8 July 2026, Questions & Answers

188 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.

188 questions  ·  0 topics covered  ·  38 min revision

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This page contains 188 current affairs questions with answers from 8 July 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.

These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.

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8 July 2026, Questions with Answers

188 Qs
Q1.

Which ministry/department is primarily responsible for the formulation and implementation of India's strategic petroleum reserves policy?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of External Affairs
  • D.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas oversees India's crude oil imports, domestic production, refining capacity, and strategic petroleum reserves. The article discusses crude import dependence and the need to build strategic reserves, which falls under this ministry's purview.

Source: India's 2026-27 Growth Outlook: GDP 6.6%, Crude Normalises, Fiscal Deficit 4.3% Target →
Q2.

Consider the following statements regarding India's economic indicators as per the article:

1. India's real GDP growth for 2025-26 was 7.7% as per provisional estimates of the National Statistical Office.

2. The RBI has projected a real GDP growth of 6.6% for 2026-27.

3. The current account deficit in 2025-26 was 1.5% of GDP.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: NSO provisional estimates put GDP growth at 7.7% for 2025-26. Statement 2 is correct: RBI projected 6.6% real GDP growth for 2026-27. Statement 3 is incorrect: The article states the current account deficit was 0.6% of GDP in 2025-26, not 1.5%. The 1.5% figure is the projected CAD for 2026-27 after normalisation of oil prices.

Source: India's 2026-27 Growth Outlook: GDP 6.6%, Crude Normalises, Fiscal Deficit 4.3% Target →
Q3.

According to the article, what was the monthly average price of the Indian crude oil basket in April 2026?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.$86.3 per barrel
  • B.$106.2 per barrel
  • C.$114.5 per barrel✓ Correct Answer
  • D.$98.7 per barrel
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The monthly average price of the Indian crude oil basket was $114.5 per bbl in April 2026.' It declined to $106.2 in May and further to $86.3 as of June 24, 2026. Option A ($86.3) is the June 24 figure, option B ($106.2) is May's average, and option D is not mentioned.

Source: India's 2026-27 Growth Outlook: GDP 6.6%, Crude Normalises, Fiscal Deficit 4.3% Target →
Q4.

What is the primary recommendation of the authors regarding India's energy security in the context of the West Asian crisis?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To immediately reduce all crude oil imports and rely solely on domestic production
  • B.To build strategic reserves of crude and diversify import sources away from the Strait of Hormuz✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To stop all trade with West Asian countries and focus on renewable energy only
  • D.To increase crude oil exports to take advantage of high global prices
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly recommends that India should 'shore up its fertilizer reserves and reserves for other critical primary commodities including crude' and 'further diversify sources of imported crude and also reduce reliance on imports through the Strait of Hormuz.' This is a practical policy response to reduce vulnerability to geopolitical disruptions.

Source: India's 2026-27 Growth Outlook: GDP 6.6%, Crude Normalises, Fiscal Deficit 4.3% Target →
Q5.

Which ministry/department is responsible for publishing the draft amendment to the National Food Security Act?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
  • B.Ministry of Food and Public Distribution✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Consumer Affairs
  • D.Ministry of Rural Development
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Union Food and Public Distribution (F&PD) Department published the draft amendment. This department falls under the Ministry of Food and Public Distribution, which oversees the implementation of NFSA and PDS.

Source: NFSA Amendment Proposes 7 kg Per Capita Foodgrain Entitlement; TN, Kerala Oppose Over Allocation Cuts →
Q6.

Consider the following statements regarding the proposed amendment to the National Food Security Act:

1. The amendment proposes to change the AAY entitlement from 35 kg per household to 7 kg per person per month, with a maximum of 35 kg per household.

2. The amendment aims to address the problem of inclusion of ineligible beneficiaries in the PDS.

3. Kerala and Tamil Nadu have opposed the amendment primarily because their states have larger families, leading to reduced per-capita allocation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the draft amendment details. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article explicitly says the amendment does not address the issue of ineligible beneficiaries. Statement 3 is incorrect because the opposition is due to smaller families in these states, not larger ones. Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Source: NFSA Amendment Proposes 7 kg Per Capita Foodgrain Entitlement; TN, Kerala Oppose Over Allocation Cuts →
Q7.

According to the article, how many AAY cardholders in Tamil Nadu have a family size of less than five members?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.18.64 lakh
  • B.15.75 lakh✓ Correct Answer
  • C.58.51 lakh
  • D.69.27 lakh
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions that the number of AAY cardholders below the family size of five members is 15.75 lakh out of a total of 18.64 lakh. 58.51 lakh is the number of beneficiaries covered by those cardholders, and 69.27 lakh is the total beneficiaries.

Source: NFSA Amendment Proposes 7 kg Per Capita Foodgrain Entitlement; TN, Kerala Oppose Over Allocation Cuts →
Q8.

What is the primary reason cited by Tamil Nadu and Kerala for opposing the proposed amendment to the NFSA?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.The amendment will increase the central government's subsidy burden.
  • B.States with smaller nuclear families will receive reduced foodgrain allocations.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The amendment will remove the Antyodaya Anna Yojana category entirely.
  • D.The amendment does not provide any compensation for the removal of ineligible beneficiaries.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Both Tamil Nadu and Kerala have argued that the per-capita entitlement will disadvantage states with smaller households, as their allocation will drop. The article quotes Kerala's Food Minister stating that families with fewer than five members will be affected, and TN's CM provided data on the sharp reduction in monthly tonnage.

Source: NFSA Amendment Proposes 7 kg Per Capita Foodgrain Entitlement; TN, Kerala Oppose Over Allocation Cuts →
Q9.

Which Act was used to designate the Indian Mujahideen as a terrorist organisation?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA)✓ Correct Answer
  • B.National Security Act (NSA)
  • C.Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (Prevention) Act (TADA)
  • D.Prevention of Terrorism Act (POTA)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Indian Mujahideen was designated a terrorist organisation under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA). The other options are other anti-terror laws but not mentioned in this context.

Source: Gujarat HC Upholds 38 Death Sentences in 2008 Ahmedabad Blasts, Awards ₹10 Lakh Compensation to Victims' Kin →
Q10.

Consider the following statements:

1. The Gujarat High Court upheld death sentences for 38 convicts in the 2008 Ahmedabad serial blasts case.

2. The trial in the case began in 2012, immediately after the blasts.

3. The court ordered compensation of ₹10 lakh to the next of kin of each person killed.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the HC upheld death sentences for 38. Statement 2 is incorrect: the trial began in 2009, not 2012. Statement 3 is correct: compensation of ₹10 lakh for death was ordered. Hence option C is correct.

Source: Gujarat HC Upholds 38 Death Sentences in 2008 Ahmedabad Blasts, Awards ₹10 Lakh Compensation to Victims' Kin →
Q11.

How many people were killed in the 2008 Ahmedabad serial blasts?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.21
  • B.38
  • C.49
  • D.56✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that 56 people were killed in the 21 coordinated bomb blasts. 21 is the number of blasts, 38 is the number of death sentences, and 49 is the total number of convicts. Hence 56 is the correct answer.

Source: Gujarat HC Upholds 38 Death Sentences in 2008 Ahmedabad Blasts, Awards ₹10 Lakh Compensation to Victims' Kin →
Q12.

What is the primary significance of the Gujarat High Court verdict in the 2008 Ahmedabad serial blasts case?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It established a direct link between the blasts and the 26/11 Mumbai attacks.
  • B.It is one of the largest capital punishment verdicts upheld by an Indian court in a single case.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It acquitted all 78 accused due to lack of evidence.
  • D.It set a new precedent for compensation only for fatal injuries.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article highlights that the special court's 2022 verdict awarding death to 38 was the first in Indian judicial history, and the HC upheld it, making it one of the largest. Option A is false (no link to 26/11), C is false (49 convicted, 28 acquitted), D is false (compensation for all injury types).

Source: Gujarat HC Upholds 38 Death Sentences in 2008 Ahmedabad Blasts, Awards ₹10 Lakh Compensation to Victims' Kin →
Q13.

Which article of the Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to hear a Special Leave Petition against a High Court judgment?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 132
  • B.Article 133
  • C.Article 136✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Article 142
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 136 of the Constitution grants the Supreme Court the discretionary power to grant special leave to appeal against any judgment or order of any court or tribunal in India. In this case, the Tamil Nadu government used this provision to challenge the Madras High Court order.

Source: TN Govt Challenges Madras HC Order: Converts to Islam Cannot Claim Backward Class Status →
Q14.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent news on reservation for converts to Islam:

1. The Madras High Court declared the 2024 Tamil Nadu government order unconstitutional.

2. The High Court held that converts to Islam cannot claim backward class status because Islam does not have a caste hierarchy.

3. The Tamil Nadu government filed a Special Leave Petition in the Supreme Court against the High Court order.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Madras High Court declared the 2024 GO unconstitutional. Statement 2 is correct: The court noted that Islam preaches social equality, so converts cannot claim backward status. Statement 3 is correct: The state government has appealed to the Supreme Court via SLP. Hence all three are correct.

Source: TN Govt Challenges Madras HC Order: Converts to Islam Cannot Claim Backward Class Status →
Q15.

In which year did the Tamil Nadu government issue the order that a convert to Islam from Backward Classes, Most Backward Classes, Denotified Communities or Scheduled Castes shall be treated as BC (Muslim) for reservation?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.2022
  • B.2023
  • C.2024✓ Correct Answer
  • D.2025
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the government order was notified in 2024. The High Court struck down this order, and the state government appealed in 2026.

Source: TN Govt Challenges Madras HC Order: Converts to Islam Cannot Claim Backward Class Status →
Q16.

What is the primary constitutional issue raised by the Madras High Court's decision on the 2024 government order?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Whether reservation benefits can be extended to religious minorities
  • B.Whether a convert to Islam can carry forward the caste-based reservation benefits of their previous Hindu caste✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Whether the state government has the power to define backward classes without central approval
  • D.Whether the Supreme Court can interfere with state legislation on reservation
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The High Court ruled that conversion to Islam, which preaches social equality, cannot be used to claim backward status. The core issue is whether reservation benefits survive religious conversion, testing the intersection of secularism, religious freedom, and affirmative action.

Source: TN Govt Challenges Madras HC Order: Converts to Islam Cannot Claim Backward Class Status →
Q17.

Which forum hosted over 150 leading Japanese corporations during the 16th India-Japan Annual Summit?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Quad
  • B.India-Japan Joint Economic Forum✓ Correct Answer
  • C.ASEAN-India Business Summit
  • D.World Economic Forum
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the India-Japan Joint Economic Forum hosted over 150 leading Japanese corporations looking to invest in India. The other options are not mentioned in this context.

Source: India-Japan 16th Annual Summit Yields $12.5B Investment, 129 MoUs for Defence & Tech →
Q18.

Consider the following statements regarding the 16th India-Japan Annual Summit:

1. The summit was held from July 1 to 3, 2026 in Delhi.

2. Japan announced $12.5 billion in fresh investment into infrastructure and manufacturing.

3. The two countries agreed on co-production of Mogami-class stealth frigates and Unified Complex Radio Antenna masts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

All statements are directly supported by the article: the summit dates (July 1-3, 2026), the investment amount ($12.5B), and the defence co-production projects (Mogami-class frigates and radio antenna masts).

Source: India-Japan 16th Annual Summit Yields $12.5B Investment, 129 MoUs for Defence & Tech →
Q19.

What was the total amount of fresh Japanese investment announced during the 16th India-Japan Annual Summit?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.$10 billion
  • B.$12.5 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • C.$15 billion
  • D.$20 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions 'a massive $12.5 billion in fresh Japanese investment' during PM Takaichi's visit. The other options are plausible distractors.

Source: India-Japan 16th Annual Summit Yields $12.5B Investment, 129 MoUs for Defence & Tech →
Q20.

What is the primary objective of the proposed demographic complementarity between India and Japan, as discussed in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To create a joint military command
  • B.To address Japan's labour shortage and India's unemployment through structured talent mobility✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To establish a free trade agreement for agricultural products
  • D.To jointly develop nuclear energy technologies
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article highlights that Japan faces a shrinking labour force while India has many young workers facing unemployment. The solution is structured, multidisciplinary talent acquisition with cultural orientation and institutional support, not short-term migration.

Source: India-Japan 16th Annual Summit Yields $12.5B Investment, 129 MoUs for Defence & Tech →
Q21.

Which country's Parliament Speaker accused the U.S. of violating the MoU?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Israel
  • B.Iran✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Lebanon
  • D.Oman
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Mohammad-Bagher Ghalibaf, Iran's Parliament Speaker and top negotiator, accused the U.S. of violating the MoU. This is directly from the article.

Source: U.S.-Iran June 17 MoU Collapses: Trump Ends Ceasefire, Strikes Resumed Over Strait of Hormuz →
Q22.

Consider the following statements regarding the U.S.-Iran MoU:

1. The MoU was signed on June 17, 2026.

2. The ceasefire covered both Lebanon and Gaza.

3. Iran promised not to make a nuclear bomb.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the MoU was signed on June 17, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect because the ceasefire covers only Lebanon (Article 1), not Gaza. Statement 3 is correct as Iran promised never to make a nuclear bomb. Hence option C is correct.

Source: U.S.-Iran June 17 MoU Collapses: Trump Ends Ceasefire, Strikes Resumed Over Strait of Hormuz →
Q23.

What is the date of the U.S.-Iran MoU mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.June 17, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • B.July 8, 2026
  • C.February 28, 2026
  • D.June 26, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the MoU was signed by the U.S. and Iran on June 17, 2026. The other dates: July 8 is the publication date, February 28 is the date of the Supreme Leader's assassination, and June 26 is when the trilateral framework was announced.

Source: U.S.-Iran June 17 MoU Collapses: Trump Ends Ceasefire, Strikes Resumed Over Strait of Hormuz →
Q24.

What is the primary purpose of Article 5 of the U.S.-Iran MoU?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To establish a ceasefire in Lebanon
  • B.To ensure safe passage of commercial vessels through the Strait of Hormuz✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To lift all sanctions on Iran immediately
  • D.To facilitate nuclear disarmament talks
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 5 of the MoU states that Iran will 'make arrangements' for the 'safe passage of commercial vessels' through the Strait of Hormuz. The other options relate to Article 1 (Lebanon ceasefire) or broader MoU goals.

Source: U.S.-Iran June 17 MoU Collapses: Trump Ends Ceasefire, Strikes Resumed Over Strait of Hormuz →
Q25.

Which ministry releases the data on India's oil imports mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  • C.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Ministry of External Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that price data came from the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas, while overall import data came from the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. The specific price data per barrel is from the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.

Source: Russia’s Share in Indian Oil Imports Crosses 40% in May 2026 with $46/Tonne Premium →
Q26.

Consider the following statements regarding India's oil imports in May 2026:

1. India's total oil imports (in tonnes) were higher than in April 2026.

2. The price of oil imported by India stood at $64 per barrel in May 2026.

3. India imported oil from Iran in April 2026.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: total oil imports in May 2026 were 218.2 tonnes, 12% higher than April. Statement 2 is incorrect: the price was $106 per barrel in May 2026, not $64 (which was the May 2025 price). Statement 3 is correct: India imported $430.5 million worth of oil from Iran in April 2026.

Source: Russia’s Share in Indian Oil Imports Crosses 40% in May 2026 with $46/Tonne Premium →
Q27.

According to the article, what was the premium paid by India per tonne of Russian oil in May 2026?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.$46✓ Correct Answer
  • B.$64
  • C.$106
  • D.$916
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article calculates the premium as $46 per tonne: Russian oil cost $916 per tonne versus the average import price of $870 per tonne. Options $64 (May 2025 barrel price) and $106 (May 2026 barrel price) are distractors. $916 is the actual price of Russian oil per tonne.

Source: Russia’s Share in Indian Oil Imports Crosses 40% in May 2026 with $46/Tonne Premium →
Q28.

Why did Russia start charging a premium on oil exports to India in May 2026, according to the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Because of increased production costs in Russia
  • B.Due to India's dependence on Russian oil and supply disruptions from West Asia war✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Because the US imposed new sanctions on Russia
  • D.Due to a decline in global oil demand
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes Prerna Prabhakar of CSEP stating that the premium is likely due to the dependence of India and China on Russian oil, exacerbated by supply disruptions from the West Asia war that began in end-February 2026. Other options are not mentioned in the article.

Source: Russia’s Share in Indian Oil Imports Crosses 40% in May 2026 with $46/Tonne Premium →
Q29.

Which body is primarily responsible for formally approving the India-EU Free Trade Agreement on the European side?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.European Commission
  • B.Council of the European Union and European Parliament✓ Correct Answer
  • C.European Central Bank
  • D.European Court of Justice
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the FTA must be formally approved by the Council of the European Union and the European Parliament before it enters into force. The European Commission negotiates trade deals but does not have final approval authority.

Source: India-EU FTA to Enter Force by Q1 2027: 99% of Indian Exports Tariff-Free, €500M EU Green Aid →
Q30.

Consider the following statements regarding the India-EU Free Trade Agreement:

1. The FTA was concluded nearly two decades after negotiations began.

2. Under the FTA, India will fully or partially remove tariffs on 99% of EU exports.

3. The EU has committed €500 million over two years to help India reduce greenhouse gas emissions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: negotiations continued for 'almost two decades' (from 2006 to 2026). Statement 2 is incorrect: India will remove tariffs on 97% of EU exports, not 99% (99% refers to EU removing duties on Indian exports). Statement 3 is correct: €500 million over two years for India's greenhouse gas reduction and industrial transformation.

Source: India-EU FTA to Enter Force by Q1 2027: 99% of Indian Exports Tariff-Free, €500M EU Green Aid →
Q31.

According to the EU Ambassador, what is the current volume of two-way trade in goods and services between India and the EU?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Over $100 billion
  • B.Over $150 billion
  • C.Over $180 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Over $200 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'In goods and services together, two-way trade is over 180 billion dollars.' The other options are plausible distractors but not the exact figure mentioned.

Source: India-EU FTA to Enter Force by Q1 2027: 99% of Indian Exports Tariff-Free, €500M EU Green Aid →
Q32.

What is the primary strategic significance of the India-EU FTA as highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To reduce tariffs on agricultural products exclusively
  • B.To build resilient and trusted supply chains and promote rule-based trade over fragmentation✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To replace the World Trade Organization (WTO) as the main trade regulator
  • D.To restrict European investments in Indian manufacturing
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Ambassador emphasized that the FTA represents a choice of 'openness over protectionism, cooperation over fragmentation, and rule-based trade over the unpredictability of one-sided trade arrangements.' It aims to build resilient and trusted supply chains, not just reduce tariffs on agriculture or replace the WTO.

Source: India-EU FTA to Enter Force by Q1 2027: 99% of Indian Exports Tariff-Free, €500M EU Green Aid →
Q33.

Which High Court delivered the judgment that preventive detention cannot be used to defeat bail orders?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Supreme Court of India
  • B.Allahabad High Court✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Delhi High Court
  • D.Madras High Court
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The judgment was delivered by the Allahabad High Court, specifically by a Division Bench of Justices Siddharth and Vivek Saran, as mentioned in the article.

Source: Allahabad HC: Preventive Detention Cannot Be Used to Defeat Bail Orders — Draconian Provision →
Q34.

Consider the following statements:

1. The Allahabad High Court held that preventive detention is a 'draconian' provision that invades personal liberty.

2. The court ruled that preventive detention can be used as an alternative to punitive action.

3. The detention order was set aside because the detaining authority and advisory board failed to pass reasoned orders.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the court called preventive detention a 'draconian' provision. Statement 2 is incorrect: the court explicitly held that preventive detention cannot be used as a substitute for punitive action or to get around bail orders. Statement 3 is correct: the court noted non-application of mind as no reasoned orders were passed by the district magistrate, state, or advisory board.

Source: Allahabad HC: Preventive Detention Cannot Be Used to Defeat Bail Orders — Draconian Provision →
Q35.

On which date did the Allahabad High Court deliver its order regarding the preventive detention case?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.July 6, 2026
  • B.July 7, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.July 8, 2026
  • D.August 20, 2025
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the order was passed on July 7, 2026. August 20, 2025 is the date when the detention order was informed to the man.

Source: Allahabad HC: Preventive Detention Cannot Be Used to Defeat Bail Orders — Draconian Provision →
Q36.

What is the primary significance of this Allahabad High Court judgment?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It expands the scope of preventive detention laws.
  • B.It reinforces that preventive detention cannot be used to nullify bail orders and must be strictly construed.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It upholds the detention order as justified for habitual offenders.
  • D.It limits the power of courts to review preventive detention orders.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court held that preventive detention is a 'drastic measure' and cannot be used as a tool to defeat bail. It emphasized the duty of courts to minutely scrutinize such orders to protect personal liberty.

Source: Allahabad HC: Preventive Detention Cannot Be Used to Defeat Bail Orders — Draconian Provision →
Q37.

Which of the following is the critical maritime chokepoint mentioned in the news that handles about a fifth of global oil and LNG flows?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Strait of Malacca
  • B.Strait of Hormuz✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Suez Canal
  • D.Bab-el-Mandeb
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Strait of Hormuz, between Iran and Oman, is the chokepoint through which about 20% of global oil and LNG transits. The Strait of Malacca is for East Asia, Suez Canal connects Mediterranean to Red Sea, and Bab-el-Mandeb is near Yemen. The article specifically discusses Hormuz tensions.

Source: Strait of Hormuz Tensions: US-Iran Ceasefire at Risk, Oil Prices Surge 6% to $78/barrel; India's Energy Security at Stake →
Q38.

Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Hormuz crisis:

1. India imports 40% of its crude oil requirements through the Strait of Hormuz.

2. The US has revoked its sanctions waiver for Iranian oil, effectively making Iranian crude unpalatable for most countries except China.

3. Every $1 increase in oil prices adds $1 billion to India's oil import bill.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: article says 'Around 40% of India's crude oil imports... came from West Asia through the strait.' Statement 2 is correct: 'The US has also revoked its sanctions waiver for Iranian oil, which would effectively make Tehran's crude unpalatable for most of the world, except for perhaps China.' Statement 3 is incorrect: article says 'every $1-per-barrel increase bumps up the country's oil import bill by up to $2 billion', not $1 billion.

Source: Strait of Hormuz Tensions: US-Iran Ceasefire at Risk, Oil Prices Surge 6% to $78/barrel; India's Energy Security at Stake →
Q39.

According to the article, by what percentage did Brent crude oil prices rise after the recent attacks near the Strait of Hormuz?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.4%
  • B.6%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.8%
  • D.10%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'Brent futures were over $78 per barrel, up nearly 6%.' The other options are distractors; 4% is too low, 8% and 10% are higher than the actual rise.

Source: Strait of Hormuz Tensions: US-Iran Ceasefire at Risk, Oil Prices Surge 6% to $78/barrel; India's Energy Security at Stake →
Q40.

What is the primary risk for India's economy due to the renewed tensions in the Strait of Hormuz, as highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Decrease in foreign exchange reserves due to lower exports
  • B.Widening of current account deficit and higher import bill✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Reduction in strategic petroleum reserves
  • D.Increase in domestic oil production
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that every $1/barrel rise adds $2 billion to the import bill and every 10% oil price increase widens the current account deficit by 0.4% of GDP. It also mentions that India had to import at extremely high rates, prioritizing supply security over price. Options A, C, and D are not supported by the article.

Source: Strait of Hormuz Tensions: US-Iran Ceasefire at Risk, Oil Prices Surge 6% to $78/barrel; India's Energy Security at Stake →
Q41.

Which ministry is primarily responsible for the Employees' Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO)?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of Labour and Employment✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • D.Ministry of Corporate Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

EPFO is a statutory body under the Ministry of Labour and Employment, as explicitly mentioned in the article when referring to Labour and Employment Minister Mansukh Mandaviya. The ministry oversees all EPFO operations including the new portal launch.

Source: EPFO Launches Centralised Portal: Auto Interest Credit of ₹1.44 Lakh Cr to 34 Crore Accounts by July 15 →
Q42.

Consider the following statements regarding EPFO's new portal:

1. The new portal uses a centralised database under the CITES project.

2. Interest on EPF accounts is now credited by October-November each year.

3. Withdrawal categories have been reduced from 13 to 3.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: CITES has enabled a single centralised database. Statement 2 is incorrect: interest credit now happens by July 15, not October-November (which was the old timeline). Statement 3 is correct: withdrawal categories streamlined from 13 to 3 (essential needs, housing, special circumstances). Hence option C is correct.

Source: EPFO Launches Centralised Portal: Auto Interest Credit of ₹1.44 Lakh Cr to 34 Crore Accounts by July 15 →
Q43.

According to the EPFO announcement, what is the total interest amount to be auto-credited to member accounts by July 15?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.₹1.44 crore
  • B.₹1.44 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹1.44 lakh
  • D.₹1.44 thousand crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the annual interest of Rs 1.44 lakh crore will be auto-processed and credited to 34 crore EPF accounts by July 15. The other options are close distractors with different magnitudes (crore vs lakh crore).

Source: EPFO Launches Centralised Portal: Auto Interest Credit of ₹1.44 Lakh Cr to 34 Crore Accounts by July 15 →
Q44.

What is the primary objective of EPFO's new centralised portal under the CITES project?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase the interest rate on EPF deposits
  • B.To reduce claim rejection rates and improve transparency through automation✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To merge EPFO with the Employees' Pension Scheme
  • D.To decentralise operations to regional offices
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article repeatedly highlights that the portal enables automated pre-validation of claims, upfront identification of deficiencies, and SMS/portal communication, which reduces claim rejections and improves first-time acceptance. Interest rate increase is separate (recommended by CBT), not the portal's objective. Decentralisation is opposite of centralisation.

Source: EPFO Launches Centralised Portal: Auto Interest Credit of ₹1.44 Lakh Cr to 34 Crore Accounts by July 15 →
Q45.

Which US military command is primarily responsible for operations in the region that includes the Strait of Hormuz and Iran?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.US Pacific Command
  • B.US Central Command✓ Correct Answer
  • C.US European Command
  • D.US Africa Command
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The US Central Command (CENTCOM) is responsible for US security interests in the Middle East and Central Asia, including Iran and the Strait of Hormuz. The article explicitly mentions CENTCOM as the command that ordered the strikes.

Source: US-Iran Ceasefire Collapses: US Strikes Iran Over Hormuz, Retaliatory Attacks in Bahrain →
Q46.

Consider the following statements regarding the US-Iran conflict:

1. President Trump declared the ceasefire with Iran to be 'over' at the NATO Summit in Ankara.

2. Iran retaliated by striking the US Navy 5th Fleet headquartered in Qatar.

3. The US naval blockade in the Strait of Hormuz was re-imposed after the latest round of hostilities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Trump made the remarks at the NATO Summit in Ankara. Statement 2 is incorrect: Iran struck Bahrain, where the US 5th Fleet is headquartered, not Qatar. Statement 3 is correct: Trump said America would reimpose its naval blockade in the Strait of Hormuz. Hence option C is correct.

Source: US-Iran Ceasefire Collapses: US Strikes Iran Over Hormuz, Retaliatory Attacks in Bahrain →
Q47.

According to the news, approximately how many weeks before the latest conflict had the US and Iran signed a fragile Memorandum of Understanding?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Two weeks
  • B.Three weeks✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Four weeks
  • D.Six weeks
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the MoU was signed 'three weeks ago' before the latest round of fighting. The other options are close distractors not mentioned in the text.

Source: US-Iran Ceasefire Collapses: US Strikes Iran Over Hormuz, Retaliatory Attacks in Bahrain →
Q48.

What is the most significant global economic implication of the conflict in the Strait of Hormuz?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Disruption of transatlantic trade routes through the Mediterranean
  • B.Threat to the global supply of about 20% of the world's oil transit✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Reduction in the number of commercial flights over West Asia
  • D.Increase in piracy in the South China Sea
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Strait of Hormuz is a vital chokepoint through which a large share of the world's oil passes. Any military conflict there threatens global oil prices and energy security. The other options are not directly linked to this waterway's function.

Source: US-Iran Ceasefire Collapses: US Strikes Iran Over Hormuz, Retaliatory Attacks in Bahrain →
Q49.

Which trade agreement between India and Australia provides duty-free access to all Indian exports?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA)
  • B.Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Free Trade Agreement (FTA)
  • D.Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that under ECTA, all Indian exports to Australia now have duty-free access. CEPA is a different agreement with UAE, and FTA/PTA are generic terms not specific to this context.

Source: India-Australia ECTA: $33bn Trade in 2025, $100bn Target, Defence & Energy Cooperation →
Q50.

Consider the following statements regarding India-Australia bilateral relations:

1. The bilateral trade target is set at $100 billion by 2030.

2. Australian uranium exports to India have already commenced.

3. The India-Australia Renewable Energy Partnership includes a Solar Taskforce and a Green Hydrogen Task Force.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article mentions the shared ambition to raise bilateral trade to $100 bn by 2030. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article says 'arrangements for future Australian uranium exports to India might be finalised shortly', not that exports have already commenced. Statement 3 is correct: the India-Australia Renewable Energy Partnership is implemented through a Solar Taskforce and a Green Hydrogen Task Force.

Source: India-Australia ECTA: $33bn Trade in 2025, $100bn Target, Defence & Energy Cooperation →
Q51.

According to the article, what was the bilateral trade value between India and Australia in 2025?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.$23 billion
  • B.$33 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • C.$43 billion
  • D.$53 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'the shared ambition to raise bilateral trade from $33 billion in 2025 towards $100 bn by 2030'. The other options are distractors not mentioned in the article.

Source: India-Australia ECTA: $33bn Trade in 2025, $100bn Target, Defence & Energy Cooperation →
Q52.

What is the primary objective of the India-Australia Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA)?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce tariffs only on Australian exports to India
  • B.To provide duty-free access to all Indian exports and preferential access to 90% of Australian exports✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To establish a free trade area exclusively for services
  • D.To increase defence cooperation through joint exercises
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that under ECTA, all Indian exports to Australia have duty-free access, and preferential access to 90% of Australia's trade value facilitates Australian exports. This is the core trade liberalisation objective of the agreement.

Source: India-Australia ECTA: $33bn Trade in 2025, $100bn Target, Defence & Energy Cooperation →
Q53.

What is the name of the campaign under which the Delhi government will plant 70 lakh saplings across the city?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Har Ghar Tiranga
  • B.Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Green India Mission
  • D.National Afforestation Programme
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that under the 'Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam' campaign, the Delhi government will plant 70 lakh saplings in collaboration with residents. This is a specific campaign launched by Union Home Minister Amit Shah.

Source: Amit Shah Launches 1 Crore Saplings Plantation on Delhi Ridge, Notifies 5,000 Hectares as Reserved Forest →
Q54.

Consider the following statements:

1. The Delhi Ridge will receive 1 crore saplings over four years under the initiative.

2. The entire 6,300 hectares of the Ridge has been declared a reserved forest.

3. Invasive babul trees will be replaced with native species like peepal and banyan.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Amit Shah announced planting 1 crore saplings across 6,300 hectares of the Ridge over four years. Statement 2 is incorrect: only 5,000 hectares were notified as reserved forests, not the entire 6,300 hectares. Statement 3 is correct: the plan includes replacing invasive babul with native species like peepal, banyan, neem, and jamun. Hence option C is correct.

Source: Amit Shah Launches 1 Crore Saplings Plantation on Delhi Ridge, Notifies 5,000 Hectares as Reserved Forest →
Q55.

How many hectares of the Delhi Ridge have been notified as reserved forests?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.6,300 hectares
  • B.5,000 hectares✓ Correct Answer
  • C.1,000 hectares
  • D.70 hectares
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions that over the past year, the Delhi government had provided protection to 5,000 hectares in the Ridge by notifying its areas as reserved forests. The other options are distractors: 6,300 hectares is the total area for rejuvenation, not all reserved.

Source: Amit Shah Launches 1 Crore Saplings Plantation on Delhi Ridge, Notifies 5,000 Hectares as Reserved Forest →
Q56.

What is the primary ecological objective of replacing invasive babul trees with native species in the Delhi Ridge?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase timber production
  • B.To restore biodiversity and ecological balance✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To create more space for recreational activities
  • D.To reduce the risk of forest fires
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the plan aims to revive the Ridge's biodiversity, soil, water, and environment. Replacing invasive babul with native species like peepal and banyan helps restore the natural ecosystem, which is the core ecological objective. Other options are secondary or not mentioned.

Source: Amit Shah Launches 1 Crore Saplings Plantation on Delhi Ridge, Notifies 5,000 Hectares as Reserved Forest →
Q57.

Which Act established the All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.AICTE Act, 1987✓ Correct Answer
  • B.UGC Act, 1956
  • C.NBA Act, 1994
  • D.Washington Accord, 1989
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that AICTE is India's apex statutory regulator for technical education under the AICTE Act, 1987. This is a static fact about the establishment of AICTE.

Source: AICTE Places 58 Engineering Colleges Under Progressive Closure, Discontinues 950+ Courses in 2025-26 →
Q58.

Consider the following statements:

1. AICTE placed 58 engineering colleges under progressive closure in 2025-26.

2. AICTE approval is a one-time licence for institutions.

3. NBA accreditation is outcome-based and aligned with the Washington Accord.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article mentions AICTE placed 58 engineering colleges under progressive closure in 2025-26. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article explicitly says AICTE approval is 'not a one-time licence but a continuous regulatory process'. Statement 3 is correct: NBA introduced outcome-based accreditation aligned with the Washington Accord. Hence option C is correct.

Source: AICTE Places 58 Engineering Colleges Under Progressive Closure, Discontinues 950+ Courses in 2025-26 →
Q59.

How many engineering colleges were placed under progressive closure by AICTE during 2025-26?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.58✓ Correct Answer
  • B.95
  • C.150
  • D.950
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically states that 'AICTE's decision during 2025-26 to place 58 engineering colleges under progressive closure'. Option D (950) is the number of courses discontinued, not colleges. Options B and C are close distractors not mentioned in the article.

Source: AICTE Places 58 Engineering Colleges Under Progressive Closure, Discontinues 950+ Courses in 2025-26 →
Q60.

What is the primary reason for the progressive closure of engineering colleges, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Lack of NBA accreditation
  • B.Persistently low admissions and non-compliance with prescribed norms✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Government policy to reduce total engineering seats
  • D.Shift to online education after COVID-19
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that progressive closure is 'typically invoked for persistently low admissions, failure to recruit and retain qualified faculty, or continued non-compliance with prescribed academic, infrastructure, and operational norms'. Option A is incorrect because NBA accreditation was not a requirement for intake expansion after COVID-19. Options C and D are not mentioned as primary reasons.

Source: AICTE Places 58 Engineering Colleges Under Progressive Closure, Discontinues 950+ Courses in 2025-26 →
Q61.

Which body published the working paper that studied unconditional women cash transfer programmes in Maharashtra and Odisha?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.NITI Aayog
  • B.Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
  • D.Ministry of Women and Child Development
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions a study titled 'Unconditional Women Cash Transfer Programmes in India' from the EAC-PM Working Paper Series. NITI Aayog, RBI, and the Ministry of Women and Child Development are different bodies.

Source: 12 States Spend ₹1.68 Lakh Cr on Unconditional Cash Transfers to Women in FY26 →
Q62.

Consider the following statements:

1. In 2025-26, 12 states were estimated to spend ₹1.68 lakh crore on unconditional cash transfers.

2. The MGNREGA allocation for 2025-26 was ₹86,000 crore, which is higher than the total cash transfer spending.

3. The consolidated debt of states fell from 31% in March 2021 to 29.2% in 2026 (budget estimates).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct — the PRS report mentions ₹1.68 lakh crore spending. Statement 2 is incorrect because MGNREGA allocation (₹86,000 crore) is lower than cash transfer spending (₹1.68 lakh crore). Statement 3 is correct — consolidated state debt fell from 31% to 29.2% as per budget estimates. Hence option C is correct.

Source: 12 States Spend ₹1.68 Lakh Cr on Unconditional Cash Transfers to Women in FY26 →
Q63.

According to the article, what is the debt burden of Punjab as a percentage of its GSDP?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.38.9%
  • B.46.4%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.36.8%
  • D.29.2%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states Punjab has a debt burden of 46.4% of GSDP. West Bengal is 38.9%, Bihar is 36.8%, and the consolidated state debt average is 29.2%. The other options are close distractors from the same data set.

Source: 12 States Spend ₹1.68 Lakh Cr on Unconditional Cash Transfers to Women in FY26 →
Q64.

What is the primary concern raised by the RBI regarding the rapid expansion of unconditional cash transfer schemes by states?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.They lead to inflation due to increased money supply
  • B.They crowd out capital investments and worsen state fiscal health✓ Correct Answer
  • C.They create dependency among beneficiaries
  • D.They violate the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly quotes the RBI saying these schemes 'run the risk of crowding out' investments and that high debt levels and contingent liabilities pose risks to state finances. While other concerns may exist, the RBI's specific warning was about fiscal sustainability and capital expenditure crowding out.

Source: 12 States Spend ₹1.68 Lakh Cr on Unconditional Cash Transfers to Women in FY26 →
Q65.

Which institution released the Financial Stability Report that highlighted the surge in gold loans?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Reserve Bank of India✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Securities and Exchange Board of India
  • C.Ministry of Finance
  • D.National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions that the RBI noted in its Financial Stability Report the rapid growth in gold loans. The RBI is the central bank and regulator of the financial system, responsible for publishing the FSR biannually.

Source: Gold Loans Surge 105% for Banks, 70% for NBFCs as Prices Rise; RBI Flags Volatility Risk →
Q66.

Consider the following statements:

1. As of May 2026, banks' gold loans grew by 105% year-on-year.

2. The share of gold loans in non-banks' total loans doubled from 3% in May 2024 to 6% in May 2026.

3. The RBI stated that a prolonged correction in gold prices could strengthen collateral protection.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: banks' gold loans grew 105% YoY as of May 2026. Statement 2 is correct: non-banks' gold loan share increased from 3% (May 2024) to 6% (May 2026). Statement 3 is incorrect: the RBI warned that a prolonged correction could weaken collateral protection, not strengthen it.

Source: Gold Loans Surge 105% for Banks, 70% for NBFCs as Prices Rise; RBI Flags Volatility Risk →
Q67.

According to the article, what was the year-on-year growth rate of gold loans for non-banking financial companies (NBFCs) as of the end of May 2026?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.70%✓ Correct Answer
  • B.105%
  • C.18%
  • D.14%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'loans given by non-banks against gold jewellery were up a massive 70% year-on-year as at the end of May.' The 105% figure is for banks, 18% is overall bank credit growth, and 14% is non-banks' total loan growth.

Source: Gold Loans Surge 105% for Banks, 70% for NBFCs as Prices Rise; RBI Flags Volatility Risk →
Q68.

What is the primary risk highlighted by the RBI regarding the rapid growth in gold loans?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Increase in personal loan defaults
  • B.Weakening of collateral protection if gold prices fall✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Decline in gold imports
  • D.Rise in unsecured lending
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The RBI's Financial Stability Report stated: 'A prolonged correction in gold prices could weaken collateral protection, increase borrower stress, and result in higher delinquencies.' This is the core risk associated with gold loan growth when prices are volatile.

Source: Gold Loans Surge 105% for Banks, 70% for NBFCs as Prices Rise; RBI Flags Volatility Risk →
Q69.

Which Indian agency led the Indian delegation at the BRICS Heads of Anti-Drug Agencies meeting?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
  • B.Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Intelligence Bureau (IB)
  • D.Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) Director-General Anurag Garg led the Indian delegation. NCB is India's central agency for combating drug trafficking under the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Source: BRICS Adopts Guwahati Declaration on Anti-Drug Cooperation Under India’s Chairmanship →
Q70.

Consider the following statements regarding the Guwahati Declaration:

1. The declaration was adopted at the BRICS Heads of Anti-Drug Agencies meeting held in Guwahati, Assam, under India's BRICS chairmanship.

2. The declaration focuses solely on economic cooperation and trade among BRICS nations.

3. India proposed the establishment of a BRICS Virtual Working Group for anti-drug cooperation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the declaration was adopted on July 7, 2026, in Guwahati under India's chairmanship. Statement 2 is incorrect as the declaration focuses on anti-drug trafficking cooperation, not economic or trade issues. Statement 3 is correct as India specifically proposed a BRICS Virtual Working Group during the meeting.

Source: BRICS Adopts Guwahati Declaration on Anti-Drug Cooperation Under India’s Chairmanship →
Q71.

On which date was the Guwahati Declaration adopted by the BRICS nations?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.June 26, 2026
  • B.July 6, 2026
  • C.July 7, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • D.July 8, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Guwahati Declaration was adopted at the conclusion of the two-day BRICS Heads of Anti-Drug Agencies meeting on July 7, 2026. June 26 is the date India released its Vision Document on Drug Control, not the declaration date.

Source: BRICS Adopts Guwahati Declaration on Anti-Drug Cooperation Under India’s Chairmanship →
Q72.

What is the primary objective of the Guwahati Declaration adopted by BRICS nations?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To promote free trade and reduce tariffs among BRICS nations
  • B.To coordinate efforts to prevent and combat illicit drug trafficking✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To establish a common currency for BRICS member countries
  • D.To resolve border disputes among BRICS member nations
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The declaration reaffirms BRICS commitment to coordinated efforts against illicit drug trafficking, focusing on synthetic drugs, New Psychoactive Substances, and misuse of digital and maritime routes by transnational syndicates. The other options are common distractors not supported by the article.

Source: BRICS Adopts Guwahati Declaration on Anti-Drug Cooperation Under India’s Chairmanship →
Q73.

Which country reversed the name of its Indo-Pacific Command back to Pacific Command in June 2026?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.India
  • B.Japan
  • C.Australia
  • D.United States of America✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Pentagon reversed the 2018 renaming of U.S. Pacific Command to U.S. Indo-Pacific Command, changing it back to Pacific Command on June 16, 2026, under the current U.S. administration.

Source: Quad Future Under Scanner: US Renames Pacific Command, 23/37 Initiatives Security-Focused →
Q74.

Consider the following statements regarding the Quad:

1. The Quad originated from the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QSD) in 2004.

2. The Quad has formalised 2+2 ministerial meetings at the grouping level.

3. The U.S. National Security Strategy 2025 prioritises the Western Hemisphere over the Indo-Pacific.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Quad's origins trace to the QSD in 2004. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Quad does not hold 2+2 meetings; only bilateral 2+2s exist between member countries. Statement 3 is correct: the article states the U.S. National Security Strategy 2025 prioritises the Western Hemisphere and mentions the Quad only in passing. Hence option C is correct.

Source: Quad Future Under Scanner: US Renames Pacific Command, 23/37 Initiatives Security-Focused →
Q75.

On which date did the Pentagon rename the U.S. Indo-Pacific Command back to the U.S. Pacific Command?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.June 16, 2025
  • B.June 16, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.July 8, 2026
  • D.May 26, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'On June 16, the Pentagon renamed the U.S. Indo-Pacific Command back to the U.S. Pacific Command.' The other dates (July 8, 2026) is the publication date, and (May 26, 2026) is the date of the Quad joint press conference in New Delhi.

Source: Quad Future Under Scanner: US Renames Pacific Command, 23/37 Initiatives Security-Focused →
Q76.

According to the article, what is the primary criticism regarding the Quad's funding pattern?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Security-related initiatives receive the majority of funding, overshadowing climate goals.
  • B.Health and climate initiatives have received the bulk of funding despite security initiatives forming the majority of the agenda.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Quad has no dedicated funding mechanism and relies entirely on voluntary contributions.
  • D.Critical minerals funding is fully allocated but other sectors remain underfunded.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'health and climate have been the primary beneficiaries' of Quad's funding, while 'security issues make up close to two-thirds of Quad's initiatives.' The $20 billion Critical Minerals Initiative is a stated target with no funds allocated, highlighting the mismatch.

Source: Quad Future Under Scanner: US Renames Pacific Command, 23/37 Initiatives Security-Focused →
Q77.

Which regulatory body designates LIC as a Domestic Systemically Important Insurer (D-SII)?

EasyUPSC, Banking
  • A.A) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
  • B.B) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.C) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
  • D.D) Ministry of Finance
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, IRDAI designates LIC as a Domestic Systemically Important Insurer every year. This is an insurance-sector regulatory function, not under RBI, SEBI, or the Finance Ministry.

Source: LIC Holds 19% of Central Govt Securities, Life Insurers Hold 25%: Unacknowledged Fiscal Pillar →
Q78.

Consider the following statements regarding the life insurance sector's role in funding government expenditure:

1. Life insurers collectively hold close to 25% of India's outstanding central government dated securities.

2. LIC holds approximately 19% of all outstanding central government dated securities.

3. India's life insurance penetration has been steadily increasing and is above the global average.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.A) Only 1
  • B.B) Only 2
  • C.C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: life insurers hold close to a quarter (25%) of central government dated securities. Statement 2 is correct: LIC holds about 19% of all outstanding central government dated securities. Statement 3 is incorrect: insurance penetration declined to 2.7% of GDP in FY25, below the global average of 3.0%.

Source: LIC Holds 19% of Central Govt Securities, Life Insurers Hold 25%: Unacknowledged Fiscal Pillar →
Q79.

According to LIC's March 2025 regulatory filing with IRDAI (Form L-26), what was the value of LIC's holdings in central government securities alone?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.A) ₹32.3 lakh crore
  • B.B) ₹20.2 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.C) ₹15.5 lakh crore
  • D.D) ₹25.0 lakh crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that LIC's IRDAI regulatory filings for March 2025 show ₹20.2 lakh crore in central government securities alone, and ₹32.3 lakh crore in total government and government-guaranteed securities across all funds. Options A is the total figure including guaranteed securities, not just central government.

Source: LIC Holds 19% of Central Govt Securities, Life Insurers Hold 25%: Unacknowledged Fiscal Pillar →
Q80.

What is the primary macroeconomic risk highlighted by the article if India's life insurance penetration continues to decline?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.A) Higher premium costs for policyholders
  • B.B) Reduced private sector investment in equities
  • C.C) Weakening of the stable domestic funding base for sovereign debt✓ Correct Answer
  • D.D) Increased foreign ownership of insurance companies
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article argues that life insurers are a key source of patient, counter-cyclical capital for government securities. Declining penetration reduces the flow of household savings into sovereign debt, potentially forcing the government to rely on less stable sources like foreign investors, which could increase borrowing costs and rollover risk.

Source: LIC Holds 19% of Central Govt Securities, Life Insurers Hold 25%: Unacknowledged Fiscal Pillar →
Q81.

Which national policy is primarily responsible for the revised undergraduate framework that reduces core discipline to 50%?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Education Policy 2020✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Right to Education Act 2009
  • C.University Grants Commission Act 1956
  • D.National Curriculum Framework 2005
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly discusses the NEP 2020's revised undergraduate framework. The RTE Act pertains to school education, UGC Act regulates universities, and NCF is a curriculum framework, not the policy that introduced the new framework.

Source: NEP 2020: Core Discipline Reduced to 50% of Curriculum, Students & Experts Flag Learning Gaps →
Q82.

Consider the following statements regarding the NEP's revised undergraduate framework:

1. The main discipline now occupies 50% of the total curriculum.

2. Ability Enhancement Courses (AEC) are optional for honours students.

3. The new framework requires students to complete a broader range of academic requirements each semester.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says 'not more than 50% of the whole course as the main discipline'. Statement 2 is incorrect: AEC, SEC, and VAC are mandatory, not optional. Statement 3 is correct: the article states the expanded curriculum combines core with mandatory and elective components, requiring a broader range of academic requirements each semester.

Source: NEP 2020: Core Discipline Reduced to 50% of Curriculum, Students & Experts Flag Learning Gaps →
Q83.

According to retired Professor Nandita Narain, what is the minimum proportion of the syllabus that should be the main discipline?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.50%
  • B.60%
  • C.66% (two-thirds)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.80%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Prof. Narain said 'Two-thirds at least should be the main discipline'. Two-thirds is approximately 66.67%. The other options are distractors: 50% is the current proportion, 80% was the earlier proportion.

Source: NEP 2020: Core Discipline Reduced to 50% of Curriculum, Students & Experts Flag Learning Gaps →
Q84.

What is the primary reason honours students like Insha Mirza feel they cannot explore their discipline in depth?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Lack of interest in the subject
  • B.Poor quality of teaching and outdated syllabus
  • C.Burden of compulsory additional courses with separate assessments✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Insufficient library and research facilities
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes Insha Mirza saying that with many papers, continuous assignments, AEC, SEC, and VAC classes each with separate assignments, viva, and projects, most time goes into meeting deadlines, leaving little time for deep research. The other options are not mentioned as the primary reason.

Source: NEP 2020: Core Discipline Reduced to 50% of Curriculum, Students & Experts Flag Learning Gaps →
Q85.

Which constitutional provision allows both the Union and state governments to legislate on education, making it difficult for the Centre to compel changes in state board grading systems?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Union List
  • B.State List
  • C.Concurrent List✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Residuary List
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Education is a subject on the Concurrent List (List III) of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution. This allows both the Centre and states to make laws, but also means the Centre cannot unilaterally force state boards to adopt uniform grading or syllabus changes, as mentioned in the article about 'voluntary alignment'.

Source: 50% Board Weightage Proposal for JEE/NEET: Key Challenges in Implementation →
Q86.

Consider the following statements regarding the proposed 50% board weightage in JEE and NEET:

1. The recommendation came from a high-level committee operating under the Prime Minister's Office.

2. The article states that a binding national timeline for board result declaration has been included in the committee's recommendations.

3. The proposal aims to reduce the pressure of one-shot entrance exams and curb the dummy school phenomenon.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article says 'the Ministry of Education has fast-tracked a set of reforms under the Prime Minister’s Office' and the recommendation is from a 'high-level nine-member committee'. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article explicitly states that the 'calendar problem' has not been fully addressed in the committee’s recommendations. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions easing pressure of one-shot testing and addressing dummy schools.

Source: 50% Board Weightage Proposal for JEE/NEET: Key Challenges in Implementation →
Q87.

What is the proposed weightage for Class 12 board marks in the merit lists for medical and engineering admissions, as recommended by the high-level committee?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.25%
  • B.30%
  • C.40%
  • D.50%✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'give Class 12 board examination marks a weightage of up to 50% — suitably normalised — in the merit lists for competitive medical and engineering admissions.' The other percentages are distractors.

Source: 50% Board Weightage Proposal for JEE/NEET: Key Challenges in Implementation →
Q88.

If board results are declared across a spread of weeks and a national merit list must wait for the slowest board, what is the primary operational risk highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Students from faster boards lose interest in the process
  • B.The entire admission cycle for medicine and engineering nationwide could be stalled✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Coaching centres will lose business
  • D.International boards will be excluded from the merit list
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article warns: 'the entire admission cycle for medicine and engineering across the country becomes hostage to the slowest board in the system.' This creates a risk of delayed counselling and compressed academic calendars, which is the core calendar problem discussed.

Source: 50% Board Weightage Proposal for JEE/NEET: Key Challenges in Implementation →
Q89.

Which U.S. military command conducted the strikes on Iranian targets as reported in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.U.S. Pacific Command (PACOM)
  • B.U.S. Central Command (CENTCOM)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.U.S. European Command (EUCOM)
  • D.U.S. Africa Command (AFRICOM)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that CENTCOM announced the strikes. CENTCOM is responsible for U.S. military operations in the Middle East. The other commands cover different geographic regions.

Source: US Strikes Over 80 Iranian Military Targets After Hormuz Attacks, Threatens Interim Deal →
Q90.

Consider the following statements regarding the US-Iran escalation:

1. The US struck more than 80 Iranian military targets including IRGC small boats.

2. Iran's Supreme Leader Ayatollah Ali Khamenei was killed in a joint US-Israel strike at the beginning of the war.

3. Qatar condemned the attack on its tanker and held Iran legally responsible.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: CENTCOM said it hit more than 80 targets and over 60 IRGC boats. Statement 2 is correct: the article mentions Khamenei's funeral and that he was killed in a joint US-Israel strike. Statement 3 is correct: Qatar's spokesperson condemned the attack and held Iran legally responsible.

Source: US Strikes Over 80 Iranian Military Targets After Hormuz Attacks, Threatens Interim Deal →
Q91.

According to the article, how many Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps (IRGC) small boats were struck by US forces?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.40
  • B.50
  • C.60✓ Correct Answer
  • D.70
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that US forces struck 'more than 60 Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps (IRGC) small boats'. Option C (60) is the closest exact number mentioned. Options 40, 50, and 70 are incorrect as they do not match the reported figure.

Source: US Strikes Over 80 Iranian Military Targets After Hormuz Attacks, Threatens Interim Deal →
Q92.

What was the primary stated objective of the US strikes according to CENTCOM?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To overthrow the Iranian government
  • B.To impose heavy costs for targeting commercial shipping and innocent civilians✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To destroy Iran's nuclear facilities
  • D.To enforce the 14-point interim agreement
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

CENTCOM's statement explicitly said the strikes were 'to impose heavy costs for targeting and attacking commercial shipping crewed by innocent civilians in an international waterway'. Options A and C are not mentioned; option D is incorrect because the strikes were a response to violations of the interim deal, not to enforce it.

Source: US Strikes Over 80 Iranian Military Targets After Hormuz Attacks, Threatens Interim Deal →
Q93.

Which ministry is responsible for releasing the UDISE+ (Unified District Information System for Education Plus) report?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of Education✓ Correct Answer
  • C.NITI Aayog
  • D.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The UDISE+ report is released by the Ministry of Education, as mentioned in the article. It is the official database for school education data in India. Other ministries do not handle school education data collection.

Source: UDISE+ 2025-26: Govt School Enrolment Down 86 Lakh, Private Up 88 Lakh; Teachers Cross 1 Crore →
Q94.

Consider the following statements regarding the UDISE+ 2025-26 report:

1. Government school enrolment declined by 86 lakh students between 2023-24 and 2025-26.

2. The total number of teachers in the country crossed 1.02 crore for the first time in 2025-26.

3. The dropout rate at the secondary level declined from 8.2% to 7% in 2025-26.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: government school enrolment fell from 12.75 crore to 11.89 crore, a decline of 86 lakh. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article says teachers crossed 1.03 crore (1,02,73,020), not 1.02 crore. Statement 3 is correct: secondary dropout rate declined from 8.2% to 7%. Hence option C is correct.

Source: UDISE+ 2025-26: Govt School Enrolment Down 86 Lakh, Private Up 88 Lakh; Teachers Cross 1 Crore →
Q95.

According to the UDISE+ 2025-26 report, what was the total enrolment from foundational to secondary level in 2025-26?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.24.80 crore
  • B.24.72 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.23.89 crore
  • D.25.72 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The report states that total enrolment stood at 24.72 crore in 2025-26, down from 24.80 crore in 2023-24. The other options are distractors: 24.80 crore is the previous year's figure, 23.89 crore is close to government school enrolment, and 25.72 crore is not mentioned.

Source: UDISE+ 2025-26: Govt School Enrolment Down 86 Lakh, Private Up 88 Lakh; Teachers Cross 1 Crore →
Q96.

What does the significant shift of students from government to private unaided schools, as reported in the UDISE+ 2025-26 report, primarily indicate?

MediumUPSC, Teaching
  • A.Government schools have become more efficient
  • B.Parental preference is shifting towards private schools despite improved government school retention✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Private schools have reduced their fees
  • D.The government has closed many schools
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article notes a 'continued shift in school preferences' with government schools losing 86 lakh students and private schools gaining 88 lakh, even as dropout rates decline and retention improves. This indicates that parents are choosing private schools even when government schools are retaining students better. Options A and D are not supported; option C is not mentioned.

Source: UDISE+ 2025-26: Govt School Enrolment Down 86 Lakh, Private Up 88 Lakh; Teachers Cross 1 Crore →
Q97.

Which Act of Parliament prohibits the employment of manual scavengers and provides for their rehabilitation?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976
  • B.The Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act, 2013✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
  • D.The Inter-State Migrant Workmen Act, 1979
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

This Act, commonly called the PEMSR Act, was enacted to prohibit manual scavenging, ban insanitary latrines, and rehabilitate persons engaged in this practice. It is enforced by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. The Bombay HC in this news relied on this Act for rehabilitation directions.

Source: Bombay HC Orders ₹30 Lakh Each for Two Manual Scavenging Deaths in Nanded →
Q98.

Consider the following statements regarding the Bombay High Court judgment on manual scavenging deaths:

1. The court ordered the Maharashtra government to pay ₹30 lakh each to the families of two victims.

2. The court held that the private property owner was solely liable for the compensation.

3. The court directed rehabilitation of the petitioners under the PEMSR Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the judgment: ₹30 lakh per family. Statement 2 is false – the court directed the STATE government to pay, not the private owner. Statement 3 is correct: the HC ordered rehabilitation under the PEMSR Act. Hence option C is correct.

Source: Bombay HC Orders ₹30 Lakh Each for Two Manual Scavenging Deaths in Nanded →
Q99.

What is the total compensation ordered by the Bombay High Court for the two families of manual scavenging victims from Nanded?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.₹30 lakh
  • B.₹60 lakh✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹10 lakh
  • D.₹20 lakh
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court ordered ₹30 lakh each for two families, totalling ₹60 lakh. Distractors: ₹30 lakh is per family, not total; ₹10 lakh was the earlier Supreme Court guideline amount in Safai Karmachari Andolan (2014), but this HC enhanced it.

Source: Bombay HC Orders ₹30 Lakh Each for Two Manual Scavenging Deaths in Nanded →
Q100.

What is the primary objective of the rehabilitation provisions under the PEMSR Act, as highlighted in this judgment?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To punish private property owners who engage manual scavengers
  • B.To provide alternative livelihood opportunities and social security to former manual scavengers✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To increase the compensation amount for workplace deaths
  • D.To create a central database of all sanitation workers
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The PEMSR Act focuses on prohibition AND rehabilitation – including training, loans, and skill development to help former scavengers shift to dignified occupations. The Bombay HC judgment specifically directed rehabilitation under this Act, emphasising the need to lift affected families out of financial hardship.

Source: Bombay HC Orders ₹30 Lakh Each for Two Manual Scavenging Deaths in Nanded →
Q101.

Which organisation is the apex drug regulator in India, under which the Drug Consultative Committee operates?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  • B.Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Drug Controller General of India (DCGI)
  • D.Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

CDSCO is the national regulatory authority for drugs and cosmetics. The Drug Consultative Committee is an expert committee under the apex drug regulator, which is CDSCO (or DCGI as its head). The Ministry of Health is the parent ministry, not the regulator itself. DCGI is the head of CDSCO, but the organisation is CDSCO.

Source: Drug Consultative Committee Directs States to Publish Licence Suspension, Recall Orders Online; Share with CDSCO →
Q102.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent recommendations of the Drug Consultative Committee:

1. State drug authorities must post orders related to suspension or cancellation of licences on their official websites.

2. The committee recommended that states share details of regulatory actions with CDSCO before the 15th of every month.

3. A sub-committee has been constituted to examine the registration of suppliers of printed material used for drug packaging.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the committee recommended that states put up all orders (suspension, cancellation, stop production, recall) online. Statement 2 is incorrect: the deadline is 'before the 10th of every month', not 15th. Statement 3 is correct: a sub-committee was recommended to study the necessity and feasibility of registering packaging material suppliers.

Source: Drug Consultative Committee Directs States to Publish Licence Suspension, Recall Orders Online; Share with CDSCO →
Q103.

By what date of each month must state drug authorities share details of regulatory actions with the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) as per the committee's recommendation?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.5th
  • B.10th✓ Correct Answer
  • C.15th
  • D.End of the month
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the committee recommended sharing details 'before the 10th of every month'. The 5th, 15th, and end of month are distractors.

Source: Drug Consultative Committee Directs States to Publish Licence Suspension, Recall Orders Online; Share with CDSCO →
Q104.

What is the primary objective of the Drug Consultative Committee's recommendation to publish regulatory actions online?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase the number of drug recalls in the country
  • B.To ensure transparency and prevent regulatory disconnect between states✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To reduce the cost of drug regulation by eliminating paper-based processes
  • D.To enable CDSCO to directly take action against defaulting firms
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article highlights that details of regulatory actions are not uploaded by states, leading to a 'regulatory disconnect' where manufacturers with cancelled licences submit photocopies. The recommendation aims to make the information public and share it with CDSCO to prevent such exploitation. Option A is not the primary objective; option C is not mentioned; option D is incorrect because CDSCO cannot act independently—state regulators are responsible for enforcement.

Source: Drug Consultative Committee Directs States to Publish Licence Suspension, Recall Orders Online; Share with CDSCO →
Q105.

Which ministry has oversight of the Indian Carbon Market platform under the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
  • B.Ministry of Power✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Steel
  • D.Ministry of Finance
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Bureau of Energy Efficiency under the Ministry of Power oversees the Indian Carbon Market platform. Other ministries may be involved in related policies, but specifically for CCTS oversight, the Ministry of Power is correct.

Source: BMS Hack Raises Cybersecurity Concerns; Credit-Deposit Gap Widens to 5.4%; GEI Targets for Steel Under CCTS →
Q106.

Consider the following statements:

1. CASA deposits are high-cost for banks.

2. Term deposits interest rates are around 7-8%.

3. The credit-to-deposit ratio increased from 75% in mid-2025 to 82.5% as of June 15.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Only 3
  • D.(D) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because CASA deposits are low-cost (3-4% interest). Statement 2 is correct as per the article: term deposits and CDs carry 7-8% interest. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions the ratio rose from 75% in mid-2025 to 82.5% as of June 15. Hence option D is correct.

Source: BMS Hack Raises Cybersecurity Concerns; Credit-Deposit Gap Widens to 5.4%; GEI Targets for Steel Under CCTS →
Q107.

What is the operating range of Bluetooth Low Energy used in the BAT-BMS app that allowed remote disabling of e-rickshaws?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.5 metres
  • B.10 metres
  • C.15 metres✓ Correct Answer
  • D.20 metres
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the app can connect wirelessly over Bluetooth Low Energy within an operating range of around 15 metres. The other options are distractors not mentioned in the article.

Source: BMS Hack Raises Cybersecurity Concerns; Credit-Deposit Gap Widens to 5.4%; GEI Targets for Steel Under CCTS →
Q108.

What is the primary objective of setting Greenhouse Gas Emission Intensity (GEI) targets for industries under the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce absolute GHG emissions by 50% by 2030
  • B.To push industries towards a low-carbon growth trajectory✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To generate revenue from selling carbon credits to other countries
  • D.To comply with World Bank environmental standards
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'The ultimate objective is to push industries towards a low-carbon growth trajectory through reduction, removal or avoidance of GHG emissions.' Option A is incorrect as no absolute reduction target is given; Option C is a secondary effect; Option D is not mentioned.

Source: BMS Hack Raises Cybersecurity Concerns; Credit-Deposit Gap Widens to 5.4%; GEI Targets for Steel Under CCTS →
Q109.

Which High Court delivered the judgment that the Domestic Violence Act, 2005 also applies to couples who once shared a household?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Allahabad High Court✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Delhi High Court
  • C.Bombay High Court
  • D.Calcutta High Court
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Allahabad High Court, through Justice Brij Raj Singh, delivered this ruling on July 7, 2026.

Source: Allahabad High Court: DV Act Covers Past Shared Households, Divorce No Bar for Relief →
Q110.

Consider the following statements:

1. The Domestic Violence Act, 2005 applies only to couples who are currently living together in a shared household.

2. The judgment was delivered by Justice Brij Raj Singh of the Allahabad High Court.

3. A divorce decree automatically nullifies any pending complaint under the Domestic Violence Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because Section 2(s) includes persons who have lived together at any point, not just currently. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect; the court held that a divorce decree does not erase past domestic violence liability.

Source: Allahabad High Court: DV Act Covers Past Shared Households, Divorce No Bar for Relief →
Q111.

According to the article, on what date did the couple get married?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.April 18, 2017✓ Correct Answer
  • B.April 18, 2018
  • C.May 18, 2017
  • D.April 8, 2017
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that the couple married on April 18, 2017, in Lucknow. The other options are close distractors.

Source: Allahabad High Court: DV Act Covers Past Shared Households, Divorce No Bar for Relief →
Q112.

What is the primary implication of the Allahabad High Court judgment for women seeking relief under the Domestic Violence Act?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Women can now file domestic violence cases only after obtaining a divorce.
  • B.Women can seek relief for domestic violence suffered during marriage even after a divorce decree.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Women cannot file domestic violence cases if they have not lived with the husband for more than a year.
  • D.A divorce decree automatically cancels any pending domestic violence complaints.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court explicitly held that a divorce decree does not absolve liability for past cruelty, and the wife remains eligible for protection under the DV Act. Options A, C, and D contradict the judgment.

Source: Allahabad High Court: DV Act Covers Past Shared Households, Divorce No Bar for Relief →
Q113.

Which article of the Constitution prohibits religious instruction in educational institutions wholly maintained out of State funds?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 25
  • B.Article 28(1)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Article 30
  • D.Article 21
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 28(1) explicitly states that no religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained out of State funds. Article 25 deals with freedom of religion, Article 30 with rights of minorities to establish educational institutions, and Article 21 with protection of life and personal liberty.

Source: Chhattisgarh HC Upholds Gayatri Mantra in Schools: Moral Instruction Not Banned Under Article 28(1) →
Q114.

Consider the following statements regarding the Chhattisgarh High Court judgment on Gayatri Mantra recitation in schools:

1. The court held that the government order violates Article 28(1) because it amounts to religious instruction.

2. The court distinguished moral instruction from religious instruction and allowed the former.

3. The state argued that the order aligns with the National Education Policy 2020's Indian Knowledge Systems.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the court dismissed the petition and found no violation of Article 28(1). Statement 2 is correct: the court explicitly distinguished moral instruction from religious instruction. Statement 3 is correct: the state counsel cited NEP 2020's mandate to integrate Indian Knowledge Systems. Hence option C is correct.

Source: Chhattisgarh HC Upholds Gayatri Mantra in Schools: Moral Instruction Not Banned Under Article 28(1) →
Q115.

On which date was the government order issued by the Chhattisgarh education department making Gayatri Mantra recitation mandatory in morning assemblies?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.12.5.2026
  • B.12.6.2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.12.7.2026
  • D.12.8.2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the government order was dated 12.6.2026. The petition was filed on the same date (June 12, 2026). The other options are close distractors but incorrect.

Source: Chhattisgarh HC Upholds Gayatri Mantra in Schools: Moral Instruction Not Banned Under Article 28(1) →
Q116.

What was the primary legal reasoning of the Chhattisgarh High Court for dismissing the petition against Gayatri Mantra recitation?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Gayatri Mantra is not a religious text but a scientific mantra.
  • B.The order does not mandate participation and no punishment is prescribed for non-compliance.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Article 28(1) does not apply to state-funded schools.
  • D.The petition was filed by a non-government organization.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court noted that the order uses 'compulsory' and 'ensure' only in the context of school administration and discipline, with no negative consequences for students who choose not to recite. This distinguishes it from coercive religious instruction. Option A is not the primary reasoning; the court did not declare the mantra non-religious. Option C is false. Option D is irrelevant.

Source: Chhattisgarh HC Upholds Gayatri Mantra in Schools: Moral Instruction Not Banned Under Article 28(1) →
Q117.

Which court issued the order that a woman teacher cannot be denied posting to a boys' school?

EasyUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Supreme Court of India
  • B.Madras High Court✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Delhi High Court
  • D.Kerala High Court
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Madras High Court, presided by Justice B Pugalendhi, passed the order on July 3, 2026. This is a static fact about the judicial body involved.

Source: Madras High Court Rules No Legal Bar on Woman Teacher Posting in Boys' School →
Q118.

Consider the following statements regarding the Madras High Court ruling:

1. The court held that the Tamil Nadu Private Schools Act prohibits woman teacher posting in boys' schools.

2. The teacher had filed an undertaking not to seek special treatment if posted to the boys' school.

3. The court directed authorities to reconsider the transfer independently without relying on the school's objections.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Only 3
  • D.(D) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the court explicitly said neither the Act nor Rules prohibit deployment of a woman teacher. Statement 2 is correct: the petitioner placed on record such an undertaking. Statement 3 is correct: the court criticized authorities for not independently deciding the issue and directed reconsideration. Hence option D.

Source: Madras High Court Rules No Legal Bar on Woman Teacher Posting in Boys' School →
Q119.

On which date did the Madras High Court pass the order in this case?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.May 28, 2025
  • B.November 6, 2025
  • C.July 3, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • D.July 8, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The order was dated July 3, 2026, as per the article. May 28, 2025 is the transfer date, November 6, 2025 is the date of a previous court direction, and July 8, 2026 is the publication date of the news article.

Source: Madras High Court Rules No Legal Bar on Woman Teacher Posting in Boys' School →
Q120.

What was the primary legal basis for the Madras High Court's decision to allow the woman teacher's posting to the boys' school?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.The school had adequate infrastructure for female teachers
  • B.The teacher was a qualified special teacher with prior experience
  • C.Neither the Tamil Nadu Private Schools Act nor its rules prohibited such deployment✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The teacher had statutory priority over other candidates
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court's core reasoning was that there was no statutory prohibition. The teacher's qualifications were not the basis, and the school lacked infrastructure, not adequacy. The court rejected the school's objection as legally unfounded.

Source: Madras High Court Rules No Legal Bar on Woman Teacher Posting in Boys' School →
Q121.

Which US federal agency led the investigation named 'Operation Hard Ball' as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Central Intelligence Agency (CIA)
  • B.Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)
  • D.Homeland Security Investigations (HSI)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the FBI's Los Angeles Field Office led the US investigation. The DEA and HSI assisted, but the lead agency was the FBI.

Source: FBI 'Operation Hard Ball' Indicts Punjab Police Officer for $400,000 Extortion with Transnational Crime Syndicate →
Q122.

Consider the following statements:

1. Gurinderjit Singh Nagra was the Station House Officer of Tanda police station in Hoshiarpur, Punjab.

2. The Bhagwanpuria enterprise is led by Lawrence Bishnoi.

3. Operation Hard Ball resulted in the arrest of 24 defendants connected to three India-based transnational crime groups.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Bhagwanpuria enterprise is led by Jaggu Bhagwanpuria, not Lawrence Bishnoi. Statement 3 is correct: the operation arrested 24 defendants from the Bishnoi, Bhagwanpuria, and Dhanda groups.

Source: FBI 'Operation Hard Ball' Indicts Punjab Police Officer for $400,000 Extortion with Transnational Crime Syndicate →
Q123.

According to the article, what amount was extorted from a family in Los Angeles by the Bhagwanpuria gang and the Punjab police officer?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.$200,000
  • B.$400,000✓ Correct Answer
  • C.$500,000
  • D.$1,000,000
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the FBI charged Nagra with helping gangsters extort $400,000 from a family in Los Angeles by threatening to file false murder charges.

Source: FBI 'Operation Hard Ball' Indicts Punjab Police Officer for $400,000 Extortion with Transnational Crime Syndicate →
Q124.

What is the most significant implication of this news for India's internal security and governance?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It highlights the need for stronger extradition treaties with the US.
  • B.It underscores the vulnerability of Indian police to corruption and its enabling of transnational crime.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It shows that Indian criminal gangs are only active in North America.
  • D.It indicates that the US has full jurisdiction over Indian police officers.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly links a police officer's corruption to the success of a transnational extortion scheme. This points to systemic weaknesses in police accountability and the need for reforms to prevent law enforcement from being used as a tool for organized crime.

Source: FBI 'Operation Hard Ball' Indicts Punjab Police Officer for $400,000 Extortion with Transnational Crime Syndicate →
Q125.

Which Indian law allows the designation of an individual as a terrorist, as mentioned in the article regarding Goldy Brar?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (Prevention) Act (TADA)
  • B.Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.National Security Act (NSA)
  • D.Prevention of Terrorism Act (POTA)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that Goldy Brar was added to the Fourth Schedule of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, which is India's primary anti-terror law. TADA and POTA are no longer in force, and NSA is for preventive detention.

Source: FBI Offers $50,000 Reward for Goldy Brar: Lawrence Bishnoi Gang & UAPA Terror Charges →
Q126.

Consider the following statements regarding Goldy Brar:

1. He is wanted for the murder of singer Sidhu Moosewala.

2. He is a Canadian citizen.

3. The FBI has charged him under RICO conspiracy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct – Goldy Brar allegedly masterminded the murder of Sidhu Moosewala. Statement 2 is incorrect – he is an Indian citizen who went to Canada on a student visa. Statement 3 is correct – the FBI charged him with RICO conspiracy (Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organizations).

Source: FBI Offers $50,000 Reward for Goldy Brar: Lawrence Bishnoi Gang & UAPA Terror Charges →
Q127.

What is the amount of reward announced by the FBI for information leading to the arrest of Goldy Brar?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.$10,000
  • B.$25,000
  • C.$50,000✓ Correct Answer
  • D.$100,000
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the FBI announced a reward of up to $50,000. The other amounts are distractors not mentioned in the news.

Source: FBI Offers $50,000 Reward for Goldy Brar: Lawrence Bishnoi Gang & UAPA Terror Charges →
Q128.

What is the primary objective of 'Operation Hard Ball' as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To combat drug trafficking in South Asia
  • B.To crack down on organised crime networks internationally✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To increase surveillance on social media platforms
  • D.To strengthen border security between US and Canada
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article describes Operation Hard Ball as a 'multinational crackdown on organised crime'. The focus is on dismantling criminal enterprises like the Lawrence Bishnoi gang, not solely drug trafficking or border security.

Source: FBI Offers $50,000 Reward for Goldy Brar: Lawrence Bishnoi Gang & UAPA Terror Charges →
Q129.

Which statutory body issued notices to manufacturers for using the term 'energy drink' without a notified standard?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Food Corporation of India (FCI)
  • B.Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)
  • C.Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.National Accreditation Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories (NABL)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

FSSAI is the statutory body under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare that regulates food safety and standards in India. It issued notices to manufacturers objecting to the use of 'energy drink' label and therapeutic claims.

Source: FSSAI Objects to 'Energy Drink' Label; No Notified Standard, High Caffeine & Sugar Content a Concern →
Q130.

Consider the following statements regarding energy drinks:

1. A standard 250 ml can contains approximately 75 mg of caffeine and 27 g of added sugar.

2. Caffeine eliminates the body's need for sleep by restoring alertness permanently.

3. Energy drinks are fundamentally different from sports drinks as they are stimulant beverages not designed for hydration.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 75mg caffeine and 27g sugar per 250ml can. Statement 2 is incorrect because caffeine does not eliminate the need for sleep; it only temporarily wards off drowsiness. Statement 3 is correct: energy drinks are stimulant beverages, not for hydration like sports drinks.

Source: FSSAI Objects to 'Energy Drink' Label; No Notified Standard, High Caffeine & Sugar Content a Concern →
Q131.

According to the article, how much added sugar is present in a standard 250 ml can of a popular energy drink?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.15 g
  • B.27 g✓ Correct Answer
  • C.35 g
  • D.40 g
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that a 250 ml can contains approximately 27 g of added sugar, equivalent to nearly seven teaspoons. The other options are distractors not mentioned in the article.

Source: FSSAI Objects to 'Energy Drink' Label; No Notified Standard, High Caffeine & Sugar Content a Concern →
Q132.

Why does the FSSAI object to the term 'energy drink' and related claims?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Because energy drinks contain excessive alcohol
  • B.Because there is no notified food standard for 'energy drink' and therapeutic claims are not permitted✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Because energy drinks are banned in India
  • D.Because caffeine is a banned substance under Indian law
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

FSSAI clarified that no notified standard exists for 'energy drink' under Indian food regulations, and foods cannot make therapeutic or functional claims unless specifically permitted. This is the regulatory basis for issuing notices.

Source: FSSAI Objects to 'Energy Drink' Label; No Notified Standard, High Caffeine & Sugar Content a Concern →
Q133.

Which international organization released the latest global growth forecast mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.World Bank
  • B.International Monetary Fund✓ Correct Answer
  • C.World Trade Organization
  • D.United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the International Monetary Fund (IMF) cut its 2026 growth projection. The IMF is the primary global institution for macroeconomic surveillance and policy coordination.

Source: IMF Cuts 2026 Global Growth Forecast to 3%, Warns on West Asia War & Strait of Hormuz Risks →
Q134.

Consider the following statements regarding the IMF's latest World Economic Outlook update:

1. The IMF lowered its 2026 global growth forecast to 3.1%.

2. The war in West Asia has disrupted the Strait of Hormuz, a key oil transit route.

3. The IMF expects global growth to rebound to 3.4% in 2027.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the IMF cut the forecast to 3.0%, not 3.1% (3.1% was the April forecast). Statement 2 is correct: the Strait of Hormuz was virtually blocked due to Iranian retaliation. Statement 3 is correct: the IMF projects 3.4% growth in 2027.

Source: IMF Cuts 2026 Global Growth Forecast to 3%, Warns on West Asia War & Strait of Hormuz Risks →
Q135.

According to the IMF, what is the projected global inflation rate for 2026?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.3.0%
  • B.3.1%
  • C.4.7%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.3.4%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'Global inflation meanwhile, is anticipated to accelerate to 4.7% this year.' The other options are growth rates: 3.0% (2026 growth), 3.1% (April forecast), and 3.4% (2027 growth).

Source: IMF Cuts 2026 Global Growth Forecast to 3%, Warns on West Asia War & Strait of Hormuz Risks →
Q136.

Which region experienced the largest downward revision in growth due to the closure of the Strait of Hormuz?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.United States
  • B.Euro area
  • C.West Asia and Central Asia✓ Correct Answer
  • D.China
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The IMF downgraded growth in West Asia and Central Asia by 1.2 percentage points to 0.7%, attributing it to a longer closure of the Strait of Hormuz. Other regions had smaller or upward revisions (China's forecast was raised slightly to 4.6%).

Source: IMF Cuts 2026 Global Growth Forecast to 3%, Warns on West Asia War & Strait of Hormuz Risks →
Q137.

Which level of education is the primary focus of the NIPUN Bharat Mission?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Class 1
  • B.Class 2
  • C.Class 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Class 5
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The mission aims to attain foundational literacy and numeracy by the end of Grade 3 by 2026-27, as explicitly stated in the article. The goal is that every child can read with understanding and do basic math by Grade 2, but the benchmark assessment is at Grade 3.

Source: NIPUN Bharat Mission 5th Anniversary: ASER 2024 Shows 23.4% of Class 3 Students Can Read Grade 2 Text →
Q138.

Consider the following statements regarding NIPUN Bharat Mission:

1. It receives an annual funding of ₹2,700 crore.

2. It covers over 5 crore children and 17 lakh teachers.

3. The target is to achieve foundational literacy and numeracy by the end of Grade 2 by 2026-27.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions ₹2,700 crore annual funding. Statement 2 is correct – it reaches over five crore children and 17 lakh teachers. Statement 3 is incorrect because the target is by the end of Grade 3 (not Grade 2) by 2026-27; the article says 'by the end of Grade 3, by 2026-27' and 'by Grade 2' for basic skills but the ultimate benchmark is Grade 3.

Source: NIPUN Bharat Mission 5th Anniversary: ASER 2024 Shows 23.4% of Class 3 Students Can Read Grade 2 Text →
Q139.

According to ASER 2024, what percentage of Class 3 students in government schools could read a Class 2-level text?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.16.3%
  • B.20.9%
  • C.23.4%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.76.6%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

ASER 2024 reported that 23.4% of Class 3 students could read a Class 2-level text. This is an increase from 16.3% in 2022 and 20.9% in 2018. The 76.6% figure represents those who could not read at that level.

Source: NIPUN Bharat Mission 5th Anniversary: ASER 2024 Shows 23.4% of Class 3 Students Can Read Grade 2 Text →
Q140.

What is the primary objective of the NIPUN Bharat Mission?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To achieve 100% enrolment in primary schools
  • B.To ensure foundational literacy and numeracy by end of Grade 3✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To provide free textbooks to all school children
  • D.To train 17 lakh teachers in digital education
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the mission aims to attain foundational literacy and numeracy by the end of Grade 3 by 2026-27. Options A and C are related to general education goals but not the specific mission objective. Option D is a component of the mission (teacher training allocation) but not the primary objective.

Source: NIPUN Bharat Mission 5th Anniversary: ASER 2024 Shows 23.4% of Class 3 Students Can Read Grade 2 Text →
Q141.

Which organization released the revised Class 8 Social Science textbook that now lists 'economic background' as a ground for discrimination?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.University Grants Commission (UGC)
  • B.Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)
  • C.National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Ministry of Education, Government of India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

NCERT is the autonomous body under the Ministry of Education that develops and publishes textbooks for school education. The revised textbook 'Exploring Society: India and Beyond' is published by NCERT.

Source: Revised NCERT Class 8 Textbook Lists 'Economic Background' as Discrimination Ground; UGC Regulations 2026 Trigger Debate →
Q142.

Consider the following statements regarding the revised NCERT Class 8 textbook:

1. The revised textbook now includes 'economic background' among the grounds of discrimination.

2. The UGC (Promotion of Equity in Higher Education Institutions) Regulations, 2026 explicitly include economic background as a protected category.

3. The earlier NCERT textbook was withdrawn after the Supreme Court's intervention over content on corruption in the judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: economic background is now listed along with caste, religion, etc. Statement 2 is incorrect: the UGC regulations do NOT include economic background. Statement 3 is correct: the Supreme Court imposed a blanket ban on the earlier textbook for containing 'offending' content on corruption in the judiciary.

Source: Revised NCERT Class 8 Textbook Lists 'Economic Background' as Discrimination Ground; UGC Regulations 2026 Trigger Debate →
Q143.

What is the title of the revised NCERT Class 8 Social Science textbook mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Social and Political Life - III
  • B.India and the Contemporary World
  • C.Exploring Society: India and Beyond✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Our Pasts - III
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The news article explicitly states that the revised textbook is called 'Exploring Society: India and Beyond'. The earlier textbook (before revision) had a different title. This fact is directly from the article.

Source: Revised NCERT Class 8 Textbook Lists 'Economic Background' as Discrimination Ground; UGC Regulations 2026 Trigger Debate →
Q144.

Why was the earlier NCERT Class 8 Social Science textbook withdrawn and banned from publication by the Supreme Court?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.For including 'economic background' as a ground for discrimination without government approval
  • B.For containing a section on 'Corruption in the judiciary' that the court found offensive✓ Correct Answer
  • C.For violating the UGC (Promotion of Equity) Regulations, 2026
  • D.For using outdated data on poverty and inequality
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

According to the article, the controversy erupted over a section titled 'Corruption in the judiciary' in the earlier textbook. The Supreme Court termed the content 'offending' and imposed a complete blanket ban on further publication and digital dissemination. The other options are not supported by the article.

Source: Revised NCERT Class 8 Textbook Lists 'Economic Background' as Discrimination Ground; UGC Regulations 2026 Trigger Debate →
Q145.

Which ministry is primarily responsible for overseeing Tribal Research Institutes (TRIs) in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Culture
  • B.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
  • C.Ministry of Tribal Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Ministry of Rural Development
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Tribal Research Institutes are established and supervised by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs. The ministry also handles policies and programs for Scheduled Tribes, including schemes like the Van Dhan Vikas Kendra and PM Janman. The other ministries deal with different portfolios (Culture for heritage, Social Justice for other backward classes, Rural Development for rural infrastructure).

Source: Bhubaneswar Declaration: 7 Best TRIs Recognized; National Tribal Research Agenda (2027-32) Adopted →
Q146.

Consider the following statements regarding the Bhubaneswar Declaration adopted by Tribal Research Institutes (TRIs):

1. The declaration resolves to develop TRIs as Centres of Excellence and to create a national tribal research agenda for 2027-2032.

2. The declaration was adopted at a two-day national workshop organized by the Ministry of Rural Development in New Delhi.

3. The declaration mandates community-level need analysis to align research with ground-level needs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The TRIs resolved to become Centres of Excellence and to formulate a national tribal research agenda for 2027-2032. Statement 2 is incorrect: The workshop was organized by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs (not Rural Development) and was held in Odisha, not New Delhi. Statement 3 is correct: The declaration includes a mandate for community-level need analysis to ensure research is grounded in local realities. Hence, both 1 and 3 are correct.

Source: Bhubaneswar Declaration: 7 Best TRIs Recognized; National Tribal Research Agenda (2027-32) Adopted →
Q147.

How many Tribal Research Institutes were recognized for 'exemplary institutional performance' at the July 2026 national workshop?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Five
  • B.Seven✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Nine
  • D.Eleven
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Ministry of Tribal Affairs recognized seven best-performing TRIs from Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Tripura, Maharashtra, Kerala, Telangana, and Jharkhand. Options like five or nine are common distractors. The number is explicitly mentioned as 'seven'.

Source: Bhubaneswar Declaration: 7 Best TRIs Recognized; National Tribal Research Agenda (2027-32) Adopted →
Q148.

What is the primary strategic objective behind granting greater institutional and financial autonomy to Tribal Research Institutes (TRIs) as highlighted in the news?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To allow TRIs to generate their own revenue through commercial activities
  • B.To reduce the government's financial burden in running the institutes
  • C.To bridge the gap between research, policy, and the tribal communities they serve✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To enable TRIs to conduct more foreign collaborations independently
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Tribal Affairs Secretary Ranjana Chopra explicitly stated that autonomy is needed to 'bridge the gap between research, policy, and the people they serve.' The other options may be secondary benefits but are not the stated primary objective. Autonomy would allow TRIs to be more responsive to grassroots needs and to work effectively with state departments, universities, and multilateral organizations.

Source: Bhubaneswar Declaration: 7 Best TRIs Recognized; National Tribal Research Agenda (2027-32) Adopted →
Q149.

Which international financial institution released the World Economic Outlook update mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.World Bank
  • B.International Monetary Fund (IMF)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Asian Development Bank (ADB)
  • D.New Development Bank (NDB)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The IMF regularly releases the World Economic Outlook (WEO) report, including quarterly updates. The article explicitly states the IMF released a quarterly update to its WEO report with the growth forecasts.

Source: IMF Cuts Global Growth Forecast to 3% for 2026, India GDP Projected at 6.4% →
Q150.

Consider the following statements:

1. IMF lowered its global growth forecast for 2026 to 3%.

2. India's GDP growth for 2026-27 was cut by 20 basis points.

3. IMF expects Iran's economy to shrink in its 2026 fiscal year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: IMF lowered global growth forecast to 3% (cut of 10 bps). Statement 2 is incorrect: India's growth was cut by 10 bps, not 20 bps. Statement 3 is correct: IMF expects Iran's economy to contract by 5.4% in its 2026 fiscal year.

Source: IMF Cuts Global Growth Forecast to 3% for 2026, India GDP Projected at 6.4% →
Q151.

What is India's projected GDP growth for 2027-28 according to the IMF?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.6.4%
  • B.6.7%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.7.0%
  • D.6.6%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The IMF raised its forecast for India's GDP growth in 2027-28 by 20 bps from April to 6.7%. Option A (6.4%) is the 2026-27 forecast, option C (7.0%) is the calendar year 2026 forecast, and option D (6.6%) is the RBI's forecast for 2026-27.

Source: IMF Cuts Global Growth Forecast to 3% for 2026, India GDP Projected at 6.4% →
Q152.

According to the IMF, what is the 'most imminent risk' to the baseline economic forecast?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.AI hype creating macrofinancial instability
  • B.Renewed conflict in the Middle East✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Rising inflation in advanced economies
  • D.Sharp decline in global oil inventories
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The IMF explicitly stated, 'The most imminent risk to the baseline forecast stems from developments in the Middle East.' Renewed conflict would propagate through higher commodity prices, supply shortages, and exchange rate pressures. While other options are mentioned as risks, they are secondary or conditional.

Source: IMF Cuts Global Growth Forecast to 3% for 2026, India GDP Projected at 6.4% →
Q153.

Which authority is primarily responsible for regulating dark patterns under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
  • B.Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI)
  • D.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The CCPA was established under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, and issued the Guidelines for Prevention and Regulation of Dark Patterns in 2023. SEBI is involved only for listed companies as per the study's recommendation, but the core authority remains the CCPA.

Source: SEBI Crackdown on Dark Patterns: 95% of Listed Companies Use Deceptive Design, Study Finds →
Q154.

Consider the following statements regarding the LocalCircles study on dark patterns:

1. The study found that 95% of India's publicly listed companies engaged in online consumer transactions use dark patterns.

2. Only 7 out of 23 companies that submitted a self-declaration to the CCPA were actually free of dark patterns.

3. The most common dark pattern identified was 'Interface Interference', found on 65% of platforms.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 and 2 are directly from the article. Statement 3 is incorrect: the most common dark pattern was 'Drip Pricing' (65%), not 'Interface Interference' (52%). Hence option C is correct.

Source: SEBI Crackdown on Dark Patterns: 95% of Listed Companies Use Deceptive Design, Study Finds →
Q155.

According to the LocalCircles study, what percentage of the 300+ analyzed platforms used 'Drip Pricing' as a dark pattern?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.52%
  • B.65%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.36%
  • D.21%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The study explicitly states that Drip Pricing was found on 214 platforms out of 214+ total? Actually it says 'Drip Pricing was found on 214 platforms (65 per cent)'. So 65% is correct. The other options are percentages of other dark patterns (52% Interface Interference, 36% Nagging, 21% Privacy Zuckering).

Source: SEBI Crackdown on Dark Patterns: 95% of Listed Companies Use Deceptive Design, Study Finds →
Q156.

What is the primary objective of the proposed SEBI intervention mentioned in the study?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To increase tax revenue from digital transactions
  • B.To ensure all listed companies adopt transparent and non-manipulative digital interfaces✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To ban all promotional inducements like cashback and free subscriptions
  • D.To transfer regulatory power from CCPA to SEBI
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The study recommends that SEBI require a 'dark pattern-free' self-declaration for listed and aspiring companies to protect consumer trust and corporate governance. Option C is part of the broader CCPA guidelines, not SEBI's primary objective. Option D is incorrect as SEBI would complement CCPA, not replace it.

Source: SEBI Crackdown on Dark Patterns: 95% of Listed Companies Use Deceptive Design, Study Finds →
Q157.

Which High Court quashed a POCSO case based on the survivor's voluntary consent and marriage to the accused?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Supreme Court of India
  • B.Kerala High Court
  • C.Meghalaya High Court✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Delhi High Court
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Meghalaya High Court, presided by Justice B Bhattacharjee, quashed the POCSO proceedings after recording the survivor's voluntary consent and noting that the couple is married with a child.

Source: Meghalaya HC Quashes POCSO Case: Survivor’s Consent, Marriage, and Child Key Factors →
Q158.

Consider the following statements:

1. The survivor was a minor when she entered into the relationship.

2. The court quashed the case because the survivor's consent was obtained under threat.

3. The couple has a child and both families have accepted their marriage.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the survivor was a minor at the time of the relationship. Statement 2 is incorrect: the court found the consent was voluntary and not under threat or coercion. Statement 3 is correct: the couple has a daughter and both families have accepted their marriage.

Source: Meghalaya HC Quashes POCSO Case: Survivor’s Consent, Marriage, and Child Key Factors →
Q159.

What was the age of the survivor when the Meghalaya High Court passed its order quashing the POCSO case?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.20 years
  • B.21 years
  • C.22 years
  • D.23 years✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the survivor was 23 years old at the time of the court order. The options 20, 21, and 22 are close distractors.

Source: Meghalaya HC Quashes POCSO Case: Survivor’s Consent, Marriage, and Child Key Factors →
Q160.

What was the primary reason cited by the Meghalaya High Court for quashing the POCSO proceedings?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.The accused was not guilty
  • B.The survivor had turned 18
  • C.Sending the husband to jail would cause greater injustice to the family✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The POCSO Act does not apply to married couples
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court held that since the couple is married, living together happily, and has a child, sending the accused to jail would not serve the cause of justice and would cause great injustice to the wife and child.

Source: Meghalaya HC Quashes POCSO Case: Survivor’s Consent, Marriage, and Child Key Factors →
Q161.

Which ministry is responsible for releasing the Performance Grading Index (PGI) for school education?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of Education✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Human Resource Development
  • D.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions the PGI was released by the Union Ministry of Education. Previously known as MHRD, it was renamed in 2020. Option B is correct.

Source: PGI 2025-26: Delhi in Top Band But Foundational GER Drops to 102.8, Secondary Retention at 86% →
Q162.

Consider the following statements regarding Delhi’s education indicators as per PGI 2025-26:

1. Delhi recorded a 100% retention rate at the foundational, preparatory, and middle stages.

2. The Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) at the secondary stage increased from 91 to 91.7 in 2024-25.

3. No district in India achieved the highest ‘Utkarsh’ grade in PGI 2025-26.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: article says Delhi recorded 100% retention at foundational, preparatory, and middle stages. Statement 2 is correct: secondary stage GER increased from 91 to 91.7. Statement 3 is correct: the article explicitly states no district achieved the highest Utkarsh grade. Hence all three are correct.

Source: PGI 2025-26: Delhi in Top Band But Foundational GER Drops to 102.8, Secondary Retention at 86% →
Q163.

According to PGI 2025-26, what was the Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) for Delhi at the preparatory stage (Classes III to V) in 2024-25?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.51
  • B.52.2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.102.8
  • D.115
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'The GER at the preparatory stage (Classes III to V) increased from 51 to 52.2.' Thus the current value is 52.2. Option A (51) is the previous year’s value, C (102.8) is foundational GER, D (115) is middle stage GER.

Source: PGI 2025-26: Delhi in Top Band But Foundational GER Drops to 102.8, Secondary Retention at 86% →
Q164.

What is the primary purpose of the Performance Grading Index (PGI) as stated in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To rank states and UTs based on their education performance
  • B.To help states and districts identify strengths and gaps without numerical rankings✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To allocate education funds based on performance
  • D.To evaluate individual teacher performance
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'the grading system is intended to help States and districts identify strengths and gaps instead of competing through numerical rankings.' Options A and C are not mentioned; D is not a purpose of PGI.

Source: PGI 2025-26: Delhi in Top Band But Foundational GER Drops to 102.8, Secondary Retention at 86% →
Q165.

Which organisation developed the Astra family of beyond-visual-range air-to-air missiles?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Indian Air Force
  • B.Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
  • C.Defence Research and Development Organisation✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Ministry of Defence
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Astra missiles are developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). The IAF is the user, HAL is a manufacturer of aircraft, and the Ministry of Defence oversees procurement but does not develop.

Source: India Signs First Export Deal for Astra Mk 1 BVRAAM to Indonesia; Key Features & Strategic Significance →
Q166.

Consider the following statements:

1. Astra Mk 1 has a range of 80-110 km and a speed of Mach 4.5.

2. Astra Mk 2 uses a single-pulse smokeless solid-fuel motor.

3. Astra Mk 3 is also known as Gandiva.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article (range 80-110 km, Mach 4.5). Statement 2 is incorrect: Astra Mk 1 uses a single-pulse motor, while Astra Mk 2 uses a dual-pulse motor. Statement 3 is correct: the article states that Astra Mk 3 is officially named Gandiva. Hence option C is correct.

Source: India Signs First Export Deal for Astra Mk 1 BVRAAM to Indonesia; Key Features & Strategic Significance →
Q167.

What is the maximum range of the Astra Mk 3 (Gandiva) missile as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.200 km
  • B.350+ km✓ Correct Answer
  • C.110 km
  • D.160 km
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Astra Mk 3 (Gandiva) could have a range of over 350 km. The other options: 200 km is the range of Astra Mk 2, 110 km is the maximum of Mk 1, 160 km is an earlier target for Mk 2.

Source: India Signs First Export Deal for Astra Mk 1 BVRAAM to Indonesia; Key Features & Strategic Significance →
Q168.

What is the primary strategic significance of the export of Astra Mk 1 missiles to Indonesia?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To boost India's defence exports revenue
  • B.To counter China's PL-15 missile used by Pakistan and China
  • C.To reduce India's dependence on imported air-to-air missiles like Meteor and R-77
  • D.All of the above✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions multiple significances: it is India's first export of Astra, it will be a counter to the PL-15, and it will help India build greater self-reliance by reducing dependence on imports like Meteor and R-77. All three options are correct, making D the right answer.

Source: India Signs First Export Deal for Astra Mk 1 BVRAAM to Indonesia; Key Features & Strategic Significance →
Q169.

Which organization published the report on credit card delinquencies and multiple unsecured loans mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, Banking
  • A.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
  • B.TransUnion CIBIL✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
  • D.Ministry of Finance
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the report is from TransUnion CIBIL, a credit information company registered with the RBI. The other options are regulatory bodies but not the publisher of this specific report.

Source: CIBIL Report: Credit Card Delinquencies Rise to 8.1% as Multiple Unsecured Loans Surge to 32% →
Q170.

Consider the following statements:

1. The delinquency level at 180 days past due (dpd) for credit cards increased from 5.8% in 2022 to 8.1% in March 2026.

2. The share of consumers holding only a credit card as their unsecured credit product increased from 33% to 50% over the past decade.

3. Gen Z consumers opened new unsecured loans post first card at a higher rate compared to millennials.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: delinquency at 180 dpd rose to 8.1% from 5.8%. Statement 2 is incorrect: the share of consumers holding only a credit card declined from 50% to 33% (not increased). Statement 3 is correct: Gen Z opened new unsecured loans at a higher rate than millennials. Hence option C is correct.

Source: CIBIL Report: Credit Card Delinquencies Rise to 8.1% as Multiple Unsecured Loans Surge to 32% →
Q171.

According to the CIBIL report, what was the delinquency rate (180 days past due) for credit cards as of March 2026?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.5.8%
  • B.7.2%
  • C.8.1%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.8.7%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'Delinquency level in 180 dpd category since 2022 has gone up from 5.8% to 8.1% in March 2026.' Option A (5.8%) is the 2022 figure, option D (8.7%) is the delinquency for a specific sub-group (4+ years card experience with 3+ personal loans), and option B is not mentioned.

Source: CIBIL Report: Credit Card Delinquencies Rise to 8.1% as Multiple Unsecured Loans Surge to 32% →
Q172.

What is the primary risk highlighted by the CIBIL report regarding 'high exposure users' in the credit card ecosystem?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.They account for 22% of all cardholders and have low utilisation rates.
  • B.They are less likely to become delinquent due to diversified credit profiles.
  • C.They are substantially more likely to become seriously delinquent after missing two or more repayments across products.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.They primarily use credit cards for large-ticket purchases and have stable repayment behaviour.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'Consumers in this segment who missed two or more repayments across products were substantially more likely to become seriously delinquent on their credit cards than other customer groups.' The other options contradict the report's findings.

Source: CIBIL Report: Credit Card Delinquencies Rise to 8.1% as Multiple Unsecured Loans Surge to 32% →
Q173.

Which Act governs the declaration of Reserved Forests in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
  • B.Forest Conservation Act, 1980
  • C.Indian Forest Act, 1927✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Environment Protection Act, 1986
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Indian Forest Act, 1927 provides the legal framework for declaring Reserved Forests. Under Section 4, a preliminary notification is issued, and under Section 20, final notification is made. The Wildlife Protection Act deals with Protected Areas (National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries), not Reserved Forests.

Source: Delhi Ridge Rejuvenation Campaign: 70 Lakh Plantation Drive, 6,300 Hectares to be Reserved Forest →
Q174.

Consider the following statements:

1. The Delhi Ridge is a northern extension of the Aravalli Hill Ranges.

2. The Southern Ridge is the smallest zone of the Delhi Ridge.

3. The Ridge Management Board was constituted in 1995 following a Supreme Court direction in M.C. Mehta vs Union of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Delhi Ridge is the northern extension of the Aravalli Hill Ranges. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Southern Ridge is the largest zone at ~6,200 ha, not the smallest. Statement 3 is correct: The Ridge Management Board was constituted on 6 October 1995 as per Supreme Court directions in M.C. Mehta vs Union of India.

Source: Delhi Ridge Rejuvenation Campaign: 70 Lakh Plantation Drive, 6,300 Hectares to be Reserved Forest →
Q175.

What is the total area of the Delhi Ridge that the government plans to develop into forest land under the Delhi Ridge Rejuvenation Campaign?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.6,300 hectares✓ Correct Answer
  • B.6,200 hectares
  • C.7,000 hectares
  • D.864 hectares
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Centre and Delhi government have resolved to develop 6,300 hectares of the Green Ridge area into forest land over the next four years. 6,200 hectares is the area of the Southern Ridge alone, 864 ha is the Central Ridge area, and 7,000 ha is not mentioned.

Source: Delhi Ridge Rejuvenation Campaign: 70 Lakh Plantation Drive, 6,300 Hectares to be Reserved Forest →
Q176.

Why is the planting of exotic species like Jacaranda and Sausage tree in the Central Ridge considered problematic?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.They require high water and nutrient input, which is unsustainable in the dry Ridge ecosystem✓ Correct Answer
  • B.They are illegal under the Indian Forest Act
  • C.They are not native to India and may become invasive
  • D.They do not provide any ecological benefits
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that the Ridge is a tropical dry thorn forest with xerophytic adaptations. Species like Jacaranda and Sausage tree are not characteristic of Ridge ecosystems and typically require higher moisture availability and sustained irrigation. Planting them goes against ecological restoration principles. While some are exotic, the primary concern is their unsuitability to the dry conditions, not just being non-native.

Source: Delhi Ridge Rejuvenation Campaign: 70 Lakh Plantation Drive, 6,300 Hectares to be Reserved Forest →
Q177.

Which body recommended the appointment of the assistant professor to the Ramakrishna Mission Residential College in the recent Calcutta High Court case?

EasyUPSC, State PSC
  • A.University Grants Commission (UGC)
  • B.West Bengal College Service Commission (WBCSC)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.West Bengal Higher Education Department
  • D.National Eligibility Test (NET) Board
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

According to the article, the West Bengal College Service Commission (WBCSC) had recommended the appointment of the petitioner to the post of assistant professor of English in 2023. The college refused to accept that recommendation, leading to the court case.

Source: Calcutta HC Upholds College’s Refusal to Appoint Teacher Over Facebook Posts Hurting Religious Sentiments →
Q178.

Consider the following statements regarding the Calcutta High Court judgment:

1. The court held that the right to profess religion includes the right to hurt the religious sentiments of others.

2. The court observed that the college’s decision was bona fide and in the best interest of the institution.

3. The court set aside the single-judge’s order that directed the college to issue an appointment letter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the court explicitly stated that the right to profess religion does not permit hurting the religious sentiments of others. Statement 2 is correct: the court observed that the decision was bona fide, free of arbitrariness, and in the best interest of the institution. Statement 3 is correct: the bench allowed the college’s appeal and set aside the single judge’s order directing appointment.

Source: Calcutta HC Upholds College’s Refusal to Appoint Teacher Over Facebook Posts Hurting Religious Sentiments →
Q179.

On which date did the Calcutta High Court division bench pass the order upholding the college’s refusal to appoint the candidate?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.July 8, 2026
  • B.July 1, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.June 1, 2025
  • D.July 1, 2025
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the order was passed on July 1, 2026, as mentioned in the quote: 'stated the July 1 order'. The article was published on July 8, 2026, which is a different date.

Source: Calcutta HC Upholds College’s Refusal to Appoint Teacher Over Facebook Posts Hurting Religious Sentiments →
Q180.

What was the primary reason the Calcutta High Court upheld the college’s refusal to appoint the candidate?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The candidate lacked the required academic qualifications.
  • B.The candidate’s Facebook posts had the potential to hurt religious sentiments of others.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The West Bengal College Service Commission did not follow proper procedure.
  • D.The candidate had a criminal record.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court noted that the Facebook posts expressed strong views on religion, particularly against the Ramakrishna Mission and its monks, and had the propensity to hurt the sentiments of other religions. The college’s refusal was based on this plausible ground, and the court held that the decision was not malafide or arbitrary.

Source: Calcutta HC Upholds College’s Refusal to Appoint Teacher Over Facebook Posts Hurting Religious Sentiments →
Q181.

Which ministry is the nodal body for coordinating India's participation in the annual India-Australia summit?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Defence
  • B.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  • D.Ministry of Home Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) is the nodal ministry responsible for managing India's foreign relations, including bilateral summits, strategic partnerships, and diplomatic engagements with other nations. The MEA spokesperson Randhir Jaiswal provided updates on this visit.

Source: India-Australia 3rd Annual Summit: Comprehensive Strategic Partnership, MAHASAGAR & Indo-Pacific Vision →
Q182.

Consider the following statements regarding the India-Australia summit:

1. This is PM Modi's third visit to Australia and his first to Melbourne in 12 years.

2. The summit primarily focuses on enhancing bilateral trade in manufactured goods under the QUAD framework.

3. Flinders University is the latest Australian university approved to open a campus in India under the New Education Policy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as mentioned in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect - the focus is on cooperation in Indo-Pacific, critical minerals, and education, not specifically manufactured goods trade. Statement 3 is correct as Flinders University was the latest to receive approval.

Source: India-Australia 3rd Annual Summit: Comprehensive Strategic Partnership, MAHASAGAR & Indo-Pacific Vision →
Q183.

How many Australian universities have been approved to set up campuses across India as per the news article?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.5
  • B.6
  • C.7
  • D.8✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that eight Australian universities have been approved to set up campuses across India, with Flinders University being the latest addition. This is a key data point under the New Education Policy partnership.

Source: India-Australia 3rd Annual Summit: Comprehensive Strategic Partnership, MAHASAGAR & Indo-Pacific Vision →
Q184.

What is the primary strategic objective of the India-Australia summit's emphasis on MAHASAGAR and the Indo-Pacific vision?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To establish a free trade agreement between the two nations
  • B.To counterbalance China's influence and support Small Island Developing States✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To increase Australian investment in Indian manufacturing sectors
  • D.To negotiate visa-free travel for Indian citizens to Australia
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article highlights that the summit aims to bring new opportunities and prosperity for Small Island Developing States and strengthen QUAD ties. This aligns with the broader strategic goal of ensuring a free and open Indo-Pacific, implicitly countering China's assertive stance. Trade and investment are secondary benefits, not the primary strategic objective.

Source: India-Australia 3rd Annual Summit: Comprehensive Strategic Partnership, MAHASAGAR & Indo-Pacific Vision →
Q185.

Which country's Prime Minister called for a joint effort with India to 'remake the case for a rules-based system' in global geopolitics?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Australia
  • B.New Zealand✓ Correct Answer
  • C.United Kingdom
  • D.Japan
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article features an interview with New Zealand Prime Minister Christopher Luxon, who explicitly states that New Zealand, working with India, needs to remake the case for a rules-based system. This reflects a shared strategic perspective between the two nations.

Source: PM Modi's NZ Visit: First Indian PM in 4 Decades, Three Pillars of Bilateral Ties Defined →
Q186.

Consider the following statements:

1. PM Narendra Modi's visit to New Zealand in July 2026 is the first by an Indian Prime Minister in four decades.

2. New Zealand PM Luxon identified four pillars of India-NZ ties: economy, defence, education, and climate change.

3. Luxon stated that New Zealand does not see anti-immigrant sentiments because it has legal immigration policies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Modi's visit is the first in roughly 40 years. Statement 2 is incorrect: Luxon identified three pillars (economy, defence/security, people-to-people), not four, and education is part of people-to-people ties, not a separate pillar. Statement 3 is correct: Luxon said NZ has legal immigration, not illegal, which is why it avoids anti-immigrant sentiments.

Source: PM Modi's NZ Visit: First Indian PM in 4 Decades, Three Pillars of Bilateral Ties Defined →
Q187.

According to the article, what are the dates of PM Modi's visit to New Zealand?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.July 8-9, 2026
  • B.July 10-11, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.July 11-12, 2026
  • D.July 13-14, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that Modi will be in New Zealand on July 10 and 11. This is a straightforward factual retrieval question testing attention to specific dates mentioned in the news.

Source: PM Modi's NZ Visit: First Indian PM in 4 Decades, Three Pillars of Bilateral Ties Defined →
Q188.

What is the primary strategic objective behind New Zealand PM Luxon's call for India and NZ to 'remake the case for a rules-based system'?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To negotiate a new bilateral free trade agreement
  • B.To jointly reform multilateral institutions to include Global South voices✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To counter China's influence in the South China Sea
  • D.To increase immigration quotas for Indian students
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Luxon explicitly links the need to 'remake the case' with the fact that Global South countries like India and Brazil 'haven't really been part of that system' created post-WWII. While trade and immigration are related topics, the core objective mentioned is reforming multilateral institutions to be more inclusive and effective in a multipolar world.

Source: PM Modi's NZ Visit: First Indian PM in 4 Decades, Three Pillars of Bilateral Ties Defined →

Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?

For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.

  • Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
  • Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
  • Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.

Frequently Asked Questions

What are the important current affairs questions for 8 July 2026?▼

This page contains 188 current affairs questions from 8 July 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.

How to use 8 July 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼

Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.

How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼

Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.

Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼

Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.

What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼

Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.

All Questions in This Set

  1. Q1. ministry/department is primarily responsible for the formulati…
  2. Q2. Consider the following statements regarding India's economic i…
  3. Q3. According to the article, what was the monthly average price o…
  4. Q4. is the primary recommendation of the authors regarding India's…
  5. Q5. ministry/department is responsible for publishing the draft am…
  6. Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the proposed amend…
  7. Q7. According to the article, how many AAY cardholders in Tamil Na…
  8. Q8. is the primary reason cited by Tamil Nadu and Kerala for oppos…
  9. Q9. Act was used to designate the Indian Mujahideen as a terrorist…
  10. Q10. Consider the following statements: 1. The Gujarat High Court …
  11. Q11. many people were killed in the 2008 Ahmedabad serial blasts?
  12. Q12. is the primary significance of the Gujarat High Court verdict …
  13. Q13. article of the Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to hear…
  14. Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the recent news on…
  15. Q15. In which year did the Tamil Nadu government issue the order th…
  16. Q16. is the primary constitutional issue raised by the Madras High …
  17. Q17. forum hosted over 150 leading Japanese corporations during the…
  18. Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the 16th India-Jap…
  19. Q19. was the total amount of fresh Japanese investment announced du…
  20. Q20. is the primary objective of the proposed demographic complemen…
  21. Q21. country's Parliament Speaker accused the U.S. of violating the…
  22. Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the U.S.-Iran MoU:…
  23. Q23. is the date of the U.S.-Iran MoU mentioned in the article?
  24. Q24. is the primary purpose of Article 5 of the U.S.-Iran MoU?
  25. Q25. ministry releases the data on India's oil imports mentioned in…
  26. Q26. Consider the following statements regarding India's oil import…
  27. Q27. According to the article, what was the premium paid by India p…
  28. Q28. Why did Russia start charging a premium on oil exports to Indi…
  29. Q29. body is primarily responsible for formally approving the India…
  30. Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the India-EU Free …
  31. Q31. According to the EU Ambassador, what is the current volume of …
  32. Q32. is the primary strategic significance of the India-EU FTA as h…
  33. Q33. High Court delivered the judgment that preventive detention ca…
  34. Q34. Consider the following statements: 1. The Allahabad High Cour…
  35. Q35. On which date did the Allahabad High Court deliver its order r…
  36. Q36. is the primary significance of this Allahabad High Court judgm…
  37. Q37. of the following is the critical maritime chokepoint mentioned…
  38. Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Horm…
  39. Q39. According to the article, by what percentage did Brent crude o…
  40. Q40. is the primary risk for India's economy due to the renewed ten…
  41. Q41. ministry is primarily responsible for the Employees' Provident…
  42. Q42. Consider the following statements regarding EPFO's new portal:…
  43. Q43. According to the EPFO announcement, what is the total interest…
  44. Q44. is the primary objective of EPFO's new centralised portal unde…
  45. Q45. US military command is primarily responsible for operations in…
  46. Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the US-Iran confli…
  47. Q47. According to the news, approximately how many weeks before the…
  48. Q48. is the most significant global economic implication of the con…
  49. Q49. trade agreement between India and Australia provides duty-free…
  50. Q50. Consider the following statements regarding India-Australia bi…
  51. Q51. According to the article, what was the bilateral trade value b…
  52. Q52. is the primary objective of the India-Australia Economic Coope…
  53. Q53. is the name of the campaign under which the Delhi government w…
  54. Q54. Consider the following statements: 1. The Delhi Ridge will re…
  55. Q55. many hectares of the Delhi Ridge have been notified as reserve…
  56. Q56. is the primary ecological objective of replacing invasive babu…
  57. Q57. Act established the All India Council for Technical Education …
  58. Q58. Consider the following statements: 1. AICTE placed 58 enginee…
  59. Q59. many engineering colleges were placed under progressive closur…
  60. Q60. is the primary reason for the progressive closure of engineeri…
  61. Q61. body published the working paper that studied unconditional wo…
  62. Q62. Consider the following statements: 1. In 2025-26, 12 states w…
  63. Q63. According to the article, what is the debt burden of Punjab as…
  64. Q64. is the primary concern raised by the RBI regarding the rapid e…
  65. Q65. institution released the Financial Stability Report that highl…
  66. Q66. Consider the following statements: 1. As of May 2026, banks' …
  67. Q67. According to the article, what was the year-on-year growth rat…
  68. Q68. is the primary risk highlighted by the RBI regarding the rapid…
  69. Q69. Indian agency led the Indian delegation at the BRICS Heads of …
  70. Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the Guwahati Decla…
  71. Q71. On which date was the Guwahati Declaration adopted by the BRIC…
  72. Q72. is the primary objective of the Guwahati Declaration adopted b…
  73. Q73. country reversed the name of its Indo-Pacific Command back to …
  74. Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the Quad: 1. The …
  75. Q75. On which date did the Pentagon rename the U.S. Indo-Pacific Co…
  76. Q76. According to the article, what is the primary criticism regard…
  77. Q77. regulatory body designates LIC as a Domestic Systemically Impo…
  78. Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the life insurance…
  79. Q79. According to LIC's March 2025 regulatory filing with IRDAI (Fo…
  80. Q80. is the primary macroeconomic risk highlighted by the article i…
  81. Q81. national policy is primarily responsible for the revised under…
  82. Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the NEP's revised …
  83. Q83. According to retired Professor Nandita Narain, what is the min…
  84. Q84. is the primary reason honours students like Insha Mirza feel t…
  85. Q85. constitutional provision allows both the Union and state gover…
  86. Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the proposed 50% b…
  87. Q87. is the proposed weightage for Class 12 board marks in the meri…
  88. Q88. If board results are declared across a spread of weeks and a n…
  89. Q89. U.S. military command conducted the strikes on Iranian targets…
  90. Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the US-Iran escala…
  91. Q91. According to the article, how many Islamic Revolutionary Guard…
  92. Q92. was the primary stated objective of the US strikes according t…
  93. Q93. ministry is responsible for releasing the UDISE+ (Unified Dist…
  94. Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the UDISE+ 2025-26…
  95. Q95. According to the UDISE+ 2025-26 report, what was the total enr…
  96. Q96. does the significant shift of students from government to priv…
  97. Q97. Act of Parliament prohibits the employment of manual scavenger…
  98. Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the Bombay High Co…
  99. Q99. is the total compensation ordered by the Bombay High Court for…
  100. Q100. is the primary objective of the rehabilitation provisions unde…
  101. Q101. organisation is the apex drug regulator in India, under which …
  102. Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the recent recomme…
  103. Q103. By what date of each month must state drug authorities share d…
  104. Q104. is the primary objective of the Drug Consultative Committee's …
  105. Q105. ministry has oversight of the Indian Carbon Market platform un…
  106. Q106. Consider the following statements: 1. CASA deposits are high-…
  107. Q107. is the operating range of Bluetooth Low Energy used in the BAT…
  108. Q108. is the primary objective of setting Greenhouse Gas Emission In…
  109. Q109. High Court delivered the judgment that the Domestic Violence A…
  110. Q110. Consider the following statements: 1. The Domestic Violence A…
  111. Q111. According to the article, on what date did the couple get marr…
  112. Q112. is the primary implication of the Allahabad High Court judgmen…
  113. Q113. article of the Constitution prohibits religious instruction in…
  114. Q114. Consider the following statements regarding the Chhattisgarh H…
  115. Q115. On which date was the government order issued by the Chhattisg…
  116. Q116. was the primary legal reasoning of the Chhattisgarh High Court…
  117. Q117. court issued the order that a woman teacher cannot be denied p…
  118. Q118. Consider the following statements regarding the Madras High Co…
  119. Q119. On which date did the Madras High Court pass the order in this…
  120. Q120. was the primary legal basis for the Madras High Court's decisi…
  121. Q121. US federal agency led the investigation named 'Operation Hard …
  122. Q122. Consider the following statements: 1. Gurinderjit Singh Nagra…
  123. Q123. According to the article, what amount was extorted from a fami…
  124. Q124. is the most significant implication of this news for India's i…
  125. Q125. Indian law allows the designation of an individual as a terror…
  126. Q126. Consider the following statements regarding Goldy Brar: 1. He…
  127. Q127. is the amount of reward announced by the FBI for information l…
  128. Q128. is the primary objective of 'Operation Hard Ball' as mentioned…
  129. Q129. statutory body issued notices to manufacturers for using the t…
  130. Q130. Consider the following statements regarding energy drinks: 1.…
  131. Q131. According to the article, how much added sugar is present in a…
  132. Q132. Why does the FSSAI object to the term 'energy drink' and relat…
  133. Q133. international organization released the latest global growth f…
  134. Q134. Consider the following statements regarding the IMF's latest W…
  135. Q135. According to the IMF, what is the projected global inflation r…
  136. Q136. region experienced the largest downward revision in growth due…
  137. Q137. level of education is the primary focus of the NIPUN Bharat Mi…
  138. Q138. Consider the following statements regarding NIPUN Bharat Missi…
  139. Q139. According to ASER 2024, what percentage of Class 3 students in…
  140. Q140. is the primary objective of the NIPUN Bharat Mission?
  141. Q141. organization released the revised Class 8 Social Science textb…
  142. Q142. Consider the following statements regarding the revised NCERT …
  143. Q143. is the title of the revised NCERT Class 8 Social Science textb…
  144. Q144. Why was the earlier NCERT Class 8 Social Science textbook with…
  145. Q145. ministry is primarily responsible for overseeing Tribal Resear…
  146. Q146. Consider the following statements regarding the Bhubaneswar De…
  147. Q147. many Tribal Research Institutes were recognized for 'exemplary…
  148. Q148. is the primary strategic objective behind granting greater ins…
  149. Q149. international financial institution released the World Economi…
  150. Q150. Consider the following statements: 1. IMF lowered its global …
  151. Q151. is India's projected GDP growth for 2027-28 according to the IMF?
  152. Q152. According to the IMF, what is the 'most imminent risk' to the …
  153. Q153. authority is primarily responsible for regulating dark pattern…
  154. Q154. Consider the following statements regarding the LocalCircles s…
  155. Q155. According to the LocalCircles study, what percentage of the 30…
  156. Q156. is the primary objective of the proposed SEBI intervention men…
  157. Q157. High Court quashed a POCSO case based on the survivor's volunt…
  158. Q158. Consider the following statements: 1. The survivor was a mino…
  159. Q159. was the age of the survivor when the Meghalaya High Court pass…
  160. Q160. was the primary reason cited by the Meghalaya High Court for q…
  161. Q161. ministry is responsible for releasing the Performance Grading …
  162. Q162. Consider the following statements regarding Delhi’s education …
  163. Q163. According to PGI 2025-26, what was the Gross Enrolment Ratio (…
  164. Q164. is the primary purpose of the Performance Grading Index (PGI) …
  165. Q165. organisation developed the Astra family of beyond-visual-range…
  166. Q166. Consider the following statements: 1. Astra Mk 1 has a range …
  167. Q167. is the maximum range of the Astra Mk 3 (Gandiva) missile as me…
  168. Q168. is the primary strategic significance of the export of Astra M…
  169. Q169. organization published the report on credit card delinquencies…
  170. Q170. Consider the following statements: 1. The delinquency level a…
  171. Q171. According to the CIBIL report, what was the delinquency rate (…
  172. Q172. is the primary risk highlighted by the CIBIL report regarding …
  173. Q173. Act governs the declaration of Reserved Forests in India?
  174. Q174. Consider the following statements: 1. The Delhi Ridge is a no…
  175. Q175. is the total area of the Delhi Ridge that the government plans…
  176. Q176. Why is the planting of exotic species like Jacaranda and Sausa…
  177. Q177. body recommended the appointment of the assistant professor to…
  178. Q178. Consider the following statements regarding the Calcutta High …
  179. Q179. On which date did the Calcutta High Court division bench pass …
  180. Q180. was the primary reason the Calcutta High Court upheld the coll…
  181. Q181. ministry is the nodal body for coordinating India's participat…
  182. Q182. Consider the following statements regarding the India-Australi…
  183. Q183. many Australian universities have been approved to set up camp…
  184. Q184. is the primary strategic objective of the India-Australia summ…
  185. Q185. country's Prime Minister called for a joint effort with India …
  186. Q186. Consider the following statements: 1. PM Narendra Modi's visi…
  187. Q187. According to the article, what are the dates of PM Modi's visi…
  188. Q188. is the primary strategic objective behind New Zealand PM Luxon…