11 July 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The Cinematograph Act, 1952 establishes the CBFC as the statutory authority to certify films. The article mentions that the film Satluj faced CBFC scrutiny requiring 127 cuts. Thus option B is correct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says 'first visit... in 40 years'. Statement 2 is correct: FTA negotiations started March 2025 and the pact was signed in April 2026, a 13-month span. Statement 3 is incorrect: the target is to double trade to NZ$7 billion (not 14). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that Kerala's CBR stood at 9.64 in 2024, down from 11.06 in 2023. 8.77 is the crude death rate, and 14.48 was the CBR in 2016. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

Section 69A of the IT Act gives the government power to issue orders to block content. The article states that the government used powers under Section 69A to take down Satluj. OTT regulation under Part III of IT Rules 2021 (Code of Ethics) is separate. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

Under the IT Act, blocking orders under Section 69A are issued by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) through a designated officer. The Ministry of Home Affairs handles internal security, but not the IT Act's blocking provisions directly.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Court confirmed the government's authority to block an entire app. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Court held that Telegram's takedown response was 'not determinative' because mirror channels and disposable accounts allowed the same content to resurface. Statement 3 is correct: the Court shifted the focus to proactive design obligations to prevent recurrence.

Explanation

The article states that Telegram had already removed 900 of the 1,300 links the government had flagged before the emergency block was ordered. The other options are distractors: 1,300 is the total flagged, 1,000 and 400 are not mentioned.

Explanation

The ruling emphasizes that if a platform's architecture makes granular enforcement 'practically unfeasible', a total block becomes proportionate. Therefore, app-based businesses must design their platforms to allow targeted content removal; otherwise, they risk a complete ban. Safe harbour alone is no longer sufficient if design prevents effective enforcement.

Explanation

The PESA Act, 1996 extends Part IX of the Constitution to Scheduled Areas, empowering Gram Sabhas to protect tribal rights over land and natural resources. The SPT and CNT Acts are colonial-era land tenancy laws, while MMDR Act governs mining.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The SPT Act was enacted in 1876 after the Santal Hul of 1855. Statement 2 is incorrect: The CNT Act restricts land transfers to non-Adivasis; transfers within the same caste are allowed with District Collector approval. Statement 3 is correct: Section 71(A) of the CNT Act mandates restoration of illegally transferred tribal land.

Explanation

The 1996 amendment to Section 49 of the CNT Act expanded the provision to include industrial and mining purposes, subject to sanction of the Deputy Commissioner. This created a major loophole allowing land alienation for development projects.

Explanation

Central laws like the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 and Coal Bearing Areas Act, 1957 often override SPT, CNT, and PESA protections in the name of 'public interest', leading to land alienation. Gram Sabhas exist under PESA, and mining is not completely banned.

Explanation

The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) is responsible for India's foreign policy, including organizing official visits and negotiating bilateral agreements. The article mentions the MEA as the source for the PM's schedule and diaspora address.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the visit was in July 2026 and the first in 40 years. Statement 2 is incorrect: the FTA was signed in April 2026, not during this visit. Statement 3 is correct: Luxon visited India in March 2025 during Holi, as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that this was 'the first visit by an Indian Prime Minister to New Zealand in 40 years'. The previous visit would have been in 1986.

Explanation

The article states that 'close cooperation as two maritime nations lends new strength to the Indo-Pacific' and that they can 'contribute to global peace, stability and security'. While trade and diaspora are mentioned, the strategic partnership focuses on maritime and security dimensions in the Indo-Pacific region.

Explanation

The article states that the Joint Committee of Parliament examining the Bills on simultaneous elections is working on the mechanism. The Kovind committee had earlier submitted a report, but the current legislative scrutiny is by the Joint Committee.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: P.P. Chaudhary is the chairperson of the Joint Committee. Statement 2 is correct: the article cites an estimated economic loss of ₹7 lakh crore. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article says the mechanism 'may be ready for rollout by 2029', not that it will be implemented before 2029. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that an economic study submitted to the Kovind committee estimated the loss at nearly ₹7 lakh crore. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article highlights that frequent elections cause an economic loss of ₹7 lakh crore, which is presented as the key rationale. While other benefits may exist, the article specifically emphasizes the economic loss as the driving factor.

Explanation

The article states that Iran claims sole control over the Strait of Hormuz, which is considered an international waterway. This directly challenges the principle of freedom of navigation, which allows ships of all states to navigate through international straits. The other options, while related to international law, are not the primary principle at stake here.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article explicitly states 'About a fifth of all traded oil and natural gas passed through the strait before the war began.' Statement 2 is correct: the article says 'vessels should begin to pay fees to Tehran.' Statement 3 is incorrect: the U.S. is demanding Iran declare the strait open and free, not accepting its sole control.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'oil prices have sharply dropped since wartime highs of $120 a barrel.' The other options are close distractors but not the exact figure mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The article highlights that the Strait of Hormuz is a vital waterway for world energy markets, and the U.S. demand is to ensure it remains open and free for shipping. This is directly tied to preventing a global energy crisis, as Iran's grip on the strait during the conflict led to one. The other options, while plausible in a broader geopolitical context, are not the primary objective stated in the news.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Strait of Hormuz carries around one-fifth (20%) of the world's oil supplies. The other options are also important chokepoints but are not associated with this specific percentage in the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the US issued a Saturday ultimatum. Statement 2 is incorrect: Iran disputes the US account and denies requesting talks; it says it merely agreed to discussions requested by Qatari mediators. Statement 3 is correct: the article notes that the Strait is the main route for Gulf crude exports and is critical for India's oil imports.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'The Strait of Hormuz carries around one-fifth of the world’s oil supplies', which is 20%. The other options are common distractors; 10% and 15% are lower, while 25% is higher than the stated figure.

Explanation

The article specifically states that for India, 'which imports a significant share of its crude oil from Gulf producers, prolonged instability in the Strait could increase freight costs, disrupt energy supplies and put upward pressure on domestic fuel prices.' This makes option B correct. The other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The Strategic Partnership and bilateral agreements are led by the Ministry of External Affairs, which handles diplomatic relations. While other ministries implement specific pacts, MEA coordinates overall foreign policy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per article: first visit in 40 years. Statement 2 is incorrect; the target is NZ$7 billion, not NZ$10 billion. Statement 3 is correct: NZ joined the Global Biofuels Alliance. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The joint statement specifically set a target to double bilateral trade to NZ$7 billion (₹35,000 crore) by 2030. The other options are incorrect distractors.

Explanation

According to the article, the maritime security dialogue was established to strengthen cooperation, coordination, and information exchange. It also includes frameworks for joint activities, not just annual exercises. Territorial disputes and fisheries are not mentioned.

Explanation

Article 243-I (for Panchayats) and Article 243-Y (for Municipalities) provide for the constitution of a State Finance Commission every five years. Article 280 deals with the Central Finance Commission. Article 276 deals with profession tax, and Article 243-G and 243-W deal with powers of Panchayats and Municipalities respectively.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the tax share is proposed to increase to 27.3%. Statement 2 is incorrect: the deadline is March 2030, not 2027. Statement 3 is correct: the profession tax collection powers (under the 1975 Act) are recommended to be returned to local bodies. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The commission estimated an annual funding gap of ₹8,217 crore, which is equivalent to 3.6% of the state's average State Own Tax Revenue (SOTR). The other options are close distractors but the exact figure mentioned in the report is ₹8,217 crore.

Explanation

The core objective is to empower local bodies with a major revenue source (estimated at 0.8% of SOTR) to reduce their dependency on state grants and bridge the funding gap. This aligns with the broader goal of strengthening local self-government under the 73rd and 74th Amendments.

Explanation

Section 2(h) of the RTI Act, 2005 defines 'public authority' to include bodies established by Constitution, by law, by government notification, or any non-government organisation substantially financed by the appropriate government. Section 2(f) defines 'information', Section 2(j) defines 'right to information', and Section 8 provides exemptions from disclosure.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct - the court held that free land grant amounts to substantial indirect financing. Statement 2 is incorrect - the club was declared a public authority under Section 2(h), not Section 2(f). Statement 3 is correct - the court stated that the grant by the Maharaja is recognised as an Act of the State. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that Century Club was granted 7.5 acres of land by the then Maharaja of Mysuru in 1913. The other options are close distractors but only 7.5 acres is the correct figure mentioned in the judgment.

Explanation

The core ruling is that Century Club is a 'public authority' under the RTI Act, making it obliged to provide information to citizens. The court did not order vacating land or invalidating pre-independence grants. The judgment focuses on transparency and accountability, not on ownership or eviction.

Explanation

As per the article, the DPIIT under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry awards GIs. The GI Registry at Chennai processes applications, but the awarding authority is DPIIT.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states Jingars were traditionally saddle makers. Statement 2 is incorrect: The GI tag is valid for 10 years, not 20. Statement 3 is correct: Darjeeling tea was the first GI tag in India (2004-05). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly mentions: 'The domestic market for Jodhpuri Mojari is estimated to be around ₹100 crore, while exports are worth about ₹10 crore.' The other options are distractors.

Explanation

The article highlights that the GI tag gives official recognition, prevents unauthorised use, and is expected to boost exports and double the business. Legal protection and export promotion are the core objectives, not revenue or standardisation.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) will launch the Index of Services Production. Other ministries are not involved in this statistical initiative.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the ISP is a new macro indicator to measure short-term changes in services growth. Statement 2 is incorrect: the ISP is compiled using outward supply data, not inward supply. Statement 3 is correct: the article states the services sector accounts for about 55% of GVA.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the services sector grew by 9.1% in FY26, up from 7.2% in FY25. The other options are distractors: 7.2% is the previous year's growth, while 8.0% and 10.5% are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article states that the GST database 'has been created primarily for taxation rather than statistical purposes,' hence the new index must blend administrative and survey data. This is a key limitation for accurate services sector estimates.

Explanation

The article states that the Department of Justice launched the scheme. The Department of Justice functions under the Ministry of Law and Justice. Hence, the correct option is Ministry of Law and Justice.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 31,117 cases were registered. Statement 2 is incorrect: POCSO Act was enacted in 2012, not 2015. Statement 3 is correct: the Supreme Court urged the government in January 2026 to consider a 'Romeo and Juliet' clause. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that of the total cases, only 1,053 cases or 3.41% have ended in conviction. The other options are distractors: 9.20% are under investigation, 52.54% are pending trial, and 57.18% are technical cases (adolescents).

Explanation

The article lists multiple reasons for acquittals: insufficient evidence, hostile witnesses, contradictory statements, delay in reporting, failure to establish victim's age, defective investigation, etc. Additionally, the lack of exclusive POCSO courts is cited as a reason for backlog. Hence, all given factors contribute to low conviction rates.

Explanation

The AISHE is conducted by the Ministry of Education (formerly MHRD). The article mentions the survey as a government initiative under this ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: female enrolment rose 42%. Statement 2 is incorrect: women make up 31.1% of engineering and technology, not 44%. Statement 3 is correct: GPI is 1.08. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that average monthly earnings for women are ₹18,353, compared to ₹24,217 for men, as per the 2025 PLFS report.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that despite high enrolment, women face low labour force participation, wage gaps, and clustering in less lucrative fields, indicating a broken pipeline from education to paid employment.

Explanation

The Ministry of Labour and Employment is the nodal ministry for labour-related laws and policies, including the four labour codes. The article mentions the Ministry of Labour and Employment in the context of a written response in Parliament.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Centre notified the four labour codes in November 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect: Kerala is not 'opposed' to the codes; it is moving slowly but has not opposed them. Statement 3 is correct: Labour is on the Concurrent List, allowing both Centre and states to make rules.

Explanation

The article states that the threshold for requiring prior government approval for layoffs has been raised from 100 to 300 workers. This is a key change under the Industrial Relations Code, 2020.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Code on Wages seeks to redefine the break-up of wages to increase the share of the basic pay component, enabling higher provision for social security, especially in the service sector. Option A is too broad, and options C and D are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article states that the project will be implemented through the Guwahati Satellite City Development Authority (GSCDA), a dedicated Special Purpose Vehicle of the Government of Assam. This is a 100% government-owned entity.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The government targets 2 lakh jobs over 5 years. Statement 2 is incorrect: ₹2100 crore was allocated for land acquisition for the airport satellite city, not the semiconductor project. Statement 3 is correct: The Finance Minister announced that men practicing polygamy shall not be eligible for welfare scheme benefits.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions a Budget of ₹2,85,084 crore. The other options are close distractors: ₹2,50,000 crore and ₹3,00,000 crore are round figures, while ₹2,75,084 crore is a plausible but incorrect number.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the condition was imposed 'in order to promote women's empowerment and gender justice.' While it aligns with the state's UCC, the stated objective is gender justice, not fiscal savings or population control.

Explanation

The article states that NDMA reports 13% of India's landmass as prone to landslides. NDMA is the nodal agency for disaster management in India, including hazard zonation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article – Amrita uses tilt meters, pressure gauges, accelerometers. Statement 2 is incorrect – IIT Mandi uses probabilistic forecasting with satellite data and rainfall forecasts, not ground sensors. Statement 3 is correct – Sikkim's limited road network reduces mountain cutting, making it less vulnerable.

Explanation

The article explicitly says 'About 13% of India's total landmass, covering about 0.42 million square km, is known to be prone to landslides, according to the National Disaster Management Authority.'

Explanation

As explained in the article, Prof. Shukla noted that 'Very localised rainfall forecast is available only on that particular date or a day earlier. So, our method does not give a very long lead time.' Sensor-based systems provide more lead time because they detect ground movements directly.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Project 17A frigates were designed by the Warship Design Bureau. MDL is the builder, not the designer. DRDO is not mentioned in this context.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: INS Mahendragiri is the sixth ship of the Nilgiri-class, not the first. Statement 2 is incorrect: it was commissioned into the Eastern Fleet at Visakhapatnam, not the Western Fleet. Statement 3 is correct: the frigate uses a CODOG propulsion system as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that INS Mahendragiri has 'more than 75% indigenous content'. The other options are plausible distractors but not the figure mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The article states the frigate will serve as a force multiplier, safeguarding India's maritime interests and contributing to security and stability in the Indo-Pacific. While it can perform multiple roles, its primary strategic significance is enhancing India's maritime power projection in the region.

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, the KAVACH system underwent validation and field trials in accordance with RDSO standards. RDSO is the sole R&D organisation under the Ministry of Railways responsible for setting standards and design validation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as KAVACH is an indigenous ATP system under Atmanirbhar Bharat. Statement 3 is correct as it uses RFID-based technology. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states it is the first in the Solapur Division of Central Railway, not the first in India.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 1,234 RFID tags were installed and programmed across the Solapur–Wadi section in accordance with approved design specifications. The other options are close numerical distractors.

Explanation

The article clearly states that KAVACH is designed to prevent head-on and rear-end train collisions while enhancing operational safety through continuous communication between locomotives and trackside infrastructure. The other options are not mentioned as primary purposes.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Pakistan PM Sharif held talks with Iran and Qatar leaders to revive the negotiations, and that Pakistan and Qatar acted as mediators during the technical-level talks in Switzerland on June 21, 2026.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The MoU was signed on June 18, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: The technical-level talks were held in Switzerland (Burgenstock), not Islamabad. Statement 3 is correct: Pakistan and Qatar were the mediators. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article mentions that the MoU was signed on June 18, and was followed by technical-level talks in Switzerland on June 21, 2026, with Pakistan and Qatar as mediators. July 10 and 11 are the dates when PM Sharif held the recent talks to revive the process.

Explanation

The article clearly states that Sharif held talks to revive the stalled U.S.-Iran negotiations, expressing deep concern over recent escalation and underscoring the urgent need to restore regional peace and stability. The other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

According to the press release, INS Mahendragiri was designed in-house by the Indian Navy's Warship Design Bureau, not by DRDO or HAL. MDL constructed the ship. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: INS Mahendragiri is the sixth Project 17A frigate. Statement 2 is incorrect: the frigate uses CODOG (Combined Diesel or Gas) propulsion, not turbo-electric. Statement 3 is correct: it is named after the Mahendragiri mountain range in the Eastern Ghats. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The press release explicitly states that INS Mahendragiri features over 75% indigenous content under the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative. The other options are common distractors; 85% and 90% are not mentioned.

Explanation

Project 17A is specifically for manufacturing stealth frigates for the Indian Navy. INS Mahendragiri is its sixth ship, built with over 75% indigenous content. The other options relate to different defence projects (nuclear submarines, air force modernization, ASAT), not Project 17A.

Explanation

The article states that the satellite images were analyzed by CNN in collaboration with the Institute for Science and International Security (ISIS). The IAEA is not mentioned. Vantor Technologies provided imagery but not analysis. CSIS is not referenced.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Taleghan-2 is inside the Parchin Military Complex. Statement 2 is incorrect: the facility was struck twice – first around March 11 and second between March 24 and April 1. Statement 3 is incorrect: the northern entrance sustained heavier damage and remained unusable; only the southern entrance was restored.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the first strike occurred around March 11, 2026, destroying the main hardened underground facility. The second strike was between March 24 and April 1. October 2024 refers to the Israeli airstrike, not US. June 2026 is when the MoU was signed.

Explanation

The article states that the MoU required Iran to not pursue military nuclear research, and the reconstruction of a facility believed to house nuclear weapons research raises fresh questions about adherence. The ceasefire collapsed and the MoU is effectively unstable. Options A, C, and D are contradicted by the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Ministry of Heavy Industries approved a grant of ₹63.12 crore for Phase I. This ministry implements the PM E-DRIVE scheme at the central level.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: Phase I has 335 chargers at 209 locations. Statement 2 is incorrect because Phase I locations include KSEB premises, but also universities, KSRTC, KTDC, and BSNL premises. Statement 3 is correct: Phase II subsidy sought is ₹60 crore.

Explanation

The article specifies that the proposed charger mix includes 245 units of 120 kW chargers. The other options are close distractors: 240 kW is the capacity of another set of chargers, while 215 and 200 are fabricated numbers.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the CPO-driven EoI route shifts to 'crowd-sourced, privately-hosted infrastructure to accelerate network density'. While reducing subsidy burden is a secondary effect, the primary objective is rapid scaling of charger density.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the law was approved by the National People's Congress, China's ceremonial legislature. The State Council is the executive, the Central Committee is the party organ, and the Central Ethnic Work Conference was the 2014 policy origin, not the approving body.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per Article 15, which mandates Mandarin from pre-kindergarten. Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 63 applies to any organisation or individual outside the territory of China that undermines national unity. Statement 3 is correct: the UN OHCHR expressed concerns that the law could threaten freedoms and lead to forced assimilation.

Explanation

The article states that according to the 2020 census, the ethnic minority population crossed 125 million, or 8.89% of the national total. The other options are distractors: 11 million is the approximate Uyghur population, 7 million is the Tibetan population, and 8.89 million is incorrect as it is a percentage, not a count.

Explanation

The article states that the law aims to create a 'shared' national identity by strengthening the 'community of the Chinese nation'. It does not grant greater autonomy (option A) or promote multilingual education (option C) — in fact, it mandates Mandarin. Option D is contrary to the criticism the law has received from international human rights bodies.

Explanation

The article states that the fuel cell has been imported from the Canadian company Ballard, which specialises in its production. Medha supplied the propulsion equipment, not the fuel cell.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the train uses hydrogen fuel cells and lithium ferro phosphate batteries in an integrated power pack. Statement 2 is incorrect: the maximum operational speed is 75 km/h, not 100 km/h. Statement 3 is correct: a 3000-kg-capacity fueling facility has been set up at Jind. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

Each of the two power cars generates 1200 kW (four power packs of 300 kW each), totaling 2400 kW. 3200 hp is the equivalent horsepower, but the power in kW is 2400. 1200 kW is only for one power car.

Explanation

The article describes the train as a 'zero-emission hydrogen-electric propulsion system'. Hydrogen fuel cells combine hydrogen and oxygen to produce electricity, with water as the only byproduct, eliminating particulate matter and CO2 emissions. Speed, cost, and range are not the primary environmental benefits.

Explanation

As per the article, INS Mahendragiri was built by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL), Mumbai. GRSE, HSL, and CSL are other Indian shipyards but not the builder of this frigate.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as INS Mahendragiri is the sixth Project 17A frigate. Statement 2 is incorrect; the displacement is 6,670 tonnes and speed is 28 knots, not 7,500 tonnes and 30 knots. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions launch-to-delivery time reduced from 63 to 31 months. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the warship has over 75% indigenous content. The other options are close distractors; 70% is common for many naval projects but 75% is the specific figure given for this frigate.

Explanation

The article highlights the indigenous design and over 75% local content, along with reduced construction timelines, reflecting the aim of self-reliance under 'Make in India'. Options A and D are too narrow; option C is incorrect as replacement is gradual over years.

Explanation

The nine-judge Constitution Bench in Puttaswamy (2017) unanimously held that the right to privacy is a fundamental right intrinsic to Article 21. The other options are landmark cases but on different issues: ADM Jabalpur on habeas corpus during emergency, Maneka Gandhi on procedure established by law, and Kesavananda Bharati on basic structure doctrine.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states that the rules 'require them to predetermine the purposes and states in which they may operate'. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article explicitly says 'The expression proselytisation is not defined either in the parent Act or in the amended rules'. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions disclosures extending to 'publications, articles, official websites, social media accounts'. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article begins with 'Since their notification on June 22' and the context is 2026 as the article is published on July 11, 2026. Option C is the publication date of the article, not the notification date.

Explanation

The article argues that the rules shift philosophy from regulating money to regulating institutions, compelling a fundamental constitutional question about the boundary between legitimate regulation and executive control. Options A, C, and D are not the primary concern raised; D is partially true but not the main constitutional issue.

Explanation

Section 28 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950 vests the power to make rules (including amendments to forms) with the Central Government, after consulting the Election Commission. The EC cannot amend forms on its own, as confirmed by former EC officials in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the EC added a new section in the online Form 6 portal. Statement 2 is incorrect: the statutory form was NOT amended; the change was only in the online portal. Statement 3 is correct: the new part is not marked mandatory, but the user cannot move forward without completing it. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that over 5.58 crore names have been deleted from electoral rolls in 10 states and 3 UTs during the EC's SIR that began last year. The other options are close distractors - 2.5 crore and 3.5 crore are lower than the actual figure, while 7.2 crore is an overestimate.

Explanation

The article highlights that Section 28 of the RP Act, 1950 gives the Central Government the power to amend rules and forms, not the EC. Former EC officials stated that the EC cannot even add a comma to the form on its own. This raises the legal question of whether the EC's action is ultra vires its powers.

Explanation

The National Investigation Agency (NIA) is the central counter-terrorism law enforcement agency in India. It filed the chargesheet before the Special NIA Court in Panchkula in this case.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: 8 accused were chargesheeted (1 Pak terrorist + 7 Indians). Statement 2 is incorrect: the charges were filed under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, not the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860. Statement 3 is correct: the NIA found that Bhatti used social media and encrypted channels to recruit and radicalize the accused.

Explanation

The NIA chargesheeted a total of 8 accused, which included 1 Pakistan-based terrorist (Shehzad Bhatti) and 7 Indian nationals. The other options are close distractors: 6 is too few, 8 is the total including Bhatti, and 9 is not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The NIA chargesheet explicitly states that the conspiracy aimed to 'spread terror among the people by targeting police establishments.' The attack on Baldev Nagar police station was intended to create fear and undermine public confidence in law enforcement.

Explanation

The article mentions the Joint Secretary in the Department of Commerce made the submission. The Department of Commerce comes under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. This ministry handles trade negotiations and disputes with other countries.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as India specifically cited Section 301(d) of the Trade Act. Statement 2 is incorrect because India asked for resolution through the India-US bilateral trade negotiation framework, not the WTO. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the US currently has 10% global tariffs and the proposed Section 301 duty would add 12.5% on top.

Explanation

The article clearly states that India has sought review of 'proposed US tariffs of 12.5%'. The 10% is the current global tariff already in place, while 30-40% is the cumulative rate if the new duty stacks on existing duties for products like PSF and PET resin. 12.5% is the proposed new tariff specifically under this investigation.

Explanation

India's submissions, including by RIL and APEDA, argued that the investigation lacks sector-specific evidence, country-specific linkages, and legal justification. India requested the USTR to reconsider imposing tariffs or rescind the investigation. The core objective is to stop the proposed 12.5% tariff based on inadequate evidence, not to eliminate all tariffs or negotiate a new FTA.