6 July 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The article states that the retention percentage is likely to be discussed between the services and the Department of Military Affairs (DMA). The DMA, under the Ministry of Defence, handles inter-service policy matters.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the current retention cap is 25% for all services. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Navy is seeking around 75%, not 50%. Statement 3 is correct: the Army plans to increase vacancies to 90,000 next year to fill the 1.8 lakh shortfall.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the Army plans to make up for a shortfall of around 1.8 lakh troops by increasing Agniveer vacancies over the next two years.

Explanation

The article states that the need for more retention is driven by the requirement of a larger pool of trained and experienced soldiers who have participated in operations and are experienced in handling new technologies and weapons.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Indonesia is India's second-largest ASEAN trading partner. The other options are common ASEAN trade partners but not the one highlighted.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article highlights securing nickel for EV batteries. Statement 2 is incorrect: Indonesia possesses cobalt, bauxite, tin, and rare earths, but the article does not claim it is the world's largest producer of cobalt or rare earths. Statement 3 is correct: the visit reciprocates President Prabowo's 2025 visit. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the two governments aim to expand bilateral trade to US$100 billion by 2030. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned.

Explanation

The article emphasizes India's need for secure access to critical minerals, especially nickel, for its transition to electric mobility and clean energy. While reducing trade deficit and countering China are relevant considerations, the core objective is supply chain resilience for energy transition. Option B captures this directly.

Explanation

The article repeatedly refers to FCI's rice stocks and carrying costs. FCI is the nodal agency for procurement, storage, and distribution of food grains under the PDS and buffer stock operations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India produced 154 MMT rice in 2025-26, surpassing China. Statement 2 is incorrect: FCI sells rice to ethanol plants at roughly ₹23/kg, not ₹44/kg (the economic cost). Statement 3 is correct: the article states 4,000 litres of irrigation water per kg of rice. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that in FY25, the carrying cost of the extra buffer stock was ₹10,712 crore. The other options are distractors not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article argues that instead of fixing the underlying issues (MSP bonuses, free power, urea subsidy), the government uses ethanol diversion as a 'second exit valve'. This perpetuates the cycle of overproduction and environmental harm.

Explanation

The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare is responsible for agricultural price policy, including the announcement and implementation of Minimum Support Prices (MSP) based on recommendations from the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because El Niño typically suppresses monsoon rainfall. Statement 2 is correct as the last strong El Niño (2023-24) caused >8.5% food inflation. Statement 3 is incorrect because El Niño can also cause a short and warm winter, negatively impacting rabi crops like wheat and mustard.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the all-India average rainfall in June 2026 was 99.5 mm, making it the fifth-lowest June rainfall after 2014, 2009, 1926, and 1905.

Explanation

The article states that offering MSP for these crops will 'incentivize farmers to cultivate these crops, instead of water-intensive rice, wheat and sugarcane.' This is a supply-side measure aimed at crop diversification and better water management.

Explanation

The article specifically states that the Ministry of Defence will have to metamorphose into a software enterprise and that the 2027 defence budget must reflect the transition. Hence, the Ministry of Defence is the nodal body for these reforms.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions Delta compresses engagement times. Statement 2 is correct as the US used Claude in the Maduro operation. Statement 3 is incorrect because India's target is 5 million drones by 2028, not 8 million (which is Ukraine's 2026 purchase).

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'At least 40% of the Rs 2 lakh-odd crore earmarked for modernisation should be spent on technological solutions.' The other options are close distractors but the correct figure is 40%.

Explanation

The article's concluding line states that successful adoption of these technologies will enable India to attain 'combat overmatch' with Pakistan and 'asymmetric deterrence' with China. The other options are not mentioned or misrepresent the objective.

Explanation

The article states that the LPG Control Order was issued to direct domestic refineries to increase production. The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas is the nodal ministry for oil and gas policy, including LPG supply and regulation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions oil prices came down to $74/barrel by end of June. Statement 2 is incorrect: production increased within seven days, not eight. Statement 3 is correct: revenue forgone was Rs 1.7 lakh crore. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'By the end of June, oil prices had come down to $74 per barrel, the pre-crisis level of early February.' The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article states: 'An LPG control order... directed domestic refineries to increase production.' This was done to compensate for the sudden stoppage of Gulf LPG imports. The other options are not mentioned as objectives.

Explanation

The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) formulates and executes India's foreign policy, including diplomatic visits and strategic partnerships. The 'arc of trust' is a foreign policy initiative, hence MEA is the nodal body.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states 'just under $30 billion a year'. Statement 2 is correct: it 'overtaken trade between India and the United Kingdom'. Statement 3 is incorrect: ECTA was signed in 2022, not 2023.

Explanation

The article mentions 'goods alone, trade between the two nations, at just under $30 billion a year'. Hence $30 billion is the closest figure. The other options are distractors.

Explanation

The article emphasises 'recover autonomy for the powers that reside here' and 'write the rules instead of just inheriting them'. It is not about military alliances or bases, but an indigenous framework for security and development.

Explanation

Article 226 of the Constitution grants High Courts the power to issue writs for enforcement of fundamental rights and for any other purpose. Article 32 provides similar power to the Supreme Court. Article 227 gives High Courts superintendence over subordinate courts, while Article 21 protects the right to life and personal liberty.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Delhi HC held that media performs a public function and can be sued via writ. Statement 2 is correct: the Kaushal Kishor (2023) judgment established horizontal application of fundamental rights. Statement 3 is incorrect: the compensation was Rs 5 lakh, not Rs 10 lakh.

Explanation

The Delhi HC upheld a single-judge order from 2013 directing TV Today Network to pay Rs 5 lakh in compensation for broadcasting details that could identify a minor victim of sexual assault without consent.

Explanation

Experts warned that the judgment could be weaponized by politicians and corporations to file privacy-based writs against newsrooms, leading to a chilling effect on journalism. The court did not equate media with the State; it only held that media performs a public function. The right to privacy is not absolute and can be overridden by public interest.

Explanation

The article states that Mahendragiri was built by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited, Mumbai. MDL is a premier warship builder under the Ministry of Defence.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Mahendragiri is the 6th Project 17A frigate. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Mahendragiri range is in the Eastern Ghats, not Western Ghats. Statement 3 is correct: the frigate uses combined diesel or gas propulsion.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions 'over 75 per cent indigenous content'. This is a key data point for prelims, reflecting the success of indigenisation in defence production.

Explanation

The article stresses that Project 17A exemplifies India's growing expertise in indigenous warship design and construction, with over 75% indigenous content involving MSMEs, generating employment and strengthening the defence industrial base. Other options are not supported by the text.

Explanation

The article states that Indonesian President Prabowo Subianto was invited as the Republic Day chief guest in January 2025, with over 300 Indonesian personnel marching down Rajpath. This is a significant diplomatic gesture reflecting the deepening ties between India and Indonesia.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the CSP was established in 2018. Statement 2 is incorrect: the BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile, not hypersonic. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions the strategic potential of the Andaman-Nicobar-Sabang corridor for joint surveillance of the Malacca Strait. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the current trade figure is $28.15 billion, which falls well short of the estimated $61 billion potential under a revived CECA. The other options are distractors: $61 billion is the potential, not current.

Explanation

The article describes the corridor as a natural opportunity for joint surveillance of traffic in the Malacca Strait, enhancing maritime situational awareness, counter-piracy, and disaster response. It is not primarily about trade, energy, or tourism.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that BIMSTEC was highlighted as a partner organization for Japan to integrate projects like the Matarbari port with India's northeast through an industrial value chain.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states she signed at least 16 agreements. Statement 2 is incorrect because the planned visit to Guwahati was dropped. Statement 3 is correct as they agreed to build naval platforms for maritime domain awareness and surveillance.

Explanation

The article clearly mentions that 'Ms. Takaichi signed at least 16 agreements and documents' during the visit. The other numbers are close distractors.

Explanation

The article states that the commitments to energy cooperation were 'supported by the awareness that to play lead roles in the FOIP, the two sides should cooperate... linked with the problems both sides faced regarding the safety of energy-carrying ships and sailors during the U.S.-Israel war against Iran.'

Explanation

PFRDA is the statutory regulator for NPS and other pension schemes in India. It issued the December 2025 amendments reducing mandatory annuity and introducing RIS.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: mandatory annuity reduced from 40% to 20%. Statement 2 is incorrect: for a corpus of ₹10 lakh (which falls in ₹8-12 lakh range), only up to ₹6 lakh can be withdrawn as lump sum, not the entire ₹10 lakh. Statement 3 is correct: RIS keeps the balance invested and allows periodic withdrawals.

Explanation

With the reduction of mandatory annuity to 20%, subscribers can now withdraw up to 80% of the corpus as lump sum. For smaller corpus (≤₹8 lakh), 100% withdrawal is possible, but for larger corpus the 80:20 split applies. The correct maximum for general rule is 80%.

Explanation

RIS allows subscribers who do not want to take the full lump sum at once to withdraw systematically (SLW or SUR) while the remaining balance stays invested and earns market-linked returns, thereby addressing the need for monthly income without fully exiting the NPS.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the RBI complemented government efforts by maintaining financial stability through forex swap facilities, a scheme for raising foreign currency deposits from NRIs, and rationalising taxes on foreign portfolio investors.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article says India imports nearly 90% of its crude oil. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states that retail fuel prices were managed prudently to moderate inflation, not increased. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions City Gas Distribution expanded from 55 to over 300 areas.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'India’s strong merchandise exports growth of 16% during April-May FY27 is a clear reflection of this.' The other options are distractors not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states that the government's calibrated approach aimed at 'protecting households while maintaining macroeconomic stability.' Options A, C, and D are not supported by the article; instead, the focus was on prudent price management and supply assurance.

Explanation

The Agnipath scheme is a recruitment reform for the Indian Armed Forces, which fall under the Ministry of Defence. The article discusses the armed forces seeking changes to the retention percentage, which is a defence policy matter.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states that lessons from Operation Sindoor highlighted the need for experienced troops. Statement 2 is incorrect because the current retention is 25% per service, not 50%. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions new platforms require extended specialized training. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'the overall percentage agreed upon remains 25 per cent for each service at present.' The other options are close distractors but not supported by the article.

Explanation

The article highlights two main reasons: lessons from Operation Sindoor about the value of experienced troops, and the need for longer training on new platforms acquired after the operation. Option C captures both aspects. The other options are not mentioned as primary reasons.

Explanation

The article states that OAPEC is now a spent cartel, with the UAE having left it. OAPEC (Organization of Arab Petroleum Exporting Countries) is distinct from OPEC, which includes non-Arab members. The IEA (International Energy Agency) is a consumer-side organization, and GCC is a regional political/economic union.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: US flew 10,000 sorties, hit 1,30,000 targets, destroyed 85% of missile manufacturing. Statement 2 is incorrect because Iran used a combination of missile threats, small fast speed boats, and social messaging — asymmetric tactics, not just conventional naval assets. Statement 3 is correct: oil peaked at $126/bbl in April, from $75/bbl pre-conflict.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Strait of Hormuz carries 20% of global oil supplies. The other options are plausible distractors: 10% and 15% are too low, 25% is an overestimate often used in general discussions.

Explanation

The article explicitly recommends that India expand its strategic petroleum reserve capacity from the current ~8 days to at least 30 days, or better still 60 days. Option A is not mentioned; option C is contradicted (OAPEC is weakening); option D is not suggested. This measure directly addresses the vulnerability highlighted by the Hormuz blockade.

Explanation

The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 added Part IX to the Constitution, establishing Panchayati Raj Institutions. Schedule XI lists the 29 subjects devolved, including water management, agriculture, and social forestry as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: revised NDCs include 47% emissions intensity reduction by 2035. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Panchayat Advancement Index 2.0 actually shows functional devolution has declined. Statement 3 is correct: the 16th Finance Commission integrated climate factors for the first time. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: '97 Indian cities featured among the world's top 100 hottest cities in May.' Options 87 and 107 are close distractors; 100 is the total number of hottest cities, not the Indian count.

Explanation

The article's three recommendations start with: 'the NAPCC and State Action Plans should formally bring gram panchayats in as planning partners with defined responsibilities and financial transfers.' The other options are not mentioned or contradict the article's emphasis on local governance.

Explanation

The article states that IARI, under former director A.K. Singh, bred these HT basmati varieties through non-GM mutation breeding. CRRI released different HT varieties (CR Dhan-807, 812) using a different donor line.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: DSR dispenses with puddling and flooding. Statement 2 is incorrect: Imazethapyr is a post-emergence herbicide applied after 18-20 days; Pendimethalin is the pre-emergent herbicide used within 72 hours. Statement 3 is incorrect: normal Pusa-1509/1121 cannot tolerate Imazethapyr; the HT versions are Pusa-1985 and Pusa-1979.

Explanation

A.K. Singh said the area under HT basmati varieties was 10,000 acres in 2025 and is expected to touch 100,000 acres in 2026. The 120,000 acres figure refers to non-basmati HT hybrids from Savannah Seeds.

Explanation

In transplanted rice, standing water acts as a natural herbicide. DSR replaces water with chemical herbicides. HT varieties tolerate Imazethapyr, which kills weeds but not the crop, enabling weed control without flooding. Water saving is a secondary benefit of eliminating puddling and continuous flooding.

Explanation

The article states that the Petroleum and Natural Gas Ministry amended the order and issued the notification regarding gas supply curbs. This ministry is responsible for policy and regulation of the oil and gas sector in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: curbs were imposed in March 2026 during the West Asia crisis. Statement 2 is incorrect: fertilizer plants received up to 70% (not 100%) of their average supply. Statement 3 is correct: the government cited ceasefire and resumed Strait of Hormuz traffic as the reason for lifting curbs.

Explanation

The article quotes Prashant Vasisht of ICRA stating that a little less than 30% of natural gas use goes into making fertilizers. Power plants account for 13% and city gas distribution 21%. The 46% refers to the nitrogen content in urea, not gas consumption.

Explanation

The priority list allocated 100% supply to domestic piped gas and CNG, and reduced supplies to other sectors like fertilizer (70%) and industry (80%) to protect critical needs such as household cooking, transport, and agricultural inputs during the supply disruption caused by the West Asia crisis.

Explanation

The article mentions ISRO conducting the SOLVE ground test and developing the Gaganyaan mission. ISRO is the nodal agency for India's space program including human spaceflight. DRDO handles defence technology, Indian Air Force provided helicopter support for IADT but is not the lead organisation, and NASA is a US agency.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: SOLVE solid stage is derived from PSLV Strap-on Motor with modifications. Statement 2 is incorrect: SOLVE tests will be at altitudes of 10-17 km, while the 3 km altitude refers to Integrated Air Drop Tests (IADT) using a helicopter. Statement 3 is correct: The Crew Module employs 10 parachutes of four types (apex cover, drogue, pilot, main). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that during SOLVE test missions, the Crew Module will be carried to an altitude of 10-17 km and then dropped. Option A (1-3 km) is the altitude for IADT drops. Options B and D are distractors not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states SOLVE is developed to carry out Integrated Parachute Tests for validation of the deceleration system of Gaganyaan's Crew Module under various test conditions. While other options are part of overall Gaganyaan testing, the specific role of SOLVE is parachute system validation. The crew escape system and launch vehicle validation are separate subsystems.

Explanation

As per the UAPA (2019 amendment), the central government, i.e., the Ministry of Home Affairs, has the power to designate individuals as terrorists under Section 35. The Home Minister clears the names after MHA examination.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: UAPA was enacted in 1967. Statement 2 is incorrect: There are 45 terrorist organizations listed in the First Schedule, not 23 (23 are unlawful associations under Section 3). Statement 3 is correct: The 2019 amendment inserted Section 35 for individual designation. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that on July 4, 2026, the MHA designated 23 individuals as terrorists (6 Indians and 17 Pakistanis). The total number of designated terrorists now stands at 80, but the question specifically asks about the number designated on that date.

Explanation

According to the article, Home Minister Amit Shah stated that merely declaring an organization as terrorist will not stop the individuals behind it; they would simply gather under a different name and continue activities. The amendment aimed to address this loophole.

Explanation

The article explicitly defines MAHASAGAR as 'Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security Across the Regions'. It is a key India vision for security and growth in the Indian Ocean region. Option B replaces 'Mutual' with 'Maritime' which is a common distractor.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per PM's departure statement. Statement 2 is incorrect: India and New Zealand signed a Free Trade Agreement, not a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership. Indonesia and Australia have CSPs, not NZ. Statement 3 is correct: PM plans to address Indian diaspora in Indonesia, Australia, and New Zealand.

Explanation

The article states: 'Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Monday (July 6, 2026) said his visit...' and the photo caption confirms he emplaned on July 6. The tour runs from July 6-11. July 5 is not mentioned, July 7 is the start of the Indonesia leg? Actually he arrives in Indonesia on July 6? The article says the tour begins in Indonesia from July 6-8, so departure is July 6.

Explanation

The article quotes PM saying the visit will strengthen Act East Policy, MAHASAGAR Vision, and 'commitment to a free, open and inclusive Indo-Pacific'. While trade and defense are components, the overarching objective is strategic engagement in the Indo-Pacific region. Option D is too specific and not explicitly stated.

Explanation

The article states that the Irula Snake Catchers’ Industrial Co-operative Society in Chengalpattu remains India's principal supplier of venom for licensed manufacturers. The other options are either involved in research (SRI) or not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the polyvalent antivenom targets all four species. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article says the existing antivenom has saved countless lives and should not be interpreted as ineffective. Statement 3 is correct: the 2007 University of Mysore study showed regional differences in cobra venom. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the 'Big Four': Indian cobra, common krait, Russell's viper, and saw-scaled viper. The current antivenom targets exactly these four species. Options 3 and 5 are distractors; the article does not mention a fifth or sixth species.

Explanation

Researchers argue that venom composition varies geographically, so antibodies generated against locally representative venom are more likely to neutralise the toxins responsible for bites in that region. This is the core rationale for region-specific antivenoms as explained in the article. Option A is not mentioned; Option C describes the current polyvalent; Option D is a general statement not specific to region-specific approach.

Explanation

The term 'BIMARU' was coined to refer to Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh – states that lagged on developmental indicators. Odisha, while also a less developed state, was not part of this specific acronym.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Revenue surplus is when revenue receipts > revenue expenditure. Statement 2 is incorrect: A revenue surplus does not automatically mean strong fiscal health, as it may come from under-investment in capital assets. Statement 3 is correct: A state can have a revenue surplus but a fiscal deficit if it spends heavily on capital assets (borrowing for CapEx).

Explanation

The article explicitly states that CM Yogi Adityanath highlighted that the state has become 'revenue surplus in the last six years'. This is the key data point to remember for factual questions.

Explanation

The article's core argument is that the revenue surplus might not be a sign of strength but rather an indication of under-investment in crucial areas like health, education, and infrastructure, which are essential for a developing state's long-term growth.

Explanation

The article explicitly credits CMFRI for compiling the figures used in the government's press release claiming 91.1% of fish stocks are sustainable. CMFRI is the nodal body under ICAR for marine fisheries research.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the CMFRI report. Statement 2 is incorrect: the FAO country profile is far more reserved and warns of overcapacity. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article states CMFRI relies primarily on landing data, not at-sea stock assessments.

Explanation

The article states 'India now has 64,414 mechanised fishing vessels' and notes that numbers are growing with no restrictions on new entries. The other options are plausible distractors.

Explanation

The article explains that mechanised trawlers violate the 5 NM prohibition zone due to poor enforcement, leading to degradation of inshore benthic environment and livelihood loss for small-scale fishers. This has resulted in major conflicts.

Explanation

The court held that compelling the minor to continue the pregnancy would violate her dignity, privacy, and reproductive autonomy, all of which are facets of Article 21. The judgment explicitly relied on Article 21 to permit the termination beyond the statutory limit.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Explanation 2 to Section 3 of the MTP Act creates a statutory presumption of mental trauma for rape victims. Statement 2 is incorrect: The 2021 amendment increased the limit to 24 weeks for certain categories, not 28 weeks for all women. Statement 3 is correct: The court relied on both the MTP presumption and Article 21 to allow the termination. Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

The medical board submitted its report on July 1, 2026, stating that the girl was 28 weeks and 5 days pregnant. This data is directly from the article and is a key fact for prelims questions.

Explanation

Explanation 2 creates a statutory presumption that a pregnancy caused by rape results in grave injury to the mental health of the pregnant woman. This removes the need for the woman to prove mental distress separately, facilitating abortion especially when gestational limits are crossed, as seen in this case.

Explanation

The study was authored by researchers from ICAR-National Dairy Research Institute and other collaborating institutions, as mentioned in the article. The National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources identified heat-tolerance traits but did not lead the study.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: buffaloes have fewer sweat glands and darker skin, making them more vulnerable. Statement 2 is incorrect: the study found that high temperatures (>38°C) in combination with high humidity (>70%) significantly reduce milk yield, not temperature alone. Statement 3 is correct: indigenous breeds have adaptations like loose skin, efficient sweating, and lower metabolic heat. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The study estimates that current heat stress leads to a loss of 3.2 million tonnes of milk, worth ₹2,661 crore. The 15 million tonnes figure is the projected loss by the 2050s. Options A and C are distractors not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that indigenous cattle have more advanced evaporative cooling (efficient sweating), loose skin, and lower metabolic heat production, which help them maintain homeostasis under heat stress. Option A is incorrect; milk yield is comparable. Option C is not mentioned; they are found in the same region. Option D is not a genetic trait.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Delhi government announced the new EV policy. The policy is specific to Delhi, hence the correct nodal body is the Delhi government.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the ban from April 1, 2028. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article does not specify that incentives are limited to scooters; it refers to electric two-wheelers in general. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the concessional tariff is Rs 4.5 per unit.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that a full charge for an electric scooter costs roughly Rs 20 and can last about 100 km. The other options are distractors: Rs 100 is the daily petrol cost, Rs 600 is the monthly EV charging cost, and Rs 1.1 lakh is a three-year cost figure.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that only 55% of prospective EV buyers have access to formal charging infrastructure. Many residents in unauthorized colonies rely on informal connections, which are more expensive. This is identified as a key obstacle, not upfront cost or range.

Explanation

India’s Act East Policy is a foreign policy initiative under the purview of the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA). It deals with diplomatic, strategic, and cultural engagement with ASEAN and East Asian countries.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states it is the first bilateral visit since the 2018 Comprehensive Strategic Partnership. Statement 2 is correct as MAHASAGAR stands for Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security Across the Regions. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article mentions they visited the Prambanan Temple complex, not Borobudur.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the ties were elevated to a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership in 2018. 2014 is the year the Act East Policy was launched, while 2016 and 2020 are not mentioned in this context.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the visit aims to strengthen India’s Act East Policy, MAHASAGAR Vision, and its commitment to a free, open and inclusive Indo-Pacific. While other options may be secondary benefits, the primary objective is strategic engagement in the Indo-Pacific region.

Explanation

The Ministry of Cooperation was established in July 2021 to provide a separate administrative, legal, and policy framework for strengthening the cooperative movement. It is headed by the Union Home Minister, Amit Shah, as per the news article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as Amit Shah announced a cooperative life insurance company on the lines of Bharat Taxi. Statement 2 is incorrect because the expansion target for Bharat Taxi is 500 cities in the next two years, not five years. Statement 3 is correct as 50,000 PACS were transformed into e-PACS as part of digital empowerment.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India has around 8.5 lakh cooperatives with more than 30 crore members. This data point is crucial for prelims and was highlighted during the foundation day event.

Explanation

The article quotes Amit Shah saying the company 'will help in the growth of cooperatives in the insurance sector.' This move is part of the broader vision of 'Sahakar Se Samriddhi' and aims to provide affordable insurance to the vast cooperative network, thereby deepening financial inclusion at the grassroots level.

Explanation

The article states that Hamas announced the dissolution of the body that has governed the Gaza Strip for nearly two decades, and that Mohammed al-Farra submitted his resignation and dissolved the committee. The NCAG is the new body intended to replace it, not the one dissolved. The Palestinian Authority is a separate entity based in the West Bank.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions that the NCAG was created by the Board of Peace that US President Trump established. Statement 2 is incorrect because the announcement was made by Ismail al-Thawabta, head of Hamas' government media office, not by Mohammed al-Farra (who submitted resignation). Statement 3 is correct – the ceasefire was brokered in October 2025. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that Hamas announced the dissolution on Monday, July 6, 2026. The other options are distractors: October 2025 is when the ceasefire was brokered, and the other dates are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the dissolution clears the way for a technocratic committee (NCAG) to implement civilian rule. The option about increasing Hamas control is contradictory as dissolution reduces its direct governance. Merging with West Bank or ending blockade are not stated objectives. Hence B is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Delhi Metro Rail Corporation (DMRC) has urged the Kerala government to entrust the KHSR project to it on a turnkey basis. DMRC previously built the Kochi Metro on a similar turnkey model.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the cost is ₹57,000 crore and the corridor runs from Poojapura (Thiruvananthapuram) to Mundayad (Kannur). Statement 2 is incorrect: the equity ratio is 51:49 (Centre:State), not 50:50. Statement 3 is correct: design speed 200 kmph, operating speed 180 kmph, as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the average construction cost is estimated at ₹127 crore per kilometre. The total project cost is ₹57,000 crore for 473.2 km, which matches this figure.

Explanation

The article states that a major advantage is that it will connect all four airports in Kerala (Thiruvananthapuram, Kochi, Kozhikode, Kannur) while also providing rail access to areas without current railway connectivity. Other options are false: travel time is 3.5 hours, only a 6.5 km underground section, and FIRR is 8.09% (EIRR is 20.01%).

Explanation

The article states that NHPC invited an e-tender for the Chenab-Beas Link Tunnel Project in May 2026. NHPC is the nodal agency for this project.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the IWT was signed on September 19, 1960. Statement 2 is incorrect: India has unrestricted rights to the waters of the eastern rivers (Ravi, Beas, Sutlej), not the western rivers. Statement 3 is incorrect: the Treaty allows India limited non-consumptive use and storage (up to 3.6 MAF) on western rivers but does NOT permit diversion of flows.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the western rivers (Indus, Jhelum, Chenab) allocated to Pakistan have an annual flow of approximately 135 MAF, which is 80% of the total water of the Indus River system. The eastern rivers have ~33 MAF.

Explanation

The article highlights that the project is located in the highest earthquake risk Zone-VI, and drilling and blasting near the existing Atal Tunnel may make the region seismically vulnerable. While the other options are mentioned as concerns (siltation, treaty implications), seismic vulnerability is the primary environmental hazard specific to the tunnel's location.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the India Energy Stack (IES) is an initiative of the Ministry of Power. The other ministries are not involved in this specific digital platform for the power sector.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions 'one of the world's largest synchronous grids at a single national frequency'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article says industry pays 'amongst the highest power tariffs in Asia', not lowest. Statement 3 is correct as per the article: 'reached 50 per cent of installed capacity from non-fossil sources in 2025, five years ahead of target'. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states 'We are now working towards 500 GW of non-fossil power by 2030'. Option A (450 GW) is a previous target mentioned in other contexts, and options C and D are distractors.

Explanation

The article describes IES as 'a shared set of specifications that enables every power-sector system to exchange data securely and verifiably, without custom integrations'. It does not aim to replace utilities, increase tariffs, or privatise distribution; rather it facilitates coordination and efficiency.

Explanation

The Ministry of Cooperation was established on July 6, 2021, taking over cooperative functions that were previously under the Ministry of Agriculture since 1979.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: 35% fertiliser distribution. Statement 2 is incorrect: cooperatives contribute 35% of milk production, not 21%. Statement 3 is incorrect: Bharat Taxi was launched on February 5, 2026, not January.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that cooperatives contribute about 20% of farm credit. The other options are distractors: 35% is fertiliser distribution, 25% is not mentioned, and 15% is too low.

Explanation

According to Shah, the insurance firm will 'significantly advance the cooperative sector in the insurance domain.' The goal is expansion of cooperatives into new areas, not privatisation or replacement of private firms.

Explanation

The article states that scientists at CSIR-NIIST in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala, developed the 'Designer Rice' using food-processing technology. It is not a GM crop and was officially released during a technology transfer ceremony in February 2026.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: DSR directly sows seeds without nursery. Statement 2 is incorrect: DSR saves 15-20% water compared to traditional method. Statement 3 is correct: while DSR reduces methane, aerobic conditions can increase nitrous oxide emissions as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the traditional puddling method requires 3,600 to 4,125 litres of water to grow a single kilo of rice. DSR can reduce this by 15-20%.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that DSR can reduce water use by 15-20%, which is critical for regions like Punjab and Haryana facing groundwater depletion. While labour reduction is a benefit, the primary environmental advantage is water conservation. DSR does not eliminate all emissions (nitrous oxide may increase) and yield effects are not highlighted as the main benefit.

Explanation

The PLFS is conducted by the National Statistics Office (NSO), which operates under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). The Ministry of Labour and Employment deals with labour laws and welfare, but the survey is a statistical exercise under MoSPI.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the gender pay gap is 2% and women earn 98.2% of men's salaries. Statement 2 is incorrect: Mumbai's female LFPR (26.9%) is slightly below the urban national average (27.7%). Statement 3 is correct: 68.3% of women aged 30-59 in Mumbai are NEET, higher than the urban average of 65%. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The PLFS 2025 reports that women engaged in casual labour in Greater Mumbai earn an average of Rs 211 per day. This is far below the urban national average for women (Rs 366) and the average for male casual workers in Mumbai (Rs 712). Options B and C are national averages for women and men respectively, while D is the male Mumbai average.

Explanation

The survey found that 68.4% of women outside the labour force in Mumbai cited childcare and household responsibilities as the main reason for not working. Among men, the most common reasons were health/old age (48%) and continuing education (43.9%). This highlights that structural gender roles and lack of support infrastructure are key barriers to women's workforce participation, not merely job availability.

Explanation

Australia is not a member of ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian Nations). Indonesia is a founding member of ASEAN. The article mentions Indonesia as India's second largest trading partner in the ASEAN region, confirming its membership.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: PM Modi visited Indonesia, Australia, and New Zealand. Statement 2 is correct: India and Indonesia elevated ties to a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership in May 2018. Statement 3 is incorrect: The tour is aimed at strengthening India's 'Act East Policy', not the older 'Look East Policy'.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Indonesia has emerged as India's second largest trading partner in the ASEAN region with bilateral trade of US$ 24.78 billion in 2025-26. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article states that Indonesia dominates the critical minerals sector, commanding 21% of world's nickel reserves and ranking among top producers of copper, bauxite, and tin. These minerals are essential for India's manufacturing (e.g., electronics, batteries) and energy transition (e.g., electric vehicle batteries, renewable energy infrastructure).