9 July 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The news article states that Secretary of State Marco Rubio notified Congress of the delisting, indicating the State Department handles the designation. This is a standard function of the US foreign policy apparatus.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions Syria has been listed since 1979. Statement 2 is incorrect because Cuba also remains on the list as explicitly stated in the article. Statement 3 is correct as the meeting occurred on July 8, 2026, at the NATO summit in Ankara, Turkey.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'With the removal, only three countries remain on the terror blacklist — Iran, North Korea and Cuba.' Hence the correct answer is 3.

Explanation

Secretary Rubio stated: 'Lifting sanctions on Syria will unlock international trade and investment, give Syria a chance to rebuild, and open up a new chapter for the Syrian people.' This shows the primary objective is economic reconstruction, not punishment or isolation.

Explanation

The OMCs (IOC, BPCL, HPCL) are public sector undertakings under the administrative control of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. The article mentions that the ministry worked in coordination with others to manage the crisis.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India's petrol price rise was 7.5% vs 14% in Germany and 19% in UK. Statement 2 is correct: Article states India imports almost 90% crude and nearly 60% LPG. Statement 3 is incorrect: The government and OMCs absorbed the shock instead of passing it to consumers, incurring ₹74,781 crore in losses.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Petrol prices in India rose by just 7.5% during the crisis.' The other options are price rises in other countries: 14% in Germany, 19% in UK, 45% in USA.

Explanation

The article highlights four factors: strategic relationships, diversified supplier base (Russia, USA, Africa, Latin America), energy planning (ethanol blending, renewables, strategic reserves, refining capacity), and whole-of-government coordination. Option C captures the key structural preparation.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that Indian agencies shared the list via the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA), which handles coordination with foreign governments on such matters.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says coordinated crackdown by US, Canada, and Europe. Statement 2 is incorrect: Anmol Bishnoi was deported for involvement in the murder of NCP leader Baba Siddique, not Sidhu Moosewala. Statement 3 is correct: Goldy Brar is suspected in Azerbaijan and Rohit Godara in the US. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Anmol Bishnoi was deported from the US in November last year and is wanted as the main plotter in the murder of NCP leader Baba Siddique. Lawrence Bishnoi is in jail in Gujarat, Goldy Brar is absconding, and Rohit Godara is also absconding.

Explanation

Operation Hardball is a notable instance of Indian agencies sharing verified lists with US counterparts, leading to a multi-country crackdown. While drones and VPNs are mentioned as methods used by criminals, the core significance is the enhanced bilateral and multilateral security cooperation, which is crucial for internal security and international relations exams.

Explanation

According to NZ PM Luxon, India is the second biggest source of visas for New Zealand, after China likely. The article mentions India is the second biggest source of visas already.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the FTA was concluded in April 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: PM Luxon assured that the FTA will clear Parliament because trade is bipartisan, and the opposing party (NZ First) has always opposed every FTA, but it is a minor party. Statement 3 is correct: Luxon mentioned joint naval exercises and more defence cooperation.

Explanation

Luxon stated that the Indian diaspora is almost 7% of New Zealand's total population and is hugely successful across all strata of life.

Explanation

Luxon repeatedly stated that the FTA is of mutual benefit and aims to lift the living standards of both peoples. While other outcomes like improved trade and defence cooperation are spin-offs, the core objective is economic upliftment.

Explanation

The article states the new declaration 'complements existing institutional mechanisms, including the Foreign Ministers’ Framework Dialogue, the 2+2 Foreign and Defence Ministerial Dialogue, and the Defence Ministers’ Dialogue.' CECA is a separate economic initiative mentioned separately, and Quad is not referenced in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly says the declaration 'builds upon the India-Australia Joint Declaration on Security Cooperation signed in 2009.' Statement 2 is incorrect because the declaration places 'significant emphasis on defence industry cooperation' including supply chains and innovation. Statement 3 is correct as both sides agreed to implement an India-Australia Maritime Security Collaboration Roadmap.

Explanation

The article's first paragraph states 'India and Australia on Thursday (July 9, 2026) adopted a new Joint Declaration on Defence and Security Cooperation.' The other dates are plausible distractors but do not match the published date.

Explanation

The article says the two countries 'will implement an India-Australia Maritime Security Collaboration Roadmap to strengthen coordination across the Indian Ocean and the wider Indo-Pacific.' Options A, C, and D are not mentioned in the article and represent common misinterpretations.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the events were attended by leading CEOs and business leaders, according to India's Ministry of External Affairs (MEA). The MEA is the nodal ministry for India's foreign policy and diplomatic engagements.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions Modi called for early conclusion of CECA to build upon ECTA. Statement 2 is incorrect: Australia is India's 14th-largest trading partner, not 10th. Statement 3 is correct as the article lists these sectors as areas of opportunity.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Australia is India's 14th-largest trading partner, with bilateral trade in goods and services valued at $24.1 billion in 2025-26.' The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article states that Modi called for early conclusion of CECA to 'propel business ties to a new level.' The CECA is meant to build upon the foundational ECTA signed in 2022, aiming for deeper economic integration.

Explanation

The Delhi High Court held that the right to be forgotten flows from Article 21's guarantee of dignity and informational privacy, as established by the Supreme Court in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017). Article 14 deals with equality, Article 19 with freedoms, and Article 32 with right to constitutional remedies.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct — the judgment explicitly linked the right to Article 21. Statement 2 is incorrect — DPDP Act 2023's section 12 offers a limited consent-based right and does not address judicial records; the article says the Act is deficient. Statement 3 is correct — the court said masking names should be preferred over deleting judgments to balance open justice.

Explanation

The article states: 'On May 29, the Delhi High Court ruled in a batch of over 30 consolidated petitions, led by Laksh Vir Singh Yadav v. Union of India.' July 9, 2026 is the publication date of the article, not the judgment date.

Explanation

The article highlights that even after a court order, acquittal judgments may still appear high in name-based searches because search engines are designed to show the original accusation first. De-indexing does not prevent mirrors or social media sharing, and without effective technical compliance and coordination among platforms, the right remains largely symbolic.

Explanation

According to the article, the University Grants Commission of India issued a formal Letter of Intent (LoI) to Flinders University for its branch campus in Bengaluru. UGC is the statutory body that coordinates and maintains standards of higher education in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article explicitly mentions a nuclear energy pact for uranium supply. Statement 2 is incorrect: it was the third annual summit, not the second. Statement 3 is correct: a joint Rooftop Solar Training Academy will be set up in Gujarat under PM Surya Ghar Yojana. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that a Letter of Approval (LoA) was granted to Victoria University to operationalise its new campus in Gurgaon. Flinders University will be in Bengaluru, and the National Centre of Excellence for Skilling in Mining is in Bhubaneswar.

Explanation

The article notes that the pact 'secures a stable corridor for uranium supplies from Australia to India, lending fresh momentum to New Delhi's carbon-reduction objectives.' While clean energy transition is the broader goal, the specific objective mentioned is the stable supply of uranium for that purpose.

Explanation

The article states that India and Australia agreed on a deal to export Australian uranium to India. This was finalised during PM Modi's visit to Melbourne.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article says the deal came during PM Modi's visit to Australia. Statement 2 is incorrect because the uranium is for use in the nuclear energy industry, not military. Statement 3 is correct as the arrangement is under the long-standing civil nuclear framework. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

Albanese said the arrangement facilitates Australian uranium exports to India to help increase the share of non-fossil fuel power capacity. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Australian PM Albanese called India a 'close partner' and said 'Australia and India are close partners and even closer friends.' The deal reflects growing strategic cooperation. The other options contradict the article's statements.

Explanation

The Indian delegation at the 23rd National Level Meeting was led by Govind Mohan, Secretary of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). This meeting is primarily focused on border security and internal security matters, which fall under the purview of the MHA.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the meeting was held in Delhi, not Naypyidaw. Statements 2 and 3 are directly mentioned in the MHA spokesperson's statement. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that both sides discussed the need to work closely towards the completion of the Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project and the India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway. These are key connectivity initiatives under India's Act East Policy.

Explanation

The core focus of the National Level Meeting is border security, counter-insurgency, and combating transnational crime. Myanmar's assurance regarding territory use directly addresses India's concern about insurgent groups operating from across the border. While other objectives like trade exist, security is the primary driver.

Explanation

The article states that the agreements included one between the Indian Coast Guard (ICG) and the Maritime Border Command (MBC) of Australia for cooperation in maritime law enforcement, domain awareness, and border protection.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the pact facilitates commercial uranium supply. Statement 2 is incorrect because the two sides decided to work expeditiously to firm up the proposed CECA, not sign it at the summit. Statement 3 is correct as an announcement was made on the deployment of an Indian military instructor for 2028-29.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that '18 pacts' were signed following the summit talks between Prime Ministers Modi and Albanese. The other numbers are close distractors.

Explanation

The article states that cooperation in critical minerals is vital for strategic security and clean energy transition. A critical minerals corridor reduces supply chain vulnerabilities and dependence on China, which dominates global rare earth processing. This is a key strategic objective of the partnership.

Explanation

Article 44 of the Constitution directs the state to endeavour to secure a uniform civil code. This is a non-justiciable directive principle, but it provides the constitutional basis for the government's initiative. The other options are either fundamental rights or amendment procedure, not directly related to the UCC objective.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Justice Ranjana Desai (retd. SC judge) is the chairperson. Statement 2 is correct: members include former HC judges R.C. Chavan and S.G. Mehare, ex-chief secretary D.K. Jain, and former advocate general Virendra Saraf. Statement 3 is incorrect: the deadline is six months, not one year. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the committee headed by Justice Desai is expected to submit its report within six months. The other options are close distractors – three months is too short, nine months and one year exceed the announced timeline.

Explanation

The committee is constituted to 'prepare a framework for implementing a Uniform Civil Code' as per the CM's statement. It is not directly implementing the UCC but drafting a proposal. The objective is to study and recommend, not to replace laws overnight. Option C is incorrect because DPSPs are not enforceable. Option D is not mentioned.

Explanation

The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act (PCMA), 2006, sets the minimum marriage age at 18 for females and 21 for males. The Majority Act fixes majority at 18 but exempts marriage. POCSO deals with sexual offences, not marriage age.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the court's ruling. Statement 2 is incorrect because a marriage in violation of PCMA is voidable, not void ab initio. Statement 3 is correct as the bill lapsed with the dissolution of the 17th Lok Sabha. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The PCMA sets the minimum age for marriage of girls at 18 years. The court reiterated that this age applies to all citizens irrespective of religion. The other options are distractors: 15 years is the puberty age under Shariat, 16 years was the age of the girl in the case, and 21 years was proposed but not enacted.

Explanation

The court held that PCMA and POCSO, being later enactments based on public health and national policy, override Shariat. This establishes a precedent that in cases of conflict, such statutory laws prevail over personal law, without abolishing personal law entirely. The judgment applies to all personal laws, but the specific case involved Muslim personal law.

Explanation

The India-Japan agreement, signed in 2011, is a Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA). It is broader than a standard FTA, covering goods, services, investment, and IP. The article contrasts it with the UK's CETA (Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement), also a type of CEPA.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states the US surplus averaged $42B. Statement 2 is correct: combined surplus with EU, UK, and Japan was ~$12B. Statement 3 is incorrect: the China deficit was ~$99B, not $42B. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'India's goods trade deficit with China reached approximately $99 billion in 2024-25—a record.' $42B is the US surplus, $79B is India's exports to US, $113B is India's imports from China.

Explanation

The article uses data to show that the US surplus ($42B) dwarfs combined surpluses from EU, UK, Japan ($12B). It argues the US deal would be a 'structural shift' while others are 'marginal gains'. The article does not advocate for a China FTA or RCEP.

Explanation

The term 'public authority' is defined under Section 2(h) of the Right to Information Act, 2005. Article 12 defines 'State' for fundamental rights, not for RTI. The CIC's ruling on BCCI specifically applied Section 2(h).

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the CIC explicitly held that performing public functions alone does not make BCCI a public authority. Statement 2 is correct: the CIC relied on Thalappalam (2013) which held that 'control' must be substantial and 'substantial financing' means essential funding. Statement 3 is correct: the 2026 ruling reversed the 2018 decision of then-CIC M Sridhar Acharyulu.

Explanation

The Thalappalam judgment was delivered in 2013. The article mentions it as a key precedent. 2005 is the year of Zee Telefilms, 2018 is the earlier CIC ruling, and 2026 is the current CIC ruling.

Explanation

As per Section 2(h), a body qualifies as public authority if it is established by Constitution/law/government notification or is owned/controlled/substantially financed by government. BCCI is a private society registered under Tamil Nadu Societies Registration Act, 1975, and the CIC found that tax exemptions and oversight do not amount to substantial control or financing. Performing public functions is not a criterion under the Act.

Explanation

The article states that the University Grants Commission (UGC) issued a formal Letter of Intent to Flinders University to set up its branch campus in Bengaluru. The UGC is the statutory body responsible for coordination, determination, and maintenance of standards in higher education in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Modi said they decided to fast-track work on CECA. Statement 2 is incorrect: the existing ECTA was already in place (signed earlier), not a new one signed now. Statement 3 is correct: Australia agreed to return the Nandi, trident with Auspicious Kali, and six-headed Skanda.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the administrative arrangement finalised in 2026 operationalises the '2014 Civil Nuclear Agreement'. Therefore, the original agreement was signed in 2014.

Explanation

The article states: 'a joint Rooftop Solar Training Academy will be established in Gujarat to build technical capacity among women and youth under the PM Surya Ghar Yojana.' This directly corresponds to skilling for solar energy, not installation or manufacturing.

Explanation

The study was conducted by Vimal Mishra, a professor at IIT-Gandhinagar, along with his colleague Urmin Vegad. The article clearly states this.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: eastern rivers saw 20% decline. Statement 2 is incorrect: western rivers saw only a 6% decline, which is statistically non-significant. Statement 3 is correct: the study was by Vimal Mishra and Urmin Vegad from IIT-Gandhinagar. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the Pong dam reservoir saw a decline of nearly 34% in annual inflows between 1951 and 2020. The other options are distractors: 20% is the rainfall decline in eastern rivers, 6% is the western rivers decline, and 30% is not mentioned.

Explanation

The study provides data-based evidence that water availability in the eastern rivers has declined significantly, supporting India's argument that the treaty must be renegotiated to account for climate-induced changes. The article states that the treaty may become unsustainable in the long run.

Explanation

Customs duty exemptions fall under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. The Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY) oversees the PLI scheme for electronics, but the duty notification is issued by the Finance Ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per article: 85 capital goods exempted till March 2029. Statement 2 is incorrect because the notification removes the earlier restriction linked to specific downstream battery applications, now covering all applications. Statement 3 is correct: display assembly inputs for automotive, medical, and industrial sectors are exempted.

Explanation

The article states that the number of mobile manufacturing units increased to 300 in 2024-25 from just 2 in 2014-15. Option A (2) is the historical base, while 150 and 450 are distractors.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the exemption will "further deepen value addition in mobile phone manufacturing." While reducing costs (option C) is a secondary effect, the core objective is deeper localisation and value addition. Option A is opposite; option D is too narrow.

Explanation

ICSSR is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Education (formerly Ministry of Human Resource Development). It provides grants-in-aid to social science research institutes like CSDS.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: ICSSR grants were Rs 62.88 million out of total Rs 75.62 million (83%). Statement 2 is correct: the show-cause notice mentioned faculty appointments in violation of UGC guidelines. Statement 3 is incorrect: the Supreme Court only stayed criminal action, not permanently quashed the FIRs.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that ICSSR grants account for roughly 90% of the salary component at CSDS. The 83% figure refers to the total income share.

Explanation

Since ICSSR grants cover 90% of salaries and provide allowances for research and maintenance, suspension of grants would cripple the institute's operations. The article notes this 'could cast a cloud over its viability'.

Explanation

The article clearly mentions the Health Minister Satya Kumar Yadav and refers to the state government, with VIJAYAWADA indicating Andhra Pradesh. The guidelines were approved on July 8, 2026.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article – the directive must be prepared voluntarily, signed before two witnesses, and attested by a Notary/Gazetted Officer. Statement 2 is incorrect – the article says the High Court, not the Supreme Court, can be approached. Statement 3 is correct – a copy must be given to the local authority (Municipality/Corporation/Panchayat) which will appoint a custodian.

Explanation

The article states: 'On Wednesday (July 8, 2026), Minister for Health... approved a set of guidelines'. The other options are close distractors; July 9 is the publication date of the article.

Explanation

The article states the guidelines would 'ensure that terminally-ill patients received a dignified natural death through withdrawal of life-sustaining treatment'. Option A is wrong because active euthanasia remains illegal; option C is wrong because the guidelines create two boards, not a single board; option D is wrong because strict procedures must be followed, including consent and board approvals.

Explanation

The Census is conducted by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner under the Ministry of Home Affairs. This is a standard static GK fact for competitive exams.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as mentioned in the article. Statement 2 is correct because the 2011 SECC did not have statutory backing, but the Census 2027 does. Statement 3 is incorrect because the government says it will finalise the methodology after the pre-test, not that the pre-test alone will determine it.

Explanation

The article states that the 1931 Census recorded 4,147 caste names, in contrast to the 2011 SECC which recorded more than 46 lakh caste names. This is a key data point for prelims.

Explanation

The article explains that an open-ended response leads to a huge variety of entries (46 lakh in 2011) because people treat surnames, sub-castes, and clan names as interchangeable. This results in incoherent data that cannot be used reliably for policy or reservation.

Explanation

The article states that the Bihar cabinet entrusted the work of preparing the Alternative Analysis Report (AAR) and DPRs to the National Capital Region Transport Corporation (NCRTC) on a nomination basis. NCRTC is the nodal agency for RRTS projects in the NCR and is now being engaged for Bihar's corridors.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Cabinet approved the preparation of DPRs for four RRTS corridors. Statement 2 is correct: the estimated cost for AAR and DPRs is ₹31.59 crore. Statement 3 is incorrect: the scheme was extended for five years, not three years. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article mentions that administrative approval was granted for an estimated expenditure of ₹300 crore under the Self-Help Allowance component for financial year 2026-27. The other options are distractors: ₹31.59 crore is for DPRs, ₹348.89 crore is for AIIMS land acquisition, and ₹500 crore is not mentioned.

Explanation

The article states that the RRTS will provide safe, fast, reliable, and efficient last-mile connectivity, benefit citizens and commercial activities, and help in developing satellite townships. Reducing traffic congestion in Patna is an implied benefit. Therefore, all the given options are correct objectives.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the NQM's objectives are according to the Department of Science & Technology website, indicating it is the nodal department for this mission.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: a qubit can exist in superposition of 0, 1, and all states in between. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article states that if qubit error rates are not below a threshold, adding more qubits can worsen performance of logical qubits. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions Google's Willow processor as an example of superconducting qubits (Josephson junction). Hence, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'California-based Atom Computing having reported in 2023 a quantum computer with over 1,000 qubits.' This is the specific data point from the article. Other options are possible distractors from other quantum processor milestones.

Explanation

The article highlights that quantum computers will herald a new era in simulating molecules, securing digital lives, and modelling natural phenomena that overwhelm supercomputers. Option A is incorrect because classical computing is not expected to disappear. Option D is incorrect as the article mentions it may take time for quantum computers to make it to laptops.

Explanation

The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) is the nodal ministry responsible for India's foreign relations and issuing official statements on international developments. The article explicitly mentions 'The Ministry of External Affairs said, in a statement on Wednesday'.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the MEA urged parties to 'ensure the uninterrupted flow of energy supplies'. Statement 2 is incorrect because Jaishankar is visiting four West Asian countries (Qatar, Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman), not five. Statement 3 is correct as the article states 'after three tankers were hit Tuesday, the US launched strikes on Iran'.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Iran's Supreme Leader Ayatollah Ali Khamenei 'was killed Feb. 28 in the war's first moments'. This date is a key factual data point from the news.

Explanation

India's statement specifically calls for 'the uninterrupted flow of energy supplies', reflecting its dependence on Gulf oil and gas. Additionally, millions of Indian expatriates work in Gulf countries, making regional stability critical for India's economic and strategic interests.

Explanation

The PGI 2.0 is released by the Department of School Education and Literacy under the Ministry of Education. It evaluates states and UTs on 70 indicators to assess the quality of school education.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Bihar scored 564.8 points and is in Akanshi-1 grade. Statement 2 is correct: Bihar fared better than Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Gujarat, and Uttarakhand in learning outcomes. Statement 3 is incorrect: Chandigarh emerged as the sole leader in the Uttam-3 category (not Uttam-1), and no state has breached the top three tiers (Utkarsh, Uttam-1, Uttam-2).

Explanation

Bihar scored a meagre 64.8 out of 190 points in the 'Infrastructure and Facilities' domain, placing it near the bottom. The other options are distractors: 81.9 is Bihar's score in Learning Outcomes, 54.7 is its score in Access, and 67.0 is its score in Teacher Education & Training.

Explanation

The report states that the Central government provides financial assistance under the Samagra Shiksha Scheme for critical inputs like working toilets, clean drinking water, electricity, computing devices, internet, libraries, and sports facilities to ensure a pleasant and inclusive school environment.

Explanation

The article states that India and Indonesia co-hosted the 1955 Bandung Conference, which laid the foundations of the Non-Aligned Movement. The other options are later NAM summits but not the founding conference.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says the Strait carries around 23 million barrels of oil a day. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article says an estimated 80% of China's imported oil passes through it, not 60%. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions Sabang Port is located near the northwestern entrance to the Strait of Malacca. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'an estimated 80 per cent of its imported oil passing through it' (the Strait of Malacca). The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the text.

Explanation

The article highlights that the Strait of Malacca is a vital chokepoint, especially for China's oil imports. Joint development of Sabang Port aims to deepen partnership in securing its integrated development, reducing risks of excessive dependence on Washington or Beijing. While tourism and anti-piracy are secondary, the core objective is strategic security and balancing China's influence.

Explanation

The article states that BrahMos is jointly developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) of India and Russia’s NPO Mashinostroyenia. This is a key static fact often tested in defence-related questions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as BrahMos travels at Mach 2.8. Statement 2 is incorrect: the first export customer was the Philippines, not Indonesia. Statement 3 is correct: the missile is multi-platform capable (land, ship, submarine, aircraft). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that India’s defence exports reached a record ₹38,424 crore. The ₹50,000 crore figure is the target for 2029. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article explains that Southeast Asian countries seek cost-effective deterrence against larger naval forces by deploying long-range anti-ship missiles like BrahMos, which enhance A2/AD capabilities without needing large surface fleets. Options A, C, and D are not mentioned or are exaggerated.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that AustralianSuper invested in India's National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF). NIIF is India's sovereign wealth fund for infrastructure, established in 2015. The other options are different infrastructure financing entities not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article calls AustralianSuper 'Australia's largest pension fund'. Statement 2 is correct: the new investment comes on top of the A$240 million committed seven years ago. Statement 3 is incorrect: A$410 billion is the total funds under management of AustralianSuper, not its India holdings. India holdings are A$3.3 billion.

Explanation

The article states: 'AustralianSuper will now hold 3.3 billion Australian Dollars worth of investments in India.' This includes both the previous and new investments. A$240 million is the old investment, A$500 million is the new one, and A$410 billion is the total fund size, not India exposure.

Explanation

The article explicitly says NIIF was 'created in 2015 to attract global investment into the country's infrastructure development.' It is not a grant-giving body, nor a regulator, nor a forex reserve manager. It is a sovereign wealth fund that pools foreign and domestic capital for infrastructure projects.

Explanation

The USTR launched the forced labour investigation under Section 301 of the Trade Act of 1974, which allows the U.S. to take action against foreign trade practices that burden U.S. commerce.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the proposed tariffs apply to 54 economies, not 60. Statement 2 is correct: India flagged that the 1,600-item exemption undermines the policy. Statement 3 is correct: the USTR launched two separate investigations on March 11-12, 2026.

Explanation

India pointed out that the U.S. exempts 1,600 items that cannot be produced or grown within the country from forced labour scrutiny. This was a key inconsistency flagged by India during the USTR public hearing.

Explanation

India argued that the reduced tariff rates for textile products manufactured using U.S. cotton operate as an arbitrary requirement that constrains sourcing decisions and does not adequately address forced labour concerns.

Explanation

The article states that the team was led by Indrakshi Raychowdhury, an associate professor in the physics department at BITS Pilani (Goa campus), working with scientists from IBM Quantum.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: QAT was launched in November 2025 by IBM with Flatiron Institute, BlueQubit, and Algorithmiq. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article says 'only around a dozen have been accepted' (not 20). Statement 3 is correct: it is the first active claim from an Indian lab. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'simulated the behaviour of subatomic particles on 120 qubits'. 27 qubits was the previous maximum for similar tasks, and 1,000 qubits is mentioned as a future scalability target, not the actual number used.

Explanation

The article explains that the problem involves quarks and gluons inside protons, governed by the strong nuclear force – 'exponentially hard to calculate classically'. The algorithm provides a 'useful' quantum advantage. The other options are not mentioned; encryption breaking is stated to be years away, and arithmetic is noted as a weakness of quantum computers.

Explanation

The Central Information Commission (CIC), under the RTI Act, 2005, directed CBSE to formulate time-bound SOPs to ensure transparency in providing marks, answer sheets, and assessment records, as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: OSM required students to apply, pay fees, and depend on portal access. Statement 2 is incorrect: The CIC held that denial of access was contrary to the spirit of the RTI Act. Statement 3 is correct: 1.6 lakh reached re-evaluation, 87% results declared. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'Of the nearly 17.7 lakh Class XII students' as the total number. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article proposes a seven-day plan focusing on universal verification and re-evaluation before the supplementary exam, addressing the root cause of the controversy rather than forcing students into a second exam without verification.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the teachers were appointed under the Persons with Disabilities (PwD) reservation quota, and the court's ruling refers to the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 as the governing beneficial legislation. The 2016 Act replaced the earlier 1995 Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the court explicitly held that the committee report was merely an administrative recommendation lacking statutory force. Statement 2 is correct as the court noted the teachers had not suppressed any material fact. Statement 3 is correct as the state argued that the committee identified only OA and HH categories as suitable.

Explanation

The article clearly states that both teachers were appointed on August 24, 2021, after completing the selection process. January 19, 2023 is the date show-cause notices were issued, February 6, 2023 is the termination date for Neel Kumari, and July 3, 2026 is the date of the court judgment.

Explanation

The court held that any interpretation restricting employment opportunities under the RPwD Act must have clear statutory sanction, and in its absence, executive instructions or committee recommendations cannot defeat the object of the legislation. Option C is also implied but D is more precise as it directly quotes the court's reasoning.

Explanation

The article states that the BOHR satellite was developed by Florida-based company City Labs. SpaceX was the launch provider, not the developer. NASA and DoD are mentioned but not the developer.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because BOHR uses tritium (not plutonium) in a betavoltaic cell. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned: 'first nuclear-powered mission approved under the Federal Aviation Administration’s nuclear launch framework established by the country in 2019.' Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article specifically states: 'The Falcon 9 mission carried 81 payloads, with satellite deployments beginning about 50 minutes after launch.' The other options are plausible distractors.

Explanation

The article states BOHR is a 'demonstration mission designed to test City Labs’ proprietary NanoTritium betavoltaic micropower source in space for the first time.' While it could eventually support lunar missions, its primary purpose is demonstration. The other options are incorrect because it uses tritium not plutonium, and it is not intended to replace all solar panels.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Union Ministry of Home Affairs launched the E-Zero FIR system and that MHA officials briefed PM Modi on cybercrime action. The NCRP and cyber helpline 1930 are also under MHA.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: complaints exceeding ₹10 lakh are auto-converted. Statement 2 is correct: 98 lakh complaints, 2.3 lakh FIRs = 2.36%. Statement 3 is correct: the article says '12.1 lakh mule accounts were debit-frozen'.

Explanation

The article states that between 2021 and May 2026, people reported cybercrime losses of ₹64,447 crore. The other options are distractors: ₹25,095 crore is the amount of fraud prevented, ₹10,718 crore is amount frozen as lien, and ₹323 crore is amount refunded.

Explanation

The article mentions that the E-Zero FIR system is part of broader efforts to prevent fraud (saving ₹25,095 crore) and includes a money restoration module to refund victims. While increasing FIR registration is a means, the core objective is victim-centric: preventing losses and enabling refunds.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) launched the Inflation Expectations Survey of Households. While NSSO conducts other surveys, this specific survey is conducted by the RBI to gather inputs for monetary policy formulation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Inflation Expectations Survey is conducted across 19 cities. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article says the Rural survey covers 31 States/UTs, not all 36. Statement 3 is correct: the Urban Consumer Confidence Survey seeks qualitative responses on general economic situation, employment scenario, price level, households' income and spending.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Rural Consumer Confidence Survey collects data from households residing in rural and semi-urban areas across 31 States/UTs. The other options are distractors: 19 is the number of cities for the urban surveys, 28 is the number of states in India (excluding UTs), and 36 is the total number of States/UTs in India.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the surveys are 'aimed at providing critical inputs for formulating monetary policy.' Specifically, the Inflation Expectations Survey helps gauge price pressures, while the Consumer Confidence Surveys provide insights into economic sentiment. These are key inputs for the Monetary Policy Committee's rate decisions.

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, Guidance is the nodal agency instrumental in bringing investments into Tamil Nadu. Deepak Jacob is the MD & CEO of Guidance Tamil Nadu, which conducts stakeholder consultations alongside industry associations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the policy rollout is targeted for January 2027, not 2026. Statement 2 is correct as the article states 'Tamil Nadu leads in electronics export with 41%'. Statement 3 is correct as the first meeting brought together representatives from the electronics and semiconductor ecosystem. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'Tamil Nadu leads in electronics export with 41%'. The other options are close distractors that could be confused with shares of other states or sectors.

Explanation

Governor Rajendra Vishwanath Arlekar told the Assembly on June 18, 2026, that the policy aims 'to promote the State's economic stability and industrial growth' and will 'offer special incentive schemes for domestic and global companies to make fresh investments in Tamil Nadu'. This is the core objective, while other options are not mentioned.

Explanation

The National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) is the apex statutory body under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, chaired by the Prime Minister. It advises on conservation policy and approves changes to protected area boundaries. The other options are related but not the apex wildlife authority.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the full NBWL convened in 2025 after a 13-year gap. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Standing Committee approved over 97% of proposals, not less than 50%. Statement 3 is correct: M.K. Ranjitsinh is among the petitioners and is widely regarded as the principal drafter of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The petition specifically states that the Standing Committee approved more than 97% of proposals for diverting, reducing, or de-notifying protected land between 2014 and 2026. The other options are close distractors but not the exact figure mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The petitioners seek binding guidelines, including that NBWL must record written reasons demonstrating how each diversion benefits wildlife, as mandated by Sections 29 and 35(6) of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. They do not seek to strike down clearances or abolish the committee, but rather to enforce transparency and scientific assessment.

Explanation

The NBWL is a statutory body under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, and its administrative oversight lies with the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). The Union Environment Minister chairs its Standing Committee.

Explanation

All statements are correct. The NBWL is chaired by the Prime Minister, its Standing Committee is chaired by the Union Environment Minister, and the board is a statutory creation of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Standing Committee considered 'over 100 development projects' requiring wildlife clearance. Options A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not match the reported number.

Explanation

The article states that proposals were appraised on 'ecological impacts, importance for public welfare and national development, and adequacy of mitigation measures.' This shows a balancing approach, not a blanket approval or denial.

Explanation

The news clearly states that India and Australia finalised a uranium export deal. Therefore, Australia is the exporting country.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article indicates the deal was finalised during PM Modi's visit. Statement 2 is incorrect because nuclear cooperation agreements are for civilian purposes, not military. Statement 3 is a well-known static fact about Australia's uranium resources, which is contextually relevant. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article was published on July 9, 2026, and it reports the finalisation of the deal during PM Modi's visit, so the deal was finalised in 2026.

Explanation

India's civil nuclear agreements are exclusively for peaceful energy production. The deal will provide fuel for India's nuclear reactors, thereby supporting the country's civilian nuclear energy program.

Explanation

The article states that LineShine, housed at the National Supercomputing Centre in Shenzhen, topped the TOP500 list with 2.198 exaflops, surpassing the US's El Capitan. Sunway TaihuLight was China's previous top system in 2017.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: LineShine is the first machine to cross 2 exaflops using only general-purpose CPUs, no GPUs. Statement 2 is incorrect: the target is 80% self-sufficiency by 2030, not 100%. Statement 3 is correct: the Tata-Powerchip fab in Dholera is a 28nm, Rs 91,000 crore project with a capacity of 50,000 wafers per month.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that LineShine 'clocked 2.198 exaflops on the High Performance Linpack benchmark'. 1.809 exaflops is the performance of El Capitan. The other options are distractors.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that 'an ecosystem is not a fab' and that China's success came from depth across the entire value chain. It warns against mistaking assembly for autonomy and stresses the need for patient capital and talent development.

Explanation

The AISHE is conducted annually by the Ministry of Education (formerly Ministry of Human Resource Development) to collect data on higher education institutions in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: private universities grew from 219 to 546, a 149.3% increase. Statement 2 is incorrect: government universities enrolled 68.1% of students in 2023-24, which is less than 70%. Statement 3 is correct: Gujarat added 51 private universities, the highest among states.

Explanation

The article states that India's GER increased from 23.0 in 2013-14 to 30.0 in 2023-24. Option 31.2 is the female GER, and 28.9 is the male GER. 23.0 is the GER for 2013-14.

Explanation

The rapid growth of private universities relative to government ones indicates a shift towards privatisation. This can lead to higher costs for students, raising concerns about access and equity. The article notes that although government universities still enrol the majority, their share is declining.

Explanation

The Treaty of Westphalia (1648) ended the Thirty Years' War and established the principles of state sovereignty and territorial integrity, forming the basis of the modern nation-state system. It is mentioned in the article as the starting point for organised state warfare.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article says Napoleon lost about 550,000 troops in Russia. Statement 2 is incorrect – the article highlights that British extraction was based on financial systems and institutions, not battlefield looting. Statement 3 is correct – the Indian Army captured Dhaka in 1971, followed by the Shimla Agreement in 1972.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that sanctions on Iran over 15 years resulted in losses of $1.2 trillion, approximately four times Iran's GDP. The other options are common distractors often seen in similar questions.

Explanation

The article identifies two decisive factors: the risk of nuclear escalation and technological changes (transparency, precision, resilience) that make massed forces vulnerable. While economic interdependence and law play roles, the core argument centres on nuclear and tech-driven obsolescence.

Explanation

The article extensively discusses the UAPA, including its amendments, conviction rates, and the bail bar under Section 43D(5). The Supreme Court case Syed Iftikhar Andrabi vs NIA (2026) is specifically about UAPA. TADA and POTA are different anti-terror laws; NSA is a preventive detention law.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: government data shows 335 convictions against 10,440 arrests, yielding a 3.2% rate. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article states that the bail bar has 'fractured the Supreme Court into sharply divergent benches', leading to a reference to a larger bench. Statement 3 is correct: the UK POAC allows a further appeal to the Court of Appeal on questions of law, as per the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the conviction rate of 3.2% came from 335 convictions against 10,440 arrests during the 2019-2023 period. 1,226 is the highest number of reported UAPA cases in a year (NCRB 2019), 649 is the lowest (NCRB 2024), and 335 is the number of convictions.

Explanation

The article highlights that the current system makes the right to be heard a 'trap', as contesting the ban can be used as evidence of continued unlawful activity. The proposed mechanism involves a court-appointed Senior Advocate (Amicus Curiae) with access to classified evidence, representing the organisation's interests without the risk of self-incrimination. This aims to make the challenge meaningful and fair, not to increase convictions or speed up trials.

Explanation

The article directly refers to 'Chief Economic Advisor V Anantha Nageswaran'. He is the current CEA of India, appointed in 2022.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: article says 'more than 2,000 such centres' and 'around 2% of India’s GDP'. Statement 2 is incorrect: article says India is the 'second-largest base of enterprise AI talent', not the largest. Statement 3 is correct: article mentions 2026-27 Budget provisions for tax certainty and expanded safe harbour.

Explanation

The article states 'revenue heading towards $100 billion'. The other options are plausible distractors but only $100 billion is mentioned.

Explanation

The news states the Budget 'provided tax certainty to GCCs and simplified and expanded the transfer-pricing safe harbour along with a higher threshold'. This is intended to encourage GCCs to move from low-cost execution to high-value innovation, not to increase taxes or restrict operations.

Explanation

UNCLOS Part III specifically addresses straits used for international navigation and establishes the regime of transit passage. The US insisted on free transit, which is a UNCLOS provision, even though the US has not ratified the treaty. The other options are not directly relevant to freedom of navigation through straits.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article (MoU signed June 17, 60-day ceasefire). Statement 2 is incorrect – the article states that Israel distanced itself from the MoU and continued its operations against Hezbollah in Lebanon. Statement 3 is correct – Article 5 mandates Iran to use 'best efforts' for safe passage. Hence only 1 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'the Strait of Malacca is a 1,100-kilometre-long transit corridor'. Option A (800 km) is the north-south spread of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Option C is the distance from Great Nicobar to Sabang, and D is not mentioned.

Explanation

The article mentions that proponents of the project claim it would 'bolster India's regional security posture and act as a deterrent for China's maritime ambitions in the Indian Ocean region'. While economic benefits are noted, the primary strategic rationale is security-oriented. Options C and D are not explicitly stated, and tourism is not highlighted as the primary goal.

Explanation

The UGC, under the UGC Act 1956, coordinates and maintains standards of higher education, including minimum qualifications for faculty positions. AICTE regulates technical education, NCTE teacher education, and BCI legal education.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the court said UGC provides minimum benchmark, not restrictive upper limit. Statement 2 is incorrect: the court distinguished Mandeep Singh as it related to Punjab's adoption. Statement 3 is correct: the court noted the petitioner did not challenge the November 2022 notification.

Explanation

The article states that the petitioner argued that fixing a 35% qualifying cut-off was arbitrary. The court did not strike it down, upholding the state's power to set such criteria.

Explanation

The court explicitly held that the state's recruitment process only supplements UGC Regulations and does not diminish eligibility criteria. This reinforces federal flexibility in higher education recruitment while maintaining UGC's role as a minimum standard-setter.

Explanation

Import duties (customs duties) in India are levied and modified by the Ministry of Finance, specifically through the Department of Revenue. While other ministries may propose supportive policies, the actual tariff changes are under the purview of the Finance Ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because duties were removed only on 'select' components, not all. Statement 2 is correct as the exemption remains effective until March 31, 2029. Statement 3 is correct as lithium-ion cells are among the exempted parts mentioned in the article.

Explanation

According to government data cited in the article, smartphone production in India has reached ₹5.45 trillion (approximately $57 billion) in FY2024-25, marking a 28-fold increase over the past decade.

Explanation

The article states that the move aims to improve cost competitiveness, domestic value addition, and localisation of high-value manufacturing. Specifically, exempting lithium-ion cells is expected to encourage investment in domestic battery manufacturing for both consumer electronics and electric mobility.

Explanation

The article states that the reinstatement order was issued by the Assembly's Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Welfare Committee. It is a legislative committee, not a constitutional body like the National Commission for SC/ST.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the court said no piece of legislation empowers the committee to override a court order. Statement 2 is correct: the high court had earlier rejected the third complaint as vexatious. Statement 3 is incorrect: the committee issued the order without considering the institute's reply.

Explanation

The article clearly states that Justice M G S Kamal delivered the order on June 22, 2026. The other dates are earlier events: October 6, 2017 is the date of the committee's communication, April 28, 2015 is the termination date, and September 25, 2014 is the date of the first complaint.

Explanation

The court emphasized that the legislative committee lacked jurisdiction to sit over a final court order, thereby reinforcing the separation of powers between the legislature and judiciary. No law empowered the committee to override a judicial decision, so the order was arbitrary and ultra vires.

Explanation

Article 44 is a Directive Principle of State Policy that states 'The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.' It is not a Fundamental Right and hence not enforceable in courts.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Uttarakhand became the first state to implement UCC, effective January 27, 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Bill was passed on February 7, 2024, not 2025. Statement 3 is correct: Justice Ranjana Desai heads the Maharashtra UCC committee.

Explanation

According to the news, Uttarakhand brought the UCC law into force on January 27, 2025, after the Bill was passed on February 7, 2024. The committee report was submitted on October 18, 2024.

Explanation

Rais Shaikh demanded that the committee include representatives from the Muslim community and other minority groups, arguing that Muslims constitute 11% of Maharashtra's population and the issue directly affects them. He sought reconstitution of the panel.

Explanation

Article 22(1) provides that no person arrested shall be detained without being informed of the grounds of arrest. Article 20 relates to protection against ex post facto laws, double jeopardy, and self-incrimination. Article 21 deals with right to life and personal liberty. Article 23 prohibits trafficking and forced labor.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the Pankaj Bansal judgment. Statement 2 is incorrect – Vihaan Kumar held that grounds need not necessarily be in writing. Statement 3 is correct – Mihir Raja Shah extended the requirement to all cases. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The Vihaan Kumar judgment (February 2025) said grounds of arrest should be communicated but not necessarily in writing. The other judgments (Pankaj Bansal, Mihir Raja Shah, Dr Rajender Ranjan) required written grounds.

Explanation

The arrest memo mentioned Section 403 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) instead of the correct Section 103. The Solicitor General argued this typographical error did not cause prejudice as the accused was aware of the grounds. The bench noted that a magistrate had already recorded satisfaction that the accused knew the grounds.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Justice Mohammed Shaffiq was hearing the plea filed by the survivor's mother. He passed the order on July 7, 2026.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the girl was 14 years old and 28.1 weeks pregnant. Statement 2 is incorrect because the court directed the hospital to constitute a medical board and evaluate health before termination. Statement 3 is correct as the court explicitly cited Article 21 in its order.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the girl was 28.1 weeks pregnant. The other options are common statutory limits (24 weeks for rape survivors under MTP Act) or higher figures used as distractors.

Explanation

The court order explicitly stated that continuation of the pregnancy would cause 'grave and irreparable harm to her physical and mental health and violate her rights under Article 21'. While the mother's consent was noted, the core reasoning was the harm to the survivor's health.

Explanation

DMRC is the nodal agency for Delhi Metro. MMRDA operates Mumbai Metro, BMRCL operates Bengaluru Metro, and KMRC operates Kolkata Metro. The article explicitly mentions DMRC as the implementing agency.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct – the corridor is part of Phase 4. Statement 2 is incorrect – it has 5 interchange stations (not 12). Statement 3 is correct – the article states it is a fully underground extension of the Magenta Line. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states the corridor is 12.377 km long. Options 10.5 km, 14.2 km, and 15.0 km are distractors. This data point is important for prelims factual questions.

Explanation

The article emphasizes improved connectivity to Sarai Rohilla Railway Station, New Delhi Railway Station, Delhi Secretariat, and other landmarks, along with decongestion benefits. The driverless feature is a technological aspect, not the primary objective. Options A, C, and D are not supported by the text.

Explanation

The article mentions Union Fisheries Minister Rajiv Ranjan Singh, indicating that fisheries fall under the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying. This ministry oversees the promotion and regulation of fisheries in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 58% tariff was specifically on shrimp, not all seafood. Statement 3 is correct as frozen shrimp exports were ₹49,037 crore. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that frozen shrimp remained the leading export item, contributing ₹49,037 crore. The other options are the total export value (₹73,890 crore), previous year's export value (₹62,000 crore), and export volume in metric tonnes (19,72,018 MT).

Explanation

The article mentions that the LoA was distributed to enable eligible Indian-flagged fishing vessels to undertake regulated fishing operations in the high seas. The Odisha Deep Sea Fishing Mission is a separate initiative to unlock deep sea fishing potential.

Explanation

The article states that the fresh directions were issued by the Revenue Department of the Delhi government. The other options are incorrect as the directive is at the state level, not central.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because only GPAs executed in favour of persons other than close blood relatives need referral; those for close blood relatives are registered directly. Statement 2 is correct as per the 30-day timeline. Statement 3 is correct as the exemption applies to parents, spouse, children, and siblings.

Explanation

The article specifies that the Collector of Stamps will ordinarily pass a reasoned order within 30 days, but in exceptional cases, the period may be extended to a maximum of three months.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the measures are aimed at preventing revenue loss, tackling fraudulent property transactions, and protecting buyers from defective documentation. Options A, B, and D are not the stated objectives.