26 June 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The FCRA is administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), Government of India. All registrations, renewals, and cancellations under the Act are handled by this ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the new Rules mandate disclosure of social media handles. Statement 2 is incorrect: NGOs must confine work to States/UTs named in their registration. Statement 3 is correct: in Noel Harper (2022), the SC read down such rules. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'more than 20,000 registrations have reportedly been revoked over the past decade on opaque grounds'. The other options are incorrect as they do not match the given data.

Explanation

The new Rules impose multiple fees (per category and per state), require disclosure of social media, and ban 'political content'—all of which significantly increase compliance burdens and curb advocacy work. Options A, C, and D contradict the article's content.

Explanation

The Sagarmala Project and Maritime Vision 2030 are flagship initiatives of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, aimed at port-led development and shipbuilding growth as outlined in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: Hyundai subsidiary signed an MoU with Cochin Shipyard and plans $4 billion investment in Thoothukudi. Statement 2 is correct: SHI partnered with Swan Defence. Statement 3 is incorrect because KOMEA opened an office in Mumbai, not New Delhi.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Hyundai's subsidiary announced plans to invest $4 billion in Thoothukudi to construct a green shipyard. The other amounts are distractors not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article notes that KOMEA opening an office in Mumbai is 'expected to pave the way for the development of a robust shipbuilding ecosystem in India' by fostering ancillary industries, design, equipment, and repair capabilities.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Drug Technical Advisory Board (DTAB) under the country's apex drug regulator first deliberated the matter in 2024 and agreed to include all anticancer medicines under Schedule H2.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the QR code must be on the primary packaging (vial, strip, bottle) ideally, and only if space is insufficient can it be on secondary packaging. Statement 2 is correct: the gazette notification was published on June 22, 2026. Statement 3 is correct: the sub-indicator for maturity level 4 mandates unique identification on outer packaging, and India is currently at level 3 for vaccines.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the change will be implemented by July 2027 for vaccines, narcotics, and anticancer drugs, and by July 2028 for antimicrobials. June 2027 and June 2028 are close distractors but the notification specifies July.

Explanation

The article's core theme is anti-counterfeiting — triggered by an investigation where empty cancer drug vials were refilled with cheaper antifungal drugs. The QR code enables regulators to trace each unit from factory to market, making counterfeiting extremely difficult. Revenue generation, export clearance, and manufacturing cost reduction are not the stated objectives.

Explanation

The Good Samaritan Rules were notified by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) under Section 134A of the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, 2019. The Home Ministry handles the 112 NERS, but the Good Samaritan framework falls under MoRTH.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the SC ordered 5 key measures including 112 NERS and trauma registry. Statement 2 is correct: the Golden Hour is the first 60 minutes. Statement 3 is incorrect: 22 states do NOT have a trauma registry, so compliance is far from complete.

Explanation

The article states that only 8 out of 34 states and Union Territories have a grievance system for Good Samaritans. The other options are distractors: 13 states have no GPS or limited GPS in ambulances, and 22 states lack a trauma registry.

Explanation

A trauma registry is a clinical database that tracks a patient's journey from the scene of injury through ambulance, hospital treatment, and discharge. It is used to audit medical care, monitor outcomes, and inform policy decisions — not just to increase ambulances or provide compensation.

Explanation

The article states that the TS-bPASS Act, 2020, mentions footpaths only in relation to underground ducts for utilities and does not explicitly mandate them as a pedestrian safety measure. The proposed CURE Act, on the other hand, includes provisions for pedestrian facilities.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the apex court held that walking safely on footpaths is a fundamental right under Article 21. Statement 2 is correct as the court suggested policy measures including a regulatory body. Statement 3 is incorrect because the ruling is a general interpretation of fundamental rights and applies pan-India, not just to Telangana.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that for a requirement of roughly 1,600 km of footpaths, only about 430 km existed, many too narrow or encroached to be of practical use. Option A (886 km) is the length of four-lane roads, not footpaths. Options C and D are lengths of six-lane and eight-lane roads respectively.

Explanation

The article states that the proposed CURE Act includes provisions requiring urban local bodies to create and maintain footpaths, pedestrian crossings, kerb ramps, tactile pathways, street furniture, bus stops, and other pedestrian facilities. It also provides for designated pedestrian and non-motorised transport corridors. Options A and D describe vehicle-centric approaches that the article criticizes. Option C relates to the TS-bPASS Act, not the CURE Act.

Explanation

The article explicitly refers to the Noel Harper case (2022) where the Supreme Court upheld the 2020 FCRA amendments, though it narrowed the definition of 'political activity'.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the new rules impose multiple fees per activity and per state/UT. Statement 2 is incorrect because the rules explicitly ban any 'political content' on NGO digital platforms, severely restricting political advocacy. Statement 3 is correct: the article states that the March 2026 proposals were shelved after strong opposition. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'over the past decade, more than 20,000 registrations have been cancelled on opaque grounds.' The other options are close distractors but only 20,000 is correct.

Explanation

The article repeatedly describes the rules as 'another attempt to strangle NGOs' and notes that they increase compliance costs, restrict advocacy, and were opposed by civil society. Options A and B are the government's stated objectives but not the criticism, while D is not mentioned.

Explanation

The NDPS Act is enforced by the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) under the Ministry of Home Affairs. The Narco-Coordination Centre (NCORD) is also under the MHA, and the Home Minister chairs its apex-level meetings. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the 10th apex-level NCORD meeting on June 26, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect — the value of seizures between 2004-2014 was ₹40,000 crore, not ₹1.84 lakh crore (the latter is for 2014-2026). Statement 3 is correct: the Home Minister said the Finance Ministry is bringing amendments. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'from 2014 to 2026, we seized 1.18 crore kilograms of synthetic drugs.' Options A (26 lakh kg) refers to the 2004-2014 period. Options C and D are incorrect as they mix units or amounts. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

The article quotes Home Minister Shah saying the government will amend the NDPS Act 'to plug all loopholes exploited by narco syndicates.' While increased penalties may be a part, the stated primary objective is closing legal gaps. Options C and D are not mentioned. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that DRDO developed the Netra AEW&C system and handed over Final Operational Clearance to the IAF. IAF is the user, HAL may manufacture components but DRDO is the lead developer. ISRO deals with space, not airborne defence systems.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because China developed indigenous AEW&C systems (e.g., KJ-2000) earlier. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions Netra Mk-2 will use Airbus A321 with >500 km radar range. Hence option C (both 1 and 3) is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'the Rs 19,000-crore Netra Mk-2 programme will see six Airbus A321-based AEW&C aircraft'. ₹10,000 cr and ₹15,000 cr are distractors; ₹25,000 cr is not mentioned.

Explanation

The article describes Netra as an 'airborne surveillance and battle management platform' that acts as an 'eye in the sky' and supports network-centric warfare by detecting targets and directing friendly fighters. It does not directly attack (option A is false), its primary role is not transport (C), and while it has ECM capability, that is not the primary role (D).

Explanation

The article mentions S. Krishnan as the Secretary of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), which is the nodal ministry for AI and IT matters in India. The Ministry of External Affairs was represented by Additional Secretary K. Nagraj Naidu, but the primary ministry for AI is MeitY.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the article explicitly states that the Pax Silica initiative is 'not a trade agreement, but rather a pact for economic and military security.' Statement 2 is correct as India joined in February 2026 on the sidelines of the AI Impact Summit in New Delhi. Statement 3 is correct as the initiative aims to ensure alternate supply chains in critical minerals and rare earths, which are dominated by China.

Explanation

The article states that the first Pax Silica Summit was held last December (relative to June 2026), which is December 2025. The second summit is being held in June 2026. India joined the initiative in February 2026, which is a different date.

Explanation

The article states that the Pax Silica initiative aims at 'strengthening the security of supply chains in key technology sectors' and that it is a response to over-dependence on China for critical minerals and rare earths. It is not a trade agreement, nor does it focus on AI regulation or tourism.

Explanation

The article states 'As per the Kolkata Municipal Corporation, an empanelled architect and a structural engineer must certify building plans.' This makes option A correct. Options B, C, D are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions 11 dead on June 24. Statement 2 is false; the contractor used corrugated tin sheets, not steel beams. Statement 3 is correct as the article states 'West Bengal Chief Minister Suvendu Adhikari has suspended all Trinamool Congress-era projects in and around Kolkata.' Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that early reports found 'the contractor used corrugated tin sheets to support the much heavier load of the concrete roof cast - a shortcut cartels have been known to take to cut costs.' Options A, C, D are not mentioned as the primary shortcut.

Explanation

The article argues that 'an anachronistic model of governance that has failed to keep up with the speed of modern construction' leads to an accountability gap, causing such failures. Options A, C, D are not presented as the primary cause in the article.

Explanation

NABH is the autonomous body under the Quality Council of India that sets standards and accredits healthcare organisations. The article specifically mentions that accreditation of home care organisations by NABH will pave the way for greater standardisation of care, helping improve quality and achieve maintainable benchmarks.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the IMARC Group data cited in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because domiciliary hospitalisation is a narrow provision, capped, often excluded by insurers due to fraudulent claims, and works mostly on a reimbursement basis, not cashless. Statement 3 is correct — SEWA and Pallium India have jointly trained a batch of 30 women as professional caregivers, and demand has outpaced supply.

Explanation

The article cites market research company IMARC Group, stating India's home healthcare market was valued at USD 16.3 billion in 2025 and is expected to reach USD 74.57 billion by 2034. Option A (USD 16.3 billion) is the 2025 value, not the 2034 projection. Options B and D are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article highlights that families often spend ₹30,000 to ₹1 lakh monthly on post-hospitalisation care, and cutting back on rehabilitation leads to complications like infections and preventable readmissions. Covering home care would reduce out-of-pocket expenditure, improve recovery outcomes, and lower overall healthcare system costs. Options A, C, and D are not supported by the article's analysis.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the project bid has been sent to receive approval of the PPP Appraisal Committee (PPPAC) of the Union government. This committee appraises and approves PPP projects before tendering.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the quay length will be 900 metres. Statement 2 is incorrect: the concession period is 40 years, not 30. Statement 3 is correct: as per the article, the first berth will be ready by 2029. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article mentions that the port currently has one common-user container terminal with a handling capacity of 0.8 million TEUs. After phase II expansion, it will increase to 1.4 million TEUs. The new second terminal will add 2 million TEUs.

Explanation

The article states that when the second terminal is built, congestion will decrease further and the turnaround time of ships will drastically come down. The ability to handle four mother vessels simultaneously will decongest the port and improve logistics efficiency.

Explanation

The article states that a senior official of IHMCL, which runs the 1033 highway helpline number, provided details on integration with 112. C-DAC runs the 112 NERS software, while NHAI is the implementing agency for highways.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article explains that poor coordination among agencies and missing SOPs are key reasons for slow compliance. Statement 2 is incorrect because only 5 states/UTs (Delhi, Kerala, Gujarat, Haryana, Lakshadweep) have reported complete integration, not all states except UP. Statement 3 is correct as Piyush Tewari of SaveLIFE Foundation advocated for a Right to Trauma Care Law.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that five states/UTs — Delhi, Kerala, Gujarat, Haryana and Lakshadweep — have reported complete integration to 112 NERS. This is a direct factual data point from the news.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that a road fatality involves at least six departments (police, health, road agency, DM office, insurance, death registration), and the lack of coordination and missing SOPs are the key reasons for slow response. While funding and infrastructure are issues, the core problem highlighted is inter-agency coordination.

Explanation

The Election Commission of India (ECI), established under Article 324, is responsible for the SIR exercise to update and verify electoral rolls. The Law Commission deals with legal reforms, NITI Aayog with policy, and the Registrar General with census data, not electoral rolls.

Explanation

All statements are correct as per the article. Statement 1: The Emergency was imposed citing internal disturbance, suspending fundamental rights. Statement 2: Jayaprakash Narayan mobilized students and citizens, especially in Bihar and Gujarat. Statement 3: The Janata Party under Narayan used the 'save democracy' slogan in the 1977 elections.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the textbook is called 'Understanding Society India and Beyond: Part 1'. The other options are not mentioned in the news. This is a direct factual recall question from the article.

Explanation

The article states that through SIR, the EC 'ensures that no eligible citizen is left out and no ineligible person is included in the electoral roll.' This reflects the core democratic principle of fair and inclusive elections. The other options are not supported by the article's content.

Explanation

Section 45ZA of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 allows a depositor to nominate a person to receive the deposit amount upon the depositor's death. The bank is discharged upon paying the nominee, but the nominee does not become the owner of the funds.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: a nominee is not a legal heir but a trustee for the legal heirs. Statement 2 is correct: the Supreme Court in Sarbati Devi v. Usha Devi (1984) established this principle. Statement 3 is correct: a registered will determines the actual distribution of assets and overrides nomination.

Explanation

The Finance Ministry issued the clarification on August 28, 2024, stating that queer couples face no restrictions in opening joint accounts or naming partners as nominees. The RBI had communicated the same to scheduled commercial banks a week earlier.

Explanation

Under Indian law, a nominee receives funds as a trustee for the legal heirs. For a queer person, this means their partner (nominee) could be required to hand over assets to estranged parents (legal heirs). A registered will ensures the partner actually inherits the assets, as it specifies the true beneficiaries.

Explanation

The article quotes S. Suresh Kumar as Principal Secretary, Municipal Administration and Urban Development, confirming the department responsible for the policy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the phased target of 20% urban demand by 2030. Statement 2 is incorrect because the policy explicitly prohibits potable use and applications involving direct human contact. Statement 3 is correct as dual plumbing is promoted for flushing and non-potable uses. Hence option C.

Explanation

The policy sets phased targets: 20 ULBs by 2027, 40 by 2028, 90 by 2029, and all 123 by 2030. Thus, 90 ULBs is the target for 2029.

Explanation

The policy aims to strengthen water security, reduce freshwater consumption, and promote a circular economy. It explicitly prohibits potable use and mandates reuse in non-potable applications, thereby conserving freshwater.

Explanation

The article mentions Union Agriculture Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan chaired the meeting, indicating the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare is the nodal ministry for agricultural contingency planning.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: article says Rajasthan recorded excess rainfall of 20% and other states recorded deficiency. Statement 2 is correct: net irrigated area is 59.3% of net sown area as per 2023-24 data. Statement 3 is incorrect: pulses have low irrigation levels and are mostly rainfed; water-guzzling crops like sugarcane have high irrigation levels.

Explanation

The article states: 'the monsoon for this year had given rains that were 43% below normal for the month of June' as per the Agriculture Minister on June 23, 2026. The other options are distractors: 20% was Rajasthan's excess, 59.3% is the irrigated area share, and 81% is not mentioned.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The government recommended farmers to switch from water-guzzling crops like sugarcane to crops like pulses that require less water for shorter duration.' Options B, C, and D are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The Tungabhadra River is a major tributary of the Krishna River. It flows through Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana. The Krishna River system is one of India's largest river systems, originating in the Western Ghats and flowing into the Bay of Bengal.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: RDS is an inter-state project on the Tungabhadra River supplying water to Telangana. Statement 2 is incorrect: Telangana could draw only ~6 TMC against the allocated 17.9 TMC. Statement 3 is correct: The 2004 expert committee recommended silt removal, gradient restoration, and revetment works.

Explanation

The Rajolibanda Diversion Scheme caters to over 83,900 acres of ayacut spread over 75 villages in Gadwal, Alampur, and other places in the erstwhile Palamuru (Mahbubnagar) district of Telangana. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that heavy silt deposits near the canal head regulator, changes in river morphology, and structural impediments have significantly affected the free flow of water into the canal system. While legal disputes exist, the core technical issue is siltation and infrastructure constraints.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions 'the draft UGC Regulations, 2025' by Union Education Minister. UGC is the statutory body responsible for maintaining standards in higher education, and its regulations directly affect university governance and appointments.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: NEP 2020 proposes broader eligibility for V-Cs as mentioned in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article says 15 universities are 'without V-Cs' and does not mention acting V-Cs. Statement 3 is correct: the article states that industry experts can bring current market knowledge into teaching, bridging the skill gap.

Explanation

The article's first paragraph clearly states 'Around fifteen universities currently do not have Vice-Chancellors.' This is a direct factual data point, typical for prelims questions.

Explanation

The article emphasises that industry experts can bridge the skill gap, align curricula with market needs, and foster applied research and placements. This directly links to NEP 2020's goal of making education more relevant to the economy.

Explanation

RBI is the nodal regulator for NBFCs in India under the RBI Act, 1934. It introduced the Scale-Based Regulation (SBR) framework to classify NBFCs into Base, Middle, Upper, and Top layers based on size and systemic importance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: Tata Sons was classified as NBFC-UL in 2024. Statement 2 is correct: the revised criteria set a simple asset threshold of ₹1 lakh crore. Statement 3 is incorrect because qualifying assets do NOT include the value of stakes in listed group companies; they are excluded from the calculation.

Explanation

RBI's revised guidelines state that only NBFCs with assets of ₹1 lakh crore or more will be classified as Upper Layer NBFCs. This replaces the earlier multi-factor methodology.

Explanation

Under the revised RBI rules, only NBFCs that meet the asset threshold are classified as NBFC-UL and subject to the listing mandate. If Tata Sons' qualifying assets fall below ₹1 lakh crore, it would no longer be in the Upper Layer, thus removing the regulatory compulsion for a public listing. This is the core implication discussed in the article.

Explanation

The article states names will be inscribed on the Tyag Chakra at the National War Memorial. India Gate is a separate war memorial, and Amar Jawan Jyoti is the flame at India Gate (now merged with National War Memorial). Kargil Memorial is in Dras.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per article (Pahalgam attack on April 22, 2025, killed 26 civilians). Statement 2 is incorrect - the operation targeted nine sites, not six. Statement 3 is correct - the halt was agreed after DGMO talks on May 10.

Explanation

The article explicitly lists six personnel killed. Options 4 and 8 are distractors; 6 is correct.

Explanation

The article states it is the 'first official disclosure' and highlights inclusion in the Roll of Honour, reflecting a policy of transparency. Other options are not supported.

Explanation

The news article states that US Central Command, which directs US military forces in the Middle East, announced the strikes on June 26. CENTCOM is responsible for operations in the Persian Gulf region.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the ceasefire was a 14-point MOU signed on June 17. Statement 2 is correct: US struck four sites (three coastal, one on Qeshm island). Statement 3 is incorrect: the bridge windows were damaged, but the main engine and all navigation equipment kept working, and the ship's ability to sail was not affected.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the US Central Command conducted strikes against Iran on June 26. The drone attack on the ship occurred on June 25, and the ceasefire was signed on June 17.

Explanation

The article highlights that the ceasefire was under strain over shipping fees. Iran would resume collecting tolls after the 60-day pause, while Trump claimed there would be no tolls. This toll dispute is the fault line that contributed to the breakdown.

Explanation

The article states that the CDSCO held a joint inspection of the manufacturing units of Jackson Laboratories in Punjab and Himachal along with state regulators. CDSCO is the national drug regulatory authority under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: WHO sought information to determine if the issue was localised or widespread (source quote). Statement 2 is incorrect: The injections were stored at about 27°C instead of the recommended 2-8°C. Statement 3 is correct: The firm purchased 9,300 units but sold 10,050 injections from the same batch. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article specifies that the firm purchased 9,300 units but sold 10,050 injections from the same batch, leading to suspicion of spurious supply. The remaining options are distractors.

Explanation

The article quotes a source saying WHO regularly seeks information to determine whether such incidents are confined to a particular location or if there could be implications for other countries. This is routine pharmacovigilance and regulatory surveillance.