisions of the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023. This act governs data privacy and protection in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the draft prohibits AI for risk scoring, including bail eligibility. Statement 2 is incorrect; the draft bans AI for adjudication and sentencing, treating any AI output as advisory only. Statement 3 is correct as it proposes a permanent apex body at the Supreme Court.

Explanation

The article specifies that suggestions have to be submitted by June 20, 2026. This is a precise date for stakeholder consultation before finalization.

Explanation

The draft aims to safeguard constitutional rights and prevent discrimination. Banning AI in bail and profiling decisions is specifically to avoid bias affecting personal liberty and ensure fair due process, as stated in the draft.

Explanation

The article mentions 'Executive Director of Guidance Tamil Nadu P. Alarmelmangai' among the attendees. Guidance Tamil Nadu is the state's nodal investment promotion and facilitation agency, responsible for single-window clearances.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the ₹15,000 crore project is a data centre expansion in Kancheepuram, not the shipyard expansion (which is ₹1,100 crore). Statement 3 is explicitly mentioned as correct in the article. Hence, both 1 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'an electronics components manufacturing project in Coimbatore with an investment of ₹2,500 crore, which is expected to create employment for 2,000 persons'. The other numbers correspond to other projects or the total.

Explanation

While the article does not explicitly state the 'significance', a data centre of this scale indicates alignment with national digital growth and data localization trends. It enhances the state's IT infrastructure, attracting more tech investments. The project is a state-level initiative, not a Central scheme.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that a case was registered for alleged offences under relevant sections of the Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, and the POCSO Act, 2012. The BNS replaced the IPC as the substantive criminal code.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the court permitted termination of a 30-week pregnancy, overriding the 24-week limit. Statement 2 is incorrect because the court's decision was based on reproductive rights and bodily autonomy, not just medical risk. Statement 3 is incorrect as the court directed the hospital to act on the web copy without waiting for the certified copy.

Explanation

The article clearly states that upon medical evaluation, it was found the child was 30 weeks pregnant, and the court allowed the termination of this 30-week pregnancy.

Explanation

The article states the court observed that 'reproductive choice falls within the realm of a woman’s bodily privacy' and that 'the right to terminate a pregnancy concerns her reproductive rights and bodily autonomy'. This directly links to the fundamental right to privacy under Article 21 of the Constitution.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Ursula von der Leyen, president of the European Commission, the executive branch of the 27-nation bloc, announced the plan. The European Parliament is the legislative body, and the Council represents member states.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article says the bloc relies on foreign providers for over 80% of its digital products. Statement 2 is incorrect; officials clarified the plan is about building resiliency, not replacing American technology. Statement 3 is correct as the EU wants to at least triple its data center capacity by 2030.

Explanation

The article specifically states that the European Commission said the bloc relies on foreign providers for over 80% of its digital products, services, infrastructure and intellectual property. The other figures are plausible distractors but not mentioned.

Explanation

The article mentions EU leaders' alarm over reliance creating a 'kill switch' that the Trump administration or future U.S. presidents could exploit. The plan's primary objective is building resilience against such security threats, not cost reduction or boosting exports.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the UK Competition and Markets Authority (CMA) imposed the new rules on Google. The CMA is the UK's competition regulator, while FCA regulates finance, Ofcom regulates communications, and ICO deals with data protection.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the CMA's order for clearer attribution. Statement 2 is correct as the opt-out covers training and grounding of Google's broader AI services. Statement 3 is incorrect; the CMA explicitly prohibits Google from penalising publishers who opt-out by downranking them.

Explanation

The article states that Google has nine months to comply with all requirements. The CMA considered this sufficient time for technical implementation.

Explanation

The article explains that requiring clearer attribution may help improve the accuracy of AI Mode and AI Overview summaries, as there were instances where cited sources did not adequately support AI responses.

Explanation

The Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) is the head of the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO), as mentioned in the article. CDSCO is the apex national regulatory body for pharmaceuticals under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as stated by the Health Secretary in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the target year is 2047, not 2050. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned by the Drugs Controller General regarding CDSCO reforms. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the current Indian pharmaceutical trade volume stands at $60 billion out of the total global trade value of $2 trillion. The target is to increase this to $450 billion by 2047.

Explanation

The Drugs Controller General explicitly urged a change in mindset 'from producing in volume to creating new, high value products.' This shift from generics to innovation is central to capturing higher value in the global market and achieving the ambitious financial target.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the report was published by the United Nations University Institute for Water, Environment and Health, with Kaveh Madani as its director and the lead author.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states data centres consumed 448 TWh in 2025, 'more than the whole of Saudi Arabia'. Statement 2 is correct as the article projects AI will account for 40% of the total 945 TWh consumption by 2030. Statement 3 is incorrect; the report forecasts the land footprint to increase from 6,900 sq km to over 14,500 sq km by 2030.

Explanation

The article provides the specific figure: data centres consumed 4.5 trillion litres of water globally in the year 2025. Option D (9.3 trillion litres) is the projected consumption for 2030, making it a close distractor.

Explanation

The report's lead author, Kaveh Madani, explicitly warns that while AI won't 'run out' of resources globally, 'in specific places, poorly planned data centre expansion could collide with existing resource pressures.' This highlights the localized environmental risk, which is the report's central governance challenge.

Explanation

The news article quotes Union Minister Hardeep Singh Puri of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas announcing the rollout of ethanol fuel stations. This ministry oversees fuel distribution and related infrastructure in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: "he expressed hope to expand this network... to 500 by the end of 2026." Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states India's first flex-fuel car was launched by Maruti Suzuki, not Tata Motors. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned: "resulting in foreign exchange savings of ₹1.84 lakh crore."

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "then India can unlock... ₹12,403 crore additional income for farmers." The other figures are close distractors not mentioned in the provided content.

Explanation

The article directly quotes the Minister stating the aim is "to reduce imports of fossil fuels." It also mentions the fossil fuel import bill is around $120 billion, highlighting the energy security objective. The other options are not stated as primary objectives in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Under the draft regulations, the processing of personal data through AI systems shall be governed by the provisions of the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023.' This is a key static GK linkage for data privacy laws.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article says AI is permitted for administrative functions. Statement 2 is incorrect as the draft explicitly prohibits AI for 'risk scoring', which includes assessing flight risk and predicting recidivism. Statement 3 is correct as the draft proposes an apex body at the Supreme Court.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'The deadline for submitting responses is June 20.' This is a precise data point from the news that can be asked directly in prelims.

Explanation

The article's core principle is that AI must function 'solely in an assistive capacity' and remain 'strictly subservient to human judgment and judicial authority'. Prohibiting AI from core judicial decisions like bail eligibility directly serves this objective of preserving human oversight and judicial sovereignty.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the disclosure was made through North Korea's official Korean Central News Agency (KCNA). Yonhap is South Korea's agency, while AP and Reuters are international agencies.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions disclosures in 2010, 2024, and the recent one in 2026. Statement 2 is correct as the article states the last detonation was in September 2017. Statement 3 is incorrect; Kim claimed the capacity had 'more than doubled', not tripled. This is a classic data distortion trap.

Explanation

The article clearly states that 'Since diplomacy broke down in 2019, Pyongyang has conducted an extensive series of weapons tests.' The other years are close distractors related to other events (2017 was the last test, 2018 had summits).

Explanation

The article's 'larger strategic picture' section explains that experts say Kim's goal is to secure recognition as a nuclear state to lift UN sanctions, and then potentially seek arms reduction talks with Washington. The other options are extreme or not supported by the article's analysis.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that according to the Water Resources Department, Government of Gujarat, the state has faced water scarcity almost 30 times since 1900. This is the nodal agency for water resource management in the state.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions a 60.13 km dam from Aladar (east) to near Bhavnagar (west). Statement 2 is correct as the reservoir will receive water from four major rivers: Sabarmati, Mahi, Dhadhar, and Narmada. Statement 3 is incorrect because the project holds potential for both solar (1000 MW) and wind (1500 MW) power, not solely solar.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the planned roadway and rail transport infrastructure will reduce the travel distance from 240 km to 60 km when cutting across the Gulf of Khambhat, enhancing connectivity between eastern and western districts.

Explanation

The article highlights that the Gulf has a wide mouth of about 180 km on the southern side, which narrows down to approximately 5 km on the northern side. This specific geometry makes it a feasible site for constructing a dam. The other options are not supported by the article's content.

Explanation

The article states that Defence Minister Rajnath Singh released the revised DFPDS. Therefore, the nodal ministry responsible is the Ministry of Defence.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article clearly distinguishes DFPDS for revenue procurements from DAP for capital purchases. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states financial powers for indigenisation and R&D have been 'doubled', not reduced. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article's headline and content specify a 'twofold raise' or 'two-fold increase' in the financial ceiling. It further notes the enhancement has been made 'up to 100 per cent, and even more than double in some cases'.

Explanation

The Defence Ministry's statement, quoted in the article, says: 'This would further strengthen the operational efficiency of field commanders and lead to faster conclusion of contracts and execution of projects.' The other options are contrary to the article's intent, which is decentralisation, supporting a large budget, and boosting self-reliance.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the project was 'supported by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs' and launched during the National Conclave on Strengthening Integrated Tribal Development Agencies.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's description. Statement 2 is incorrect; the annual training capacity is around 700 students, not 1,000. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions 'awarded more than 1,000 NSQF (National Skills Qualification Framework) certifications'.

Explanation

The article directly states, 'the programme has trained more than 1,400 participants from Scheduled Tribe communities'. The other numbers are close distractors related to other figures in the news.

Explanation

The technology manager quoted says the main idea is 'to cater to the requirements of building a workforce' and that it addresses the need for 'practical exposure' which colleges often lack. The facility is for training, not research, manufacturing, or curriculum replacement.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the white paper suggests KIIFB should be 'subject to a performance audit by the Comptroller and Auditor General immediately.' The CAG is the supreme audit institution of India established under Article 148 of the Constitution.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the white paper suggests raising the retirement age to match the Centre's 60 years. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions capital expenditure is only 1.3% of GSDP, one of the lowest. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states Kerala's interest payments (20.9%) are nearly double the national average (12.2%), not half.

Explanation

The article directly quotes the white paper: 'The state will save retirement benefits of about Rs 6,000 crore with each increase in the age of retirement by one year.' This is a precise data point for factual recall.

Explanation

The article's first paragraph states the white paper said the state 'must create conditions for massive private investment due to acute shortage of resources.' This is the core rationale presented, highlighting the fiscal constraint driving the policy recommendation.

Explanation

DAY-NRLM is a flagship poverty alleviation program focused on rural livelihoods, which falls under the mandate of the Ministry of Rural Development. The article mentions the report was submitted to this ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the evaluation was undertaken by Sambodhi Research roped in by NITI Aayog's DMEO. Statement 2 is incorrect; the report found only 15% of SHGs had initiated enterprise activity. Statement 3 is correct as the report notes fear of loan defaults due to weak demand discouraged borrowing.

Explanation

The article provides specific data: while 74.6% had access to the Revolving Fund, only 49.9% reported receiving the Community Investment Fund (CIF). 41.8% accessed bank loans, and only 3.8% accessed the Community Enterprise Fund (CEF).

Explanation

The report explicitly flags that pressure on officials to form SHGs quickly to meet targets, even in villages with limited business opportunities, created a disconnect. This led to groups being formed without viable income plans, causing funds to be used for immediate consumption needs.

Explanation

The article states the app was developed with technical support from the National e-Governance Division (NeGD) under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology. NeGD is the implementing agency for Digital India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's objective. Statement 2 is incorrect because a key feature was that it did NOT require specialized hardware and worked on standard Android smartphones. Statement 3 is correct as explicitly mentioned in the article. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article specifically states: "The Commission said the technology was deployed for nearly 5.5 lakh candidates appearing at over 2,000 examination venues." The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "The technology was deployed to prevent impersonation and ensure that the candidate appearing for the examination matched the photograph submitted..." and later calls it a step towards "strengthening examination integrity." While other options might be incidental, the core objective was security and integrity.

Explanation

The article states Minister Nitin Gadkari was present at the launch. He is the Minister for Road Transport and Highways. Hardeep Singh Puri, who was also present, is the Minister of Petroleum and Natural Gas.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article says the car is homologated for E85. Statement 2 is incorrect; the target of 5,000 outlets is for the end of 2027, not 2026. Statement 3 is correct as per the Petroleum Ministry's statement in the article.

Explanation

The article states that ethanol blending in petrol increased to 20% in 2025-26, achieving the 20% blending aim five years ahead of schedule. The other options are plausible distractors based on past or future targets.

Explanation

The article repeatedly cites reducing crude oil imports and improving energy security as a key driver, alongside cutting emissions and boosting farmer incomes. While other options might be indirect effects, the core objective is reducing import dependency.

Explanation

The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) is a landmark economic legislation enacted by the Parliament of India in 2016. It received Presidential assent in May 2016 and came into force in stages.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the Supreme Court has referred the conflict to a larger bench. Statement 2 is incorrect; it was the Rakesh Bhanot (2025) bench that held the moratorium cannot stall criminal prosecution, while the P Mohanraj case described Section 138 as a 'civil sheep in criminal wolf's clothing'. Statement 3 is correct; the article states Section 138 is a compoundable offence.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'On May 27, a bench of Justices JB Pardiwala and KV Viswanathan said a distinction may have to be drawn...' and later confirms this is the date of the order leading to the referral.

Explanation

The article explains the bench's preliminary view: recovering compensation from an insolvent person's assets during the restructuring period would disadvantage other creditors and cut against the logic of the IBC, which aims for orderly distribution of assets.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Army is introducing the concept of a Unified Control Centre (UCC) at division levels to manage the growing number of UAS and C-UAS systems at the tactical level.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions 'Ashni drone platoons are being integrated' at the infantry battalion level. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Chief emphasized that the larger aim is 'not merely to procure drones, but to absorb them,' highlighting a shift from just procurement. Statement 3 is correct as the article states Operation Sindoor 'reinforced the need for faster R&D, better quality systems... and stronger integration among air defence, artillery, aviation, intelligence and electronic warfare assets.'

Explanation

The article directly quotes General Dwivedi stating that integrating Ashni drone platoons at the battalion level will give the soldier and small team their own aerial awareness, an idea described as 'Eagle on the Arm'. The other options are plausible-sounding but not mentioned.

Explanation

The article explicitly links the consumable nature of drones to the need for 'inventory depth, modular designs, rapid repair chains and assured component supply,' concluding that 'This strengthens the case for Atmanirbharta, because Indian solutions are required for Indian terrain, threats and operational conditions.'

Explanation

The article mentions the UPPSC (UP Public Service Commission) in the context of the 2024 paper leak case. State Public Service Commissions (PSCs) are independent constitutional bodies under Articles 315-323 responsible for state-level recruitment.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states 'the ED also took up the case' for UPPSC 2024. Statement 2 is correct: a CBI court convicted former RRB Mumbai chairman Satendra Mohan Sharma in January 2024 for irregularities in the 2010 test. Statement 3 is correct: NTA D-G Subodh Kumar Singh was removed after the 2024 UGC NET leak.

Explanation

The article's headline and opening line explicitly state '45 major paper leak cases investigated by The Indian Express between 2002 and 2025'. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article's core analysis points to a governance deficit where repeated leaks and weak accountability undermine the fairness (meritocracy) and credibility (integrity) of the recruitment system. The other options are contrary to the article's findings.

Explanation

The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) is the nodal body for managing India's foreign relations and diplomatic engagements. The article mentions Rudrendra Tandon, Secretary (East) in the MEA, briefing about the talks.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as explicitly stated in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; Venezuela emerged as the third-largest supplier in spot purchases, not the largest. Statement 3 is incorrect; the talks included participation of Indian companies upstream and downstream, going beyond a simple buyer-seller model.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that in spot purchases, Venezuela 'has already emerged as the third largest supplier this month'. The other options are distractors not supported by the text.

Explanation

The article mentions that due to developments in the Middle East, India is 'aggressively seeking out new sources of crude oil and energy to ensure India’s energy security'. This directly points to diversification as a key objective, not replacement, military exchange, or a shift to refined products.

Explanation

SEBI is the market regulator responsible for overseeing listed companies and protecting investor interests. The article explicitly states SEBI issued the interim order alleging fraud by Rajesh Exports, a listed entity.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; SEBI has barred the founder from buying, selling, or dealing in the company's securities pending further proceedings, but the article does not mention a permanent bar on directorship. Statement 3 is correct as the article states LIC owns around 10.80% stake.

Explanation

The article states that SEBI alleged nearly 99.8% of certain revenues reported by subsidiaries may have been inflated. Option B (97-99%) is a close distractor, as the article also mentions that between 97-99% of reported revenues could not be independently verified, but the specific figure for potentially inflated subsidiary revenue is 99.8%.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the controversy has drawn attention to institutional shareholders and that market participants have questioned whether large investors like LIC exercised adequate scrutiny over the company's reported financial performance. This highlights a corporate governance and due diligence failure, not sectoral expertise or government support.

Explanation

IPC Section 306 specifically prescribes punishment for abetment of suicide. Section 107 defines 'abetment' in general. Section 309 deals with attempt to commit suicide, and Section 498A deals with cruelty by husband or his relatives.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect; the court ruled that mere demands are not abetment 'in the absence of wilful instigation or conspiracy', not that they can never be considered. Statement 2 is correct as per the judge's observation. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the postmortem showed death by heart attack with no poison detected, which contradicted the prosecution's case.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the ruling was on an application seeking quashing of 'a 2022 FIR registered against them'. The other options are close distractors based on recent years.

Explanation

The court explicitly stated that a bank official pursuing a defaulter as part of employment and legal recourse 'cannot be termed as abetment'. This provides a safeguard for legitimate recovery actions. Immunity is not absolute, and the ruling does not introduce a requirement for court permission or a suicide note as the sole condition.