11 June 2026, Questions & Answers
104 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
104 questions · 0 topics covered · 21 min revision
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This page contains 104 current affairs questions with answers from 11 June 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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104 QsUnder which Act did the Supreme Court recognise 'loss of domestic care' as a distinct head of compensation?
- A.Indian Penal Code, 1860
- B.Motor Vehicles Act, 1988✓ Correct Answer
- C.Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
- D.Employees' Compensation Act, 1923
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Explanation
The Supreme Court's ruling specifically pertains to claims arising from motor vehicle accidents, which are adjudicated under the provisions of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988. This Act establishes the framework for compensation and the Motor Accident Claims Tribunals (MACTs).
Consider the following statements regarding the recent Supreme Court judgment on compensation:
1. The Court quantified the compensation for loss of a homemaker's domestic care at ₹40,000 per month.
2. The judgment was delivered by a Division Bench comprising Justices Sanjay Karol and N.K. Singh.
3. The Court stated that a homemaker's contribution is limited to the household and does not extend to nation-building.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the Court quantified the amount at ₹30,000 per month, not ₹40,000. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect as the Court explicitly observed that the contribution of a homemaker extends beyond the household and plays a vital role in nation-building.
What monthly compensation amount did the Supreme Court quantify for the 'loss of domestic care' of a homemaker?
- A.₹20,000
- B.₹25,000
- C.₹30,000✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹35,000
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the Supreme Court quantified the amount for the loss of domestic care at ₹30,000 per month. The other options are plausible distractors but are not the figure mentioned in the judgment.
What is the primary significance of the Supreme Court creating a distinct head of compensation for 'loss of domestic care'?
- A.It reduces the overall compensation payable in motor accident claims.
- B.It legally and economically validates the unpaid work performed by homemakers.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It transfers the jurisdiction of such cases from MACTs to regular civil courts.
- D.It mandates compulsory life insurance for all homemakers.
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Explanation
The core significance of the judgment is that it moves beyond symbolic recognition to assign a concrete economic value to the unpaid domestic and care work of homemakers, acknowledging its worth in legal and compensation frameworks. This is a step towards gender justice and proper economic valuation of non-market labor.
Which Act was highlighted by the Supreme Court in the judgment for strict enforcement to curb sex-selection practices?
- A.The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012
- B.The Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act, 1994✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015
- D.The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions the Supreme Court stressing the need for strict enforcement of the Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act, 1994 (PCPNDT Act). The other Acts are related to children or medical procedures but not specifically to prohibiting sex selection.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court judgment:
1. The Supreme Court dismissed an appeal by a Maharashtra doctor challenging criminal proceedings under the PCPNDT Act.
2. The Court cited Census data showing the national child sex ratio declined from 945 in 1991 to 927 in 2001 and further to 919 in 2011.
3. The Court stated that the sex ratio at birth has recovered to 945, signaling complete correction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the SC dismissed a Maharashtra doctor's appeal. Statement 2 is correct as the article cites the decline from 945 (1991) to 927 (2001) to 919 (2011). Statement 3 is incorrect; the article says the sex ratio at birth recovered to 929, not 945, and calls it a 'partial course correction, but yet, not a path of true equality and acceptability'.
According to the Census data cited by the Supreme Court, what was the national child sex ratio in 2011?
- A.927
- B.919✓ Correct Answer
- C.929
- D.945
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Explanation
The article states: 'Census data shows that the national child sex ratio declined from 945 in 1991 to 927 in 2001 and further to 919 in 2011.' The other numbers are from different years: 945 (1991), 927 (2001), and 929 (sex ratio at birth).
What is the primary objective behind the Supreme Court's emphasis on strict enforcement of the PCPNDT Act, as per the judgment?
- A.To increase penalties for medical malpractice
- B.To regulate all prenatal diagnostic techniques
- C.To combat deep-seated patriarchal preferences for male children and eradicate sex-selection practices✓ Correct Answer
- D.To promote the use of advanced diagnostic technologies
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Explanation
The article states the Court highlighted 'deep-seated patriarchal preferences towards a male child' and the 'behind the curtains prevalence of sex-selection practices', stating strict enforcement of the PCPNDT Act remains essential to address this systemic bias. The other options are narrower aspects or misinterpretations of the Act's purpose.
Anthropic's AI safety framework is primarily aimed at the government of which country?
- A.United Kingdom
- B.United States of America✓ Correct Answer
- C.European Union
- D.India
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'The proposal seems to be aimed primarily at the US government.' While it mentions that ideas could be adopted globally, the primary target is the US government and its Congress.
Consider the following statements regarding Anthropic's proposed AI safety framework:
1. It proposes mandatory safety testing for AI models trained using more than 10²⁵ FLOPs.
2. It recommends that safety incident reports should be submitted to authorities within 30 days of discovery.
3. The framework focuses on catastrophic risks including loss of control and automated research & development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the 10²⁵ FLOPs threshold. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article specifies a 15-day reporting window, not 30 days. Statement 3 is correct as it lists the four risk categories, including 'loss of control' and 'automated research and development'.
According to Anthropic's framework, what is the annual AI revenue threshold for companies whose advanced AI models would be subject to the proposed safety rules?
- A.$100 million
- B.$250 million
- C.$500 million✓ Correct Answer
- D.$1 billion
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the rules would apply to models developed by companies 'earning more than $500 million in annual AI revenue'. The $1 billion figure is the alternative threshold for annual AI research and development spending.
What is a primary objective of the independent evaluation mechanism recommended in Anthropic's AI safety framework?
- A.To reduce the cost of AI development for startups
- B.To accelerate the commercial deployment of AI models
- C.To ensure safety assessments are free from developer conflicts of interest✓ Correct Answer
- D.To standardize AI model architectures across different companies
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Explanation
The framework argues that companies should not evaluate their own models and that external experts should independently examine systems. It specifically recommends creating standards to ensure these evaluators 'remain free from conflicts of interest', addressing the bias in self-assessment.
Which U.S. agency officially confirmed the onset of the El Nino event discussed in the news?
- A.National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)
- B.National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
- D.United States Geological Survey (USGS)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that "The U.S. National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration officially confirmed the existence of the El Nino." NOAA is the primary U.S. agency responsible for monitoring oceanic and atmospheric conditions.
Consider the following statements regarding the El Nino event discussed in the news:
1. NOAA forecasts a 63% chance it will rank among the largest El Nino events since 1950.
2. Its effects are uniform globally, causing drought in all regions.
3. Scientists predict it could make 2027 the hottest year on record due to its lagging effects.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: "NOAA's announcement said there's a 63% chance that the El Nino will get so intense... it would rank among the largest El Nino events in the historical record going back to 1950." Statement 2 is incorrect because El Nino effects vary by region (e.g., drought in Australia, potential rains in the Middle East). Statement 3 is correct: "Several climate scientists forecast that 2027 will be the hottest year on record because of lagging effects of this El Nino."
According to the news, what is the probability forecast by NOAA that the 2026 El Nino will become one of the largest events since 1950?
- A.50% chance
- B.55% chance
- C.63% chance✓ Correct Answer
- D.75% chance
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Explanation
The article provides the specific data point: "NOAA's announcement said there's a 63% chance that the El Nino will get so intense... it would rank among the largest El Nino events in the historical record going back to 1950." The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
As per the experts cited in the article, what is a primary reason the 2026 El Nino is a significant concern for global climate?
- A.It will completely halt the Atlantic hurricane season.
- B.It acts as a force multiplier, exacerbating extreme weather events already intensified by human-induced global warming.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It signals the permanent end of the La Nina phase of the ENSO cycle.
- D.Its primary impact is limited to cooling the Pacific Ocean region only.
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Explanation
The core analysis in the article emphasizes that the El Nino "should further heat a globe already warming from fossil fuel pollution and will likely turbocharge extreme weather across the planet." This describes it as a force multiplier. The other options are incorrect: El Nino dampens but doesn't halt Atlantic hurricanes (A), the ENSO cycle continues (C), and its impacts are global, not regional (D).
The Nuclear Consultative Group (NCG) talks between the US and South Korea were launched under which bilateral pact?
- A.The 2022 Camp David Principles
- B.The 2023 Washington Declaration✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Mutual Defense Treaty of 1953
- D.The Joint Vision Statement of 2009
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Explanation
As stated in the article, the NCG was launched after the 2023 Washington Declaration. This pact included giving South Korea more insight into US nuclear planning.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The US-South Korea Nuclear Consultative Group (NCG) meeting discussed strengthening nuclear deterrence against North Korea.
2. Analysis suggests North Korea's new Yongbyon facility could decrease its uranium enrichment capacity by about 75%.
3. The talks are occurring alongside Seoul's pursuit of transferring wartime operational control from Washington.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the NCG meeting aimed to bolster allied nuclear deterrence. Statement 2 is incorrect because the analysis by VERTIC indicated an increase, not a decrease, of about 75% in enrichment capacity. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the talks come as Seoul pursues the transfer of wartime operational control.
According to the analysis by VERTIC cited in the article, what is the estimated potential increase in North Korea's uranium enrichment capacity once the new Yongbyon facility reaches full production?
- A.About 50%
- B.About 65%
- C.About 75%✓ Correct Answer
- D.About 90%
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Explanation
The article specifically cites analysis by the Verification Research, Training and Information Centre (VERTIC) reporting that North Korea's uranium-enrichment capacity could rise by about 75% once the new Yongbyon facility reaches full production.
What is a primary strategic challenge highlighted by the US-South Korea NCG talks in the context of the wartime operational control (OPCON) transfer process?
- A.Coordinating humanitarian aid during a conflict.
- B.Managing the financial cost of the military alliance.
- C.Harmonizing nuclear planning with conventional military forces.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Establishing joint cultural exchange programs.
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the process of transferring wartime operational control from Washington to Seoul 'has raised questions over how the allies would coordinate nuclear planning and conventional forces.' This is the core strategic challenge mentioned.
Under the proposed Canadian legislation, which new regulatory body will be established to oversee digital safety?
- A.Canadian Cyber Security Centre
- B.Digital Safety Commission of Canada✓ Correct Answer
- C.Office of the Privacy Commissioner
- D.Canadian Radio-television and Telecommunications Commission
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'A new regulator, the Digital Safety Commission of Canada, will be created.' This is the nodal body for enforcing the new social media regulations.
Consider the following statements regarding Canada's proposed social media legislation:
1. It seeks to ban social media accounts for children younger than 16 years unconditionally.
2. The legislation would also regulate the companies behind artificial intelligence chatbots.
3. Australia has revoked access to about 4.7 million children's accounts under a similar law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the ban is conditional; platforms can obtain an exemption if they prove sufficient safeguards. Statement 2 is correct as per the article: 'The legislation would also regulate the companies behind artificial intelligence chatbots...' Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions Australia revoked 'about 4.7 million accounts'.
According to the news, how many accounts identified as belonging to children have social media companies revoked access to in Australia under its similar law?
- A.3.2 million
- B.4.7 million✓ Correct Answer
- C.5.1 million
- D.6.0 million
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Explanation
The article provides the exact figure: 'In Australia, social media companies have revoked access to about 4.7 million accounts identified as belonging to children since the country banned use of the platforms by those under 16...'
What is the primary objective behind Canada's proposed legislation to restrict social media access for children under 16?
- A.To increase government revenue through digital taxation
- B.To promote domestic social media platforms over foreign ones
- C.To tighten safety protections and shield children from harmful online content✓ Correct Answer
- D.To reduce internet bandwidth consumption across the country
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Explanation
The core objective, as stated by the Culture Minister and throughout the article, is child safety. The minister said, 'We need basic protection in place,' and the article describes it as joining 'a growing global effort to tighten safety protections.' The law specifically targets seven types of harmful content.
Business Monitor International (BMI), which released the GDP growth projection, is a part of which larger financial services group?
- A.Moody's Corporation
- B.S&P Global
- C.Fitch Group✓ Correct Answer
- D.Bloomberg L.P.
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Business Monitor International (BMI) is 'a Fitch group company'. This is a direct static fact from the news content.
Consider the following statements regarding the economic projections mentioned in the article:
1. BMI's GDP growth projection for FY2026/27 is 6.6%, which is lower than the growth achieved in FY2025/26.
2. The RBI had implemented a cumulative rate hike of 125 basis points during the year 2025.
3. BMI expects the Indian Rupee to trade at an average level of 87 against the US Dollar in the calendar year 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as BMI projects 6.6% for FY27, down from 7.7% in FY26. Statement 2 is incorrect; the RBI implemented a 125 bps rate *cut* in 2025, not a hike. Statement 3 is incorrect; 87/USD was the average level in *2025*, while the forecast for 2026 is 95.1/USD.
According to the BMI report cited in the article, what is the projected GDP growth rate for India in FY2026-27?
- A.6.1%
- B.6.6%✓ Correct Answer
- C.7.1%
- D.7.7%
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Explanation
The article repeatedly states that BMI projects India's GDP growth at 6.6% for FY2026/27 (FY27). 6.1% is the decade's average, 7.1% was FY25's growth, and 7.7% was FY26's growth.
As per BMI's analysis, what is a primary factor expected to support the Indian economy through the ongoing energy crisis?
- A.High levels of foreign direct investment
- B.The currently low level of short-term interest rates✓ Correct Answer
- C.Strong performance of the agricultural sector
- D.Increased government capital expenditure
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Explanation
The article directly quotes BMI stating that 'the currently low level of short-term interest rates following the RBI’s 125 bps rate cut during 2025 will support the economy through the ongoing energy crisis.' This is a cause-and-effect relationship explicitly mentioned.
Which Iranian military force claimed responsibility for the retaliatory strikes on US bases as per the news article?
- A.Iranian Regular Army (Artesh)
- B.Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps (IRGC)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Basij Resistance Force
- D.Quds Force
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps (IRGC) claimed the strikes in its statement. The IRGC is a separate branch of Iran's military with significant political power.
Consider the following statements regarding the news about Iran's strikes:
1. Iran launched strikes targeting US bases in Jordan, Kuwait, and Saudi Arabia.
2. The IRGC claimed to have launched 12 ballistic missiles at a US command centre in Jordan.
3. The US Central Command (CENTCOM) responded with strikes targeting Iranian oil refineries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as Saudi Arabia was NOT mentioned as a target; the targets were Jordan, Kuwait, and Bahrain. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect because CENTCOM's response targeted Iranian 'military surveillance capabilities, communication systems, and air defense sites,' not oil refineries.
According to the IRGC statement quoted in the article, how many crucial US military targets were hit in the bases of Ali and Ahmad Ahmad Air Force in Kuwait and Bahrain?
- A.12 targets
- B.15 targets
- C.18 targets✓ Correct Answer
- D.21 targets
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Explanation
The article directly quotes the IRGC statement: 'During two waves of operations, eighteen important targets belonging to the US Army in the bases of Ali and Ahmad Ahmad Air Force (were hit).' The other numbers are close distractors.
What was the stated primary justification by the US Central Command (CENTCOM) for its retaliatory strikes against Iranian targets?
- A.To enforce United Nations sanctions on Iran
- B.To protect international commercial shipping in regional waters✓ Correct Answer
- C.To support regime change efforts in Iran
- D.To seize control of Iranian surveillance technology
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Explanation
CENTCOM's statement, as quoted in the article, said the strikes were against 'Iranian targets that posed a threat to U.S. forces and international commercial ships transiting regional waters.' Protecting shipping lanes is a key US interest in the strategically vital Persian Gulf.
Which public sector company is the implementing agency for the Zojila tunnel project?
- A.National Highways Authority of India (NHAI)
- B.National Highways and Infrastructure Development Corporation Ltd (NHIDCL)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Border Roads Organisation (BRO)
- D.Megha Engineering and Infrastructure Ltd (MEIL)
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Explanation
The article states that 'National Highways and Infrastructure Development Corporation Ltd is implementing it'. MEIL is the construction contractor, not the implementing agency. BRO and NHAI are not mentioned in this context.
Consider the following statements regarding the Zojila tunnel:
1. It will reduce the travel distance between Sonamarg and Drass by 27 km.
2. The tunnel is being constructed using the Tunnel Boring Machine (TBM) method.
3. One of its vertical shafts is the longest in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'This will reduce the distance from Sonamarg to Drass by 27 km'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article specifies the New Austrian Tunneling Method (NATM), not TBM. Statement 3 is correct: 'One of the three vertical shafts is 474.30 metres long... making it the longest vertical shaft in India.'
What is the revised target completion year for the Zojila tunnel project as mentioned in the article?
- A.September 2026
- B.January 2027
- C.February 2028✓ Correct Answer
- D.December 2029
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'It is now targeted to be completed in February 2028.' The initial target was September 2026, but it was delayed due to the pandemic, a terror attack, and extreme weather.
What is a primary strategic defense objective achieved by the Zojila tunnel, as highlighted in the article?
- A.Creating a new trade route with Central Asia
- B.Ending reliance on expensive and vulnerable airlifts for military logistics✓ Correct Answer
- C.Facilitating tourism to high-altitude lakes
- D.Serving as an alternative route for the Leh-Manali highway
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Explanation
The article emphasizes that for defense forces, the all-weather highway is a 'strategic lifeline' that will 'end the long-standing reliance on expensive and vulnerable airlifts.' While other options might be indirect benefits, this is the core strategic military objective explicitly stated.
Which strategic connectivity project, mentioned in the article, aims to link India's Kolkata port to Mizoram via Myanmar's Sittwe port?
- A.India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway
- B.Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project✓ Correct Answer
- C.Mekong-Ganga Cooperation Corridor
- D.Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) Highway
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions the Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project as a key connectivity initiative under India's Act East Policy that has faced prolonged delays. It is designed to connect Kolkata to Sittwe and then to Mizoram.
Consider the following statements regarding India-Myanmar relations as per the article:
1. India's recent engagement signifies a shift from a 'wait-and-watch' approach to a more pragmatic one.
2. A major driver for Myanmar to engage with India is to reduce its excessive dependence on China.
3. The recent high-profile visit resulted in the signing of several major agreements and MoUs on security and connectivity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states India moved beyond its 'wait-and-watch' approach. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions Myanmar seeks to diversify away from China. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article clearly states the 'absence of major agreements, substantial new commitments, or significant MoUs' during the visit.
According to the article, what is the term used to describe the long-standing relationship between Myanmar and China?
- A.Comprehensive Strategic Cooperative Partnership
- B.Pauk-Phaw relationship✓ Correct Answer
- C.Special Strategic and Global Partnership
- D.All-Weather Friendship
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Explanation
The article specifically uses the term 'Pauk-Phaw' to describe the long-standing relationship between Myanmar and China. The other options are terms used for China's relationships with other countries (e.g., Pakistan, Russia).
What is identified as a primary reason for India's cautious and limited engagement with Myanmar's current administration?
- A.Lack of historical and cultural ties between the two nations.
- B.Myanmar's internal conflict and political uncertainties.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Pressure from Western democracies to isolate the regime.
- D.India's focus on other strategic partnerships in the Indo-Pacific.
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Explanation
The article concludes that India's ties are likely to remain limited 'until the country’s political and security landscape becomes more stable.' The primary constraint is Myanmar's own internal instability, not external pressure or a lack of focus.
The German court ruling discussed in the news refers to which European Union regulatory act while discussing host provider protections?
- A.General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)
- B.Digital Markets Act (DMA)
- C.Digital Services Act (DSA)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Artificial Intelligence Act (AIA)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the court said Google cannot invoke host provider protections under the EU's Digital Services Act (DSA). The DSA is the EU's comprehensive regulation for online platforms and intermediary services.
Consider the following statements regarding the German court ruling on Google's AI Overviews:
1. The court ruled that Google is an indirect infringer because its AI merely makes third-party content findable.
2. The court held that AI Overviews generate 'independent, new, and substantive statements' unlike traditional search results.
3. The ruling is a final judgment, and Google has no option for appeal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The court ruled Google is a *direct* infringer for AI Overviews, explicitly rejecting the 'indirect infringer' logic used for traditional search engines. Statement 2 is correct as per the court's finding that AI Overviews creates new text. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article clearly states the ruling is 'preliminary' and 'not yet final'.
According to the news, what percentage of the plaintiffs' legal costs has Google been directed to cover by the German court?
- A.50%
- B.70%
- C.80%✓ Correct Answer
- D.100%
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Explanation
The article states: "Google has been directed to cover 80 per cent of the legal costs of the plaintiffs, with each of them paying 10 per cent each." This is a specific factual data point from the ruling.
What was the primary legal reasoning of the Munich court for holding Google directly liable for AI Overviews content?
- A.Google failed to respond to a cease-and-desist letter from the plaintiffs.
- B.The AI-generated summaries were identical to the content on the source websites.
- C.AI Overviews creates Google's own content by weaving information into new statements, not just linking to third-party sites.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Google admitted that its AI tool was designed to generate unreliable information.
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Explanation
The core legal distinction made by the court was that AI Overviews generates "independent, new, and substantive statements" and "brand-new text statements," making it Google's own content. This differentiates it from traditional search engines that merely link to third-party content, which are treated as indirect infringers.
The Bombay High Court judgment pertained to the disciplinary authority of which institution?
- A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
- D.National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the case was about the RBI's decision to compulsorily retire its employee, Animesh Bakuli. The RBI is India's central bank and the disciplinary authority in this matter.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The Bombay High Court upheld the compulsory retirement of an RBI employee for unauthorised absence starting in 2020.
2. The Court held that such absence from a sensitive post was beneficial for administrative flexibility.
3. The employee had argued that his absence was due to the COVID-19 pandemic and his parents' ill health.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article confirms the HC upheld the retirement for absence from March 19, 2020. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court held the absence was 'detrimental to public interest', not beneficial. Statement 3 is correct as the petitioner contended his absence was due to COVID-19 and parents' health.
For approximately how long was the RBI employee absent from duty without authorisation, as per the Bombay High Court order?
- A.Nearly 1 year
- B.Nearly 2 years
- C.Nearly 3 years✓ Correct Answer
- D.Nearly 4 years
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Explanation
The article repeatedly states the employee remained absent 'for nearly three years', specifically from March 19, 2020. The Court's order and the news headline both emphasize this duration as the core factual basis for the disciplinary action.
What was the primary legal principle invoked by the Bombay High Court to justify the penalty of compulsory retirement?
- A.Protection of the employee's right to privacy.
- B.The action was detrimental to public interest.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The need to reduce government expenditure on salaries.
- D.The employee's right to seek transfer to a preferred location.
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Explanation
The Court's order, as quoted in the article, explicitly states that unauthorised absence from a responsible RBI post 'would undoubtedly be detrimental to the public interest'. This principle of protecting public interest in public employment is central to the justification for the penalty.
As per the article, which day is observed as 'World Day Against Child Labour'?
- A.June 5
- B.June 12✓ Correct Answer
- C.October 2
- D.November 14
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that the state-level consultation where Jhansi's model was presented was scheduled for 'World Day Against Child Labour' on June 12. This day is internationally recognized.
Consider the following statements regarding the news about Jhansi district:
1. The 'child labour-free' declaration for 496 gram panchayats implies every household was physically inspected.
2. The campaign successfully identified and sent back to school more than 3,000 out-of-school children.
3. The initiative is part of Uttar Pradesh's target to become child labour-free by the year 2027.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the article clarifies that the status does NOT imply physical inspection of every household. Statement 2 is correct as per the data mentioned ('more than 3,000 out-of-school children'). Statement 3 is correct as it aligns with CM Yogi Adityanath's announcement for a 2027 target.
According to the article, how many child labourers were identified and rehabilitated during the campaign in Jhansi?
- A.Approximately 45
- B.Around 71✓ Correct Answer
- C.Nearly 100
- D.Over 120
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Explanation
The article provides a specific figure: 'Dubey said the district also identified around 71 child labourers during the campaign and ensured their rehabilitation...' The other options are plausible distractors but not the correct number from the source.
What was a key feature of the Jhansi district's campaign against child labour, as described in the article?
- A.It relied solely on strict legal enforcement and penalties.
- B.It was primarily funded by international donor agencies.
- C.It functioned as a 'self-motivation based' programme with voluntary business participation.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It focused exclusively on urban areas through municipal corporations.
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Explanation
The article quotes the Deputy Labour Commissioner describing the programme as 'self-motivation based', with businesses voluntarily participating and certifying their establishments. The campaign was multi-faceted, covering rural and urban areas, and involved various stakeholders beyond just legal enforcement.
Which investigative agency is primarily responsible for enforcing the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) in India?
- A.Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
- B.Enforcement Directorate (ED)✓ Correct Answer
- C.National Investigation Agency (NIA)
- D.Income Tax Department
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Explanation
The Enforcement Directorate (ED) is the primary law enforcement agency responsible for investigating economic crimes and violations of foreign exchange laws in India, including cases under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA).
Consider the following statements regarding the Delhi High Court's judgment on the NewsClick case:
1. The Court held that the investment received by NewsClick was in violation of the FDI cap applicable to digital media at the time.
2. The judgment stated that the offence of cheating requires a 'cheated' person, which was absent in this case.
3. The Court quashed both the FIR registered by the Delhi Police and the ECIR registered by the ED.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Court noted that as per the Union Ministry of Information and Broadcasting's reply, there was no cap/restriction on FDI in digital media at the relevant time. Statement 2 is correct as the judgment mentioned the requirement of a 'cheated' person for the offence of cheating. Statement 3 is correct as the Court quashed both FIR No. 0116/2020 and ECIR/14/HIU/2020.
According to the news, what was the amount of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) received by PPK Newsclick Studio Pvt Ltd, as alleged in the FIR?
- A.₹5.59 crore
- B.₹9.59 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹12.59 crore
- D.₹15.59 crore
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Explanation
The FIR registered by the Delhi Police's Economic Offences Wing alleged that PPK Newsclick Studio Pvt Ltd received Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) of ₹9.59 crore from Worldwide Media Holdings LLC USA during the financial year 2018-19.
What was the core legal principle established by the Delhi High Court's judgment regarding the relationship between a predicate offence and a money laundering case under the PMLA?
- A.An ECIR can proceed independently even if the predicate offence is under investigation.
- B.A money laundering case (ECIR) automatically fails if the predicate offence (FIR) is quashed.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The ED must wait for the conviction in the predicate offence before registering an ECIR.
- D.The seriousness of the predicate offence determines the punishment under the PMLA.
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Explanation
The Delhi High Court held that once the FIR under the predicate offence was quashed, the ED's Enforcement Case Information Report (ECIR) in the matter was also liable to be closed. This establishes that the validity of a PMLA case is contingent on the existence of a valid predicate offence.
Which branch of the Indian Armed Forces is procuring the C-295 military transport aircraft as per the news?
- A.Indian Army
- B.Indian Air Force✓ Correct Answer
- C.Indian Navy
- D.Indian Coast Guard
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the 'IAF' (Indian Air Force) is procuring the 56 C-295 transport aircraft. The Indian Air Force is responsible for air warfare and airlift operations.
Consider the following statements regarding the C-295 project mentioned in the news:
1. The first made-in-India C-295 successfully completed its maiden test flight in June 2026.
2. All 56 aircraft being procured by the IAF will be manufactured from raw materials within India.
3. The project involves the assembly of 40 aircraft in Vadodara by Tata Advanced Systems Limited in cooperation with Airbus.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the successful maiden flight on June 10, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article clarifies that 40 aircraft will be 'assembled' in India, not manufactured from scratch ('manufactured' implies complete production from raw materials). Statement 3 is correct as per the article's details.
What is the approximate total cost of the C-295 transport aircraft procurement deal for the Indian Air Force as mentioned in the article?
- A.₹15,200 crore
- B.₹19,500 crore
- C.₹21,935 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹25,000 crore
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Explanation
The article states, 'The IAF is procuring 56 C-295 transport aircraft at a cost of around ₹21,935 crore.' The other figures are close distractors.
What is the primary significance of the successful maiden flight of the 'Made in India' C-295 as highlighted in the news article?
- A.It immediately reduces the total number of aircraft imports required by India.
- B.It demonstrates India's growing aerospace capabilities and commitment to indigenous defence under Atmanirbhar Bharat.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It allows the Indian Air Force to retire its entire fleet of older transport aircraft.
- D.It signifies that India has achieved complete self-sufficiency in aircraft engine technology.
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Explanation
The article concludes by quoting the IAF statement that the achievement 'reinforces India's growing aerospace capabilities and underscores the Indian Air Force's commitment to fostering indigenous defence capability under the vision of Atmanirbhar Bharat.' This is its stated primary significance. The other options are either premature or exaggerated claims not supported by the article.
The Madras Export Processing Zone (MEPZ) falls under the administrative purview of which key official?
- A.Director General of Foreign Trade (DGFT)
- B.Development Commissioner of the SEZ✓ Correct Answer
- C.Chairperson of the Board of Approval for SEZs
- D.Secretary, Department of Commerce
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Explanation
As per the SEZ Act, 2005 and its rules, each SEZ is headed by a Development Commissioner. The article mentions MEPZ Development Commissioner Alex Paul Menon providing the data, confirming this administrative structure.
Consider the following statements regarding the news about SEZs in the TAP region:
1. The export earnings from the IT and ITES sector accounted for more than 85% of the total exports from the region's SEZs in FY 2025-26.
2. The Madras Export Processing Zone (MEPZ) is the newest SEZ established in the Tamil Nadu region.
3. The cumulative investment attracted by the SEZs in the region in FY 2025-26 was over ₹80,000 crore.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states IT-ITES contributed 88.4% (more than 85%). Statement 2 is incorrect because MEPZ is mentioned as 43 years old, not the newest. Statement 3 is correct as the cumulative investment is stated as ₹82,844 crore (over ₹80,000 crore).
According to the news, what was the approximate value of exports from the engineering, electronics, and hardware sectors from the TAP region SEZs in FY 2025-26?
- A.₹12,384 crore
- B.₹16,384 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹20,384 crore
- D.₹24,384 crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that exports from the engineering, electronics, and hardware sectors reached ₹16,384 crore. The other options are close distractors based on common numerical confusions.
What is a significant implication of the high concentration of IT-ITES exports (88.4%) from the TAP region SEZs, as highlighted in the news?
- A.It indicates a lack of manufacturing activity in the region.
- B.It showcases a successful model of agricultural export promotion.
- C.It poses a risk due to over-reliance on a single sector for export earnings.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It suggests a decline in foreign direct investment in the region.
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Explanation
While the high share demonstrates sectoral strength, economic resilience requires diversification. Over-reliance on one sector makes the regional economy vulnerable to global shocks in that specific industry, such as tech sector slowdowns or policy changes in client countries.
Which institution publishes India's official data on Balance of Payments (BoP) and remittances?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- D.National Statistical Office (NSO)
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Explanation
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is India's central bank and is responsible for compiling and publishing the Balance of Payments (BoP) data, as well as conducting surveys on remittance inflows, as mentioned in the article.
Consider the following statements regarding India's remittances:
1. Workers' remittances to India crossed $100 billion for the first time in the financial year 2025-26.
2. Private transfers, a broader category that includes workers' remittances, have been above $100 billion for four consecutive years.
3. The share of Gulf countries in India's total remittance inflows has increased significantly since 2016-17.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Workers' remittances reached a record $110.47 billion in FY26, crossing $100bn for the first time. Statement 2 is correct: The article states the more widely quoted 'private transfers' number has been above $100 billion for four years. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Gulf region's share actually declined from 47% in 2016-17 to 38% in 2023-24.
According to the article, what was India's Balance of Payments (BoP) surplus in the January-March 2026 quarter?
- A.$5.10 billion
- B.$7.22 billion✓ Correct Answer
- C.$9.45 billion
- D.$10.67 billion
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that India recorded a Balance of Payments (BoP) surplus of $7.22 billion in the January-March 2026 quarter, aided by strong remittance inflows.
What is a key reason, as per the article, why record remittances in FY26 are not considered a long-term solution for India's external finances?
- A.They are subject to unpredictable political decisions by host countries.
- B.They are primarily used for consumption and not investment.
- C.They cannot substitute for stable Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Portfolio inflows which have been declining.✓ Correct Answer
- D.They lead to an undesirable appreciation of the Indian Rupee.
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Explanation
The article's core argument is that remittances, while a useful buffer, are not a structural fix. It emphasizes that FDI inflows have been low and declining as a percentage of GDP, and FPI has been volatile. Sustainable external balance requires improvement in these stable, long-term capital flows, not reliance on potentially fickle remittances.
The article mentions a weakened global institution in the context of declining pandemic preparedness. Which international organization is this?
- A.World Trade Organization (WTO)
- B.World Health Organization (WHO)✓ Correct Answer
- C.United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF)
- D.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that global pandemic preparedness is weakened by the 'weakening of global institutions such as the WHO.' The WHO is the UN's specialized agency for international public health, making it directly relevant to this context.
Consider the following statements regarding the pandemic preparedness analysis discussed in the article:
1. The Hantavirus outbreak in 2026 was notable for occurring in an international setting aboard a cruise ship.
2. Preparedness for Ebola was found to be weaker than for Hantavirus due to a lack of prior experience.
3. A key concern raised is the decline in global health funding for preparedness since 2024-25.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article highlights the Hantavirus outbreak on 'MV Hondius' as an example of an outbreak in a 'complex international setting like cruise ships.' Statement 2 is incorrect: The article argues the opposite, stating preparedness is 'strongest against crises the world has repeatedly confronted — Ebola' and weakest against novel events like Hantavirus. Statement 3 is correct: The article clearly mentions funding 'has declined sharply, driven in large part by cuts in US aid' since 2024-25.
According to the article, what was the casualty figure associated with the Hantavirus outbreak aboard the MV Hondius in early April 2026?
- A.5 suspected cases, 1 death
- B.8 suspected cases, 2 deaths
- C.11 suspected cases, 3 deaths✓ Correct Answer
- D.15 suspected cases, 4 deaths
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Explanation
The article provides the specific data point: 'Hantavirus infections emerged aboard MV Hondius in early April, with 11 suspected cases and three deaths.' The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What is the central argument of the article regarding the future of global pandemic preparedness?
- A.Preparedness should focus exclusively on developing vaccines for known viruses.
- B.Preparedness has become deep for known threats and must now become broad to handle novel pathogens.✓ Correct Answer
- C.National governments should take full responsibility, reducing the role of international bodies.
- D.Investment should be shifted from surveillance to hospital infrastructure only.
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Explanation
The article's core thesis, stated explicitly in the title and conclusion, is that while preparedness has become 'deeper' for known threats like Ebola, it now needs to become 'broader' to effectively manage novel or unexpected pathogens, as illustrated by the Hantavirus case study.
The article mentions a report by the Law Commission of India that recommended introducing 'irretrievable breakdown of marriage' as a ground for divorce. Who chaired this Law Commission?
- A.Justice B.N. Srikrishna
- B.Justice H.R. Khanna✓ Correct Answer
- C.Justice Ranganath Misra
- D.Justice M.C. Chagla
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the 71st Law Commission Report (1978) was chaired by Justice H.R. Khanna. This is a key static fact for exams.
Consider the following statements regarding divorce laws in India as discussed in the article:
1. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 currently provides 'irretrievable breakdown of marriage' as a statutory ground for divorce.
2. The Supreme Court, in the case of Shilpa Sailesh v. Varun Sreenivasan (2023), dissolved a marriage by invoking its powers under Article 142 of the Constitution.
3. The Special Marriage Act, 1954 recognizes divorce only on the basis of mutual consent and not on fault grounds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The article clearly states that irretrievable breakdown is NOT a statutory ground under current law; it's a lacuna. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect: The article mentions the Special Marriage Act recognizes divorce largely through 'mutual consent or fault', implying it does have fault grounds.
As per the article, in which year did the Supreme Court deliver the judgment in the case of Shilpa Sailesh v. Varun Sreenivasan, which is central to the discussion on irretrievable breakdown of marriage?
- A.2019
- B.2021
- C.2023✓ Correct Answer
- D.2025
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions the case 'Shilpa Sailesh v. Varun Sreenivasan (2023)'. This is a direct data point from the news.
According to the article's analysis, what is a primary concern that must be addressed if a law for 'irretrievable breakdown of marriage' is introduced, especially in cases of unilateral divorce?
- A.Simplifying procedural delays in lower courts
- B.Ensuring economic restitution for the abandoned spouse✓ Correct Answer
- C.Preventing couples from opting for mutual consent divorce
- D.Transferring jurisdiction to family courts exclusively
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Explanation
The article argues that in unilateral no-fault divorce cases, the law must provide 'restitution for emotional abandonment', recognizing the injury is not just financial. This is a key implication highlighted in the analysis.
Which ministry launched the E85 fuel initiative mentioned in the news?
- A.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
- B.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
- D.Ministry of Heavy Industries
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Explanation
The article states that Union Minister for Petroleum and Natural Gas Hardeep Singh Puri launched the E85 fuel. This ministry oversees fuel policies and retail outlets in India.
Consider the following statements regarding E85 fuel:
1. It consists of 85% ethanol and 15% petrol and is meant for use in Flex-Fuel Vehicles.
2. Vehicles manufactured under Bharat Stage VI (Phase-II) from April 2023 are E85 compatible as mandated by the government.
3. The initiative aims to facilitate the adoption of vehicles capable of operating on ethanol blends from E20 to E100.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's definition of E85. Statement 2 is incorrect; BS-VI (Phase-II) vehicles are E20 compatible, not E85 compatible. Statement 3 is correct as the article states FFVs are capable of operating on blends from E20 to E100.
According to the article, what is the target for the number of retail stores offering E85 fuel by December 2027?
- A.500 outlets
- B.1000 outlets
- C.5000 outlets✓ Correct Answer
- D.10,000 outlets
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the aim is for E85 to be available across about 5000 retail stores by December 2027. The other options are distractors: 500 is the target for December 2026.
What is a primary challenge for motorists regarding the adoption of E85 fuel, as highlighted in the news?
- A.E85 fuel is not available at any retail outlets.
- B.E85 fuel requires specialized Flex-Fuel Vehicles which are not widely available.✓ Correct Answer
- C.E85 fuel is significantly more expensive per litre than regular petrol.
- D.E85 fuel offers higher mileage compared to regular petrol, making it less economical.
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Explanation
The article emphasizes that E85 can only be used in dedicated Flex-Fuel Vehicles (FFVs), and the Indian automobile industry is at a 'nascent stage' in offering such models to regular consumers. This is a key adoption barrier.
According to the article, which concept is used to record profit repatriation (dividends) sent abroad by MNE subsidiaries in India's Balance of Payments?
- A.Current Account✓ Correct Answer
- B.Capital Account
- C.Financial Account
- D.Reserve Account
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Explanation
The article clarifies that under BoP conventions, profits sent as dividends are recorded as investment income in the Current Account. They increase the Current Account Deficit (CAD) but do not affect net FDI flows recorded in the Financial Account.
Consider the following statements regarding FDI trends in India as discussed in the article:
1. India's net FDI declined sharply from $44.0 billion in 2020-21 to less than $1 billion in 2024-25.
2. The primary reason for weak net FDI flows is profit repatriation by multinational enterprises.
3. Real FDI into manufacturing accounted for only 10.6% of total effective inflows during the most recent four-year period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's data. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the official narrative on profit repatriation is misleading and the primary reason is disinvestment and capital repatriation. Statement 3 is correct, citing the analysis of effective inflows.
According to the article, what was the total recorded divestment in Calendar Year 2025?
- A.$29 billion
- B.$40 billion
- C.$52 billion✓ Correct Answer
- D.$65 billion
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Explanation
The article states: "Total recorded divestment in CY 2025 was $52 billion, with 45 major foreign private equity and venture capital exits accounting for $29 billion in outflows." The other figures are related to other data points ($29 Bn exits, $40 Bn of specific inflows, $65 Bn OFDI).
What is the primary implication, as highlighted in the article, of the increasing share of financial investors (PE/VC funds) in India's FDI inflows?
- A.Enhanced technology transfer and long-term industrial development
- B.Increased volatility and large-scale capital repatriations upon exit✓ Correct Answer
- C.Greater foreign exchange conservation and export promotion
- D.Strengthening of diaspora investment channels
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Explanation
The article explains that financial investors have planned exits, resulting in large-scale capital repatriations (e.g., Temasek's $6.4 Bn exit). This contrasts with Real FDI's long-term commitment and benefits like technology transfer. The focus is on the exit strategy impact.
The United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) is headquartered in which city?
- A.New York
- B.Geneva✓ Correct Answer
- C.Vienna
- D.Nairobi
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Explanation
As mentioned in the Static GK Linkage, UNHCR is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland. It is a specialized UN agency, distinct from the UN Secretariat headquartered in New York.
Consider the following statements regarding the UNHCR Global Trends Report 2025:
1. The total number of people displaced worldwide by conflict and persecution increased for the first time in a decade.
2. Most returns in 2025 were to countries including Sudan, Syria, and Afghanistan.
3. The report aims to halve the number of refugees in protracted displacement requiring humanitarian assistance by 2035.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The article states the number 'fell' for the first time in a decade. Statement 2 is correct: The article lists Sudan, Syria, and Afghanistan among the six main return countries. Statement 3 is correct: The article explicitly mentions UNHCR's aim to 'halve the number of refugees...by 2035'. Hence, option C is correct.
According to the UNHCR report, approximately how many Afghan refugees returned to Afghanistan in 2025?
- A.1.9 million
- B.2.9 million✓ Correct Answer
- C.3.7 million
- D.5.8 million
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Explanation
The article states: 'About 2.9 million Afghans returned in 2025'. Option A (1.9 million) is the number of refugees among the returnees, not the total. Option C (3.7 million) is the remaining Afghan refugee population at the end of 2025. Option D (5.8 million) was the population in 2024.
What is identified in the UNHCR report as a primary driver for the sharp increase in Afghan refugee returns in 2025?
- A.A comprehensive peace agreement in Afghanistan
- B.Improved economic opportunities and infrastructure
- C.Stricter asylum policies in neighbouring Iran and Pakistan✓ Correct Answer
- D.Successful UN-led reintegration programs
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the returns were 'driven mainly by stricter policies in neighbouring Iran and Pakistan'. It further notes many 'had little choice but to leave', indicating the returns were not voluntary or based on improved conditions in Afghanistan, which rules out the other options.
The National Testing Agency (NTA) is an autonomous body under which Union Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
- B.Ministry of Education✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Science and Technology
- D.Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
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Explanation
The National Testing Agency (NTA) is an autonomous and self-sustained premier testing organization established by the Union Government under the Ministry of Education (formerly Ministry of Human Resource Development). It conducts major entrance exams like NEET-UG, JEE, and CUET.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. A group of 73 former civil servants has sought an independent review of the National Testing Agency (NTA) and CBSE.
2. The demand was made solely in the context of failures in the NEET-UG examination.
3. The signatories also raised concerns about the implementation of the On Screen Marking (OSM) system for CBSE exams.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 73 former bureaucrats sought a review. Statement 2 is incorrect because the demand was made in the context of both the NEET-UG paper leak AND the failures of the CBSE's On Screen Marking (OSM) system. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly mentions concerns over OSM rollout.
According to the open letter cited in the article, how many students' aspirations were affected by the NEET-UG paper leak episode?
- A.2.3 lakh students
- B.23 lakh students✓ Correct Answer
- C.2.3 crore students
- D.23 crore students
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Explanation
The article states: "Referring to NEET-UG, the signatories said the paper leak episode had affected the aspirations of more than 23 lakh students." The other options are distractors using similar numbers but different units (lakh vs crore).
What is the primary objective behind the demand for implementing advanced cryptographic protocols, as mentioned in the article?
- A.To reduce the cost of conducting examinations
- B.To speed up the declaration of examination results
- C.To prevent question paper leaks and ensure exam integrity✓ Correct Answer
- D.To simplify the examination question paper pattern
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Explanation
The article states that the signatories sought the "implementation of advanced security and cryptographic protocols to prevent question paper leaks." This is a direct response to the NEET-UG paper leak incident, aiming to safeguard the integrity and security of the examination process.
Which national body introduced the fuel-quality specifications for the higher ethanol blends (E22, E25, E27, E30) mentioned in the news?
- A.Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)
- B.Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
- D.Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) introduced fuel-quality specifications for E22, E25, E27, and E30 petrol blends. BIS is the national standards body responsible for such specifications.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent policy on ethanol-blended petrol:
1. The government has exempted excise duty on petrol blended with 22%, 25%, 27%, and 30% ethanol.
2. The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) specifications for these fuel blends came into effect from June 11, 2026.
3. The primary objective of this policy is to increase government revenue from fuel taxes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the BIS standards became effective from May 15, 2026, not June 11. Statement 3 is incorrect; the primary objective is to reduce crude oil imports and boost biofuel use, not increase tax revenue.
From which date did the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) fuel-quality specifications for E22, E25, E27, and E30 petrol blends become effective?
- A.April 1, 2026
- B.May 15, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.June 11, 2026
- D.August 4, 2025
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the BIS standards for the specified ethanol blends are effective from May 15, 2026. June 11, 2026, is the date of the excise duty exemption news, and August 4, 2025, is when the MoPNG addressed concerns on social media.
What is the primary strategic objective behind the government's excise duty exemption for higher ethanol-blended petrol, as per the news article?
- A.To increase the retail price of petrol for higher revenue collection.
- B.To promote the use of electric vehicles by making petrol less attractive.
- C.To reduce India's dependence on crude oil imports and enhance energy security.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To provide direct subsidy to oil marketing companies for infrastructure development.
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that the move aims to reduce crude oil imports, boost domestic biofuel use, and increase energy security. This is the core strategic objective, while other options are either incorrect or not the primary goal stated.
Which institute is responsible for the official confirmation of Nipah virus cases in India, as mentioned in the article?
- A.Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
- B.National Institute of Virology (NIV), Pune✓ Correct Answer
- C.National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC)
- D.World Health Organization (WHO)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that while initial tests were done at a local lab, official confirmation must come from NIV-Pune. NIV is India's apex virology research institute.
Consider the following statements regarding Nipah virus outbreaks in Kerala:
1. The first detection of Nipah virus in Kerala occurred in 2018.
2. All outbreaks in Kerala have been reported during the May to September period.
3. The strain of Nipah virus reported in Kerala is known for a mortality rate of up to 90%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article states the disease was first detected in Kerala in 2018. Statement 2 is correct: It mentions all outbreaks were reported in the May to September period. Statement 3 is correct: It specifies the virus reported in Kerala belonged to a Bangladeshi strain known for a mortality rate up to 90%.
According to the article, what is the total number of deaths from Nipah virus in Kerala since 2018?
- A.17
- B.21
- C.24✓ Correct Answer
- D.26
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Explanation
The article provides a cumulative tally: 17 deaths in 2018, 1 in 2021, 2 in 2023, 2 in 2024, and 2 in 2025, summing to 24 total deaths since 2018.
What is the primary challenge in early diagnosis of Nipah virus during the Kerala monsoon season, as highlighted in the article?
- A.Limited testing facilities in rural areas
- B.Overlapping initial symptoms with other common seasonal viral fevers✓ Correct Answer
- C.High cost of diagnostic kits
- D.Lack of trained medical personnel
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Explanation
The article states that with other viral fevers and flu common in the season, the early diagnosis of Nipah, which has similar initial symptoms, has been a challenge. This makes clinical differentiation difficult.
Which ministry is the nodal agency for the PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana?
- A.Ministry of Power
- B.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Science and Technology
- D.Ministry of Heavy Industries
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Explanation
The article mentions the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) Secretary held a meeting on the issue. MNRE is the nodal ministry for all renewable energy schemes in India, including rooftop solar programmes like PM Surya Ghar.
Consider the following statements regarding the news on PM Surya Ghar scheme:
1. The scheme has achieved its target of installing rooftop solar in 75 lakh households.
2. The Domestic Content Requirement (DCR) for solar cells became mandatory for all solar projects from June 1, 2026.
3. India's annual solar cell manufacturing capacity is higher than its solar module production capacity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The target is 75 lakh households by year-end, but only 40 lakh have been installed so far. Statement 2 is correct as per the article: "From June 1, the government made it mandatory for all domestic, commercial and industrial solar projects to use only locally manufactured solar cells." Statement 3 is incorrect. The article states India's solar cell manufacturing capacity is about 30 GW, while module production capacity is 60-65 GW, meaning cell capacity is lower.
According to the article, what is the approximate solar power capacity added through the 40 lakh installations under the PM Surya Ghar scheme?
- A.8 Gigawatts
- B.10 Gigawatts
- C.12 Gigawatts✓ Correct Answer
- D.15 Gigawatts
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "About 40 lakh rooftop systems have been installed... adding over 12 gigawatts (GW) capacity." The other options are plausible distractors given the scale of the scheme.
What is the primary challenge currently faced by the PM Surya Ghar scheme, as discussed in the article?
- A.Lack of consumer interest and awareness
- B.Insufficient government subsidy allocation
- C.Shortage of domestically manufactured solar cells (DCR modules)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Technical failures in the installed rooftop systems
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Explanation
The core issue highlighted is a supply crunch. Vendors are struggling to procure DCR-compliant panels, leading to 25-30 day waiting periods and price rises, which is slowing project execution. While other options could be challenges, the article focuses specifically on the supply shortage due to the domestic content mandate.
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Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?
For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.
- Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
- Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
- Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.
Frequently Asked Questions
What are the important current affairs questions for 11 June 2026?▼
This page contains 104 current affairs questions from 11 June 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
How to use 11 June 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼
Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.
How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼
Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.
Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼
Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.
What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼
Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.
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- Q97. institute is responsible for the official confirmation of Nipa…
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