3 July 2026, Questions & Answers

141 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.

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This page contains 141 current affairs questions with answers from 3 July 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.

These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.

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3 July 2026, Questions with Answers

141 Qs
Q1.

Which body is responsible for issuing the 'Women Farmers Certificate' under the Maharashtra Women Farmers’ Empowerment Bill?

EasyUPSC, MPSC
  • A.District Collector
  • B.Gram Sabha or Urban Local Body✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Agriculture Department
  • D.Women Farmers’ Empowerment Council
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the Bill, the certificates will be issued by Gram Sabhas (rural areas) or urban local bodies (urban areas). This ensures local-level identification and reduces bureaucratic delays.

Source: Maharashtra Passes First-of-its-Kind Women Farmers’ Empowerment Bill: Recognises Women in Agriculture & Allied Activities →
Q2.

Consider the following statements regarding the Maharashtra Women Farmers’ Empowerment Bill:

1. The Bill recognises women involved in agriculture and allied activities such as fisheries, livestock, and poultry.

2. The Bill requires land ownership as a precondition for women to access government schemes.

3. The M. S. Swaminathan Research Foundation (MSSRF) played a key role in drafting the Bill.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Bill covers women engaged in agriculture and allied activities. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Bill specifically removes land ownership as a precondition. Statement 3 is correct: MSSRF (Chennai) conducted stakeholder consultations and advocated for the Bill. Hence option C is correct.

Source: Maharashtra Passes First-of-its-Kind Women Farmers’ Empowerment Bill: Recognises Women in Agriculture & Allied Activities →
Q3.

On which date did the Maharashtra Assembly unanimously pass the Women Farmers’ Empowerment Bill?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.July 1, 2026
  • B.July 2, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.July 3, 2026
  • D.July 4, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Bill was passed on Thursday, July 2, 2026. July 1, 2026 was a Wednesday, and July 3 is the date of publication. The correct date is July 2, 2026.

Source: Maharashtra Passes First-of-its-Kind Women Farmers’ Empowerment Bill: Recognises Women in Agriculture & Allied Activities →
Q4.

What is the primary objective of the Women Farmers’ Empowerment Bill passed by the Maharashtra Assembly?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.To increase agricultural productivity through new technology
  • B.To provide land ownership rights to women farmers
  • C.To recognise women as farmers and enable access to welfare schemes regardless of land ownership✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To create a separate ministry for women farmers
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Bill aims to correct the historic non-recognition of women farmers. By issuing certificates, it ensures women can access government schemes, subsidies, credit, and market support without needing to own land. Land ownership is not a precondition; the Bill does not provide land rights but rather access to existing schemes.

Source: Maharashtra Passes First-of-its-Kind Women Farmers’ Empowerment Bill: Recognises Women in Agriculture & Allied Activities →
Q5.

Which country's prime minister visited India for summit talks in July 2026, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Japan✓ Correct Answer
  • B.China
  • C.South Korea
  • D.United States
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Japanese Prime Minister Sanae Takaichi visited India for summit talks with PM Narendra Modi. This is a direct fact from the news.

Source: Japan PM Takaichi's India Visit Deepens India-Japan Strategic Ties Amid US Indo-Pacific Recalibration →
Q6.

Consider the following statements:

1. Under Trump 2.0, the US adopted a confrontational policy towards China and invested in building regional coalitions.

2. The Pentagon renamed the Indo-Pacific Command (INDOPACOM) to its original name, Pacific Command (PACOM).

3. Both India and Japan share concerns about China's assertiveness.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 2
  • B.(B) Only 3
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the article states that the first Trump administration (Trump 1.0) adopted a confrontational policy and built coalitions; Trump 2.0 is transactional and avoids coalition-building. Statement 2 is correct as per the article: the Pentagon reverted INDOPACOM to PACOM. Statement 3 is correct: both countries have unresolved disputes with China. Hence option C is correct.

Source: Japan PM Takaichi's India Visit Deepens India-Japan Strategic Ties Amid US Indo-Pacific Recalibration →
Q7.

According to the article, what did the Pentagon rename the Indo-Pacific Command (INDOPACOM) to?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Pacific Command (PACOM)✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Northern Command
  • C.Central Command
  • D.European Command
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The Pentagon's decision to revert the Indo-Pacific Command (INDOPACOM) to its original name, Pacific Command (PACOM).' Hence the new name is Pacific Command.

Source: Japan PM Takaichi's India Visit Deepens India-Japan Strategic Ties Amid US Indo-Pacific Recalibration →
Q8.

What is the primary strategic objective of India-Japan technology cooperation as highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Reduce dependence on Chinese technologies and rare earths✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Counterbalance US influence in the region
  • C.Establish a joint semiconductor manufacturing hub
  • D.Promote trade liberalization in the Indo-Pacific
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Both countries seek to reduce dependence on Chinese technologies and rare earths.' While other options may be secondary or implicit, the direct objective mentioned is reducing Chinese dependence.

Source: Japan PM Takaichi's India Visit Deepens India-Japan Strategic Ties Amid US Indo-Pacific Recalibration →
Q9.

Which organisation's launchpad is being used by Skyroot Aerospace for the Vikram-1 launch?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.ISRO's Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC SHAR)✓ Correct Answer
  • B.NASA's Kennedy Space Center
  • C.Skyroot's own private launchpad
  • D.European Space Agency's Kourou launch site
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that Vikram-1 will be launched from the first launchpad of SDSC SHAR in Sriharikota, which is ISRO's historic launchpad. It is the first time a private company is launching from this facility.

Source: Vikram-1: India's First Private Orbital Rocket Set for Mission Aagaman Launch Window July 12-Aug 4 →
Q10.

Consider the following statements:

1. Vikram-1 is India's first privately developed orbital-class rocket.

2. Vikram-1 has a payload capacity of over 300 kg to Geostationary Transfer Orbit (GTO).

3. The mission duration for Mission Aagaman is about 20 minutes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article explicitly calls Vikram-1 India's first privately developed orbital-class rocket. Statement 2 is incorrect: the payload capacity is to Low Earth Orbit (LEO), not GTO. Statement 3 is correct: the mission duration is mentioned as around 20 minutes.

Source: Vikram-1: India's First Private Orbital Rocket Set for Mission Aagaman Launch Window July 12-Aug 4 →
Q11.

What is the launch window for Vikram-1's first test flight (Mission Aagaman)?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.June 15 to July 15, 2026
  • B.July 12 to August 4, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.August 1 to August 31, 2026
  • D.September 1 to October 1, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the launch can happen anytime between July 12 and August 4, 2026 from SDSC SHAR. The other options are incorrect dates.

Source: Vikram-1: India's First Private Orbital Rocket Set for Mission Aagaman Launch Window July 12-Aug 4 →
Q12.

What is the primary objective of Mission Aagaman?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To launch commercial satellites for revenue generation
  • B.To gather critical data on vehicle performance✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To demonstrate sub-orbital flight capability
  • D.To test a new rocket engine for ISRO
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the main objective is to gather and access critical data across propulsion, stage separation, guidance, navigation, control, and overall vehicle performance. While test satellites are carried, the primary goal is data collection for future commercial launches.

Source: Vikram-1: India's First Private Orbital Rocket Set for Mission Aagaman Launch Window July 12-Aug 4 →
Q13.

Under which Act was the externment order passed against the petitioner in the Bombay HC case?

EasyUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Indian Penal Code, 1860
  • B.Maharashtra Police Act, 1951✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967
  • D.National Security Act, 1980
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the externment order was passed under the Maharashtra Police Act. The other options are different preventive laws not mentioned in the context.

Source: Bombay HC Quashes Externment Order, Rules Protests Against Govt Decisions Not Grounds: Articles 19, 21 →
Q14.

Consider the following statements regarding the Bombay High Court judgment:

1. The court held that protesting against government decisions and raising slogans does not constitute grounds for externment.

2. The externment order was based on two FIRs lodged against the petitioner.

3. The court observed that police officers are public servants and not servants of the Chief Minister or Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct per the court's ruling. Statement 2 is incorrect – the order relied on five FIRs, not two. Statement 3 is correct as per Justice Jamdar's observation. Hence option C is correct.

Source: Bombay HC Quashes Externment Order, Rules Protests Against Govt Decisions Not Grounds: Articles 19, 21 →
Q15.

For what period was the petitioner externed under the original order of December 3, 2025?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Six months
  • B.One year✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Two years
  • D.Three years
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions that the Divisional Commissioner confirmed the externment for a period of one year. The other options are not mentioned in the news.

Source: Bombay HC Quashes Externment Order, Rules Protests Against Govt Decisions Not Grounds: Articles 19, 21 →
Q16.

What was the primary constitutional basis cited by the Bombay High Court for quashing the externment order?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Violation of Article 14 (Right to Equality)
  • B.Violation of Articles 19 and 21 (Freedom of Speech and Right to Life)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Violation of Article 25 (Freedom of Religion)
  • D.Violation of Article 32 (Right to Constitutional Remedies)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court explicitly held that the externment order affected the petitioner's fundamental rights under Articles 19 (freedom of speech and expression) and 21 (right to live with dignity).

Source: Bombay HC Quashes Externment Order, Rules Protests Against Govt Decisions Not Grounds: Articles 19, 21 →
Q17.

Who chairs the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC)?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Prime Minister of India
  • B.Defence Minister of India✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Chief of Defence Staff
  • D.National Security Advisor
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The DAC is the highest decision-making body for defence capital acquisitions and is chaired by the Defence Minister. The Prime Minister is not directly involved, and the CDS and NSA are members but not chairpersons.

Source: Defence Acquisition Council Approves ₹52,000 Cr Military Purchases for Army, Navy, Air Force →
Q18.

Consider the following statements:

1. The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) approved Acceptance of Necessity (AoN) for proposals worth ₹52,000 crore.

2. The approvals include 'Akash Tarang', a surface-to-air missile system for the Navy.

3. The DAC is chaired by the Union Defence Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: DAC approved proposals worth ₹52,000 crore. Statement 2 is incorrect: 'Akash Tarang' is an Anti-Unmanned Aerial Vehicle Electronic Warfare System for the Army, not a surface-to-air missile for the Navy. Statement 3 is correct: DAC is chaired by the Defence Minister.

Source: Defence Acquisition Council Approves ₹52,000 Cr Military Purchases for Army, Navy, Air Force →
Q19.

What is the total value of defence acquisition proposals approved by the Defence Acquisition Council in this news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹35,000 crore
  • B.₹52,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹75,000 crore
  • D.₹1,00,000 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the DAC approved proposals worth nearly ₹52,000 crore. The other options are common distractors used in defence procurement figures.

Source: Defence Acquisition Council Approves ₹52,000 Cr Military Purchases for Army, Navy, Air Force →
Q20.

What is the primary objective of the 'Akash Tarang' system approved by the DAC?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To intercept ballistic missiles
  • B.To provide electronic warfare against enemy unmanned aerial vehicles✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To serve as a mobile anti-tank weapon
  • D.To enhance radar coverage for air defence
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article describes 'Akash Tarang' as an 'Anti-Unmanned Aerial Vehicle Electronic Warfare System', indicating its purpose is to counter enemy drones through electronic warfare techniques, not physical interception or anti-tank roles.

Source: Defence Acquisition Council Approves ₹52,000 Cr Military Purchases for Army, Navy, Air Force →
Q21.

Which ministry is responsible for the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC)?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • B.Ministry of Defence✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of External Affairs
  • D.Ministry of Finance
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Defence Acquisition Council is the highest decision-making body in the Ministry of Defence for approving new defence procurement proposals. It is chaired by the Defence Minister, as mentioned in the article.

Source: DAC Approves ₹52,000 Cr for Akash Tarang, MRSAM, Kamikaze Drones & Naval Systems →
Q22.

Consider the following statements regarding the Defence Acquisition Council approvals:

1. The DAC approved the procurement of Akash Tarang, an anti-drone electronic warfare system for the Indian Army.

2. The Navy's approvals include the acquisition of Fixed-Wing High Altitude Pseudo Satellites (FW-HAPS).

3. The Kamikaze drone system approved for the Army provides enhanced electronic warfare capability with greater lethality and cost-effectiveness.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Akash Tarang is designed to protect against hostile drones. Statement 2 is incorrect: FW-HAPS was approved for the Indian Air Force, not the Navy. Statement 3 is correct: The Kamikaze drone system provides enhanced electronic warfare capability with greater lethality and cost-effectiveness as per the article. Hence option C is correct.

Source: DAC Approves ₹52,000 Cr for Akash Tarang, MRSAM, Kamikaze Drones & Naval Systems →
Q23.

What was the total value of defence acquisition proposals for which the DAC granted Acceptance of Necessity (AoN) in July 2026?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.₹25,000 crore
  • B.₹52,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹75,000 crore
  • D.₹1,00,000 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the DAC accorded AoN for defence acquisition proposals worth nearly ₹52,000 crore. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the news.

Source: DAC Approves ₹52,000 Cr for Akash Tarang, MRSAM, Kamikaze Drones & Naval Systems →
Q24.

What is the primary objective of the approval of the Multi Influence Ground Mines (MIGM) for the Indian Navy?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To enhance anti-submarine warfare capabilities
  • B.To strengthen sea denial capabilities by restricting adversary movement✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To improve maritime surveillance through satellite integration
  • D.To provide close-in weapon system defence for naval ships
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that MIGM will strengthen sea denial capabilities by restricting adversary movement. The other options, while related to naval roles, are not mentioned in the context of MIGM.

Source: DAC Approves ₹52,000 Cr for Akash Tarang, MRSAM, Kamikaze Drones & Naval Systems →
Q25.

Which Indian institute’s Director-General authored the analysis on Japan’s defence pivot?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Institute for Defence Studies and Analyses (IDSA)
  • B.Manohar Parrikar Institute for Defence Studies and Analyses (MP-IDSA)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.United Service Institution of India (USI)
  • D.Centre for Land Warfare Studies (CLAWS)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes former Ambassador to Japan Sujan Chinoy, who is the Director-General of MP-IDSA. This institute is a premier think tank under the Ministry of Defence, focusing on national security and strategic studies.

Source: Japan Defence Pivot: 17 Nations Listed for Arms Export, India Included as Partner →
Q26.

Consider the following statements regarding Japan’s defence policy changes:

1. Japan has raised its defence spending from 1% to 2% of GDP, a 100% increase.

2. Japan’s arms export ban was overturned in 2026, allowing exports to all countries without any restrictions.

3. India is one of the 17 nations with which Japan has defence technology cooperation frameworks for joint production and sales.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Japan raised defence spending from 1% to 2% of GDP. Statement 2 is incorrect: the ban was overturned but exports are only allowed to 17 specific nations with defence cooperation frameworks, and internal clearances are required. Statement 3 is correct: India is among the 17 nations listed.

Source: Japan Defence Pivot: 17 Nations Listed for Arms Export, India Included as Partner →
Q27.

How many nations are listed in Japan’s new arms export rules for privileged defence technology cooperation and sales?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.15
  • B.17✓ Correct Answer
  • C.19
  • D.21
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Japan intends to privilege the 17 countries with which it has defence technology cooperation frameworks for arms sales, joint production, and development. India is one of these nations.

Source: Japan Defence Pivot: 17 Nations Listed for Arms Export, India Included as Partner →
Q28.

What is the primary geo-strategic reason for Japan’s decision to allow arms exports and co-production with trusted partners?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce its trade deficit with partner nations
  • B.To disperse its military-industrial complex to trusted countries due to limited geography and risk mitigation✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To comply with NATO’s demand for increased defence spending
  • D.To counterbalance the influence of the European Union in Asia
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article notes that Japan’s limited geography necessitates a risk mitigation strategy of dispersing its military industrial complex to trusted partner countries. India is positioned to fill this need under Aatmanirbhar Bharat.

Source: Japan Defence Pivot: 17 Nations Listed for Arms Export, India Included as Partner →
Q29.

Which of the following is a key component of India's MAHASAGAR initiative mentioned in the India-Japan joint statement?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Security and Growth for All in the Region (SAGAR)✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Mutual Assistance and Cooperation for a Safe and Secure Indo-Pacific
  • C.India's Maritime Cooperation and Security Framework
  • D.Free and Open Indo-Pacific (FOIP)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

MAHASAGAR is India's vision for the Indo-Pacific, but the article contrasts it with Japan's FOIP. SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region) is a similar Indian initiative. However, the article explicitly mentions 'India's MAHASAGAR' as distinct from 'Japan's FOIP'. Since MAHASAGAR is not defined in the article, and the only related term is SAGAR (which is a known static concept), the most likely correct option is SAGAR. But note that MAHASAGAR is a specific term; for exam purposes, students should know that SAGAR is the broader Indian maritime vision.

Source: India-Japan Roadmap for Economic Security, Stricter VPN Rules, Hasdeo Forest Mining Cleared, New EPF Scheme 2026 →
Q30.

Consider the following statements regarding the new VPN regulation framework:

1. The 2022 Cert-In directive required VPN providers to store customer data including names, email IDs, and IP addresses for five years.

2. The new framework may require VPN operators to establish offices in India and appoint compliance officers.

3. The government issued over 12,000 content blocking orders in 2025.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the 2022 Cert-In directive required storing of names, email IDs, contact numbers, IP addresses for five years. Statement 2 is correct: the new framework may require local offices and compliance officers. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article states over 24,000 orders were issued in 2025, not 12,000. Hence option C is correct.

Source: India-Japan Roadmap for Economic Security, Stricter VPN Rules, Hasdeo Forest Mining Cleared, New EPF Scheme 2026 →
Q31.

According to the article, which of the following is NOT a Schedule I species found in Hasdeo-Arand forests?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Leopard
  • B.Sloth Bear
  • C.Indian Pangolin
  • D.Asiatic Lion✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article lists species under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 found in Hasdeo-Arand: Elephant, Leopard, Sloth Bear, Indian Grey Wolf, Honey Badger, Four-Horned Antelope, Indian Pangolin, Giant Squirrel, and Rusty-spotted Cat. Asiatic Lion is found only in Gir (Gujarat) and is not present in Hasdeo-Arand. Hence option D is correct.

Source: India-Japan Roadmap for Economic Security, Stricter VPN Rules, Hasdeo Forest Mining Cleared, New EPF Scheme 2026 →
Q32.

What is the primary objective of the new Employees' Provident Funds Scheme, 2026 as per the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase the contribution rate from 12% to 15%
  • B.To simplify withdrawal procedures and ensure minimum balance retention✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To expand EPF coverage to all informal workers
  • D.To reduce the administrative charges on employers
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the new scheme streamlines withdrawal categories from 13 to three (essential needs, housing, special circumstances) and introduces a minimum balance of 25%. The contribution rate remains unchanged at 12%. The primary change is procedural simplification and encouraging savings. Option B captures this. Options A and D are false; option C is about coverage which is not discussed in this news.

Source: India-Japan Roadmap for Economic Security, Stricter VPN Rules, Hasdeo Forest Mining Cleared, New EPF Scheme 2026 →
Q33.

Which Act was invoked in the FIR alongside POCSO and BNS to penalize the husband for pronouncing triple talaq?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937
  • C.Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939
  • D.The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The FIR included Section 3/4 of the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019, which criminalizes instant triple talaq. Other acts deal with Shariat application, divorce grounds, and maintenance, not triple talaq.

Source: Allahabad HC: Personal Law No Shield for Crime; Nikah Halala Leads to POCSO & Gangrape Charges →
Q34.

Consider the following statements regarding the Allahabad HC judgment:

1. The victim was 15 years old at the time of her first marriage.

2. Nikah halala is explicitly criminalized under the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019.

3. The court observed that the facts are 'shocking to conscience' and violate Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct – the victim married in April 2015 at age 15. Statement 2 is incorrect – the Act only criminalizes triple talaq, not halala. Statement 3 is correct – the court used these phrases in its observations.

Source: Allahabad HC: Personal Law No Shield for Crime; Nikah Halala Leads to POCSO & Gangrape Charges →
Q35.

In which year was the victim forced to undergo the second instance of nikah halala?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2016
  • B.2021
  • C.2025✓ Correct Answer
  • D.2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

According to the FIR and court order, the second halala occurred in February 2025. The first halala was in November 2016. The other options are distractors: 2021 was the year of the second triple talaq.

Source: Allahabad HC: Personal Law No Shield for Crime; Nikah Halala Leads to POCSO & Gangrape Charges →
Q36.

What is the primary legal principle established by the Allahabad High Court in this case?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Nikah halala is unconstitutional and should be banned.
  • B.Personal laws cannot be used to shield criminal acts.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Triple talaq is a valid ground for divorce under personal law.
  • D.POCSO Act does not apply to married minors.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court explicitly stated that 'personal law cannot shield crime' when criminal law applies. It did not declare halala unconstitutional (A is false). Triple talaq's validity is not the issue here (C). POCSO applies to all minors under 18, regardless of marriage (D is false).

Source: Allahabad HC: Personal Law No Shield for Crime; Nikah Halala Leads to POCSO & Gangrape Charges →
Q37.

Which Article of the Constitution of India guarantees the right to a fair trial and personal liberty, as discussed in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 14
  • B.Article 19
  • C.Article 21✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Article 22
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 21 states 'No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.' The Supreme Court has interpreted this to include the right to a fair and speedy trial, which is central to the debate on pre-trial detention in this article.

Source: SC Denies Bail to Umar Khalid, Sharjeel Imam: Article 21 vs UAPA Delay Conflict →
Q38.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's bail decision in the 2020 Delhi riots case:

1. The Supreme Court denied bail to Umar Khalid and Sharjeel Imam because they had spent over five years in jail without trial.

2. The Court held that an extended delay in trial can create an iron-clad right to bail under Article 21.

3. The Court referred the question of pre-trial detention limits to a larger Bench.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) Both 1 and 3
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the Court denied bail despite long detention, not because of it. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Court explicitly said delay does not create an iron-clad right to bail — it must be weighed against other factors. Statement 3 is correct: the Court referred the issue to the Chief Justice to constitute a larger Bench to resolve the inconsistency.

Source: SC Denies Bail to Umar Khalid, Sharjeel Imam: Article 21 vs UAPA Delay Conflict →
Q39.

According to the article, how many years had Umar Khalid and Sharjeel Imam spent in jail without trial at the time of the Supreme Court judgment?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.More than 3 years
  • B.More than 4 years
  • C.More than 5 years✓ Correct Answer
  • D.More than 6 years
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that at the time of the Court's judgment, Umar Khalid and Sharjeel Imam had spent 'more than five years in jail without trial'. At the time of writing (July 2026), it is approaching six years. Option D is a distractor as it says 'more than 6 years', but the correct figure at judgment was >5 years.

Source: SC Denies Bail to Umar Khalid, Sharjeel Imam: Article 21 vs UAPA Delay Conflict →
Q40.

What is the primary concern raised by the article regarding the Supreme Court's denial of bail in the Delhi riots case?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.That the Court gave undue weight to the gravity of the offence over the right to personal liberty.✓ Correct Answer
  • B.That the Court failed to consider the political background of the accused.
  • C.That the Court made a procedural error in hearing the bail application.
  • D.That the Court violated the UAPA's statutory provisions on bail.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article argues that by using 'gravity of offence' to override the delay in trial, the Court creates a 'sliding scale' that allows indefinite detention for those accused of serious crimes, undermining Article 21. Option B is not discussed; C and D are not supported by the text.

Source: SC Denies Bail to Umar Khalid, Sharjeel Imam: Article 21 vs UAPA Delay Conflict →
Q41.

SAMAGRA MP, the citizen-centric social security platform used for hyper-localised targeting in the Mandsaur HPV campaign, belongs to which state?

EasyUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Madhya Pradesh✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Uttar Pradesh
  • C.Rajasthan
  • D.Maharashtra
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions 'SAMAGRA MP (a citizen-centric social security platform by the Government of Madhya Pradesh)'. Hence, it is a Madhya Pradesh state initiative.

Source: India’s HPV Vaccination Campaign: Mandsaur Model Achieves 100% Coverage for 1.15 Crore Girls in 40 Days →
Q42.

Consider the following statements regarding the Mandsaur HPV vaccination campaign:

1. The campaign faced challenges of vaccine hesitancy due to myths about infertility.

2. The primary challenge identified at the grassroots was vaccine hesitancy, not data invisibility.

3. The district used the 'Nudge Approach' to make vaccination the default choice.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article mentions myths about vaccine-induced infertility caused initial resistance. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article states 'the challenge is often not vaccine hesitancy but data invisibility'. Statement 3 is correct: the district relied on the 'Nudge Approach' to design an environment where vaccination became the default choice.

Source: India’s HPV Vaccination Campaign: Mandsaur Model Achieves 100% Coverage for 1.15 Crore Girls in 40 Days →
Q43.

What is the total number of girls targeted for free HPV vaccination under the nationwide campaign launched on February 28, 2026?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.1.05 crore
  • B.1.15 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.1.25 crore
  • D.1.50 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'providing free HPV vaccinations to 1.15 crore girls aged 14-15 years'.

Source: India’s HPV Vaccination Campaign: Mandsaur Model Achieves 100% Coverage for 1.15 Crore Girls in 40 Days →
Q44.

What was the primary grassroots challenge that the Mandsaur district administration sought to overcome through its data-driven strategy?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Vaccine hesitancy due to religious beliefs
  • B.Lack of funding for vaccination sessions
  • C.Data invisibility and fragmented records✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Shortage of healthcare workers
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article emphasises that 'at the grassroots, the challenge is often not vaccine hesitancy but data invisibility'. The district leveraged multiple databases to create hyper-localised master lists, ensuring eligible girls were not missed.

Source: India’s HPV Vaccination Campaign: Mandsaur Model Achieves 100% Coverage for 1.15 Crore Girls in 40 Days →
Q45.

Which international organization released the Preliminary Report of the Independent International Scientific Panel on AI?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.United Nations✓ Correct Answer
  • B.World Bank
  • C.International Monetary Fund
  • D.World Trade Organization
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'The UN’s Preliminary Report of the Independent International Scientific Panel on AI', confirming the UN as the issuing body.

Source: UN Preliminary AI Report Warns of Global North-South Divide; India Faces AI Access Challenges →
Q46.

Consider the following statements regarding the UN Preliminary Report on AI:

1. The report highlights the Global South-Global North divide in AI benefits and regulation.

2. According to the report, AI firms have only caused positive impacts so far.

3. The report mentions Anthropic's AI models Mythos and Fable.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the report stresses the North-South divide. Statement 2 is false because the report details harms such as deepfakes and fatal parasocial fantasies. Statement 3 is correct as the article specifically names Anthropic's Mythos and Fable models.

Source: UN Preliminary AI Report Warns of Global North-South Divide; India Faces AI Access Challenges →
Q47.

Which AI models are specifically mentioned in the article as having their access pulled by the U.S., leaving Indian firms vulnerable?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Gemini and GPT-4
  • B.Mythos and Fable✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Claude and Bard
  • D.Siri and Alexa
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'even as Anthropic’s Mythos and Fable held out the tantalising promise... the U.S. pulled access, leaving the firms that had these models to ponder the risk'.

Source: UN Preliminary AI Report Warns of Global North-South Divide; India Faces AI Access Challenges →
Q48.

What is the primary challenge that the UN report identifies for countries in the Global South regarding AI?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Lack of skilled AI engineers
  • B.Inability to regulate advanced AI models combined with risk of missing out on benefits✓ Correct Answer
  • C.High cost of electricity for AI data centers
  • D.Lack of internet access across rural areas
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions that Global South countries face a choice between capital-intensive AI development or accepting terms set by a few dominant companies, and that they lack regulatory capacity over models far more advanced than their own ecosystems.

Source: UN Preliminary AI Report Warns of Global North-South Divide; India Faces AI Access Challenges →
Q49.

Which ministry is primarily responsible for organizing and executing the official visit of the Prime Minister to a foreign country?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • B.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Defence
  • D.Prime Minister's Office
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) is responsible for India's foreign relations, including diplomatic visits, treaties, and bilateral agreements. The PM's visit to New Zealand falls under the MEA's purview.

Source: PM Modi Makes First Official Visit to New Zealand in 40 Years; FTA Signed in April →
Q50.

Consider the following statements regarding PM Modi's visit to New Zealand:

1. PM Modi's visit to New Zealand in July 2026 is the first by an Indian Prime Minister in 40 years.

2. The India-New Zealand free trade agreement signed in April 2026 eliminates 95% of tariffs on all goods traded between the two countries.

3. Discussions during the visit will include maritime security and global issues.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the last visit was 40 years ago. Statement 2 is incorrect because the FTA eliminates 95% of tariffs on goods from New Zealand, not on all goods traded. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions discussions on maritime security and global issues.

Source: PM Modi Makes First Official Visit to New Zealand in 40 Years; FTA Signed in April →
Q51.

What percentage of tariffs on goods from New Zealand will be eliminated under the India-New Zealand free trade agreement signed in April 2026?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.100%
  • B.90%
  • C.95%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.80%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the FTA will eliminate 95% of tariffs on goods from New Zealand. The other options are close distractors but incorrect.

Source: PM Modi Makes First Official Visit to New Zealand in 40 Years; FTA Signed in April →
Q52.

What is the primary diplomatic significance of PM Modi's visit to New Zealand in July 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To sign a new defense pact with New Zealand
  • B.To mark the first high-level bilateral visit in 40 years and deepen economic and strategic ties under the FTA✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To resolve a territorial dispute between the two countries
  • D.To launch a joint space mission
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The visit is historic as it is the first by an Indian PM in 40 years. The FTA signed in April 2026 provides the economic foundation, and discussions will cover trade, investment, maritime security, and global issues, reflecting a comprehensive deepening of ties.

Source: PM Modi Makes First Official Visit to New Zealand in 40 Years; FTA Signed in April →
Q53.

Which government body issued the 2022 directive requiring VPN providers to store customer data for five years?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
  • B.Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (Cert-In)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI)
  • D.National Security Council Secretariat
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that the directive was issued by the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (Cert-In) in 2022, requiring VPNs to store customer data.

Source: Govt Plans Stricter Rules for VPNs: Mandatory India Office, Compliance Officers, Jail for Non-Compliance →
Q54.

Consider the following statements:

1. The 2022 Cert-In directive required VPN providers to store customer data for five years.

2. The new legal framework would require VPN providers to have offices in India and appoint compliance officers.

3. Telegram was permanently blocked in India according to the article.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the 2022 Cert-In directive mandated data storage for five years. Statement 2 is correct: the new framework proposes mandatory India offices and compliance officers. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article says Telegram was temporarily blocked ahead of the NEET-UG retest, not permanently blocked.

Source: Govt Plans Stricter Rules for VPNs: Mandatory India Office, Compliance Officers, Jail for Non-Compliance →
Q55.

According to the article, how many content blocking orders did India issue in 2025?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.12,000
  • B.24,000✓ Correct Answer
  • C.36,000
  • D.48,000
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states 'over 24,000 orders issued in 2025', up from 12,000 in 2024. 24,000 is the correct figure. 12,000 was the figure for 2024.

Source: Govt Plans Stricter Rules for VPNs: Mandatory India Office, Compliance Officers, Jail for Non-Compliance →
Q56.

What is the primary concern prompting the government to tighten VPN regulations?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.VPNs reduce internet speeds for users
  • B.VPNs are used to bypass blocking of apps and online content✓ Correct Answer
  • C.VPNs increase cybercrime by hiding user identity
  • D.VPNs are predominantly owned by foreign companies
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The primary concern that the government has is that VPNs are being increasingly used by people to get around the blocking of apps and online content.' The other options are not mentioned or not the primary concern.

Source: Govt Plans Stricter Rules for VPNs: Mandatory India Office, Compliance Officers, Jail for Non-Compliance →
Q57.

Which action plan has guided the National Capital Region's approach to containing winter smog, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Clean Air Programme
  • B.Graded Response Action Plan✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Delhi Pollution Control Plan
  • D.Airshed Management Plan
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Delhi government's strategy comprises most elements of the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) that have so far guided the NCR's approach to containing winter smog.

Source: Delhi Govt Proactive Winter Pollution Strategy: GRAP Curbs from Nov 1, 50% Staff Attendance →
Q58.

Consider the following statements:

1. The Delhi government will impose pollution curbs from November 1, before the crisis period begins.

2. Delhi’s new policy treats Work From Home as a substitute for clean commuting.

3. The article states that bans and restrictions should be part of a long-term pollution control strategy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article says curbs on vehicles and construction will come into force from November 1. Statement 2 is incorrect – the article explicitly warns against treating Work From Home as a substitute for clean commuting. Statement 3 is incorrect – the article says bans and restrictions should not be part of a long-term pollution control strategy.

Source: Delhi Govt Proactive Winter Pollution Strategy: GRAP Curbs from Nov 1, 50% Staff Attendance →
Q59.

What percentage of in-person staff attendance is mandated for Delhi government and private offices under the new winter pollution strategy?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.25%
  • B.50%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.75%
  • D.100%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that Delhi government and private offices will operate with 50% in-person staff attendance under the proactive winter plan.

Source: Delhi Govt Proactive Winter Pollution Strategy: GRAP Curbs from Nov 1, 50% Staff Attendance →
Q60.

What is the primary advantage of implementing GRAP curbs proactively, as highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce the number of red alert days automatically
  • B.To allow workplaces and businesses to redesign workflows and stagger attendance before the pollution season✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To save government money by avoiding last-minute crisis measures
  • D.To shift pollution sources from vehicles to industries
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly says this proactive approach would allow workplaces and business establishments to redesign work-flows, stagger employee attendance, invest in digital infrastructure, and make transport arrangements before the pollution season begins.

Source: Delhi Govt Proactive Winter Pollution Strategy: GRAP Curbs from Nov 1, 50% Staff Attendance →
Q61.

Which ministry is primarily responsible for implementing the Namami Gange programme?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
  • B.Ministry of Jal Shakti✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Water Resources (old)
  • D.Ministry of Rural Development
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Namami Gange is a flagship programme under the Ministry of Jal Shakti, which was formed in 2019 by merging the Ministry of Water Resources and Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation.

Source: Namami Gange: Zero-Liquid Discharge Norms, Jajmau CETP (20 MLD) Reduce Ganga Pollution in UP →
Q62.

Consider the following statements regarding pollution control in Kanpur:

1. The Jajmau Common Effluent Treatment Plant (CETP) has a treatment capacity of 20 MLD.

2. The Sisamau drain previously released 140 MLD of untreated sewage only into the Ganga.

3. The Mathura CETP of 6.5 MLD caters to industrial units including the Mathura Refinery.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as Jajmau CETP has 20 MLD capacity. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Sisamau drain released both untreated sewage and industrial effluent, not just sewage. Statement 3 is correct as the Mathura CETP serves industrial units including the Mathura Refinery.

Source: Namami Gange: Zero-Liquid Discharge Norms, Jajmau CETP (20 MLD) Reduce Ganga Pollution in UP →
Q63.

What is the treatment capacity of the Jajmau Common Effluent Treatment Plant (CETP) in Kanpur?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.6.5 MLD
  • B.20 MLD✓ Correct Answer
  • C.140 MLD
  • D.50 MLD
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that Jajmau CETP has a treatment capacity of 20 MLD. 6.5 MLD is the capacity of Mathura CETP, and 140 MLD is the volume of the Sisamau drain. 50 MLD is not mentioned.

Source: Namami Gange: Zero-Liquid Discharge Norms, Jajmau CETP (20 MLD) Reduce Ganga Pollution in UP →
Q64.

What is the primary objective of enforcing zero-liquid discharge (ZLD) norms for tanneries in Kanpur?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase leather production efficiency
  • B.To eliminate discharge of industrial effluent into water bodies✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To reduce water consumption in tanneries
  • D.To promote exports of leather products
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

ZLD norms require that no liquid effluent is discharged from the facility. This directly aims to prevent industrial pollution from entering rivers like the Ganga. While water reuse may be a side benefit, the core objective is pollution abatement.

Source: Namami Gange: Zero-Liquid Discharge Norms, Jajmau CETP (20 MLD) Reduce Ganga Pollution in UP →
Q65.

Which ministry issued the order exempting four Chinese-linked power equipment firms from the requirement of political and security clearances for government tenders?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Power
  • B.Ministry of Finance✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • D.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The order was issued by the Ministry of Finance, as mentioned in the article. The Ministry of Power had sought the exemption, but the final order came from the Finance Ministry, which oversees public procurement and financial regulations.

Source: Finance Ministry Exempts 4 Chinese Power Equipment Firms from Bid Clearance for 2 Years →
Q66.

Consider the following statements:

1. The exemption allows four Chinese-linked power equipment firms to bid for government projects for critical power projects.

2. The exemption is valid for five years from the date of issuance.

3. The order explicitly states that this exemption should not be treated as a precedent for other companies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the firms are allowed to participate in tenders for critical power projects. Statement 2 is incorrect because the exemption is valid for two years, not five. Statement 3 is correct as the order explicitly says it should not be treated as a precedent.

Source: Finance Ministry Exempts 4 Chinese Power Equipment Firms from Bid Clearance for 2 Years →
Q67.

In which month and year did the Union Ministry of Power seek the exemption for these Chinese-linked entities?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.January 2025
  • B.January 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.June 2026
  • D.July 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 'Union Ministry of Power had sought the exemption in January' for entities with manufacturing units in India. The order was issued in June 2026.

Source: Finance Ministry Exempts 4 Chinese Power Equipment Firms from Bid Clearance for 2 Years →
Q68.

What is the primary strategic rationale behind India's decision to grant this exemption to four Chinese-linked power equipment firms?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To fully normalize trade relations with China
  • B.To accelerate domestic power transmission expansion to meet rising demand and renewable energy targets✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To allow unlimited Chinese investment in the power sector
  • D.To reduce the role of domestic power equipment manufacturers
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the exemption comes as India accelerates expansion of its transmission network to support rising electricity demand and renewable energy additions. The limited, non-precedential nature of the exemption shows it is a strategic, calibrated move rather than a full normalization of ties.

Source: Finance Ministry Exempts 4 Chinese Power Equipment Firms from Bid Clearance for 2 Years →
Q69.

Which ministry/department is primarily responsible for implementing the OCI card scheme mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of External Affairs
  • B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Overseas Indian Affairs
  • D.Ministry of Law and Justice
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) is the nodal ministry for the OCI scheme. The article states that the MHA launched the e-OCI card and oversees OCI services. The Ministry of External Affairs handles passports and visa issuance abroad for other categories, but OCI falls under MHA's jurisdiction.

Source: MHA Launches e-OCI Card: Full Digital Lifelong Visa for 50 Lakh+ Overseas Indians →
Q70.

Consider the following statements regarding the e-OCI card:

1. The e-OCI card was launched by Union Home Minister Amit Shah on June 30, 2026.

2. The e-OCI card replaces a physical booklet format with a fully digital system, but card holders must still report to police authorities periodically.

3. The card serves as a lifelong visa for Overseas Citizens of India to enter and stay in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as mentioned in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the e-OCI card exempts holders from reporting to police authorities, not requiring it. Statement 3 is correct as the card provides a lifelong visa. Hence option C is correct.

Source: MHA Launches e-OCI Card: Full Digital Lifelong Visa for 50 Lakh+ Overseas Indians →
Q71.

According to the news, how many OCI card holders are expected to be impacted by the e-OCI card launch?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.More than 10 lakh
  • B.More than 25 lakh
  • C.More than 50 lakh✓ Correct Answer
  • D.More than 1 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states, 'It is likely to impact more than 50 lakh OCI card holders.' The other options are close distractors but 50 lakh is the exact figure mentioned.

Source: MHA Launches e-OCI Card: Full Digital Lifelong Visa for 50 Lakh+ Overseas Indians →
Q72.

What is the primary objective of introducing the e-OCI card as mentioned in the news?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase revenue from visa fees
  • B.To transform OCI services through a fully digital and citizen-centric system✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To restrict the number of OCIs entering India
  • D.To merge OCI with dual citizenship
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The MHA described the e-OCI card as a 'major citizen-centric initiative aimed at transforming OCI services for the Indian diaspora through a fully digital system.' The other options are contrary to the article's intent as the card enhances ease of living and does not restrict or replace citizenship.

Source: MHA Launches e-OCI Card: Full Digital Lifelong Visa for 50 Lakh+ Overseas Indians →
Q73.

Which Act was enacted to prohibit the conversion of places of worship and maintain their religious character as of August 15, 1947?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Waqf Act, 1995
  • B.Places of Worship (Special Provisions) Act, 1991✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Land Acquisition Act, 2013
  • D.Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency Act, 2013
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Places of Worship (Special Provisions) Act, 1991 was enacted to freeze the religious character of places of worship as they existed on August 15, 1947, and to prevent their conversion. The Allahabad HC in this case clarified that the Act does not bar state acquisition for public purpose.

Source: Allahabad HC: Places of Worship Act 1991 Does Not Prohibit Acquisition of Religious Sites for Public Purpose →
Q74.

Consider the following statements regarding the Allahabad High Court judgment:

1. The court held that the Places of Worship Act prohibits conversion but not acquisition of religious sites for public purpose.

2. The Division Bench consisted of Justice J.J. Munir and Justice Arun Kumar.

3. The petitioners were the mutawallis (custodians) of the mosques.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the judgment. Statement 2 is correct: the bench comprised Justice J.J. Munir and Justice Arun Kumar. Statement 3 is incorrect because the petitioners were shopkeepers/tenants, not mutawallis. The court noted they lacked locus standi.

Source: Allahabad HC: Places of Worship Act 1991 Does Not Prohibit Acquisition of Religious Sites for Public Purpose →
Q75.

How many mosques were involved in the road-widening challenge before the Allahabad High Court?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Four
  • B.Five
  • C.Six✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Seven
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions six mosques: Anjuman Intezamia Masjid, Masjid Rangile Shah, Masjid Ali Raza Khan, Masjid Karimullah Baig, Masjid Nisaran, and Masjid Sangamarmar. The petitioners sought to protect these mosques from acquisition.

Source: Allahabad HC: Places of Worship Act 1991 Does Not Prohibit Acquisition of Religious Sites for Public Purpose →
Q76.

What was the primary legal argument of the petitioners in the Allahabad High Court?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.The road widening project lacked environmental clearance.
  • B.The acquisition of mosques violated the Places of Worship Act, 1991.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The compensation offered was inadequate under the Land Acquisition Act.
  • D.The Kashi Vishwanath Corridor project infringed on their right to livelihood.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The petitioners argued that the mosques existed before August 15, 1947, and their acquisition would violate the Places of Worship Act, 1991, which protects the religious character of such sites. The court rejected this argument, holding that the Act does not bar acquisition for public purpose.

Source: Allahabad HC: Places of Worship Act 1991 Does Not Prohibit Acquisition of Religious Sites for Public Purpose →
Q77.

Which government body is the concession-granting authority for the Vizhinjam International Seaport?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Government of India (Ministry of Ports)
  • B.Kerala State Government✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone Limited
  • D.Mediterranean Shipping Company (MSC) Group
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Vizhinjam port is developed under a PPP with the Kerala government as the landlord. The concession agreement was signed with the state government, which retains ownership and grants operating rights to the private partner. The state government's approval is required for any change in ownership of more than 25% shares.

Source: Adani Ports' 49% Stake Sale to MSC at Vizhinjam Port Sparks Kerala Govt Dispute Over Concession Terms →
Q78.

Consider the following statements regarding the Adani-MSC Vizhinjam port deal:

1. Adani Ports plans to divest 49% of its stake in the Vizhinjam port to MSC Group, which is a Switzerland-based shipping company.

2. The concession agreement allows Adani to dilute up to 74% of its stake without any prior approval from the state government.

3. The Kerala government has set up an empowered committee headed by the Chief Secretary to review the proposal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Adani Ports plans to divest 49% stake to MSC Group (Switzerland). Statement 2 is incorrect: The concession agreement requires prior state permission for any transfer of more than 25% shares; Adani can dilute up to 74% only after second year of operations, but still subject to state approval. Statement 3 is correct: An empowered committee headed by the Chief Secretary is reviewing the proposal.

Source: Adani Ports' 49% Stake Sale to MSC at Vizhinjam Port Sparks Kerala Govt Dispute Over Concession Terms →
Q79.

What is the total financial commitment of the Kerala government for the first phase of the Vizhinjam port, including ancillary infrastructure?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.₹2,454 crore
  • B.₹4,000 crore
  • C.₹5,600 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • D.₹13,220 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the Kerala government has spent around ₹4,000 crore on the port and ancillary infrastructure, and its total financial commitment stands at around ₹5,600 crore in the first phase. Option A (₹2,454 crore) is Adani's investment in phase 1. Option D (₹13,220 crore) is the expansion fund to be raised from the stake sale.

Source: Adani Ports' 49% Stake Sale to MSC at Vizhinjam Port Sparks Kerala Govt Dispute Over Concession Terms →
Q80.

What is the primary concern raised by the Kerala government and opposition regarding the proposed stake sale to MSC Group?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Loss of revenue for the state government
  • B.Potential monopoly for a single shipping company and national security risks✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Delay in the second phase of port expansion
  • D.Violation of SEBI listing regulations
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the opposition leader Pinarayi Vijayan argued that the move could create a monopoly for a single shipping company, forcing exporters to rely on its vessels and freight rates. Additionally, national security interests must be considered when ownership of critical infrastructure changes. While other options are mentioned, these are the primary concerns highlighted.

Source: Adani Ports' 49% Stake Sale to MSC at Vizhinjam Port Sparks Kerala Govt Dispute Over Concession Terms →
Q81.

Which of the following approvals is NOT required for the proposed stake sale according to the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Approval from the Kerala State Government
  • B.Approval from the Competition Commission of India
  • C.Approval from the Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) approval from the Government of India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly lists the required approvals: state government approval, FDI approval from Government of India, and Competition Commission of India approval. It does not mention Ministry of External Affairs. SEBI disclosure requirements are also mentioned but not as an approval. The Ministry of External Affairs is not involved in this transaction.

Source: Adani Ports' 49% Stake Sale to MSC at Vizhinjam Port Sparks Kerala Govt Dispute Over Concession Terms →
Q82.

Which international body launched the 'AI Environmental Transparency Initiative' mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.World Economic Forum
  • B.United Nations✓ Correct Answer
  • C.International Energy Agency
  • D.World Bank
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that UN Secretary General Antonio Guterres launched the AI Environmental Transparency Initiative during London Climate Week. This initiative urges AI companies to measure and disclose their environmental impact.

Source: Google & Amazon Emissions Surge 82% & 58% as AI Data Centre Energy Use Threatens Climate Pledges →
Q83.

Consider the following statements regarding the news:

1. Google's total emissions have increased by 82% since 2019.

2. Amazon's emissions increased by 58% in the last year alone.

3. Both companies now pollute more per dollar of revenue than before.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Google's emissions jumped 82% since 2019. Statement 2 is incorrect: Amazon's emissions rose 58% since 2019, not in the last year (the last year increase was 16%). Statement 3 is correct: the article says both companies pollute more for every dollar of revenue, a first since at least 2021 for Amazon.

Source: Google & Amazon Emissions Surge 82% & 58% as AI Data Centre Energy Use Threatens Climate Pledges →
Q84.

According to the UN report, how many countries consume less energy than all data centres worldwide?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.10 countries✓ Correct Answer
  • B.11 countries
  • C.6 countries
  • D.15 countries
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'data centres worldwide use so much energy that only 10 countries each consume more, making AI the 11th largest energy consumer globally.' Hence, 10 countries consume more, meaning data centres use more energy than the rest.

Source: Google & Amazon Emissions Surge 82% & 58% as AI Data Centre Energy Use Threatens Climate Pledges →
Q85.

What is the primary environmental challenge highlighted by the news regarding AI development?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.AI algorithms are becoming less efficient over time
  • B.The rapid construction of AI data centres is increasing greenhouse gas emissions faster than the grid is decarbonizing✓ Correct Answer
  • C.AI companies are shifting to fossil fuels due to high renewable energy costs
  • D.The UN initiative will force AI companies to shut down data centres
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Google's chief sustainability officer stated: 'Our AI infrastructure buildout is currently accelerating faster than the grid is decarbonizing.' This captures the core challenge: AI growth outpaces clean energy transition, leading to rising emissions despite corporate pledges.

Source: Google & Amazon Emissions Surge 82% & 58% as AI Data Centre Energy Use Threatens Climate Pledges →
Q86.

Which institution has been designated as the State's Centre of Excellence for validating cancer data under Telangana's new notification policy?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Nizam's Institute of Medical Sciences (NIMS)
  • B.Basavatarakam Indo American Cancer Hospital
  • C.Mehdi Nawaz Jung Institute of Oncology (MNJ Cancer Hospital)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Osmania General Hospital
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that MNJ Cancer Hospital has been designated as the State's Centre of Excellence to validate cancer data before forwarding it to the National Cancer Registry Programme under ICMR. This is a key static fact for exams.

Source: Telangana Declares Cancer Notifiable Disease: Mandatory Reporting to Map True Burden, Decentralize Care by 2030 →
Q87.

Consider the following statements regarding Telangana's cancer notification policy:

1. Telangana declared cancer a notifiable disease in April 2026, mandating reporting of every diagnosed case within a month.

2. The policy applies only to government hospitals and excludes private hospitals and diagnostic centres.

3. The data collected will be integrated with the National Cancer Registry Programme under the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the notification was made on April 6, 2026, and reporting is required within a month. Statement 2 is incorrect: the policy applies to EVERY diagnosed case, whether at government or private hospitals, pathology labs, or diagnostic centres. Statement 3 is correct: MNJ will forward validated data to the NCRP under ICMR.

Source: Telangana Declares Cancer Notifiable Disease: Mandatory Reporting to Map True Burden, Decentralize Care by 2030 →
Q88.

According to the Telangana Cancer Atlas (April 2020-September 2025), which district recorded the highest annual cancer incidence rate per one lakh population?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Hyderabad (72)
  • B.Hanumakonda (79)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Karimnagar (65)
  • D.Rangareddy (63)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that when adjusted for population, Hanumakonda reported the highest annual incidence at 79 cases per one lakh population, ahead of Hyderabad (72) and Karimnagar (65). This is a classic data-centric question where examiners test precise recall of numbers.

Source: Telangana Declares Cancer Notifiable Disease: Mandatory Reporting to Map True Burden, Decentralize Care by 2030 →
Q89.

What is the primary policy challenge highlighted by experts regarding Telangana's cancer notification initiative?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Lack of public awareness about cancer screening
  • B.Inadequate funding for the Aarogyasri health insurance scheme
  • C.Identifying more patients will overwhelm an already stretched healthcare system lacking district-level infrastructure✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Resistance from private hospitals to share patient data
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article repeatedly emphasizes that while the registry will provide better data, it will also increase pressure on facilities like MNJ Hospital, which has only one functional radiotherapy machine. Experts argue that without developing comprehensive oncology services (specialists, equipment, palliative care) in peripheral districts, identifying more patients will only expose the system's gaps.

Source: Telangana Declares Cancer Notifiable Disease: Mandatory Reporting to Map True Burden, Decentralize Care by 2030 →
Q90.

Which High Court passed the order granting protection to a couple despite the groom being below the marriageable age?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Punjab and Haryana High Court
  • B.Allahabad High Court✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Supreme Court of India
  • D.Delhi High Court
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The order was issued by Justice Dr Gautam Chowdhary of the Allahabad High Court. The court is based in Uttar Pradesh and has jurisdiction over the state. The other options are different courts not involved in this case.

Source: Allahabad HC: Article 21 Right to Life Overrides Marriage Age; Grants Protection to Couple →
Q91.

Consider the following statements regarding the Allahabad High Court order:

1. The court held that Article 21 of the Constitution stands on a higher pedestal than marriage age laws.

2. The court declared the marriage void under the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006.

3. The protection order will cease if the couple fails to register their marriage within two months.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the court explicitly said Article 21 stands on a higher pedestal. Statement 2 is incorrect: the court did not declare the marriage void; it only granted protection without ruling on validity. Statement 3 is correct: the order stated protection would automatically cease if marriage not registered within two months under U.P. Marriage Registration Rules.

Source: Allahabad HC: Article 21 Right to Life Overrides Marriage Age; Grants Protection to Couple →
Q92.

According to the news article, what is the age of the groom in the couple that sought protection?

EasyUPSC, Banking
  • A.18 years
  • B.19 years
  • C.20 years✓ Correct Answer
  • D.21 years
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the man was aged about 20 years, while the woman was 23. The groom was a major (above 18) but had not attained the marriageable age of 21 under the Hindu Marriage Act. Options 18 and 19 are incorrect; 21 is the legal age but not his actual age.

Source: Allahabad HC: Article 21 Right to Life Overrides Marriage Age; Grants Protection to Couple →
Q93.

What was the primary legal basis for the Allahabad High Court to grant protection to the couple?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To validate the marriage under the Hindu Marriage Act
  • B.To protect the couple's right to life and personal liberty under Article 21✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To enforce the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act strictly
  • D.To punish the woman's father for harassment
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court explicitly stated that the right to life under Article 21 stands on a higher pedestal and must be protected regardless of marriage validity. The court did not validate the marriage or enforce child marriage laws; it only addressed the threat to life. Option D is not mentioned as a primary basis.

Source: Allahabad HC: Article 21 Right to Life Overrides Marriage Age; Grants Protection to Couple →
Q94.

Which Indian research institute conducted the geochemical analysis of the Chandrayaan-3 landing site data?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
  • B.Physical Research Laboratory (PRL)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)
  • D.European Space Agency (ESA)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that scientists at the Physical Research Laboratory (PRL) performed the comprehensive geochemical analysis of the APXS data from the Pragyan rover. ISRO is the parent agency but the specific study was conducted by PRL.

Source: Chandrayaan-3 Landing Site Composition Matches Antarctic Lunar Meteorite ALHA 81005: PRL Study →
Q95.

Consider the following statements regarding the geochemical study of the Chandrayaan-3 landing site:

1. The composition of Shiv Shakti Statio closely resembles the lunar meteorite ALHA 81005 found in Antarctica.

2. The study confirms that the meteorite ALHA 81005 originated from Shiv Shakti Statio.

3. The Alpha Particle X-ray Spectrometer (APXS) onboard the Pragyan rover measured the elemental composition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because ISRO clarified that the findings do not suggest ALHA 81005 originated from Shiv Shakti Statio; they only indicate a similar type of magnesium-rich crust. Statement 3 is correct as APXS was used for elemental measurement.

Source: Chandrayaan-3 Landing Site Composition Matches Antarctic Lunar Meteorite ALHA 81005: PRL Study →
Q96.

In which year was the lunar meteorite ALHA 81005 discovered in Antarctica?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.1972
  • B.1981-82✓ Correct Answer
  • C.1990
  • D.2003
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that ALHA 81005 was found during the 1981-82 Antarctic expedition in the Allan Hills region. The other options are distractors; 1972 is the Apollo 17 mission year, 1990 and 2003 are unrelated.

Source: Chandrayaan-3 Landing Site Composition Matches Antarctic Lunar Meteorite ALHA 81005: PRL Study →
Q97.

What does the geochemical similarity between the Chandrayaan-3 landing site and the meteorite ALHA 81005 primarily indicate?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.The meteorite originated from the same location on the Moon.
  • B.The landing site contains magnesium-rich lunar crust and regolith.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Moon's entire crust is uniform in composition.
  • D.The APXS instrument produced erroneous data.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that both the meteorite and the landing site represent a similar type of magnesium-rich lunar crust and regolith. This indicates the presence of magnesium-rich materials, consistent with the Lunar Magma Ocean hypothesis. Option A is false as per ISRO clarification. Option C is incorrect because the composition is distinct from typical highland regions. Option D is not supported.

Source: Chandrayaan-3 Landing Site Composition Matches Antarctic Lunar Meteorite ALHA 81005: PRL Study →
Q98.

Which constitutional article is cited in the Supreme Court petition concerning the right to education and dummy schools?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 14
  • B.Article 19
  • C.Article 21
  • D.Article 21A✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 21A guarantees free and compulsory education to children aged 6-14 years as a fundamental right. The petition argues that the dummy school-coaching nexus violates this right.

Source: Supreme Court to Hear Plea Against Coaching Raj, Dummy School Nexus Under Article 21A →
Q99.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court petition on coaching raj:

1. The petition was filed by advocate Narendra Kumar Goswami.

2. It demands alignment of JEE, NEET, CLAT, and CUET with state-prescribed school syllabus.

3. The petition alleges that coaching centres confine children for 10-12 hours a day.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the news mentions the petitioner is advocate Narendra Kumar Goswami. Statement 2 is correct as the plea seeks to align national entrance exams with state syllabus. Statement 3 is incorrect; the petition says children are confined for 14-16 hours, not 10-12 hours.

Source: Supreme Court to Hear Plea Against Coaching Raj, Dummy School Nexus Under Article 21A →
Q100.

According to the petition, how many hours per day are children allegedly confined in coaching centres under the dummy school system?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.10-12 hours
  • B.12-14 hours
  • C.14-16 hours✓ Correct Answer
  • D.16-18 hours
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The news explicitly states that the dummy-school nexus confines children to coaching centres for 14–16 hours a day, directly impacting their physical and mental health.

Source: Supreme Court to Hear Plea Against Coaching Raj, Dummy School Nexus Under Article 21A →
Q101.

What is the primary objective of the petition filed in the Supreme Court regarding coaching centres and dummy schools?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To make coaching centres eligible for government subsidies
  • B.To dismantle the unregulated private coaching ecosystem and align exams with school syllabus✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To reduce the number of entrance examinations conducted by NTA
  • D.To increase the duration of school hours to match coaching centre hours
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The petition seeks directions to dismantle the parallel, fee-driven coaching ecosystem and to align testing patterns of national entrance exams with the state-prescribed school syllabus, ensuring equal educational opportunities.

Source: Supreme Court to Hear Plea Against Coaching Raj, Dummy School Nexus Under Article 21A →
Q102.

Which autonomous agency under the Department of Space is responsible for promoting and authorising private sector participation in space activities in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.ISRO
  • B.IN-SPACe✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Antrix Corporation
  • D.NSIL (NewSpace India Limited)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

IN-SPACe (Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre) is the single-window agency under the Department of Space that promotes and authorises private sector participation in space activities. The article mentions IN-SPACe issuing an EOI for LVM3 technology transfer.

Source: ISRO Gears Up for GSLV and PSLV Launches, Private Rocket Vikram-1 Ready; BRICS HOSA 2026 Meet Key Outcomes →
Q103.

Consider the following statements regarding ISRO's recent missions:

1. The PSLV-C62 mission carrying the EOS-N1 satellite failed due to an anomaly in the third stage of the launch vehicle.

2. The PSLV-C61 mission launched in May 2025 successfully placed the EOS-09 satellite in orbit.

3. ISRO has resolved the anomaly in the PSLV after a national expert committee submitted its report.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The PSLV-C62/EOS-N1 mission on Jan 12, 2026 failed due to a third-stage anomaly. Statement 2 is incorrect: The PSLV-C61 mission (May 18, 2025) also failed to complete its trajectory, also due to a third-stage anomaly. Statement 3 is correct: The national expert committee submitted its report and the anomaly has been resolved.

Source: ISRO Gears Up for GSLV and PSLV Launches, Private Rocket Vikram-1 Ready; BRICS HOSA 2026 Meet Key Outcomes →
Q104.

What is the launch window announced for the first test flight of India's first privately developed orbital-class rocket, Vikram-1 (Mission Aagaman)?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.June 12 to July 4, 2026
  • B.July 12 to August 4, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.August 12 to September 4, 2026
  • D.July 1 to July 31, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Skyroot Aerospace announced that the launch window for Vikram-1's first test flight (Mission Aagaman) is between July 12 and August 4, 2026, subject to assembly, testing, weather, and range clearance at Sriharikota.

Source: ISRO Gears Up for GSLV and PSLV Launches, Private Rocket Vikram-1 Ready; BRICS HOSA 2026 Meet Key Outcomes →
Q105.

What is the primary objective of IN-SPACe's Technology Adoption Fund (TAF) scheme mentioned in the news?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To fund foreign space collaborations
  • B.To support Indian industry in absorbing and commercialising advanced space technologies✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To establish new ISRO launch pads
  • D.To fund research in cryogenic engine development
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The TAF scheme is designed to support Indian Non-Governmental Entities (NGEs) in absorbing, adapting, and commercialising advanced space technologies, bridging the gap between research and operational deployment. The article mentions three startups selected under this fund.

Source: ISRO Gears Up for GSLV and PSLV Launches, Private Rocket Vikram-1 Ready; BRICS HOSA 2026 Meet Key Outcomes →
Q106.

Which authority enhanced the remuneration for chairperson and members of CDSE panels as mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Kerala State Electricity Board
  • B.Water Resources Department, Kerala
  • C.National Dam Safety Authority (NDSA)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Central Water Commission
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that in January 2026, the National Dam Safety Authority (NDSA) enhanced the remuneration/sitting fee for the chairperson to ₹7,500/day and members to ₹6,500/day. This is a key fact under the Dam Safety Act institutional framework.

Source: Dam Safety Act 2021: CDSE Deadline Dec 31, 2026; Kerala Slow - Only 12 of 60 Dams Evaluated →
Q107.

Consider the following statements regarding the Comprehensive Dam Safety Evaluation (CDSE):

1. The first CDSE must be completed within five years of the commencement of the Dam Safety Act, 2021, i.e., by December 31, 2026.

2. Kerala has completed CDSE on all its dams under both KSEB and Water Resources departments.

3. The KSEB has added two more expert members to its existing panel to speed up the evaluation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the five-year requirement from the Act's commencement. Statement 2 is false because only 12 of 60 dams (8 by KSEB, 4 by WR dept) have been evaluated. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions KSEB added two more members - an expert on hydraulic/hydrological safety and an expert on structural/earthquake safety. Hence option C is correct.

Source: Dam Safety Act 2021: CDSE Deadline Dec 31, 2026; Kerala Slow - Only 12 of 60 Dams Evaluated →
Q108.

How many dams does the Kerala State Electricity Board (KSEB) own and operate according to the news article?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.22
  • B.38✓ Correct Answer
  • C.60
  • D.8
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Kerala State Electricity Board (KSEB) has 38 dams. The Water Resources department has 22 dams, and total dams in Kerala mentioned are 60. 8 is the number of CDSE completed by KSEB. Careful not to confuse these numbers.

Source: Dam Safety Act 2021: CDSE Deadline Dec 31, 2026; Kerala Slow - Only 12 of 60 Dams Evaluated →
Q109.

What is the primary objective of the Comprehensive Dam Safety Evaluation (CDSE) as described in the article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To assess design, construction, operation, maintenance and performance of dams, including hydrologic, hydraulic, flood control and seismic safety✓ Correct Answer
  • B.To generate revenue through dam tourism and hydropower projects
  • C.To provide employment for engineers and hydrologists in state governments
  • D.To train dam operators in routine inspection procedures
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states the CDSE seeks a review and structural analysis of 'design, construction, operation, maintenance and performance' of dams, along with assessment of hydrologic and hydraulic conditions, flood control aspects and seismic safety. The other options are not mentioned and do not reflect the core purpose of safety evaluation.

Source: Dam Safety Act 2021: CDSE Deadline Dec 31, 2026; Kerala Slow - Only 12 of 60 Dams Evaluated →
Q110.

Which country hosts the annual multinational military exercise 'Khaan Quest'?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.India
  • B.Mongolia✓ Correct Answer
  • C.United States
  • D.China
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Khaan Quest is hosted by Mongolia and was originally a bilateral exercise between the US and Mongolia in 2003, later evolving into a multilateral UN peacekeeping exercise in 2006.

Source: Khaan Quest 2026: 23rd Multinational UN Peacekeeping Exercise Concludes with 18 Nations in Mongolia →
Q111.

Consider the following statements regarding the Khaan Quest 2026 exercise:

1. It was the 23rd edition of the exercise, held at the Five Hills Training Area in Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia.

2. The exercise focused on offensive combat operations under Chapter VI of the UN Charter.

3. The Indian contingent showcased its cultural heritage reflecting the philosophy of 'Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam'.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 23rd edition at Five Hills Training Area. Statement 2 is incorrect – the exercise focused on UN peace support operations under Chapter VII, not Chapter VI (peaceful settlement of disputes). Statement 3 is correct – India displayed a cultural programme embodying 'Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam'.

Source: Khaan Quest 2026: 23rd Multinational UN Peacekeeping Exercise Concludes with 18 Nations in Mongolia →
Q112.

According to the news, how many troops from how many countries participated in Khaan Quest 2026?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.800 troops from 15 countries
  • B.1,000+ troops from 18 countries✓ Correct Answer
  • C.1,200 troops from 20 countries
  • D.900 troops from 16 countries
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'more than 1,000 troops from 18 countries' participated in the exercise. The other options are plausible distractors created from similar exercises.

Source: Khaan Quest 2026: 23rd Multinational UN Peacekeeping Exercise Concludes with 18 Nations in Mongolia →
Q113.

What is the primary operational objective of the Khaan Quest exercise?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To conduct bilateral naval drills in the Pacific Ocean
  • B.To enhance interoperability for United Nations peace support operations✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To develop counter-terrorism tactics in urban warfare
  • D.To simulate artillery coordination between allied forces
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the exercise provides a platform 'to enhance interoperability, strengthen coordination and improve operational readiness for United Nations peace support operations under Chapter VII of the U.N. Charter.' Options A, C, and D are not mentioned and refer to other types of exercises.

Source: Khaan Quest 2026: 23rd Multinational UN Peacekeeping Exercise Concludes with 18 Nations in Mongolia →
Q114.

Which body grants the Acceptance of Necessity (AoN) for capital defence procurements in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Defence Acquisition Council✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Defence Procurement Board
  • C.Ministry of Defence
  • D.Cabinet Committee on Security
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) is the highest body in the Ministry of Defence for granting Acceptance of Necessity (AoN) for all big-ticket capital procurements. The AoN is the first step in the defence procurement process.

Source: DAC Clears Rs 52,000 Cr Defence Proposals: Akash Tarang, MRSAM, VSHORADS, Kamikaze Drones →
Q115.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent DAC meeting:

1. The DAC cleared defence proposals worth approximately Rs 52,000 crore.

2. The 'Akash Tarang' system is a medium-range surface-to-air missile system.

3. The previous DAC meeting in March 2026 cleared the procurement of additional S-400 systems.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: DAC cleared proposals worth Rs 52,000 crore. Statement 2 is incorrect: Akash Tarang is an anti-UAV electronic warfare system, not a surface-to-air missile. Statement 3 is correct: the last DAC meeting in March cleared five additional S-400 systems. Hence option C is correct.

Source: DAC Clears Rs 52,000 Cr Defence Proposals: Akash Tarang, MRSAM, VSHORADS, Kamikaze Drones →
Q116.

What is the approximate total value of defence procurement proposals cleared by the DAC in the recent meeting?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Rs 42,000 crore
  • B.Rs 52,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Rs 62,000 crore
  • D.Rs 72,000 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the DAC cleared acquisition proposals worth approximately Rs 52,000 crore. The other options are close distractors; Rs 42,000 crore is too low, while Rs 62,000 and Rs 72,000 crore are not mentioned.

Source: DAC Clears Rs 52,000 Cr Defence Proposals: Akash Tarang, MRSAM, VSHORADS, Kamikaze Drones →
Q117.

What is the primary purpose of the 'Akash Tarang' system approved by the DAC?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To provide medium-range air defence against aircraft
  • B.To provide effective anti-UAV protection to Army formations✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To serve as a very short range air defence system
  • D.To enhance the electronic warfare capability of tanks
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

According to the Ministry of Defence statement, 'Akash Tarang' will provide effective anti-UAV protection to the Army Formations. It is an Anti-Unmanned Aerial Vehicles Electronic Warfare System, not a missile-based air defence system.

Source: DAC Clears Rs 52,000 Cr Defence Proposals: Akash Tarang, MRSAM, VSHORADS, Kamikaze Drones →
Q118.

Which ministry/department is primarily responsible for negotiating and implementing Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) like the India-New Zealand FTA?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of External Affairs
  • B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Finance
  • D.Ministry of Trade and Commerce
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

In India, the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, through its Department of Commerce, is the nodal agency for negotiating and implementing international trade agreements, including Free Trade Agreements (FTAs). The Ministry of External Affairs handles diplomatic aspects, but trade negotiations fall under Commerce and Industry.

Source: PM Modi's First Official Visit to New Zealand After April 2026 FTA: Focus on Trade and Economy →
Q119.

Consider the following statements regarding the India-New Zealand Free Trade Agreement:

1. The FTA was signed in April 2026.

2. The agreement provides duty-free access for all New Zealand exports to India.

3. Bilateral merchandise trade between India and New Zealand stood at USD 1.3 billion in 2024-25.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the FTA was signed in April 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect because the agreement provides duty-free access for all Indian exports to New Zealand, not the other way around. Statement 3 is correct as bilateral merchandise trade was USD 1.3 billion in 2024-25. Hence option C is correct.

Source: PM Modi's First Official Visit to New Zealand After April 2026 FTA: Focus on Trade and Economy →
Q120.

According to the news, what was the total bilateral trade in goods and services between India and New Zealand in 2024?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.USD 1.3 billion
  • B.USD 2.4 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • C.USD 1.24 billion
  • D.USD 3.6 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that total trade in goods and services reached about USD 2.4 billion in 2024. USD 1.3 billion is the merchandise trade figure for 2024-25, and USD 1.24 billion is the services trade alone. USD 3.6 billion is a distractor figure not mentioned in the article.

Source: PM Modi's First Official Visit to New Zealand After April 2026 FTA: Focus on Trade and Economy →
Q121.

What is the primary strategic objective of PM Modi's first official visit to New Zealand following the FTA?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To finalize a defense cooperation treaty between the two countries
  • B.To boost economic ties, implement the FTA, and explore new areas of cooperation✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To negotiate a separate investment treaty excluding trade
  • D.To resolve a long-standing border dispute with New Zealand
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The visit is the first high-level engagement after the FTA signing and aims to deepen economic relations. The article quotes the NZ PM emphasising trade, jobs, and economic growth. While defense and investment could be on the agenda, the core objective is advancing the trade partnership and exploring broader cooperation. No border dispute exists (distractor).

Source: PM Modi's First Official Visit to New Zealand After April 2026 FTA: Focus on Trade and Economy →
Q122.

Which international organization led the initiative to create a temporary shipping route through Omani waters as an alternative to the closed central channel in the Strait of Hormuz?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.International Maritime Organization (IMO)✓ Correct Answer
  • B.United Nations (UN)
  • C.Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)
  • D.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that an 'International Maritime Organization-led (and US and Oman-backed) plan' sought to create a temporary southern route through Omani waters and a northern route near Iran's Larak island. The IMO is the UN specialized agency responsible for maritime safety and navigation, making it the correct answer.

Source: US-Iran MoU Article 5 on Strait of Hormuz: 60-Day Window, Short-Term Clashes, Long-Term Gulf Reintegration →
Q123.

Consider the following statements regarding the US-Iran Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) on the Strait of Hormuz:

1. The MoU was signed on June 18, 2026, and includes a 60-day period for unconditional passage of commercial ships.

2. Under Article 5 of the MoU, the long-term administration of the Strait of Hormuz is to be determined solely by Iran.

3. The IMF reported that the seven-day moving average of ship crossings in the strait during May-June 2026 was between 6 and 12, compared to 104-115 in the same period the previous year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the MoU was signed on June 18 and provides for unconditional passage for 60 days. Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 5 states the long-term administration is to be determined jointly by Oman and Iran, not solely by Iran. Statement 3 is correct: the IMF data shows a drastic reduction in traffic from 104-115 to 6-12 crossings per day. Hence option C is correct.

Source: US-Iran MoU Article 5 on Strait of Hormuz: 60-Day Window, Short-Term Clashes, Long-Term Gulf Reintegration →
Q124.

According to the IMF, what was the seven-day moving average of ship crossings through the Strait of Hormuz in May-June 2026?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.6-12 per day✓ Correct Answer
  • B.104-115 per day
  • C.50-60 per day
  • D.200-210 per day
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'The IMF’s seven day moving average for May-June in the Strait varied between six and 12 ship crossings.' The other options are distractors: 104-115 was the figure for the same period in the previous year, and 50-60 and 200-210 are not mentioned in the article.

Source: US-Iran MoU Article 5 on Strait of Hormuz: 60-Day Window, Short-Term Clashes, Long-Term Gulf Reintegration →
Q125.

What is the primary reason for Iran’s insistence that commercial ships must coordinate with its authorities before transiting the Strait of Hormuz during the 60-day window?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To enforce environmental regulations and prevent oil spills
  • B.To maintain its leverage and prevent the establishment of new separate shipping arrangements✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To collect mandatory tolls as permitted by UNCLOS Article 26
  • D.To comply with the IMO-led plan for temporary routes
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that Iran’s sensitivities over any attempted new route (however temporary) draw from the Strait of Hormuz’s new value as its main instrument of leverage. Iran does not accept any new or separate arrangements from those currently being pursued. Option A is not mentioned; environmental concerns are not cited. Option C contradicts UNCLOS Article 26 which prohibits flat tolls. Option D is incorrect because Iran rejected the IMO-led plan.

Source: US-Iran MoU Article 5 on Strait of Hormuz: 60-Day Window, Short-Term Clashes, Long-Term Gulf Reintegration →
Q126.

Which legal provision did the Madras High Court rely on to impose a blanket ban on cow slaughter in Tamil Nadu?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 21 of the Constitution
  • B.Section 4 of the Tamil Nadu Animal Preservation Act, 1958✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960
  • D.GO Ms No. 1715 of 1992
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Madras HC invoked Section 4 of the Tamil Nadu Animal Preservation Act, 1958, which permits slaughter only with a certificate showing the animal is over 10 years and unfit for work and breeding. The court used this to justify a total ban, even though the Act itself only regulates slaughter.

Source: Madras HC Imposes Blanket Cow Slaughter Ban; TN Challenges in SC Citing Section 4 of Animal Preservation Act 1958 →
Q127.

Consider the following statements regarding the Madras High Court order on cow slaughter:

1. The original PIL sought a ban on cow slaughter in public places during Bakrid.

2. The HC's order was based entirely on statutory provisions that prohibit all forms of cow slaughter.

3. The Tamil Nadu government argued that the State's Animal Preservation Act only regulates slaughter and does not impose a complete prohibition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The petition was limited to preventing cow slaughter in public places. Statement 2 is incorrect: The HC's order went beyond statutory provisions, imposing a blanket ban even though the Act only regulates. Statement 3 is correct: The state's SLP argued that the Act provides for regulation, not prohibition.

Source: Madras HC Imposes Blanket Cow Slaughter Ban; TN Challenges in SC Citing Section 4 of Animal Preservation Act 1958 →
Q128.

Under Section 4 of the Tamil Nadu Animal Preservation Act, 1958, slaughter of a cow is permitted only if the animal is over what age and is declared unfit for work and breeding?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.7 years
  • B.10 years✓ Correct Answer
  • C.12 years
  • D.15 years
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Section 4 of the Act requires a certificate showing the animal is 'over ten years of age and is unfit for work and breeding' before slaughter can be legally permitted. This is a regulatory condition, not a blanket ban.

Source: Madras HC Imposes Blanket Cow Slaughter Ban; TN Challenges in SC Citing Section 4 of Animal Preservation Act 1958 →
Q129.

What is the primary objection of the Tamil Nadu government to the Madras HC's blanket ban on cow slaughter?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The ban violates fundamental rights of butchers under Article 19(1)(g)
  • B.The ban goes beyond the scope of the petition and contradicts the state's regulatory framework✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The ban will lead to a shortage of meat for the armed forces
  • D.The ban was issued without consulting the Animal Welfare Board
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Tamil Nadu argued that the HC imposed a relief that was 'neither pleaded nor prayed for' and that the state law only provides for regulation through licensing, not a complete prohibition. The government also claimed the order amounts to re-writing the law and violates natural justice.

Source: Madras HC Imposes Blanket Cow Slaughter Ban; TN Challenges in SC Citing Section 4 of Animal Preservation Act 1958 →
Q130.

Which constitutional body recommends the distribution of central tax revenues between the Centre and states?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.NITI Aayog
  • B.Finance Commission✓ Correct Answer
  • C.CAG
  • D.Election Commission
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Finance Commission, established under Article 280 of the Constitution, is responsible for recommending the distribution of central tax revenues between the Centre and states. The White Paper mentions the 16th Finance Commission's devolution to Tamil Nadu.

Source: Tamil Nadu White Paper Flags ₹10 Lakh Cr Debt, Debt-Interest Spiral Ahead of TVK Budget →
Q131.

Consider the following statements regarding Tamil Nadu's fiscal situation as per the White Paper:

1. Tamil Nadu's outstanding liabilities grew at a CAGR of 14.3% over the five post-Covid years.

2. Interest payments in Tamil Nadu are lower than capital expenditure in the 2026-27 Interim Budget.

3. The power sector accounts for 14% of Tamil Nadu's government debts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the White Paper states debt CAGR was 14.3% over the post-Covid period. Statement 2 is incorrect: interest payments exceeded capital outlay by more than ₹19,000 crore. Statement 3 is correct: power sector accounted for 14% (₹1.42 lakh crore) of total debt. Hence option C is correct.

Source: Tamil Nadu White Paper Flags ₹10 Lakh Cr Debt, Debt-Interest Spiral Ahead of TVK Budget →
Q132.

According to the White Paper, what was Tamil Nadu's per capita outstanding debt in 2025-26?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.₹77,569
  • B.₹1.11 lakh
  • C.₹1.29 lakh✓ Correct Answer
  • D.₹70,798
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The White Paper specifically states that Tamil Nadu's per capita debt is ₹1.29 lakh, the highest among major industrialised states. The other options are distractors: ₹77,569 is Maharashtra's per capita debt, ₹1.11 lakh is Karnataka's, and ₹70,798 is Gujarat's.

Source: Tamil Nadu White Paper Flags ₹10 Lakh Cr Debt, Debt-Interest Spiral Ahead of TVK Budget →
Q133.

What is the primary implication of Tamil Nadu's interest payments exceeding its capital expenditure?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Increased state GDP growth
  • B.Reduced ability to create new public assets and infrastructure✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Higher tax collection efficiency
  • D.Improved credit rating for the state
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Capital expenditure is used to create new assets like roads, bridges, and public infrastructure. When interest payments (revenue expenditure) exceed capital outlay, the state's capacity to invest in long-term growth and development is severely constrained, as highlighted in the White Paper.

Source: Tamil Nadu White Paper Flags ₹10 Lakh Cr Debt, Debt-Interest Spiral Ahead of TVK Budget →
Q134.

Which meteorological body is responsible for monitoring and announcing the onset and progress of the southwest monsoon in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
  • B.India Meteorological Department (IMD)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.National Institute of Oceanography (NIO)
  • D.Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, the India Meteorological Department (IMD) announced the arrival of the southwest monsoon in Delhi and other states. IMD is the nodal agency under the Ministry of Earth Sciences for weather and climate monitoring in India.

Source: IMD Southwest Monsoon Arrives Late in Delhi, IOD May Offset El Niño Deficit in 2026 →
Q135.

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD):

1. A positive IOD warms the western Indian Ocean relative to the east, pushing moisture-laden winds toward the Indian subcontinent and boosting rainfall.

2. A negative IOD warms the western Indian Ocean and cools the eastern part, leading to drought in India.

3. In 2019, a late but powerful positive IOD offset a roughly 30% June rainfall deficit over India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: a positive IOD warms the west relative to the east, pushing moisture toward India. Statement 2 is incorrect — a negative IOD reverses the pattern, cooling the west and warming the east, likely causing drier conditions over India. Statement 3 is correct: the 2019 positive IOD compensated for a 30% June rainfall deficit.

Source: IMD Southwest Monsoon Arrives Late in Delhi, IOD May Offset El Niño Deficit in 2026 →
Q136.

What was the nationwide June rainfall shortfall in India for the 2026 monsoon season as reported by the article?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.25%
  • B.30%
  • C.40%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.50%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'This year, India's monsoon season opened in June with a rainfall shortfall of roughly 40% against the nationwide long-period average.' Other options are distractors; 30% was the June 2019 deficit partially offset by a positive IOD.

Source: IMD Southwest Monsoon Arrives Late in Delhi, IOD May Offset El Niño Deficit in 2026 →
Q137.

What is the primary reason meteorologists are hopeful that the Indian Ocean Dipole could rescue India's faltering 2026 monsoon?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.A positive IOD weakens El Niño conditions, directly reducing Pacific warming.
  • B.A positive IOD pushes moisture-laden winds toward the Indian subcontinent, potentially offsetting El Niño's drying effect.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.A negative IOD strengthens the Madden-Julian Oscillation, bringing more rain to central India.
  • D.A positive IOD lowers sea surface temperatures in the Bay of Bengal, triggering more cyclones.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that a positive IOD warms the western Indian Ocean, pushing moisture toward east Africa and the Indian subcontinent, boosting rainfall. This mechanism helped offset El Niño's impact in 1997 and 2019. It does not directly weaken El Niño (option A) or rely on a negative IOD (option C). Option D is not supported by the article.

Source: IMD Southwest Monsoon Arrives Late in Delhi, IOD May Offset El Niño Deficit in 2026 →
Q138.

Which country's Ministry of Foreign Affairs spokesperson made the statement that the 'Free and Open Indo-Pacific' concept 'will never win genuine recognition'?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.India
  • B.Japan
  • C.China✓ Correct Answer
  • D.United States
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The statement was made by Guo Jiakun, spokesperson of China's Ministry of Foreign Affairs, as highlighted in the article. He said the FOIP concept goes against regional countries' shared aspirations for peace, development and cooperation.

Source: China Rejects India-Japan Free Open Indo-Pacific Concept As Against Regional Aspirations →
Q139.

Consider the following statements:

1. India and Japan in their joint statement reiterated 'strong opposition' to unilateral actions that endanger freedom of navigation.

2. China welcomed the India-Japan cooperation on critical minerals as being in the interest of regional stability.

3. India and Japan discussed a new Strategic Outlook for Expanding Cooperation in Africa.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the joint statement. Statement 2 is incorrect - China warned that such cooperation should not be used to create 'small blocs' or stoke confrontation. Statement 3 is correct as both countries discussed the Strategic Outlook for Expanding Japan-India Cooperation in Africa.

Source: China Rejects India-Japan Free Open Indo-Pacific Concept As Against Regional Aspirations →
Q140.

How long was the official India visit of Japanese Prime Minister Sanae Takaichi during which the Free and Open Indo-Pacific discussions took place?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Two days
  • B.Three days✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Four days
  • D.One day
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that Japanese PM Sanae Takaichi wound up her 'three-day India visit' during which New Delhi and Tokyo discussed and advocated a free and open Indo-Pacific.

Source: China Rejects India-Japan Free Open Indo-Pacific Concept As Against Regional Aspirations →
Q141.

What is the primary geopolitical objective behind India and Japan formulating a new 'Strategic Outlook for Expanding Cooperation in Africa'?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To promote tourism and cultural exchange between India, Japan, and Africa
  • B.To counter China's growing economic and strategic influence in Africa✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To establish military bases in African countries along the Indian Ocean
  • D.To replace the African Union with a new regional grouping
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions this initiative 'aimed at countering China's growing footprint in Africa'. While other options may describe some activities, the core strategic purpose is to provide an alternative to China's BRI and influence in the continent.

Source: China Rejects India-Japan Free Open Indo-Pacific Concept As Against Regional Aspirations →

Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?

For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.

  • Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
  • Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
  • Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.

Frequently Asked Questions

What are the important current affairs questions for 3 July 2026?▼

This page contains 141 current affairs questions from 3 July 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.

How to use 3 July 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼

Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.

How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼

Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.

Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼

Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.

What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼

Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.

All Questions in This Set

  1. Q1. body is responsible for issuing the 'Women Farmers Certificate…
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  3. Q3. On which date did the Maharashtra Assembly unanimously pass th…
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  5. Q5. country's prime minister visited India for summit talks in Jul…
  6. Q6. Consider the following statements: 1. Under Trump 2.0, the US…
  7. Q7. According to the article, what did the Pentagon rename the Ind…
  8. Q8. is the primary strategic objective of India-Japan technology c…
  9. Q9. organisation's launchpad is being used by Skyroot Aerospace fo…
  10. Q10. Consider the following statements: 1. Vikram-1 is India's fir…
  11. Q11. is the launch window for Vikram-1's first test flight (Mission…
  12. Q12. is the primary objective of Mission Aagaman?
  13. Q13. Under which Act was the externment order passed against the pe…
  14. Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the Bombay High Co…
  15. Q15. For what period was the petitioner externed under the original…
  16. Q16. was the primary constitutional basis cited by the Bombay High …
  17. Q17. chairs the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC)?
  18. Q18. Consider the following statements: 1. The Defence Acquisition…
  19. Q19. is the total value of defence acquisition proposals approved b…
  20. Q20. is the primary objective of the 'Akash Tarang' system approved…
  21. Q21. ministry is responsible for the Defence Acquisition Council (D…
  22. Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the Defence Acquis…
  23. Q23. was the total value of defence acquisition proposals for which…
  24. Q24. is the primary objective of the approval of the Multi Influenc…
  25. Q25. Indian institute’s Director-General authored the analysis on J…
  26. Q26. Consider the following statements regarding Japan’s defence po…
  27. Q27. many nations are listed in Japan’s new arms export rules for p…
  28. Q28. is the primary geo-strategic reason for Japan’s decision to al…
  29. Q29. of the following is a key component of India's MAHASAGAR initi…
  30. Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the new VPN regula…
  31. Q31. According to the article, which of the following is NOT a Sche…
  32. Q32. is the primary objective of the new Employees' Provident Funds…
  33. Q33. Act was invoked in the FIR alongside POCSO and BNS to penalize…
  34. Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the Allahabad HC j…
  35. Q35. In which year was the victim forced to undergo the second inst…
  36. Q36. is the primary legal principle established by the Allahabad Hi…
  37. Q37. Article of the Constitution of India guarantees the right to a…
  38. Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
  39. Q39. According to the article, how many years had Umar Khalid and S…
  40. Q40. is the primary concern raised by the article regarding the Sup…
  41. Q41. SAMAGRA MP, the citizen-centric social security platform used …
  42. Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the Mandsaur HPV v…
  43. Q43. is the total number of girls targeted for free HPV vaccination…
  44. Q44. was the primary grassroots challenge that the Mandsaur distric…
  45. Q45. international organization released the Preliminary Report of …
  46. Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the UN Preliminary…
  47. Q47. AI models are specifically mentioned in the article as having …
  48. Q48. is the primary challenge that the UN report identifies for cou…
  49. Q49. ministry is primarily responsible for organizing and executing…
  50. Q50. Consider the following statements regarding PM Modi's visit to…
  51. Q51. percentage of tariffs on goods from New Zealand will be elimin…
  52. Q52. is the primary diplomatic significance of PM Modi's visit to N…
  53. Q53. government body issued the 2022 directive requiring VPN provid…
  54. Q54. Consider the following statements: 1. The 2022 Cert-In direct…
  55. Q55. According to the article, how many content blocking orders did…
  56. Q56. is the primary concern prompting the government to tighten VPN…
  57. Q57. action plan has guided the National Capital Region's approach …
  58. Q58. Consider the following statements: 1. The Delhi government wi…
  59. Q59. percentage of in-person staff attendance is mandated for Delhi…
  60. Q60. is the primary advantage of implementing GRAP curbs proactivel…
  61. Q61. ministry is primarily responsible for implementing the Namami …
  62. Q62. Consider the following statements regarding pollution control …
  63. Q63. is the treatment capacity of the Jajmau Common Effluent Treatm…
  64. Q64. is the primary objective of enforcing zero-liquid discharge (Z…
  65. Q65. ministry issued the order exempting four Chinese-linked power …
  66. Q66. Consider the following statements: 1. The exemption allows fo…
  67. Q67. In which month and year did the Union Ministry of Power seek t…
  68. Q68. is the primary strategic rationale behind India's decision to …
  69. Q69. ministry/department is primarily responsible for implementing …
  70. Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the e-OCI card: 1…
  71. Q71. According to the news, how many OCI card holders are expected …
  72. Q72. is the primary objective of introducing the e-OCI card as ment…
  73. Q73. Act was enacted to prohibit the conversion of places of worshi…
  74. Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the Allahabad High…
  75. Q75. many mosques were involved in the road-widening challenge befo…
  76. Q76. was the primary legal argument of the petitioners in the Allah…
  77. Q77. government body is the concession-granting authority for the V…
  78. Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the Adani-MSC Vizh…
  79. Q79. is the total financial commitment of the Kerala government for…
  80. Q80. is the primary concern raised by the Kerala government and opp…
  81. Q81. of the following approvals is NOT required for the proposed st…
  82. Q82. international body launched the 'AI Environmental Transparency…
  83. Q83. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. Goog…
  84. Q84. According to the UN report, how many countries consume less en…
  85. Q85. is the primary environmental challenge highlighted by the news…
  86. Q86. institution has been designated as the State's Centre of Excel…
  87. Q87. Consider the following statements regarding Telangana's cancer…
  88. Q88. According to the Telangana Cancer Atlas (April 2020-September …
  89. Q89. is the primary policy challenge highlighted by experts regardi…
  90. Q90. High Court passed the order granting protection to a couple de…
  91. Q91. Consider the following statements regarding the Allahabad High…
  92. Q92. According to the news article, what is the age of the groom in…
  93. Q93. was the primary legal basis for the Allahabad High Court to gr…
  94. Q94. Indian research institute conducted the geochemical analysis o…
  95. Q95. Consider the following statements regarding the geochemical st…
  96. Q96. In which year was the lunar meteorite ALHA 81005 discovered in…
  97. Q97. does the geochemical similarity between the Chandrayaan-3 land…
  98. Q98. constitutional article is cited in the Supreme Court petition …
  99. Q99. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
  100. Q100. According to the petition, how many hours per day are children…
  101. Q101. is the primary objective of the petition filed in the Supreme …
  102. Q102. autonomous agency under the Department of Space is responsible…
  103. Q103. Consider the following statements regarding ISRO's recent miss…
  104. Q104. is the launch window announced for the first test flight of In…
  105. Q105. is the primary objective of IN-SPACe's Technology Adoption Fun…
  106. Q106. authority enhanced the remuneration for chairperson and member…
  107. Q107. Consider the following statements regarding the Comprehensive …
  108. Q108. many dams does the Kerala State Electricity Board (KSEB) own a…
  109. Q109. is the primary objective of the Comprehensive Dam Safety Evalu…
  110. Q110. country hosts the annual multinational military exercise 'Khaa…
  111. Q111. Consider the following statements regarding the Khaan Quest 20…
  112. Q112. According to the news, how many troops from how many countries…
  113. Q113. is the primary operational objective of the Khaan Quest exercise?
  114. Q114. body grants the Acceptance of Necessity (AoN) for capital defe…
  115. Q115. Consider the following statements regarding the recent DAC mee…
  116. Q116. is the approximate total value of defence procurement proposal…
  117. Q117. is the primary purpose of the 'Akash Tarang' system approved b…
  118. Q118. ministry/department is primarily responsible for negotiating a…
  119. Q119. Consider the following statements regarding the India-New Zeal…
  120. Q120. According to the news, what was the total bilateral trade in g…
  121. Q121. is the primary strategic objective of PM Modi's first official…
  122. Q122. international organization led the initiative to create a temp…
  123. Q123. Consider the following statements regarding the US-Iran Memora…
  124. Q124. According to the IMF, what was the seven-day moving average of…
  125. Q125. is the primary reason for Iran’s insistence that commercial sh…
  126. Q126. legal provision did the Madras High Court rely on to impose a …
  127. Q127. Consider the following statements regarding the Madras High Co…
  128. Q128. Under Section 4 of the Tamil Nadu Animal Preservation Act, 195…
  129. Q129. is the primary objection of the Tamil Nadu government to the M…
  130. Q130. constitutional body recommends the distribution of central tax…
  131. Q131. Consider the following statements regarding Tamil Nadu's fisca…
  132. Q132. According to the White Paper, what was Tamil Nadu's per capita…
  133. Q133. is the primary implication of Tamil Nadu's interest payments e…
  134. Q134. meteorological body is responsible for monitoring and announci…
  135. Q135. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Ocean D…
  136. Q136. was the nationwide June rainfall shortfall in India for the 20…
  137. Q137. is the primary reason meteorologists are hopeful that the Indi…
  138. Q138. country's Ministry of Foreign Affairs spokesperson made the st…
  139. Q139. Consider the following statements: 1. India and Japan in thei…
  140. Q140. long was the official India visit of Japanese Prime Minister S…
  141. Q141. is the primary geopolitical objective behind India and Japan f…