30 June 2026, Questions & Answers
148 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
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This page contains 148 current affairs questions with answers from 30 June 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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148 QsWhich article of the Indian Constitution directs the State to endeavour to secure a Uniform Civil Code for its citizens?
- A.Article 14
- B.Article 21
- C.Article 44✓ Correct Answer
- D.Article 368
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Explanation
Article 44 is a Directive Principle of State Policy in Part IV of the Constitution. It states: 'The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout the territory of India.' Article 14 deals with equality, Article 21 with life and personal liberty, and Article 368 with the amendment of the Constitution.
Consider the following statements regarding the Uniform Civil Codes (UCCs) enacted by Uttarakhand, Gujarat, and Assam:
1. The UCCs apply to all residents of the respective states, including Scheduled Tribes.
2. Nikah halala is explicitly prohibited under all three UCCs.
3. Children born out of a live-in relationship are recognised as legitimate children of the couple.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because Scheduled Tribes (as defined under Article 366(25) read with Article 342) are explicitly exempt from the UCCs to protect their customary laws. Statement 2 is correct: all three Codes prohibit nikah halala and provide that remarrying a divorced spouse must be without any condition of marrying a third person. Statement 3 is correct: all three Codes explicitly recognise every child born out of a live-in relationship as legitimate.
What is the maximum imprisonment and fine prescribed for failure to register a live-in relationship under the UCCs of Uttarakhand, Gujarat, and Assam?
- A.Up to 1 month jail or ₹5,000 fine
- B.Up to 3 months jail and/or ₹10,000 fine✓ Correct Answer
- C.Up to 6 months jail and/or ₹15,000 fine
- D.Up to 1 year jail and/or ₹25,000 fine
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Explanation
The three UCCs prescribe that partners who cohabit for more than one month without submitting the required statement to the Registrar may face imprisonment for up to three months, a fine of up to ₹10,000, or both. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the penalty framework outlined in the article.
What is the primary constitutional tension highlighted by the provisions criminalising non-registration of live-in relationships under the new UCCs?
- A.Conflict between Articles 14 and 15
- B.Conflict between Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties
- C.Conflict between state regulation of personal liberty and the Supreme Court's view that live-in relationships should not be associated with criminality✓ Correct Answer
- D.Conflict between the Concurrent List and the Union List
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Explanation
The article cites S. Khushboo v. Kanniammal (2010) where the Supreme Court held that morality and criminality are not synonymous and that live-in relationships should not be associated with criminality. The UCCs prescribe criminal penalties for non-registration, raising questions under Article 21 (personal liberty, dignity, and autonomy). This is a classic tension between state regulatory power and fundamental rights, not a direct conflict between Articles 14 and 15 or between Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties.
Which Indian military authority is recommended to command the proposed rocket force?
- A.Chief of Army Staff
- B.Chief of Defence Staff✓ Correct Answer
- C.National Security Advisor
- D.Defence Secretary
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the rocket force must be placed under the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) to ensure operational effectiveness and jointmanship among the three services.
Consider the following statements regarding China's missile arsenal as mentioned in the article:
1. China has deployed over 200 conventional missile launchers opposite India.
2. The DF-26 missile is primarily designed to hit military targets along the borders.
3. China's hypersonic missiles DF-100 and CJ-1000 provide no launch warning.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions China has deployed more than 200 conventional missile launchers opposite India. Statement 2 is incorrect because DF-26 is a dual-role missile suited to hit high-value targets in depth, not primarily border targets (DF-15B, DF-16, DF-21C are for border targets). Statement 3 is correct as hypersonic missiles DF-100 and CJ-1000 can hit deeper with no launch warning.
According to the article, which Chinese missile base is capable of firing the DF-26 missile?
- A.Korla and Kunming✓ Correct Answer
- B.Beijing and Shanghai
- C.Lhasa and Chengdu
- D.Urumqi and Guangzhou
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Explanation
The article states that the two missile bases located at Korla and Kunming can fire a range of conventional missiles including DF-15B, DF-16, DF-21C, and DF-26. These bases are opposite India.
What is the primary strategic objective of India building a dedicated rocket force as argued in the article?
- A.To achieve nuclear superiority over China
- B.To create mutual vulnerability and deter a conventional missile war✓ Correct Answer
- C.To replace the Indian Air Force's strike capabilities
- D.To reduce defence expenditure on conventional forces
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Explanation
The article argues that without a rocket force, India would have to absorb a Chinese missile strike. With one, both sides get hurt, creating mutual vulnerability. This deters China from launching a conventional missile campaign, as India can inflict comparable damage below the nuclear threshold.
Which of the following is NOT an example of India's Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) mentioned in the article?
- A.Aadhaar
- B.UPI
- C.DigiLocker
- D.Reliance Jio✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions Aadhaar and UPI as examples of India's DPI successes. DigiLocker is a well-known DPI component. Reliance Jio is a private telecom operator that benefited from the DPI ecosystem but is not itself a DPI platform.
Consider the following statements regarding the proposed 'National AI Token Policy':
1. It proposes making AI tokens free for the top 100 national R&D institutions and 5,000 high schools.
2. The estimated annual cost of the subsidy is $49 billion, roughly 1.5% of GDP.
3. The policy suggests a diversified hardware mix of 40% AWS Trainium/AMD, 30% Google TPUs, and 30% NVIDIA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article proposes free tokens for top 100 R&D institutions and 5,000 schools. Statement 2 is incorrect; the estimated cost is $2 billion, not $49 billion (which is the total current subsidy spend). Statement 3 is correct as the article recommends a 40:30:30 hardware mix.
According to the article, what percentage of global real-time digital payments does India's UPI handle?
- A.25%
- B.40%
- C.50%✓ Correct Answer
- D.75%
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Explanation
The article states that UPI handles 50% of the world's real-time digital payments. This is a key data point highlighting the scale and success of India's DPI.
What is the primary strategic objective behind the article's proposal to diversify AI hardware across AWS Trainium, Google TPUs, and NVIDIA?
- A.To reduce the cost of AI training by 50%
- B.To avoid a single-vendor monopoly and ensure national sovereignty✓ Correct Answer
- C.To promote domestic manufacturing of GPUs
- D.To increase the speed of AI inference for government services
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Explanation
The article explicitly warns against NVIDIA's 80%+ control of AI training hardware, calling it a 'deep vendor lock-in' that is both financially and strategically costly. The 40:30:30 mix is proposed to build 'sovereign AI infrastructure' and reduce dependence on any single ecosystem, not just for cost or speed.
Which body's report estimates that vehicular emissions contribute around 23% of Delhi's winter PM2.5 pollution?
- A.The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI)
- B.Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Kanpur
- C.Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM)✓ Correct Answer
- D.System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting and Research (SAFAR)
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Explanation
The article specifically mentions 'the latest report of the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM)' that estimates vehicular emissions contribute around 23% of Delhi's PM2.5 pollution during winter. While TERI, IIT Kanpur, and SAFAR have also conducted related studies, the 23% figure is from the CAQM report.
Consider the following statements regarding Delhi's vehicle pollution and EV policy:
1. Two-wheelers constitute nearly 67% of Delhi's vehicle stock.
2. According to the TERI draft report, three-wheelers were found to be the largest source of volatile organic compounds (VOCs).
3. Currently, electric two-wheelers make up about 7.5% of total annual two-wheeler registrations in Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
All statements are directly from the article. Statement 1: The CAQM report notes two-wheelers constitute nearly 67% of Delhi's vehicle stock. Statement 2: The TERI draft report identified three-wheelers as the largest source of VOCs. Statement 3: The article states electric two-wheelers made up only about 7.5% of total annual two-wheeler registrations in 2025 and 2024.
By which year does the Delhi EV policy mandate that all new two-wheelers must be electric?
- A.2027
- B.2028✓ Correct Answer
- C.2029
- D.2030
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Explanation
The image caption in the article states 'Delhi mandates all new 2-wheelers be electric from '28'. This is the year from which the mandate will apply. The overall policy target of 30% fleet electrification is by March 31, 2030.
What is the primary reason cited in the article for prioritizing two-wheelers in Delhi's EV policy?
- A.Two-wheelers have the highest per-vehicle emissions among all categories.
- B.Two-wheelers constitute two-thirds of Delhi's vehicle fleet, making their electrification critical for reducing overall emissions.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Two-wheelers are the cheapest to convert to electric, making the policy economically viable.
- D.Two-wheelers are used primarily by low-income groups who need subsidy support.
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Explanation
The article repeatedly emphasizes that two-wheelers account for 67% of the vehicle stock, so their rapid electrification is essential. While emission intensity is also a factor, the primary argument is the sheer number. The policy also targets high-mileage commercial vehicles, but the two-wheeler focus is due to their dominance in the vehicle mix.
Which section of the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956 was the focus of the Supreme Court judgment in Prajwala vs Union of India (2026)?
- A.Section 17✓ Correct Answer
- B.Section 5
- C.Section 8
- D.Section 20
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Explanation
The Supreme Court judgment specifically dealt with Section 17 of the ITPA, which empowers magistrates to order protective custody of rescued persons. The Court held that this section cannot be applied mechanically without considering the consent of adult sex workers.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court judgment in Prajwala vs Union of India (2026):
1. The judgment mandates that consent of adult sex workers must be the primary consideration for rehabilitation.
2. The Court upheld the 'one-size-fits-all' approach under Section 17 of the ITPA.
3. The judgment draws upon the principles of the 2022 Budhadev Karmaskar judgment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the Court ruled that consent is paramount. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Court explicitly rejected the 'one-size-fits-all' approach. Statement 3 is correct as the judgment explicitly references the Budhadev Karmaskar (2022) judgment.
On which date was the Supreme Court judgment in Prajwala vs Union of India delivered?
- A.May 29, 2025
- B.May 29, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.June 30, 2026
- D.June 29, 2026
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the judgment was delivered on May 29, 2026. Option A is a year earlier, option C is the date of the news article, and option D is a close distractor.
What is the primary objective of the 'Victim Protection Plan' mentioned in the Supreme Court judgment?
- A.To criminalize all forms of sex work
- B.To ensure rehabilitation of trafficking victims without coercive measures✓ Correct Answer
- C.To increase the number of protective custody orders
- D.To provide financial compensation to brothel owners
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Explanation
The Victim Protection Plan, prepared at the behest of Senior Advocate Aparna Bhat, aims to protect the rights of trafficking victims while ensuring that rehabilitation is not imposed coercively on consenting adults. The judgment emphasizes dignity and agency.
Which institute publishes the annual yearbook that assesses global nuclear arsenals, including the recent classification of Indian warheads?
- A.International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)
- B.Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.United Nations Office for Disarmament Affairs (UNODA)
- D.Carnegie Endowment for International Peace
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Explanation
The article specifically mentions SIPRI's annual yearbook. SIPRI is an independent institute based in Sweden that conducts research on conflict, armaments, and disarmament. The IAEA focuses on peaceful nuclear energy, UNODA is a UN body, and Carnegie is a think tank. Hence, option B is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent SIPRI Yearbook 2026:
1. For the first time, SIPRI classified 12 of India's nuclear warheads as operationally deployed.
2. India has abandoned its 'no first use' policy as indicated by the new classification.
3. The development reflects a global trend of nuclear modernisation and weakening arms-control frameworks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article – SIPRI classified 12 warheads as operationally deployed for the first time. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article explicitly states that India has not abandoned its 'no first use' policy. Statement 3 is correct as the article notes that this development comes amid a broader global trend of nuclear modernisation and weakening arms-control frameworks. Therefore, option C is correct.
According to the SIPRI Yearbook 2026, how many of India’s estimated nuclear warheads are classified as 'operationally deployed'?
- A.10
- B.12✓ Correct Answer
- C.15
- D.190
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Explanation
The article clearly states 'for the first time, it classified 12 of India’s estimated stockpile of 190 nuclear warheads to be operationally deployed.' Option A (10) is a close distractor; option C (15) is not mentioned; option D (190) is the total estimated stockpile, not the deployed number. Hence, option B is correct.
What does the classification of 12 Indian nuclear warheads as 'operationally deployed' primarily indicate?
- A.A shift from a 'no first use' to a 'first use' policy
- B.An increase in India's total nuclear arsenal
- C.The maturation of India's second-strike capability✓ Correct Answer
- D.India's intention to join the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty
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Explanation
The article explains that the new classification does not represent a policy shift or an increase in total warheads. Instead, it reflects the maturation of India’s second-strike capability, largely due to canisterised Agni-series missiles. Options A, B, and D are not supported by the article. Therefore, option C is correct.
Which Ministry is primarily responsible for implementing the India Semiconductor Mission?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.Ministry of Science and Technology
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Explanation
The article mentions Union Minister for Electronics and IT Ashwini Vaishnaw's statements regarding ISM 2.0, confirming MeitY as the nodal ministry. The Finance Ministry's EFC clears the outlay but does not implement the mission.
Consider the following statements regarding India Semiconductor Mission 2.0:
1. The outlay for ISM 2.0 is ₹1.25 lakh crore, which is higher than the outlay for ISM 1.0.
2. Under ISM, a total of 12 semiconductor manufacturing projects have been approved, including two fabrication units.
3. 105 companies have been assisted with advanced chip design tools under the Design Linked Incentive Scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: ISM 2.0 outlay ₹1.25 lakh crore > ISM 1.0 ₹76,000 crore. Statement 2 is incorrect: among the 12 projects, only one is a fabrication unit, not two. Statement 3 is correct: 105 companies have been assisted with advanced chip design tools.
What is the total investment pipeline of the 12 semiconductor manufacturing projects approved under India Semiconductor Mission?
- A.₹76,000 crore
- B.₹1.25 lakh crore
- C.₹1.64 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹2.0 lakh crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'As many as 12 semiconductor manufacturing projects have been approved with an investment pipeline of about ₹1.64 lakh crore'. ₹1.25 lakh crore is the outlay for ISM 2.0, and ₹76,000 crore is for ISM 1.0.
What is the primary objective of the India Semiconductor Mission 2.0 as per the news?
- A.To increase revenue from semiconductor exports
- B.To promote chip manufacturing ecosystem including equipment, materials, indigenous designs, and supply chain resilience✓ Correct Answer
- C.To replace all imported chips with domestic ones within five years
- D.To establish a state-owned semiconductor monopoly
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Explanation
The article quotes the government's stance that ISM 2.0 aims to promote the chip manufacturing ecosystem including equipment, materials, indigenous intellectual property and resilient supply chains. Options A, C, and D are not mentioned or are exaggerated.
In the context of port capacity, what does the acronym TEU stand for?
- A.Twenty-foot Equivalent Unit✓ Correct Answer
- B.Ten-foot Equivalent Unit
- C. Terminal Equipment Unit
- D.Transshipment Equivalent Unit
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Explanation
TEU stands for Twenty-foot Equivalent Unit, a standard measure of container capacity. One TEU represents the volume of a standard 20-foot container. Port capacities and vessel sizes are expressed in TEUs, as used in the article describing Vizhinjam's capacity.
Consider the following statements:
1. Vizhinjam Port is India's first deep-draft mega transshipment port.
2. MSC Group acquired a 100% stake in Adani Vizhinjam Port Private Limited.
3. Vizhinjam Port has a natural draft of 18–20 meters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Vizhinjam is India's first deep-draft mega transshipment port. Statement 2 is incorrect: MSC acquired a 49% stake, not 100%. Statement 3 is correct: the port has a natural draft of 18–20 meters, as mentioned in the article. Hence option C is correct.
What was the investment amount by MSC Group for the 49% stake in Vizhinjam Port?
- A.$1.397 billion✓ Correct Answer
- B.$2.85 billion
- C.$1.6 billion
- D.$1.0 billion
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Explanation
The article states that TiL will invest US$1.397 billion, representing its proportionate 49% share of the total $2.85 billion valuation. Options B, C, and D are distractors: $2.85 billion is the total valuation, $1.6 billion and $1.0 billion are not mentioned.
What is the primary strategic benefit for India from the MSC Group's investment in Vizhinjam Port?
- A.Increase in passenger cruise traffic
- B.Reduce dependence on foreign transshipment hubs like Colombo and Singapore✓ Correct Answer
- C.Boost to the tourism industry in Kerala
- D.Expansion of India's fishing fleet capacity
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Explanation
India previously relied on transshipment ports in Colombo, Singapore, and others due to lack of deep-draft capacity. Vizhinjam, as a deep-draft hub, allows Indian cargo to be transshipped domestically, reducing costs and delays. The article highlights its strategic location and ability to capture Bangladesh cargo, reinforcing this objective.
Under which Act was the convict in the Madras High Court case sentenced to death for sexual assault of three minor girls?
- A.Indian Penal Code (IPC)
- B.Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012✓ Correct Answer
- C.Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015
- D.Right to Education Act, 2009
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the conviction and death sentence were under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act of 2012, which provides for stringent punishments including death for aggravated penetrative sexual assault.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Madras High Court confirmed the death sentence under the POCSO Act.
2. The three victims were aged 5, 6, and 7 years.
3. The court cited the Supreme Court verdict in Madan Gopal Kakkad versus Naval Dubey (1992).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the court confirmed the death sentence under POCSO. Statement 2 is incorrect because the victims were aged 6, 7, and 8 years, not 5,6,7. Statement 3 is correct as the judges referred to the 1992 SC verdict in Madan Gopal Kakkad vs Naval Dubey. Hence option C is correct.
On which date did the Madras High Court deliver the judgment confirming the death sentence under POCSO?
- A.March 12, 2026
- B.June 30, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.January 26, 2026
- D.August 15, 2026
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the judgment was delivered on Tuesday, June 30, 2026. The trial court had imposed the death sentence on March 12, 2026, which is a distractor. So the correct date is June 30, 2026.
What was the primary legal justification used by the Madras High Court for confirming the death sentence?
- A.To satisfy public outrage
- B.To act under a direct Supreme Court order
- C.To apply the 'rarest of rare' doctrine given the extreme cruelty and lack of conscience✓ Correct Answer
- D.To ensure the convict cannot appeal further
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Explanation
The judges explicitly stated that this case stood as the 'tragic epitome' of the rarest of rare exception, where the crime was devoid of human conscience and involved systematic terrorization of young children. They emphasized the need to send a message of deterrence and restore moral order, not vengeance.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for coordinating India's bilateral summits and foreign policy with Japan?
- A.Ministry of Defence
- B.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.Ministry of Finance
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Explanation
The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) handles India's foreign policy and bilateral relations, including the India-Japan Annual Summit. The article mentions the MEA announcing the visit, confirming its role.
Consider the following statements regarding India-Japan relations:
1. The India-Japan relationship was elevated to a Special Strategic and Global Partnership in 2014.
2. The India-Japan Act East Forum is a mechanism for the development of India's Northeast region.
3. Japan is the only country with which India has a dedicated institutional mechanism for the development of the North-East.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the partnership was elevated in 2014 during PM Modi and PM Abe's summit. Statement 2 is correct: the Act East Forum focuses on connectivity and development in Northeast India. Statement 3 is correct: the article explicitly states Japan is the only country with such a dedicated mechanism.
According to the article, what was the total bilateral trade between India and Japan in 2025-26?
- A.$25.5 billion
- B.$27.5 billion✓ Correct Answer
- C.$30.2 billion
- D.$32.0 billion
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Explanation
The article specifically states bilateral trade reached $27.5 billion in 2025-26. The other options are close distractors: $25.5B and $30.2B are not mentioned, while $32.0B is a plausible but incorrect figure.
What is the primary strategic objective of the India-Japan partnership in the context of the Indo-Pacific region?
- A.To promote cultural exchanges between the two countries
- B.To counterbalance China's growing dominance in the region✓ Correct Answer
- C.To increase Japanese tourism in India
- D.To establish a free trade agreement exclusively for agricultural products
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that India-Japan relations provide a strategic and economic counterweight to China's growing dominance in the region. While cultural exchanges and tourism are secondary benefits, the core strategic objective is geopolitical balancing, especially through the Quad and defence cooperation.
Which colonial-era legal principle is cited in the article as justifying the takeover of indigenous lands by European nations?
- A.Doctrine of Lapse
- B.Doctrine of Discovery✓ Correct Answer
- C.Doctrine of Paramountcy
- D.Doctrine of Escheat
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions the Doctrine of Discovery as the idea that the first European nation to 'discover' a territory acquired exclusive rights over it, disregarding the rights of indigenous inhabitants already living there. The other options are different colonial doctrines: Doctrine of Lapse (annexation of princely states), Doctrine of Paramountcy (British supremacy), and Doctrine of Escheat (property reverting to state).
Consider the following statements regarding the Great Nicobar Island project:
1. The project includes an international container trans-shipment port, a civil-military airport, and luxury tourism facilities.
2. The project requires 77 sq km of tribal reserve areas, for which 73 sq km of compensatory peripheral land is provided.
3. The Shompen population is fewer than 300 individuals, and they are the world's only population of this indigenous group.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article lists these components. Statement 2 is incorrect because the numbers are swapped: the project requires 73 sq km of tribal reserve areas, and 77 sq km of compensatory peripheral land is provided. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the Shompen are fewer than 300 and are the world's only population of this indigenous group.
According to the article, what was the estimated population of the Great Andamanese before the arrival of British settlers in the 1850s?
- A.35,000-60,000✓ Correct Answer
- B.10,000-20,000
- C.50,000-80,000
- D.5,000-10,000
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Explanation
The article states that since the arrival of British settlers in the 1850s, the Great Andamanese population fell from an estimated 35,000-60,000 to fewer than 650 in just five decades. Today, less than 100 survive on Strait Island. The other options are close distractors but incorrect.
What is the primary ethical dilemma raised by the article regarding the Great Nicobar Island project?
- A.Whether the project is financially viable given its high cost
- B.Whether a project justified by national interest can be considered just if it displaces indigenous tribes without their consent✓ Correct Answer
- C.Whether the project will face geological risks due to its location
- D.Whether the project will lead to increased tourism and economic growth
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Explanation
The article's central question is 'Is what can be justified also just?' It argues that even if all justifications (strategic, economic) are accepted, the project remains unjust because it displaces the Shompen and Great Nicobarese without their consent, echoing colonial-era injustices. The other options are secondary concerns mentioned in the article but not the primary ethical dilemma.
Which international grouping did PM Modi invite Iran's President to attend?
- A.United Nations
- B.Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
- C.BRICS✓ Correct Answer
- D.G20
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Explanation
According to the article, PM Modi formally invited Iranian President Masoud Pezeshkian to the upcoming BRICS Leaders’ Summit to be hosted by India. BRICS is a grouping of major emerging economies including Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa, with Iran as a newer member.
Consider the following statements:
1. PM Modi invited Iran's President to attend the BRICS summit to be hosted by India.
2. The Iran-US MoU to end hostilities was signed on June 17, 2026.
3. PM Modi personally attended the funeral of Supreme Leader Khamenei.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the Iranian readout mentioned in the article. Statement 2 is correct - the MoU was signed on June 17, 2026. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article says Modi may be unable to attend and India is sending a special delegation led by Bihar Governor and MoS for External Affairs.
On which date was the Iran-US Memorandum of Understanding signed to end hostilities?
- A.February 28, 2026
- B.June 17, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.July 4, 2026
- D.May 15, 2026
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Explanation
The article clearly states that Iranian President Pezeshkian signed a Memorandum of Understanding with US President Donald Trump on June 17 to end hostilities. February 28 is the date Khamenei was killed, and July 4 is the start of his funeral.
Why is the Strait of Hormuz critical for India according to the news?
- A.It is a major tourist destination for Indian travelers
- B.It is a key route for India's military operations in West Asia
- C.It is crucial for India's energy imports of crude oil and LPG✓ Correct Answer
- D.It is a strategic location for India's space satellite launches
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Explanation
The article highlights that freedom of navigation in the Strait of Hormuz is 'key to India's energy imports'. Multiple India-bound vessels, including crude tankers and LPG carriers, have transited the strait, and the conflict disrupted India's energy shipments, causing loss of life.
Who is the U.S. Ambassador to India mentioned in the article?
- A.Sergio Gor✓ Correct Answer
- B.Eric Garcetti
- C.Kenneth Juster
- D.Richard Verma
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Explanation
The article explicitly names Sergio Gor as the U.S. Ambassador to India. The other options are former ambassadors (Garcetti, Juster, Verma) who served earlier.
Consider the following statements:
1. The U.S.-India trade deal has been under negotiation for 18 months.
2. U.S. President Donald Trump has not visited India during his tenure.
3. Quad Foreign Ministers are scheduled to meet in the Philippines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the deal has been under negotiation for 18 months. Statement 2 is false: the article mentions President Trump's previous visit to India and his fond memories. Statement 3 is correct: the Ambassador announced that Quad Foreign Ministers will meet in the Philippines in about two weeks.
How long have the U.S. and India been trading before this deal?
- A.10 years
- B.15 years
- C.20 years✓ Correct Answer
- D.25 years
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Explanation
The article quotes Ambassador Gor: 'we've been trading for 20 years'. The other options are distractors; 20 years is the exact figure mentioned.
What factor did U.S. Ambassador Sergio Gor cite as driving the bilateral relationship between the U.S. and India?
- A.Economic complementarity
- B.Personal equation between Trump and Modi✓ Correct Answer
- C.Shared democratic values
- D.China threat
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'The U.S. envoy to India cited the personal equation between U.S. President Donald Trump and Prime Minister Narendra Modi which was driving the ties.' While other factors are relevant, the Ambassador specifically highlighted the personal rapport.
Which branch of the Indian armed forces is raising the ‘Baaz Battalions’?
- A.Indian Army✓ Correct Answer
- B.Indian Air Force
- C.Indian Navy
- D.Indian Coast Guard
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Indian Army is raising dedicated Baaz Battalions to enhance its Remotely Piloted Aircraft capability. This is a defence news item from The Hindu.
Consider the following statements regarding the Baaz Battalions:
1. They will be built upon the Indian Army’s existing RPA Flights.
2. The decision to raise them was driven solely by the Operation Sindoor.
3. They will handle the entire lifecycle of RPA operations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the new battalions are built upon existing RPA Flights. Statement 2 is incorrect because the decision was driven by both the LAC standoff and Operation Sindoor, not solely by the latter. Statement 3 is correct as per the article—they will manage the entire lifecycle of RPA operations.
According to the article, in which month and year was Operation Sindoor conducted against Pakistan?
- A.May 2024
- B.May 2025✓ Correct Answer
- C.May 2026
- D.June 2025
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Explanation
The article published on June 30, 2026 states that Operation Sindoor was carried out 'in May last year'. Since last year from 2026 is 2025, the correct answer is May 2025.
What is the primary objective of raising the Baaz Battalions?
- A.To enhance battlefield surveillance, intelligence gathering and rapid response✓ Correct Answer
- B.To replace all manned aircraft with drones
- C.To conduct offensive cross-border drone strikes
- D.To train civilian drone operators for commercial use
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the Baaz Battalions aim to strengthen battlefield surveillance, intelligence gathering, and rapid response through a specialised drone force. The other options are not supported by the text.
General Upendra Dwivedi, who retired on June 30, 2026, was which number Chief of the Army Staff (COAS) of India?
- A.28th
- B.29th
- C.30th✓ Correct Answer
- D.31st
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Explanation
As mentioned in the article, General Upendra Dwivedi took over as the 30th Chief of the Army Staff in June 2024 and retired on June 30, 2026.
Consider the following statements regarding the remarks of outgoing Army Chief General Upendra Dwivedi:
1. He stated that future wars will be more joint, integrated and theatre-oriented.
2. He cited Operation Snow Leopard as a 'burning example' of tri-service integration.
3. He was commissioned into the Jammu and Kashmir Rifles in 1984.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as Gen Dwivedi emphasized joint, integrated, theatre-oriented warfare. Statement 2 is incorrect: he cited Operation Sindoor, not Operation Snow Leopard, as an example of jointness. Statement 3 is correct; he was commissioned into the J&K Rifles in 1984. Hence option C is correct.
According to the article, in which year was General Upendra Dwivedi commissioned into the Jammu and Kashmir Rifles?
- A.1982
- B.1984✓ Correct Answer
- C.1986
- D.1988
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Explanation
The article specifically states that Gen Dwivedi was commissioned into the Jammu and Kashmir Rifles in 1984. The other options are close distractors.
What is the primary strategic implication of General Dwivedi's emphasis on 'theatre-oriented' warfare?
- A.Increasing the number of soldiers in the Indian Army
- B.Promoting jointness and integration among the three armed forces✓ Correct Answer
- C.Reducing the defense budget allocation
- D.Focusing only on the northern border with China
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Explanation
The article highlights that theatre-oriented warfare requires the armed forces to 'see together, decide together, and act together'. This directly implies promoting jointness and integration among the Army, Navy, and Air Force for unified operations.
Which UN body published the 'Asia-Pacific synergies report' that flagged the climate finance gap?
- A.United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
- B.United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
- C.United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)
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Explanation
The report titled 'Asia-Pacific synergies report: Advancing synergistic solutions to the triple planetary crisis and the SDGs' was released by the Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP), a UN regional commission. UNEP and UNDP are different UN bodies, and IPCC is a scientific body, not a commission.
Consider the following statements regarding the UNESCAP report:
1. The report highlights India's Cooling Action Plan as an example of framing cooling as a public health priority.
2. The report states that the climate financing gap in Asia-Pacific is approximately $800 million annually.
3. The report mentions the Satoyama initiative for sacred grove restoration in South India's Kalrayan Hills.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Both 1 and 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the report explicitly cites ICAP for treating cooling as a health and safety issue. Statement 2 is incorrect because the gap is $800 billion, not million (a common distractor). Statement 3 is correct as the Satoyama initiative in Kalrayan Hills is highlighted.
According to the UNESCAP report, what is the annual climate financing gap faced by developing economies in the Asia-Pacific region?
- A.$800 million
- B.$800 billion✓ Correct Answer
- C.$80 billion
- D.$8 billion
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Explanation
The report specifically mentions a climate financing gap of approximately $800 billion annually. The other options are close distractors with different magnitudes (million instead of billion, or different decimal places).
What is the primary objective of 'synergistic financing' as recommended in the UNESCAP report?
- A.To increase the total amount of ODA without conditionality
- B.To generate co-benefits across climate, biodiversity, and pollution objectives✓ Correct Answer
- C.To reduce transaction costs by consolidating all environmental funding into a single fund
- D.To prioritize private sector investments over public sector commitments
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Explanation
The report states that 'finance-driven approaches rely on the structure of the financial mechanism itself to actively generate co-benefits' and that synergistic financing aims to deliver benefits across multiple environmental domains. Option A is not mentioned, and options C and D are distortions of the report's recommendations.
Which company is the concessionaire for the Vizhinjam International Seaport?
- A.Mediterranean Shipping Company (MSC)
- B.Terminal Investment Limited (TiL)
- C.Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone Limited (APSEZ)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Kerala State Government
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Explanation
According to the article, APSEZ is the concessionaire for the Vizhinjam port through its subsidiary Adani Vizhinjam Port Private Limited (AVPPL). MSC is investing via TiL but is not the concessionaire. The Kerala government is not the concessionaire, as the port is operated under a PPP model.
Consider the following statements regarding Vizhinjam International Seaport:
1. It is India's first automated port with an AI-enabled indigenous Vessel Traffic Management System (VTMS).
2. The port has handled over 100 Ultra Large Container Vessels (ULCVs) as of June 2026.
3. The capacity of the port is being expanded to 5.7 million TEUs by December 2028.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the article states Vizhinjam is India's first automated port with AI-enabled VTMS. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article says over 70 ULCVs, not 100. Statement 3 is correct: the port expansion will increase capacity to 5.7 million TEUs by December 2028.
How many TEUs did Vizhinjam port handle within the first 18 months of its operations?
- A.1.3 million TEUs
- B.1.6 million TEUs
- C.2 million TEUs✓ Correct Answer
- D.5.7 million TEUs
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the port crossed 2 million TEUs within 18 months of operations. 1.3 million TEUs was the first-year handling, 1.6 million is the current capacity, and 5.7 million is the planned capacity by December 2028.
What is the primary strategic benefit of MSC's investment in Vizhinjam port for India?
- A.Increase in container handling capacity at Indian ports
- B.Reduction of dependency on foreign transshipment hubs like Colombo and Singapore✓ Correct Answer
- C.Boost in tourism in the state of Kerala
- D.Attracting more Chinese investment in Indian ports
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Explanation
The article emphasizes that Vizhinjam will capture transshipment traffic currently going to competing Southeast Asian hubs, reducing India's reliance on foreign ports. While capacity increase (A) is a benefit, the strategic advantage is reducing foreign dependency. Tourism (C) is not mentioned. The investment is from Switzerland, not China (D).
Which Indian sovereign credit rating agency was praised by the Commerce Minister for being 'objective' in its methodology?
- A.CRISIL
- B.ICRA
- C.CareEdge Ratings✓ Correct Answer
- D.India Ratings and Research
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Explanation
CareEdge Ratings is India's first homegrown sovereign credit rating agency. The Commerce Minister specifically praised it for its objective, quantitative-heavy methodology, contrasting it with global agencies like S&P and Moody's.
Consider the following statements regarding sovereign credit ratings:
1. India has never defaulted on its sovereign debt, which demonstrates its willingness to repay.
2. S&P upgraded India's long-term sovereign credit rating to BBB+ in August 2025.
3. The Economic Survey 2020-21 had a chapter dedicated to the issue of low sovereign ratings for India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: India has never defaulted on its sovereign debt. Statement 2 is incorrect: S&P upgraded India to BBB (not BBB+) in August 2025. Statement 3 is correct: The 2020-21 Economic Survey had a chapter on this issue. Hence option C is correct.
In which year did Moody's upgrade India's sovereign rating to Baa2?
- A.2015
- B.2017✓ Correct Answer
- C.2020
- D.2025
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Explanation
Moody's upgraded India's rating to Baa2 (equivalent of BBB) from Baa3 in 2017, which was its first upgrade in 13 years. The other options are distractors: 2025 is when S&P upgraded India.
What is the primary reason the Indian government is critical of global credit rating agencies' methodologies?
- A.They charge excessively high fees for their services.
- B.They rely too heavily on quantitative metrics, ignoring India's qualitative strengths.
- C.They overemphasize subjective qualitative metrics, undervaluing India's strong quantitative fundamentals.✓ Correct Answer
- D.They refuse to rate Indian companies and bonds.
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Explanation
The government argues that global agencies give too much weight to qualitative factors (like governance perceptions) and not enough to hard quantitative data (like GDP growth, low debt, and foreign reserves), leading to an unfairly low rating for India.
Which international body is chaired by Justice S. Muralidhar as mentioned in the news?
- A.International Criminal Court (ICC)
- B.UN Independent International Commission of Inquiry on the Occupied Palestinian Territory✓ Correct Answer
- C.UN Human Rights Council
- D.International Court of Justice (ICJ)
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Explanation
The article identifies Justice Muralidhar as Chair of the Independent International Commission of Inquiry on the Occupied Palestinian Territory, including East Jerusalem, and Israel. The ICC, UNHRC, and ICJ are different bodies not chaired by him.
Consider the following statements:
1. The UN Commission found 'reasonable grounds to believe' that the targeted killing of Palestinian children is part of a larger plan for genocide.
2. Israel fully cooperated with the Commission by providing evidence and allowing access.
3. The report documents that 20,179 Palestinian children have been killed since October 7, 2023.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the interview: 'reasonable grounds to believe... part of a larger plan for genocide.' Statement 2 is false – Israel did not cooperate, refused access and ignored note verbales. Statement 3 is correct – the report states at least 20,179 children killed.
According to the UN Commission report, how many Palestinian children have been killed in the conflict since October 7, 2023?
- A.20,179✓ Correct Answer
- B.44,143
- C.10,179
- D.50,000
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Explanation
The article explicitly states 'at least 20,179 children killed' since the October 7, 2023 armed incursions. Option B (44,143) is the number of children injured, not killed.
What is the primary legal purpose of the Commission naming specific Israeli military brigades in its report?
- A.To directly prosecute them before the International Criminal Court
- B.To enable states with nationals serving in those brigades to investigate them under universal jurisdiction✓ Correct Answer
- C.To impose UN sanctions on Israel
- D.To provide humanitarian aid to affected children
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Explanation
Justice Muralidhar states: 'If they have been named as being involved in war crimes... there is an obligation on these countries... to investigate them.' Naming allows home countries to exercise universal jurisdiction over their own nationals. Direct ICC prosecution requires a separate referral.
Who gave the historic 'Confluence of the Two Seas' speech to the Indian Parliament in August 2007, laying the foundation for the modern Indo-Pacific concept?
- A.Japanese Prime Minister Shinzo Abe✓ Correct Answer
- B.Indian Prime Minister Manmohan Singh
- C.US President George W. Bush
- D.Australian Prime Minister John Howard
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that in August 2007, the late Shinzo Abe spoke of the 'Confluence of the Two Seas' during his historic address to the Indian Parliament, arguing that the destinies of the Indian and Pacific Oceans had become inseparable.
Consider the following statements regarding the Indo-Pacific construct as discussed in the article:
1. The US officially adopted the Indo-Pacific lexicon under the Trump administration in 2017.
2. The article argues that the Indo-Pacific is primarily an American invention and its relevance depends on Washington's support.
3. China's own policies, such as bases in Djibouti and naval presence across the Indian Ocean, validate the logic of the Indo-Pacific.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the Trump administration officially adopted the Indo-Pacific lexicon in 2017. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article stresses the Indo-Pacific is not an American invention but reflects Asian geography and power politics. Statement 3 is correct as the article notes China's increasing integration of the two oceans, which ironically validates the Indo-Pacific concept.
What percentage of GDP did Japan's defence spending cross ahead of schedule under PM Takaichi, as mentioned in the article?
- A.1.5%
- B.2%✓ Correct Answer
- C.2.5%
- D.3%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'Defence spending crossed the two per cent of GDP threshold ahead of schedule.' The other options are plausible distractors but the correct figure is 2%.
According to the article, what is the primary reason the Indo-Pacific construct will endure regardless of US terminology or policy shifts?
- A.Strong American alliance commitments
- B.China's acceptance of the concept
- C.The structural reality of Asian geography and power politics✓ Correct Answer
- D.The Quad's diplomatic success
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Explanation
The article repeatedly emphasizes that the Indo-Pacific rests on Asian geography and Asian power politics, not on American terminology. It points to China's simultaneous expansion into both oceans and Japan's strategic transformation as evidence of this structural reality.
Which government body approved the amendment to the Haryana Building Code mandating EV charging infrastructure?
- A.Haryana Urban Development Authority
- B.Haryana Department of Town and Country Planning✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
- D.Haryana Pollution Control Board
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Explanation
The article states that the Haryana Department of Town and Country Planning approved the amendment on June 5, 2026. This department is responsible for planning and building regulations in the state.
Consider the following statements regarding the EV transition in Delhi and Gurgaon:
1. Delhi's new EV policy eliminates proposed tax exemptions for strong hybrid vehicles to focus entirely on electric vehicles.
2. The number of electric two-wheelers registered in Gurgaon in FY 2025-26 was 3,321.
3. Under the amended Haryana Building Code, commercial establishments must provide at least one EV charging point for every three parking spaces.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as mentioned in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because 3,321 is the number of EVs registered in Gurgaon in FY 2024-25, not FY 2025-26; the correct number for FY 2025-26 is 2,249. Statement 3 is correct as per the building code amendment details.
According to the think tank Envirocatalysts, what was the market share of electric two-wheelers among total two-wheelers registered in Gurgaon during FY 2025-26?
- A.2.23%✓ Correct Answer
- B.3.79%
- C.1.09%
- D.4.50%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that out of 1,00,675 two-wheelers registered, only 2,249 were electric, representing a 2.23% share. Option B (3.79%) is the previous year's share, often used as a distractor.
What is the primary objective of the Haryana government's amendment to the Building Code regarding EV charging infrastructure?
- A.To increase revenue through parking fees
- B.To address gaps in charging infrastructure and boost EV adoption✓ Correct Answer
- C.To promote the use of hybrid vehicles alongside electric vehicles
- D.To reduce air pollution by banning petrol vehicles in new buildings
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Explanation
The article states that the amendment was approved 'in an attempt to address gaps in the charging infrastructure'. It is a regulatory measure to facilitate EV ownership by ensuring availability of charging points in new buildings, thereby supporting the state's EV policy goals.
General Dhiraj Seth, who took charge as the 31st COAS, was commissioned into which arm of the Indian Army?
- A.Infantry
- B.Artillery
- C.Armoured Corps✓ Correct Answer
- D.Engineers
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that General Dhiraj Seth was commissioned into the Armoured Corps in December 1986. The Armoured Corps is responsible for tank and mechanised warfare.
Consider the following statements regarding General Dhiraj Seth:
1. He is the 30th Chief of the Army Staff of India.
2. He previously served as the Vice Chief of the Army Staff.
3. He commanded the elite Southern Command during Operation Sindoor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. Gen Dhiraj Seth is the 31st COAS, not the 30th. Statement 2 is correct as he served as VCOAS before becoming COAS. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions he maintained high operational readiness during Operation Sindoor while heading the Southern Command. Hence option C is correct.
In which year was General Dhiraj Seth commissioned into the Indian Army?
- A.1984
- B.1985
- C.1986✓ Correct Answer
- D.1987
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Explanation
The article clearly states that he was commissioned into the Armoured Corps in December 1986. The other options are close distractors (1985 and 1987) that a student might confuse if they do not read carefully.
What is the primary significance of General Dhiraj Seth's appointment for India's national security posture?
- A.His expertise in counter-insurgency operations in Jammu and Kashmir
- B.His rare distinction of commanding two operational commands on the western front✓ Correct Answer
- C.His role in the modernisation of the Indian Air Force
- D.His experience in UN peacekeeping missions
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Explanation
The article highlights his rare distinction of leading both the South Western Command and Southern Command, which are crucial for India's western defence against Pakistan. This directly impacts India's operational readiness and strategic planning on that front. While he has counter-insurgency experience, the most strategically significant aspect mentioned is his western front command experience.
Which ministry does the Parliamentary Standing Committee on Education, Women, Children, Youth and Sports primarily oversee?
- A.Ministry of Home Affairs
- B.Ministry of Education✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
- D.Ministry of Women and Child Development
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Explanation
The committee's name includes 'Education' and it reviews the functioning of the Ministry of Education. The article specifically mentions officials from the Ministry of Education and NTA will appear before the panel, confirming its oversight role over education policy.
Consider the following statements regarding the NEET-UG 2026 re-examination:
1. The original NEET exam was cancelled due to an alleged paper leak and the CBI is investigating the leak.
2. The re-examination was held on July 1, 2026.
3. K Radhakrishnan, former ISRO chairman, heads the high-powered committee overseeing NTA reforms.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the article says the original May 3 exam was cancelled over an alleged paper leak and CBI is investigating. Statement 2 is false: the re-exam was on June 21, not July 1 (July 1 is the committee meeting). Statement 3 is correct: K Radhakrishnan heads the high-powered committee for NTA reforms. Hence option C.
On which date is the Parliamentary Standing Committee scheduled to meet to review the NEET re-exam and NTA reforms?
- A.June 21, 2026
- B.July 1, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.May 3, 2026
- D.June 30, 2026
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Explanation
The article clearly states the meeting is on July 1. June 21 is the re-exam date, May 3 is the original exam, and June 30 is the publication date of the article.
What is the primary objective of the high-powered committee headed by K Radhakrishnan as mentioned in the news?
- A.To conduct the NEET-UG re-examination
- B.To oversee reforms in the National Testing Agency (NTA) for improving exam security and transparency✓ Correct Answer
- C.To investigate the NEET paper leak
- D.To draft a new education policy for India
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Explanation
The article says Radhakrishnan heads the high-powered committee tasked with overseeing NTA reforms, with a focus on security, transparency, and credibility. The CBI handles the investigation, while the re-examination was conducted by NTA. Drafting a new education policy is not mentioned.
Which international convention mandates that ships continuously broadcast their identity and location using AIS transponders?
- A.UNCLOS (United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea)
- B.SOLAS (Safety of Life at Sea) Convention✓ Correct Answer
- C.MARPOL (Marine Pollution) Convention
- D.STCW (Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping) Convention
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Explanation
The SOLAS convention, under the International Maritime Organization (IMO), requires vessels over 300 gross tonnage to carry and operate AIS transponders at all times. 'Going dark' violates this requirement.
Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Hormuz crisis:
1. Nearly 62% of India-bound ships switched off their transponders while crossing the strait between May 1 and June 25, 2026.
2. The Omani coastline route is officially recognized by Iran as a safe corridor.
3. The India-flagged tanker Sanmar Herald was attacked by Iranian forces after receiving clearance from the IRGC navy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: 45 of 73 ships (62%) went dark. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Omani route is backed by the US and Oman but is NOT recognized by Iran. Statement 3 is correct: the Sanmar Herald was cleared by IRGC navy before being attacked.
According to the article, how many India-flagged ships crossed the Strait of Hormuz during the observation period, and how many of them switched off their trackers?
- A.6 ships; 3 switched off
- B.4 ships; 2 switched off✓ Correct Answer
- C.5 ships; 4 switched off
- D.3 ships; 1 switched off
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Explanation
The article states that only four India-flagged ships made the crossing during this period. Two switched off their trackers, while the remaining two continued broadcasting.
What is the primary strategic concern for India arising from the 'going dark' trend in the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.Loss of revenue from shipping taxes
- B.Threat to energy security due to disruption of crude oil imports✓ Correct Answer
- C.Violation of international maritime law by Indian vessels
- D.Increased dependence on the Iranian corridor for trade
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Explanation
The Strait of Hormuz is a critical chokepoint for India's crude oil imports. Ships going dark and facing attacks directly threaten the steady supply of oil, impacting India's energy security and economic stability. While legal and revenue aspects exist, the core concern is energy security.
Which government body is primarily responsible for implementing Delhi's new EV policy?
- A.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- B.Delhi Transport Department✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
- D.NITI Aayog
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Explanation
The article mentions Transport Minister Ashish Sood, who heads the panel formalising the EV policy, and the Delhi Cabinet approval. The Delhi Transport Department is the nodal agency for transport-related policies in the capital.
Consider the following statements regarding Delhi's new EV policy:
1. The policy includes a ban on registration of new petrol two-wheelers.
2. The policy provides purchase incentives for strong hybrid vehicles.
3. There are currently over 5,800 EV charging stations in Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct – the policy mandates a switch to electric two-wheelers. Statement 2 is incorrect – incentives for strong hybrids have been dropped. Statement 3 is correct – the article states there are 5,884 EV charging stations.
According to the article, how many EV charging stations currently exist in Delhi?
- A.8,912
- B.5,884✓ Correct Answer
- C.30,000
- D.893
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Explanation
The article explicitly states 'there are around 5,884 EV charging stations and 8,912 charging points.' 8,912 is the number of charging points (not stations), 30,000 is the target, and 893 is the number of battery swapping stations.
What is the primary environmental reason cited for transitioning to electric two-wheelers in Delhi?
- A.To reduce dependence on imported fossil fuels
- B.To reduce vehicular emissions, which account for 70-80% from two-wheelers✓ Correct Answer
- C.To promote domestic EV manufacturing industry
- D.To lower transportation costs for commuters
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Explanation
IIT Delhi expert Vikas Nimesh stated that 'bikes running on fuel are responsible for 70 to 80% of vehicular emissions in the Capital.' While reducing fossil fuel imports is a secondary benefit (double dividend as per Transport Minister), the primary push is air pollution control.
Which of the following is NOT an Oil Marketing Company (OMC) mentioned in the article?
- A.Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL)
- B.Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL)
- C.Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL)
- D.Gas Authority of India Limited (GAIL)✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
GAIL is primarily a gas marketing and transmission company, not an oil marketing company. The article mentions BPCL, HPCL, and IOCL as the OMCs involved in ethanol allocation.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Supreme Court directed status quo on the Karnataka High Court order regarding ethanol allocation.
2. The ethanol allocation exercise was finalized in October 2026.
3. By June 18, 680 crore litres of ethanol had already been supplied.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the SC directed status quo. Statement 2 is incorrect because the allocation exercise was finalized in October 2025, not 2026. Statement 3 is correct as per the article that 680 crore litres were supplied by June 18. Hence option C is correct.
What was the total ethanol allocation for the Ethanol Supply Year (ESY) 2025-26 as mentioned in the article?
- A.680 crore litres
- B.1,050 crore litres✓ Correct Answer
- C.378 crore litres
- D.1,500 crore litres
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Explanation
The article states that allocations were communicated to 378 suppliers for a total supply of 1,050 crore litres. 680 crore litres is the amount already supplied by June 18, not the total allocation.
What was the primary reason cited by the Attorney General for considering the 20% ethanol blending programme as an 'ongoing experiment'?
- A.Technical challenges in blending ethanol with petrol
- B.The impact of the policy is not yet fully clear and will be better understood by next year✓ Correct Answer
- C.Lack of sufficient ethanol production capacity
- D.Opposition from oil marketing companies
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Explanation
The Attorney General submitted that the 20% ethanol blending programme is still an ongoing experiment and its impact would become clearer by next year. This indicates caution about the programme's effects on supply, prices, and vehicle compatibility.
Which department under the Ministry of Finance publishes the Monthly Economic Review that analysed the resilience of remittance inflows?
- A.Department of Revenue
- B.Department of Economic Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Department of Financial Services
- D.Department of Expenditure
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the Monthly Economic Review is by the Department of Economic Affairs. This department handles economic policy analysis, including reports on external sector performance.
Consider the following statements regarding remittance inflows as per the article:
1. Remittances from West Asia to India rose 70% year-on-year in April 2026 despite the conflict.
2. Remittances are strongly correlated with stock market performance in the home country.
3. The article identifies a sustained deterioration in Gulf labour market conditions as a principal risk to remittance inflows.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states a 70% rise. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article says remittances are not driven by financial market signals or stock market performance. Statement 3 is correct as the report warns that a sustained deterioration in labour market conditions in host economies is the principal risk.
According to the Finance Ministry report, what was the value of net remittances from West Asia to India in April 2026?
- A.$10 billion
- B.$12 billion
- C.$16 billion✓ Correct Answer
- D.$18 billion
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Explanation
The article clearly states net remittances rose to $16 billion in April 2026. The 70% increase is from a lower base in April 2025, but the absolute figure is $16 billion.
What is the primary reason cited in the article for the resilience of remittance inflows from West Asia despite geopolitical tensions?
- A.Remittances are linked to financial market returns in India
- B.Remittances are driven by employment and wage conditions in host economies✓ Correct Answer
- C.Governments in Gulf countries provide direct subsidies to migrant workers
- D.India has signed bilateral agreements that guarantee minimum remittance flows
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Explanation
The article explains that remittances are pegged to labour market conditions in the host economy (Gulf countries) and are insulated from financial market volatility. Options A, C, and D are not mentioned in the article.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for the administration of the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA) and the Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) scheme?
- A.Ministry of External Affairs
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Finance
- D.Ministry of Law and Justice
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Explanation
The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) administers the FCRA through the Foreigners Division and also handles OCI card issuance. The Ministry of External Affairs deals with passports and visa policy but not FCRA or OCI directly.
Consider the following statements regarding the new FCRA portal and e-OCI 2.0 card:
1. The new FCRA portal eliminates the need to physically submit documents and includes e-Sign and OCR features.
2. With the e-OCI 2.0 card, OCI cardholders must get their booklet re-issued every time they obtain a new passport.
3. The FCRA portal data is hosted on the MeghRaj (Government Cloud) to reduce the risk of data theft.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the portal eliminates physical document submission and uses e-Sign and OCR. Statement 2 is incorrect because the new e-OCI 2.0 card removes the need to re-issue the booklet after passport renewal – the registration number remains unique and card digital. Statement 3 is correct as the data is hosted on MeghRaj cloud. Hence option C is correct.
According to the news, how many OCI cardholders are expected to benefit from the new e-OCI 2.0 card?
- A.10 lakh
- B.25 lakh
- C.50 lakh✓ Correct Answer
- D.1 crore
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Explanation
The Home Minister stated that the e-OCI 2.0 card will bring great convenience to more than 50 lakh OCI cardholders. Options 10 lakh and 25 lakh are underestimates, while 1 crore is an overestimate not mentioned in the article.
What is the primary objective of the new FCRA portal and e-OCI 2.0 card as highlighted in the Home Minister's remarks?
- A.To increase the number of foreign donations received by Indian NGOs
- B.To enhance transparency, ease of governance, and national security through digital monitoring✓ Correct Answer
- C.To restrict the issuance of OCI cards to applicants from specific countries
- D.To reduce the number of OCI cardholders by enforcing stricter rules
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Explanation
The Home Minister emphasised that the new initiatives aim to make governance easier for honest citizens while putting a strict surveillance system for wrongdoers. The focus is on reducing paperwork, enabling real-time monitoring, and using technology to ensure transparency and security, not on increasing donations or restricting OCI issuance.
Which organization oversees the Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS)?
- A.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
- B.National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Limited (NCGTC)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)
- D.Ministry of Finance
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the scheme is overseen by the National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Limited (NCGTC). The other options are related financial institutions but not the nodal body for ECLGS.
Consider the following statements regarding ECLGS 5.0:
1. The scheme provides 100% guarantee for loans extended to MSMEs.
2. Loans under the scheme must be disbursed by March 31, 2027.
3. The scheme is meant for businesses affected by the West Asia crisis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: MSMEs get 100% guarantee. Statement 2 is incorrect: loans must be sanctioned by March 31, 2027, and disbursed by June 30, 2027. Statement 3 is correct: the scheme supports businesses affected by the West Asia crisis. Hence option C is correct.
What is the maximum additional loan that can be sanctioned to an individual borrower under ECLGS 5.0?
- A.₹50 crore
- B.₹100 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹150 crore
- D.₹200 crore
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the maximum additional loan that can be sanctioned to an individual borrower is capped at ₹100 crore. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the news.
What is the primary objective of the ECLGS 5.0 scheme as highlighted in the news?
- A.To promote exports from Andhra Pradesh
- B.To safeguard employment and improve liquidity for businesses✓ Correct Answer
- C.To reduce the fiscal deficit by cutting subsidies
- D.To boost infrastructure development in rural areas
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Explanation
The article states the scheme intends to 'ensure uninterrupted business operations, safeguard employment and improve liquidity for enterprises affected by global economic uncertainties.' Options A, C, and D are not mentioned as objectives of ECLGS 5.0.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for implementing the Product-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme for speciality steel in India?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Steel✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.Ministry of Heavy Industries
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Explanation
The PLI scheme for speciality steel was launched by the Ministry of Steel in 2021 to boost domestic production and reduce import dependence. The Ministry of Steel oversees all policy and regulatory aspects of the steel sector in India.
Consider the following statements regarding India's steel industry:
1. India is the world's second-largest producer of steel, accounting for about 9% of global output.
2. The top five steel producers in India account for 60-65% of domestic output.
3. The EU's Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) primarily targets the iron and steel sector from India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: India is the second-largest steel producer with ~9% global share. Statement 2 is incorrect: the top five firms account for 40-45% of domestic output, not 60-65%. Statement 3 is correct: the iron and steel sector constitutes 90% of India's CBAM-exposed exports to the EU.
What was India's crude steel production in FY 2024-25 (FY25) as mentioned in the article?
- A.128 million tonnes
- B.142 million tonnes
- C.152 million tonnes✓ Correct Answer
- D.165 million tonnes
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Explanation
The article states that India's crude steel production expanded from 28 million tonnes in FY02 to 152 million tonnes in FY25. The other options are close distractors: 128 MT and 142 MT are lower figures, while 165 MT is an overestimate.
What is the primary objective of the EU's Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) as it relates to India's steel sector?
- A.To increase the volume of steel imports from India
- B.To impose a carbon tariff on Indian steel to prevent carbon leakage✓ Correct Answer
- C.To provide financial incentives for Indian steel producers to adopt green technology
- D.To reduce the quality standards for imported steel from India
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Explanation
CBAM is a climate policy tool aimed at reducing carbon leakage by imposing carbon tariffs on imports from non-EU countries with lower environmental regulations. For India, the iron and steel sector is particularly vulnerable as it constitutes 90% of India's CBAM-exposed exports.
Which agency is responsible for implementing the Mumbai-Ahmedabad High-Speed Rail corridor?
- A.Indian Railways
- B.National High Speed Rail Corporation Limited (NHSRCL)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
- D.Railway Board
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Explanation
The NHSRCL is a special purpose vehicle formed to implement the MAHSR corridor. It is a joint venture between the Government of India and the state governments of Maharashtra and Gujarat, as mentioned in the article.
Consider the following statements regarding the Mumbai-Ahmedabad High-Speed Rail (MAHSR) corridor:
1. The priority stretch of the corridor is between Surat and Bilimora, covering 47 km.
2. The bullet train will reduce travel time between Mumbai and Ahmedabad to approximately 4 hours.
3. The corridor passes through Maharashtra, Gujarat, and Dadra & Nagar Haveli.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the priority section is between Surat and Bilimora (47 km). Statement 2 is incorrect because the travel time will be reduced to around 2 hours, not 4 hours. Statement 3 is correct as the corridor passes through Maharashtra, Gujarat, and Dadra & Nagar Haveli.
What is the total length of the Mumbai-Ahmedabad High-Speed Rail corridor?
- A.47 km
- B.508 km✓ Correct Answer
- C.600 km
- D.450 km
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the MAHSR corridor is 508 km long. The 47 km option refers to the priority stretch between Surat and Bilimora, not the full corridor.
What is the primary economic benefit expected from the Mumbai-Ahmedabad bullet train project?
- A.Reduction in air pollution from road transport
- B.Enabling same-day business travel between Mumbai and Ahmedabad✓ Correct Answer
- C.Increasing tourism only in Gujarat
- D.Providing employment only during construction phase
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Explanation
The article highlights that the bullet train will reduce travel time to ~2 hours, enabling business travelers, professionals, and students to make same-day return trips. This will boost business opportunities, investment, and economic integration between the two cities.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for the defence manufacturing initiatives mentioned in the news?
- A.Ministry of Home Affairs
- B.Ministry of Defence✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.Ministry of External Affairs
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Explanation
The news features Defence Minister Rajnath Singh, and the initiatives (C-295 programme, K-9 Vajra, defence production targets) fall under the purview of the Ministry of Defence. The Ministry of Home Affairs handles internal security, while Commerce and Industry deals with trade policy.
Consider the following statements regarding India's defence manufacturing:
1. India's domestic defence production has increased from ₹46,000 crore in 2014 to around ₹1.78 lakh crore.
2. The K-9 Vajra self-propelled artillery system is manufactured in Gujarat.
3. The Tata-Airbus C-295 facility in Vadodara is India's first public-sector military aircraft manufacturing facility.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: domestic defence production rose from ₹46,000 crore (2014) to ₹1.78 lakh crore. Statement 2 is correct: the K-9 Vajra is manufactured in Gujarat. Statement 3 is incorrect because the C-295 facility is India's first private-sector (not public-sector) military aircraft manufacturing facility.
According to the news, what is the total value of investment MoUs signed at the Vibrant Gujarat Regional Conference?
- A.₹1.78 lakh crore
- B.₹3.34 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹39,000 crore
- D.₹46,000 crore
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Explanation
The article states that CM Bhupendra Patel announced investment proposals worth ₹3.34 lakh crore through 3,700 MoUs. ₹1.78 lakh crore is the current domestic defence production figure, ₹39,000 crore is the defence exports figure, and ₹46,000 crore was the defence production in 2014.
What is the primary strategic objective behind positioning Gujarat as a defence manufacturing hub?
- A.To increase Gujarat's Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) through industrial investment
- B.To reduce India's dependence on foreign defence imports and achieve self-reliance✓ Correct Answer
- C.To create employment opportunities for the state's skilled workforce
- D.To promote semiconductor manufacturing in Dholera and Sanand
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Explanation
While all options are benefits, the core strategic objective is self-reliance in defence (Atmanirbhar Bharat). The article highlights that India was once heavily dependent on imports but is now emerging as a major force in defence manufacturing and exports. The other options are secondary outcomes of this primary goal.
Which section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) was cited by the Punjab and Haryana High Court for granting compensation to the minor rape survivor?
- A.Section 396(4)✓ Correct Answer
- B.Section 376(2)
- C.Section 164(5)
- D.Section 438(1)
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Explanation
The court directed the State Legal Services Authority to consider compensation under Section 396(4) of BNSS. This section deals with victim compensation in criminal cases. The other options are either from IPC or CrPC/BNSS but not the correct section mentioned in the judgment.
Consider the following statements regarding the Punjab and Haryana High Court judgment:
1. The court allowed the minor to terminate her 31-week pregnancy as per her initial request.
2. The court directed preservation of the DNA sample of the foetus/child after birth for investigation.
3. The court ordered that the identity of the minor and her family must remain strictly confidential.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the minor initially sought termination but later changed her mind, and the court allowed continuation of pregnancy, not termination. Statement 2 is correct as the court directed preservation of DNA sample for the investigating officer. Statement 3 is correct as the court ordered strict confidentiality and removal of father's name from case records.
According to the medical board report cited in the judgment, what is India's current Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR)?
- A.88 per 1 lakh live births✓ Correct Answer
- B.97 per 1 lakh live births
- C.112 per 1 lakh live births
- D.130 per 1 lakh live births
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Explanation
The medical board report mentioned that the current MMR in India is 88 per 1 lakh live births. The other options are close distractors - 97 and 112 are historical figures, while 130 is the global average. This data point is important for prelims as MMR is a key health indicator.
What is the primary legal significance of the Punjab and Haryana High Court's direction to preserve the DNA sample of the child after birth?
- A.To establish the child's paternity for inheritance rights
- B.To aid the criminal investigation into the rape case✓ Correct Answer
- C.To verify the child's medical history for adoption
- D.To determine the child's eligibility for government schemes
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Explanation
The court specifically directed preservation of the DNA sample and forwarding it to the investigating officer. This is crucial for forensic evidence in the rape case, as DNA can help identify the perpetrator. While other options may be secondary benefits, the primary purpose is criminal investigation as stated in the judgment.
Which High Court delivered the judgment that adults below marriageable age have the right to live with a partner of their choice?
- A.Supreme Court of India
- B.Punjab and Haryana High Court✓ Correct Answer
- C.Delhi High Court
- D.Bombay High Court
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Explanation
The judgment was delivered by Justice Vikas Bahl of the Punjab and Haryana High Court on June 25, 2026. The court directed Haryana Police to protect the life and liberty of a live-in couple where both partners were major but below marriageable age.
Consider the following statements regarding the Punjab and Haryana High Court judgment:
1. The court held that the right to life and liberty under Article 21 includes the right to choose a partner.
2. The court declared that live-in relationships are legally equivalent to marriage.
3. The court directed the police to assess threat perception and protect the couple.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the court explicitly held that Article 21 includes the right to choose a partner. Statement 2 is incorrect because the court did not equate live-in relationships with marriage; it only granted protection of life and liberty. Statement 3 is correct as the court directed the Superintendent of Police to consider the representation and take appropriate action.
On which date did Justice Vikas Bahl pronounce the judgment regarding the right of adults below marriage age to live with a partner of their choice?
- A.May 22, 2026
- B.June 25, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.June 26, 2026
- D.June 30, 2026
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Explanation
The article states that Justice Vikas Bahl pronounced the judgment on June 25, 2026. The petitioners had given a representation on June 26, 2026, and the article was published on June 30, 2026.
What is the primary legal principle established by the Punjab and Haryana High Court in this judgment?
- A.Live-in relationships are legally valid marriages
- B.The right to life and liberty under Article 21 includes the right to choose a partner, even if below marriageable age✓ Correct Answer
- C.Police cannot interfere in personal relationships
- D.Marriage age laws are unconstitutional
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Explanation
The court held that the protection of life and liberty is a basic feature of the Constitution and every major has the right to live with a person of their choice. This right exists independently of marriage laws, meaning even if a person is below marriageable age, they can still choose to live with a partner and are entitled to police protection.
Which US military command is involved in mediating the Israel-Lebanon framework agreement?
- A.US European Command (EUCOM)
- B.US Central Command (CENTCOM)✓ Correct Answer
- C.US Indo-Pacific Command (INDOPACOM)
- D.US Africa Command (AFRICOM)
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Explanation
The article mentions the US Central Command chief held meetings with Lebanese leaders. CENTCOM oversees US military operations in the Middle East, including West Asia, making it the relevant command for this mediation.
Consider the following statements regarding the Israel-Lebanon framework agreement:
1. Israel has stated it has territorial ambitions in Lebanon.
2. The agreement requires verified disarmament of non-state armed groups in Lebanon.
3. The US-Iran MoU signed two weeks ago requires all parties to halt hostilities in the region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because Israeli Defense Minister Katz explicitly said Israel has 'no territorial ambitions in Lebanon'. Statement 2 is correct as the agreement binds Lebanon to 'verified disarmament of non-state armed groups'. Statement 3 is correct as the US-Iran MoU expects all parties to halt hostilities across the region, including Lebanon.
According to the article, how many lives were lost overnight on Thursday that threatened the US-Iran agreement?
- A.12
- B.15
- C.18✓ Correct Answer
- D.20
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Explanation
The article states 'As many as 18 lives were lost overnight on Thursday, threatening to derail the US-Iran agreement'. This is a specific data point that could be tested in prelims.
What is the primary objective of the Jerusalem-Beirut framework agreement mentioned in the news?
- A.To establish a permanent border between Israel and Lebanon
- B.To restore Lebanese sovereignty by disarming non-state groups and enabling Israeli withdrawal✓ Correct Answer
- C.To create a demilitarized zone in southern Lebanon under UN control
- D.To facilitate a peace treaty between Israel and Iran
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Explanation
The article states the agreement binds Lebanon to restoring sovereignty by 'verified disarmament of non-state armed groups and dismantlement of associated infrastructure', which would enable progressive Israeli withdrawal. This is the core objective, not border demarcation or UN control.
Which former Cabinet Secretary and NITI Aayog member chairs the High-Level Committee on Non-Financial Regulatory Reforms (HLC-NFRR)?
- A.N.K. Singh
- B.Rajiv Gauba✓ Correct Answer
- C.K.K. Pathak
- D.Amitabh Kant
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the HLC-NFRR under Gauba was constituted by the Cabinet Secretariat on August 19, 2025. K.K. Pathak leads a different task force on Compliance Reduction.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent interaction of PM Modi with Central Secretaries:
1. The interaction was held at the new executive enclave 'Seva Teerth' and lasted for nearly four hours.
2. The focus was only on 'Deregulation and other reforms for Ease of Doing Business'.
3. Each secretary was given three minutes to speak about their implementation of deregulation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the meeting was at Seva Teerth and lasted nearly 4 hours. Statement 2 is incorrect because the focus was on TWO themes: Ease of Doing Business AND Promoting Atmanirbharta. Statement 3 is correct per the article that secretaries had three minutes each.
When was the High-Level Committee on Non-Financial Regulatory Reforms (HLC-NFRR) constituted?
- A.June 30, 2026
- B.May 21, 2026
- C.August 19, 2025✓ Correct Answer
- D.August 19, 2026
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions the committee was constituted by the Cabinet Secretariat on August 19, 2025. The other options are distractor dates from the article (June 30 is the date of the interaction, May 21 is the Council of Ministers meeting).
What is the primary objective of the whole-of-government approach emphasized by PM Modi during the interaction?
- A.To increase the number of regulatory clearances
- B.To break departmental silos for better governance and service delivery✓ Correct Answer
- C.To centralize all decision-making in the PMO
- D.To reduce the number of secretaries in each ministry
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Explanation
The article states PM Modi highlighted the importance of a whole-of-government approach and breaking departmental silos. This approach aims at improving coordination, not centralization or reduction of personnel. Option A is opposite to the deregulation agenda, and option C/D are not mentioned.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for the implementation of the Delhi-Mumbai Expressway project?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Road Transport and Highways✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- D.Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
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Explanation
The NHAI (National Highway Authority of India), which executes the expressway, operates under the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways. The Ministry of Environment is involved in clearance for eco-sensitive zones, but the primary implementing ministry is MoRTH.
Consider the following statements regarding the Delhi-Mumbai Expressway tunnel:
1. The tunnel is 4.89 km long and is one of the widest tunnels in India with a width of 22 metres.
2. The original cost of the tunnel project was ₹1,250 crore, later revised to ₹1,000 crore.
3. The tunnel includes cut-and-cover sections to allow animal movement across the expressway.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 4.89 km length and 22m width. Statement 2 is incorrect: the original cost was ₹1,000 crore and later revised to ₹1,250 crore – a classic examiner trap of swapping the figures. Statement 3 is correct: there are 480m and 1084m cut-and-cover sections for animal movement. Hence option C.
What is the total length of the Delhi-Mumbai Expressway as mentioned in the article?
- A.912 km
- B.1,000 km
- C.1,386 km✓ Correct Answer
- D.8.3 km
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Explanation
The article clearly states the expressway is 1,386 km long, making it India's longest expressway. 912 km is the section operational by October 2026, 8.3 km is the total section including the tunnel, and 1,000 km is a distractor.
What is the primary purpose of constructing camouflaged cut-and-cover sections on both sides of the tunnel?
- A.To reduce construction cost
- B.To allow animals to cross the expressway without disturbance✓ Correct Answer
- C.To provide ventilation for the tunnel
- D.To serve as emergency exits during accidents
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the cut-and-cover sections are camouflaged to allow animals to move from one side to another without disturbance, addressing the eco-sensitive nature of the Mukundra Hills tiger habitat. Other options are plausible but not the stated purpose.
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