4 July 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

Article 19(1)(g) is the correct provision. Article 19(1)(a) deals with freedom of speech, Article 21 with right to life, and Article 14 with equality. The news specifically refers to Article 19(1)(g) as the basis for the industry's claim.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect – the Court rejected the argument that skill-based games are protected. Statement 2 is correct – the Court used res extra commercium. Statement 3 is correct – the judgment upheld the TN and Karnataka laws.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Supreme Court upheld the Tamil Nadu and Karnataka laws regulating online games played for money. The other options are incorrect as they include states not mentioned in the judgment.

Explanation

The industry argued that once a game involves substantial skill, it acquires constitutional protection as a business under Article 19(1)(g). The Court rejected this, stating that when wagering enters the picture, the nature of the game becomes irrelevant. Options A, C, and D were not the primary arguments mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The Supreme Court directed the Bar Council of India (BCI) to set up a committee to study AI use in litigation. BCI is a statutory body under the Advocates Act, 1961 that regulates legal profession and ethics.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the NCLT order was based on six fake/misquoted judgments. Statement 2 is incorrect: the bank's counsel stated in an affidavit that no judgment was cited by them; the tribunal sourced them through 'own research'. Statement 3 is correct: the Court used the methyl isocyanate analogy. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

According to the article, three of the six judgments (ICICI Bank Ltd v Urban Infrastructure Real Estate Ltd, V S Dempo & Co Ltd v Reliance Communications Ltd, and Sarbjit Singh v Union Bank of India) did not exist. The remaining three were either misquoted or corresponded to different cases.

Explanation

The Supreme Court held that reliance on fabricated case law 'takes away the very lifeblood of judicial determination' and compared it to the invisible and catastrophic release of methyl isocyanate. The core concern is the contamination of the adjudicatory process, not cost, speed, or privacy.

Explanation

The article states that 'the Court has directed the Bar Council of India (BCI) to set up a dedicated committee to formulate strict norms and define disciplinary actions for lawyers who cite unverified AI material.' BCI is the statutory body regulating legal practice in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly uses the analogy. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Court said it was not merely an error but judicial misconduct. Statement 3 is correct as the draft regulations prohibit AI in those core judicial functions.

Explanation

The article states: 'the Supreme Court of India has likened it to methyl isocyanate, the poisonous gas that led to the Bhopal gas tragedy in 1984.' The other options are other toxic gases but not mentioned.

Explanation

The article states the draft 'prohibits AI in the making of judicial outcomes such as the function of adjudication, sentencing, or deciding bail eligibility and evaluating the credibility of parties or witnesses.' Thus it aims to restrict AI from core judicial decision-making.

Explanation

BHASHINI is a Digital India initiative under the Digital India BHASHINI Division, which falls under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). The NLTM is part of the government's digital inclusion framework.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct — the article states 20 million inferences per day and usage in 1.2 lakh panchayats. Statement 2 is incorrect because BHASHINI open-sources all datasets and models via Vatika. Statement 3 is correct — BhashaDaan has four facets: Bolo (speak), Likho (write), Suno (hear), Dekho (see). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'we process almost 20 million inferences a day.' Option D (8 billion) is the total since launch, not daily. Options A and B are distractors not mentioned in the text.

Explanation

The article explains that BhashaDaan collects speech, text, and translations via Bolo, Likho, Suno, Dekho and uses a consensus mechanism to create a golden dataset for model training. It is non-commercial and focused on including everyday language, especially from last-mile communities.

Explanation

The article states that the Competition Commission of India (CCI) imposed a penalty of ₹1,337.76 crore on Google in 2022 for abusing its dominant position across the Android mobile device ecosystem.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as CJEU dismissed Google's appeal and confirmed the €4.1 billion penalty. Statement 2 is incorrect because the original EC fine in 2018 was €4.34 billion, later reduced to €4.1 billion by the General Court. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions Google has racked up €11 billion in EU fines over the last decade.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the CJEU confirmed the penalty of €4.1 billion. The original EC fine was €4.34 billion (option A), the Indian CCI fine is ₹1,337.76 crore (option C), and the total EU fines over a decade are €11 billion (option D).

Explanation

The article says the ruling 'may encourage other firms to pursue litigation in that jurisdiction with a firmer footing'. It does not exceed annual profit (only <3%), does not overturn but upholds the EC decision, and does not set a blanket rule about all exclusive agreements.

Explanation

The MHA is the nodal ministry for internal security and anti-terror laws including UAPA. The notification in this news was issued by the Union Home Ministry. The other ministries do not have direct authority over UAPA designations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the 2019 amendment specifically introduced individual designation under Section 35. Statements 2 and 3 are correct: the amendment allowed individual terrorists to be designated, and such designation triggers asset seizure, financial blockage, and arms embargo by NIA.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the MHA designated 23 Pakistan-based individuals. Options 20, 25, and 27 are distractors; 23 is the exact number from the news.

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, including names in the list allows NIA to block finances, impose an embargo on arms sales, and seize assets. While travel bans may follow, the core objective per the UAPA provision is financial and arms-related disruption. Options A and C are not the primary stated objectives; D is not a UAPA term.

Explanation

The article states that Google appealed to the Luxembourg-based Court of Justice of the European Union, Europe's highest court, which dismissed the appeal, confirming the penalty. The European Commission imposed the original fine, and the General Court reduced it in 2022.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The European Commission imposed a €4.34 billion fine in 2018. Statement 2 is incorrect: The General Court reduced the fine to €4.1 billion, not increased. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions Google has racked up close to €11 billion in EU fines. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the CJEU dismissed Google's appeal, thereby confirming the penalty of €4.1 billion. The original fine was €4.34 billion, but it was reduced to €4.1 billion by the General Court in 2022, and the CJEU upheld that amount.

Explanation

The article states that the DMA is 'aimed at reining in the power of Big Tech'. It imposes obligations on gatekeepers to prevent anti-competitive practices like self-preferencing. Options A, B, and D are not the primary objective of the DMA as per the article.

Explanation

The Union Ministry of Health is the nodal ministry for the Drugs and Cosmetics Act and the Drugs Rules. The amendment was introduced by the Health Ministry, not the Ministry of Science and Technology or Chemicals and Fertilizers.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the amendment brings these products under the CLAA framework. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Health Ministry clarified that the amendment does not amount to automatic approval; manufacturers must still prove safety, quality, and efficacy. Statement 3 is correct as the amendment revises Rules 75, 75A, 76, and 76A and introduces new licensing forms 27D, 27DA, 28D, and 28DA.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that ImmunoACT won approval for NexCAR19, India's first indigenous CAR-T therapy, in 2023. BIRSA-101 is a CRISPR-based gene-editing therapy for sickle cell disease under development by CSIR-IGIB and Serum Institute. The other options are distractors from companies mentioned in the article (Immuneel Therapeutics and Dr. Reddy's Laboratories) but their products are not named.

Explanation

The article states the amendment targets unproven cures and addresses a regulatory grey zone that allowed clinics to market dubious 'stem cell' cures while charging patients large sums. It explicitly notes the amendment does not make therapies cheaper or more accessible immediately, nor does it amount to automatic approval. The framework involves joint Central-State oversight, not a complete transfer of powers.

Explanation

The article states that the Union Home Ministry designated 23 individuals as terrorists under UAPA. The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) is the nodal ministry for internal security and counter-terrorism in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because six of the 23 are Indian nationals now based in Pakistan/PoJK, not all Pakistani. Statement 2 is correct: Hafiz Khalid Waleed is identified as son-in-law of Hafiz Saeed and member of LeT's Central Advisory Committee. Statement 3 is correct: Mohammad Musaddiq (JeM) is accused of recce of Ram Temple, RSS HQ, and IOCL refinery.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'Six of them are Indian nationals, now based in Pakistan or PoJK.' The other options are distractors not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The article mentions that the designated individuals are involved in 'infiltration, recruitment, logistics, financing and operational planning'. The move targets not just top leaders but also launching commanders, recruiters, and financial coordinators, aiming to dismantle the support network of LeT and JeM.

Explanation

Section 2(d)(v) of the Copyright Act, 1957 defines the author of a sound recording as the producer of the cinematograph film. Section 17 further vests first ownership of copyright in the producer. This was reaffirmed in the Delhi HC judgment restraining Ilaiyaraaja from broadcasting the sound recordings owned by Saregama, the producer/assignee.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the judgment stated that Ilaiyaraaja retains copyright over his musical compositions. Statement 2 is false: the court held that the sound recording vests with the producer, not the composer. Statement 3 is correct: the court relied on the 1977 SC judgment (IPRS vs. Eastern Indian Motion Pictures) to determine that the producer can defeat the composer's rights unless an express agreement reserves them.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the order covers an extensive list of 134 films, with examples including Annakkili (1976) and 16 Vayathiniley (1977). The number 134 is a key data point for prelims.

Explanation

The article explains that the Supreme Court in IPRS vs. EIMPA (1977) held that 'the composer can claim a copyright in his work only if there is an express agreement between him and the owner of the cinematograph film reserving his copyright.' The Delhi HC applied this principle, so without such an agreement, the producer owns the sound recording. This forces composers to negotiate contractual protections to retain ownership of recordings.

Explanation

The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is the statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change responsible for implementing Project Tiger and overseeing tiger conservation in India. The Wildlife Institute of India (WII) provides technical and research support but is not the nodal body.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Sariska was the first reserve for tiger reintroduction in 2008. Statement 2 is incorrect because the population increased from 1,411 in 2006 to 3,682 in 2022 (not declined). Statement 3 is correct: the Central Indian and Eastern Ghats landscape has the most reserves needing priority interventions.

Explanation

Three tiger reserves – Kawal, Kamlang, and Dampa – have zero tigers. The article also mentions that 12 tiger reserves have less than 3 tigers, but the specific number with zero tigers is 3. Option D (12) is the number of reserves with less than 3 tigers, not zero.

Explanation

When tigers from high-density source populations disperse to forest edges or agricultural landscapes, they come into conflict with humans and face mortality risks from railways, roadways, and canals. This is the primary challenge mentioned in the article, not poaching or genetic diversity issues.

Explanation

The MHA is the nodal ministry for internal security and counter-terrorism. The power to designate individuals and organizations as terrorists under the UAPA is vested with the central government, which operates through the MHA.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the list now has 80 names. Statement 2 is incorrect: Hafiz Khalid Waleed was the alleged mastermind behind the 2016 Pampore attack, not the 2008 Mumbai attacks. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions Indian nationals like Firdous Ahmad Bhat and Haroon Rashid Ganai who crossed over to Pakistan and joined LeT.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the MHA designated 23 men as terrorists, taking the total to 80. The other options are close distractors not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

Designation under UAPA primarily leads to the freezing of assets, prohibition of financial transactions, and other economic sanctions. While it can lead to prosecution, the immediate and direct legal consequence is the financial strangulation of the individual's network to prevent funding of terror activities.

Explanation

ISRO is India's primary space agency, operating under the Department of Space. The article highlights ISRO's support to private players like Skyroot and its role in providing launch pads and vehicles. While DoS is the parent department, ISRO is the executing agency for space missions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states Vikram-1 is India's first private orbital test flight. Statement 2 is incorrect: Vikram-S was a suborbital launch, not orbital. Statement 3 is correct: the article specifies a 350-kg payload to LEO. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India's space economy is expected to grow from around $8.4 billion now to $44 billion by 2033. The other options are distractors: $8.4B is the current size, $84B and $4.4B are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article notes that 'access to space remains a major bottleneck, with satellite operators often waiting months or even years for a launch opportunity'. Indigenous orbital launch capability directly addresses this bottleneck. While other options may be secondary benefits, the article's core emphasis is on reliable and frequent access to orbit.

Explanation

The article features Union Minister of Civil Aviation Ram Mohan Naidu Kinjarapu, and the UDAN scheme is a flagship program of the Ministry of Civil Aviation, which oversees regional connectivity and airport development.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Cabinet approved approximately ₹29,000 crore. Statement 2 is correct as the scheme includes 200 helipads with ₹3,661 crore. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article specifies the terminal can handle 20 lakh passengers annually, not 50 lakh.

Explanation

The article states the Union Cabinet approved the Modified UDAN Scheme with an outlay of approximately ₹29,000 crore over the next ten years. The other options are components within the scheme.

Explanation

The article emphasizes expanding regional aviation infrastructure through 100 aerodromes and 200 helipads, and providing Viability Gap Funding to sustain regional airline operations, all aimed at improving connectivity to underserved regions.

Explanation

The article states that the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) through its National Centre for Disease Informatics and Research (NCDIR), now called ICMR-NINE, had recommended making cancer a notifiable disease years ago. The other options are not directly cited in the article for this recommendation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: Cancer is NOT a notifiable disease at the national level. Statement 2 is correct: The article mentions 17 states have made it notifiable. Statement 3 is correct: The Global Cancer Observatory projects a 74% increase from 1.41 million (2022) to 2.46 million (2045). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the existing registries cover about 10-16% of the population. The other options are higher and not supported by the article. This is a key data point for exams.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that the lack of data is the heart of the issue, and making cancer notifiable will provide the necessary data for crafting a studied, evidence-based response including health care and IEC (information, education, and communication). The other options are not the primary reason given.

Explanation

The UDAN scheme (including its modified version) falls under the Ministry of Civil Aviation. The article mentions Union Civil Aviation Minister K. Rammohan Naidu, confirming this linkage.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: terminal cost ₹480 crore. Statement 2 is incorrect: the allocation is over 10 years, not 5 years. Statement 3 is correct: the terminal is inspired by Rajasthan's royal heritage with arches and jharokhas.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'With an allocation of ₹28,840 crore over the next 10 years'. ₹480 crore is the cost of the terminal, not the scheme. 23,000 is the area of the terminal in sq.m., not the outlay.

Explanation

The article states the scheme 'aims to accelerate the next phase of aviation-led development'. While construction of terminals and tourism boost are related, the core goal is broader aviation growth. The scheme includes multiple strategic components for sustainable air connectivity.

Explanation

The article states that the seven-year project was prepared by the Environment Department of the Delhi government. The Ministry of Environment is at the central level, NITI Aayog is a policy think tank, and the World Bank is a funding partner, not the preparer.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the project runs from September 2026 to August 2033 (7 years). Statement 2 is incorrect: the World Bank funds 65%, not 35%. Statement 3 is correct: the project rests on two pillars – air quality management and emission reduction. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly mentions that the Delhi government cleared a ₹8,300-crore 'Clean Air, Healthy Delhi' project. The other options are plausible distractors; 6,800 and 7,500 may appear in similar schemes, but 8,300 is the exact figure.

Explanation

The article states that under the first pillar (strengthening air quality management), a dedicated Project Management Unit (PMU) will be set up for implementation. The PMU's role encompasses developing monitoring systems, data analytics, and establishing the ICCC, all aimed at strengthening air quality management. Options A and B are not mentioned, and D belongs to the second pillar.

Explanation

IRDAI is under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Finance, Department of Financial Services. It regulates the insurance sector and reports to the central government through the Ministry of Finance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: intermediaries with commission income exceeding a threshold must make detailed annual disclosures to IRDAI. Statement 2 is correct: the Insurance Act amendment in January 2026 empowers IRDAI to cap commissions. Statement 3 is incorrect: ₹60,800 crore is life insurance commission, not non-life. Non-life commission was ₹47,266 crore. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that for 2024-25, gross commission expenses of public sector general insurers, private general insurers, standalone health insurers and specialised insurers cumulatively amounted to ₹ 47,266 crore for the entire non-life insurance industry. Note that ₹ 9,335 crore is only public sector general insurers, and ₹ 30,498 crore is only private general insurers.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the move is aimed at improving disclosure standards and curbing rampant mis-selling. By requiring intermediaries to publicly disclose commission earnings and related details, regulators and policyholders get a clearer picture, reducing incentive for mis-selling. Options A, B, and D are not supported by the article.

Explanation

Chandigarh is a Union Territory, and all UTs (except Delhi, Puducherry, and J&K) are administered by the President through an Administrator, who is appointed by the central government. The Ministry of Home Affairs oversees the administration of UTs. The article mentions the Punjab Governor is the Administrator, confirming central government control.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the 1966 reorganisation created Punjab and Haryana and made Chandigarh a UT and joint capital. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Accord fixed the date but was never implemented due to militancy and assassination of Sant Longowal. Statement 3 is correct: the Capitol Complex was inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage site.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Himachal CM sought a 7.19 per cent share in Chandigarh, arguing that Himachal, carved out of erstwhile Punjab in 1966, is entitled to it as a successor state.

Explanation

The article highlights that proposals for high-rise development in Manimajra and sectors south of Sector 30 have revived concerns about altering Le Corbusier’s low-rise vision. While population growth is a factor, the direct threat to the original design comes from high-rise projects, and the High Court has intervened to stall infrastructure like the Tribune Chowk flyover.

Explanation

The article states that Union Agriculture Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan warned reporters on June 23, 2026, about the impact of a potential 'super' El Niño on Kharif crops, especially in rainfed regions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions June rainfall was 99.5 mm against a normal of 165.3 mm. Statement 2 is incorrect because the deficit is 39.8% (rounded to 40% in the headline) but the article says 'a fall of 39.8% from normal across all four meteorological subdivisions' — not exactly 40%. Statement 3 is correct because IMD is the source of the data. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'Data from the IMD showed rainfall in June was 99.5 mm against a long-period average of 165.3 mm'. Option A is the actual rainfall, C is the July forecast threshold, D is a distractor. Hence B is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly lists three channels: affecting agricultural output, hitting rural income (denting aggregate demand), and threatening food inflation. It does not mention any export benefit; in fact, supply shortages would likely reduce exportable surplus. Hence option C is not a damage channel described.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'China's Ministry of Natural Resources published in English what it called a legal opinion on Japan-Philippines maritime boundary talks.' This is a key institutional detail for exams.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article mentions 'second time in roughly a month'. Statement 2 is correct: Taiwan's Coast Guard prepositioned two of its own ships. Statement 3 is incorrect: the legal opinion opposed the talks, not supported them. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'as of mid-morning the two Chinese ships were 54 nautical miles east of Taiwan's Hualien'. The other options are close distractors that could appear in exams.

Explanation

The article quotes China's Coast Guard saying it will conduct 'law enforcement patrols' and 'firmly safeguard China's territorial sovereignty and maritime rights and interests'. This is the core objective, distinguishing it from military exercises.

Explanation

The article clearly states that 'The Delhi government has notified a permanent set of winter pollution rules.' Therefore, the Delhi Government is the nodal body for these rules. CAQM handles GRAP, CPCB provides technical guidance, and the Ministry is the overarching central body, but the notification is by the Delhi Government.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the rules apply from November 1 to February 28. Statement 2 is incorrect because only vehicles registered outside Delhi that fall below BS-VI standards are banned; vehicles meeting BS-VI standards, CNG, electric, and emergency services are exempt. Statement 3 is correct: the severe window (Dec 10-Jan 20) imposes an almost total construction halt with limited exceptions.

Explanation

The article mentions that 'A tighter window will take hold between 10 December and 20 January – treated as the severe stretch – when construction and demolition are expected to stop almost entirely.' Option A is the period for the general demolition ban, option C is the overall rule period, and option D is not mentioned.

Explanation

The article states these rules serve as a 'baseline' to tackle 'Delhi’s annual winter blight' (air pollution). They are meant to be automatic each year, not ad-hoc. Option A (congestion) is not the primary goal. Option C is incorrect as GRAP remains separate. Option D is too broad – only non-BS-VI vehicles from outside Delhi are banned, not all diesel vehicles.

Explanation

The article states that the China National Space Administration launched the Tianwen-2 probe in May 2025. JAXA's Hayabusa-2 and NASA's OSIRIS-REx are previous sample return missions, but not this one.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: Kamo'oalewa is a quasi-satellite, not a true moon; it orbits the Sun, not Earth. Statement 2 is correct: the article says it rotates every 28 minutes. Statement 3 is correct: its orbit is expected to remain in lockstep with Earth for a long time.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Kamo'oalewa measures between 30 and 60 metres across. The other options are distractors; for example, 10–30 m is too small, and larger sizes are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article highlights that the sample will resolve the debate about Kamo'oalewa's origin – whether it is a piece of the Moon or an LL chondrite altered by space weathering. Other options are not the primary goal mentioned.

Explanation

The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) is the nodal ministry for internal security and counter-terrorism in India. It issued the notification under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) to designate the 23 operatives as terrorists.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions JeM and LeT operatives. Statement 2 is incorrect because only three of the 23 were linked to the 2016 Nagrota attack, not all. Statement 3 is correct as the notification was issued under UAPA. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Centre notified the designation of 23 Pakistan-based JeM and LeT operatives as terrorists. Options 19, 21, and 25 are close distractors not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

Designation under UAPA is a legal tool to counter terrorism by freezing assets, restricting travel, and criminalizing support for such individuals. It aims to disrupt terror financing, recruitment, and logistics. Extradition and amnesty are not primary objectives of designation.

Explanation

The Supreme Court directed the Bar Council of India, a statutory body under the Advocates Act, 1961, to form a committee to examine the filing of fabricated AI-generated legal material. NCLT and NCLAT were the tribunals whose orders were set aside, not the directed bodies. Gujarat High Court introduced its own policy but was not directed by SC.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The SC set aside NCLT/NCLAT orders due to reliance on fake AI-generated judgments. Statement 2 is incorrect: Experts clearly state AI must remain an assistive tool, not a substitute for human intelligence. Statement 3 is correct: Gujarat HC introduced a policy allowing AI as a controlled administrative/research aid with human oversight. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the Gujarat High Court introduced a policy to regulate AI use in judicial and administrative functions in April 2026. Allahabad HC directed police to implement speech-to-text AI for witness statements. J&K High Court cautioned judicial officers about unverified AI material. The Supreme Court issued the warning but did not introduce a policy.

Explanation

The entire article revolves around the problem of AI-generated fake judgments and who is accountable. While AI can improve efficiency, the main concern is that hallucinations and fabricated citations erode trust and professional ethics. Accountability remains with the advocate or judge, as stressed by experts and the SC.

Explanation

The World Health Organization (WHO) is the specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for international public health. It has the authority to declare a PHEIC under the International Health Regulations (2005), as it did for the Bundibugyo outbreak on May 17, 2026.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The PHEIC was declared on May 17, 2026, not July 2. The EUL listing was announced on July 2. Statement 2 is correct: The test detects the virus by identifying its genetic material in blood samples. Statement 3 is correct: The article explicitly states that no approved vaccines or specific treatments exist for BVD.

Explanation

According to the article, as of July 1, a total of 1,460 confirmed cases (including 452 deaths) were reported from the DRC. Option A (452) is the number of deaths, Option C (20) is the number of cases in Uganda, and Option D (229) is the number of recovered patients.

Explanation

The EUL is a risk-based procedure to assess and list unlicensed health products during emergencies, aiming to expedite their availability. It does not replace all tests, nor is it a permanent approval or a financial mechanism. The goal is to speed up case confirmation and outbreak control.

Explanation

The article clearly states that researchers from ICMR-National Institute for Research on Women's Health (ICMR-NIRWoH), Mumbai, in collaboration with IIT Bombay, developed the platform. ICMR-NIRWoH was formerly ICMR-NIRRCH. IIT Delhi, Kanpur, Madras are not mentioned.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the chip reproduces those four functions. Statement 2 is incorrect – the article emphasizes that unlike many existing systems, this platform is simple, scalable, and compatible with conventional lab workflows. Statement 3 is correct as the journal Biofabrication published the study.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The study, published in the journal Biofabrication'. The other journals are prominent but not mentioned in the news. Biofabrication focuses on organ-on-a-chip and tissue engineering.

Explanation

The article highlights that unlike existing placenta-on-chip systems that require sophisticated microfluidic equipment, this Indian platform is designed to be simple, scalable, and compatible with conventional lab infrastructure, enabling wider adoption. Option A is too absolute; C and D are not claimed.

Explanation

The NTEP, formerly RNTCP, is the central programme under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare for TB control and elimination in India. The article specifically mentions NTEP in the context of childhood TB notification.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: India has ~28% of global childhood TB burden. Statement 2 is incorrect: children account for only about 6% of notified TB cases, not 28%. Statement 3 is correct: young children cannot produce sputum, requiring invasive procedures for diagnosis.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India has an estimated 3.3–3.4 lakh children developing TB each year. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explains that many children do not have the classic cough symptom, and young children cannot produce sputum, requiring invasive tests. This makes diagnosis difficult and leads to delays. Options A, B, and D are factually incorrect based on the article.

Explanation

The news explicitly states that 18 global universities have been approved by the University Grants Commission (UGC) to open campuses in India. UGC is the statutory body for higher education standards.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says Australia is the first country to establish foreign branch campuses in India. Statement 2 is incorrect: only 7 of the 18 are from Australia. Statement 3 is correct: two Australian universities are already operational in GIFT City.

Explanation

The Australian High Commissioner explicitly stated: '18 global universities have been approved by the University Grants Commission (UGC) to open campuses in India.' 7 is the number from Australia, not the total.

Explanation

The High Commissioner said 'Cyber and critical tech continue to be areas where we all need to be investing more... Those are exactly the fields that Australian universities are teaching here on the ground.' The focus is on skill development, not just employment in Australia.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) issued the draft notification. The other ministries are not involved in this specific regulatory action.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the penalty is equal to twice the average carbon credit traded price, not the average price. Statement 3 is incorrect because the draft sets targets only for 2026-27; the 2025-26 column is left blank.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the draft has set emission reduction targets for 255 industrial units, including major companies like JSW Steel, Tata Steel, and SAIL.

Explanation

The article states that the CCTS creates a framework to incentivize emission reduction through a market-based mechanism, where compliant units earn carbon credits and non-compliant units face penalties. This directly aims at reducing GHG emissions in hard-to-abate sectors.

Explanation

The article explicitly refers to 'Isro’s Chandrayaan-3' and 'Isro' in 'Nature'. ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation) is the national space agency of India that conducted the mission.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says the comparison revealed striking similarities. Statement 2 is false: the article states the soil is NOT a single rock type but a mixture from different depths. Statement 3 is correct: the findings were published by Isro in 'Nature'.

Explanation

The article explicitly identifies 'Calcalong Creek meteorite' as the first confirmed lunar meteorite discovered on Earth. The other options are distractors: Allan Hills 81005 is another lunar meteorite but not the first, and Shiv Shakti is the landing site, not a meteorite.

Explanation

The article states that meteorites on Earth have no record of their origin, and this link 'helps scientists connect lunar samples found on Earth with specific regions on the Moon'. Options A and C are not mentioned; D contradicts the successful mission.

Explanation

The article mentions Union Minister for Petroleum and Natural Gas Hardeep Singh Puri, indicating that the ministry oversees oil refineries, LPG pricing, and related policies.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: PM Modi stated LPG production rose to 54,000 MT. Statement 2 is false: prices did not touch ₹2,000; they were kept under ₹950. Statement 3 is correct: excise duty was reduced by ₹10 per litre.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the complex was established with an investment of over ₹79,450 crore. ₹1.06 lakh crore refers to total projects inaugurated, not just the refinery.

Explanation

PM Modi credited India’s diplomacy for expanding imports from 25-26 countries to over 40 countries during the crisis, ensuring that supply was not disrupted. This was the core strategic objective.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the Vizhinjam project is developed under the Design, Build, Finance, Operate and Transfer (DBFOT) model. This is a variant of PPP where the private partner handles design and operation, unlike simple BOT or BOOT.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct – the agreement was signed on August 17, 2015 under the Congress-led government. Statement 2 is correct – the agreement defines transfer of equity of 25% or more as a change in ownership requiring prior approval. Statement 3 is incorrect – arbitration is to be held under the Rules of Arbitration of the International Centre for Alternative Dispute Resolution (ICADR), New Delhi, not the ICC.

Explanation

The article states the share purchase and subscription agreement values the 49% stake at $1.397 billion (approximately Rs 13,000 crore). The other options are close distractors; $1.397 billion is the precise figure mentioned in the SEBI disclosure.

Explanation

The Kerala government fears that MSC, being the world's largest container shipping company, may dominate operations at Vizhinjam, violating the 'common-user' terminal model that mandates non-discriminatory access for all shipping lines. The state intends to protect competition, not national security or revenue.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions the UN Population Fund's 2025 report that placed India's fertility rate at 1.9 children per woman. The World Bank and IMF focus on economic data, while WHO focuses on health. UNFPA is the UN agency dealing with population and reproductive health issues.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India's fertility rate was 2.11 in 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect: the replacement rate is 2.1, not 2.5. Statement 3 is correct: graduate unemployment was 11.2% in 2025, more than three times the national average. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that India's youth unemployment rate climbed to 15.2% by March 2026, up from 13.8% less than a year earlier. Option A (11.2%) is the graduate unemployment rate. Option B (13.8%) was the earlier rate. Option D (16.5%) is not mentioned.

Explanation

The article explains that unlike East Asia, most Indian women do not work for pay outside the home. If careers alone explained falling birth rates, India's fertility decline should have looked very different. This unique structural factor — low female workforce participation combined with high unemployment and institutional distrust — makes India's case distinct.

Explanation

UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization) is the UN agency that designates World Heritage Sites and monitors their conservation. The article repeatedly mentions UNESCO's role in assessing damage to sites like Tyre and Golestan Palace.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: UNESCO's preliminary damage assessment verified 164 sites in Gaza. Statement 2 is correct: the Great Omari Mosque was heavily damaged in December 2023. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article states that Lebanon's minister asked for Tyre to be reclassified, but this request has not yet been granted.

Explanation

The article states: 'UNESCO’s preliminary damage assessment verified damage to 164 sites in the Gaza Strip as of late March 2026.' 149 is the number of historical sites damaged across 20 provinces in Iran, not Gaza.

Explanation

The article mentions that Lebanon's minister asked UNESCO to reclassify Tyre as a World Heritage Site in Danger, implying that such a listing would trigger international attention and assistance. The list is a tool to rally support, not to impose sanctions or provide automatic funding.

Explanation

The article states that CAA is 'under the ministry of fisheries'. In India, the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying is the nodal ministry for fisheries and aquaculture regulation, including the Coastal Aquaculture Authority.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions a budget of Rs 2,300 crore for 10 years. Statement 2 is incorrect: the marine exports target for the Deep Sea Fishing Mission is Rs 5,000 crore, while Rs 15,000 crore is the target for shrimp exports under the white-leg shrimp initiative. Statement 3 is correct: the mission will generate over 50,000 jobs.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the government aims to support 25,000 ha of additional farming area under the white-leg shrimp initiative. The other options are plausible distractors.

Explanation

The article states the initiative aims for 'expansion of shrimp farming, improving productivity, strengthening biosecurity and enhancing farmer livelihoods' and targets increasing exports to Rs 15,000 crore. Option A is more related to the Deep Sea Fishing Mission. Options C and D are not mentioned as primary objectives.

Explanation

The article states that ISRO is developing a solid motor based Sub-Orbital Launch Vehicle for Experiments (SOLVE). This is distinct from operational launch vehicles like GSLV or PSLV.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the tests were performed on July 3 at Sriharikota. Statement 2 is incorrect because parachutes reduce velocity, not increase it. Statement 3 is correct according to the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the Crew Module was separated from the vehicle at an altitude of 10 to 17 km during the tests. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The article states that the parachutes are 'primarily responsible for reducing the velocity of the Crew Module as it descends and splashes down into the sea.' Options A, C, and D describe functions of other systems (engines, fins, antennas).