13 July 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

Article 82 of the Indian Constitution provides for the readjustment of constituencies after each Census. Delimitation is carried out by the Delimitation Commission to ensure equal representation in the Lok Sabha and state Assemblies.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the bill seeks 33% reservation for women. Statement 2 is incorrect: the bill is explicitly linked to the delimitation exercise that would expand the Lok Sabha. Statement 3 is correct: the NDA's current strength is 293, far short of the required 360 for a two-thirds majority.

Explanation

The article states that 298 MPs voted in favor of the bill, against 230 who opposed it, out of 528 members present. The bill was defeated as it needed a two-thirds majority of members present and voting.

Explanation

The DMK argues that a delimitation exercise based solely on census data would be an 'injustice' to southern states like Tamil Nadu that have successfully controlled population growth, thereby reducing their parliamentary representation and share in central funding.

Explanation

The article states that ASTRA Mk 1 was developed by DRDO. It is an indigenous BVRAAM with a range of 80-110 km and Mach 4.5 speed, being integrated with IAF's Sukhoi-30 MKI and Tejas Mk 1A.

Explanation

All three statements are correct as per the article. The three antiquities (Nandi, trident with Bhadrakali, six-headed Karthikeya) were from Tamil Nadu temples. The repatriation was agreed during the India-Australia summit. India also committed to returning an Australian First Nations ancestor relic from Chennai Museum.

Explanation

The article specifies that ASTRA Mk 1 has a range of 80 to 110 km, speed of Mach 4.5, and altitude up to 20 km. The more advanced ASTRA Mk 2 has an enhanced range of 200 km.

Explanation

MMT is a medically supervised treatment for people addicted to opioids like heroin and 'chitta'. It uses methadone to reduce cravings and withdrawal symptoms, combined with counselling and psychosocial support. Punjab was the first state to introduce MMT in India in 2012.

Explanation

The article states that Oman summoned the Iranian ambassador to protest the strikes, calling Iran's acts 'irresponsible'. This was the first such move since the war began.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the US official confirmed strikes on missile and air defence systems and Revolutionary Guard boats. Statement 2 is incorrect; Iran retaliated by attacking Gulf Arab states (Qatar, UAE, Kuwait, Jordan, Bahrain), not just US military bases. Statement 3 is correct as per the UN Secretary-General's statement.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'The US has launched three rounds of airstrikes targeting Iran in the past week over attacks on ships heading through the strait.'

Explanation

The US military stated the strikes were conducted 'to degrade their ability to attack commercial ships freely transiting the Strait of Hormuz.' While protecting allies and enforcing the deal are secondary, the stated primary objective is degrading Iran's maritime attack capability.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry (MCI) data on India’s May crude imports were used. This ministry tracks trade data, including import-export statistics.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per MCI data. Statement 2 is wrong — the article mentions a $46-per-ton premium, not a discount. Statement 3 is correct: yuan payments aid China’s currency internationalization. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that import value surged 83% despite a 2% fall in volume, indicating a significant price rise. The other options are distractors: 2% is the volume decline, 40% is the import share, and 46% is the premium per ton.

Explanation

The article warns that one-country concentration weakens India’s bargaining power, reduces flexibility, and exposes refiners to severe supply shocks from secondary sanctions. Options A and C are not mentioned, and D is unrelated to the core argument.

Explanation

The article states that 'NITI Aayog's mandate could be widened' to think about external changes that shape India's growth, trade, and security. While MEA and NSCS are also mentioned for strengthening, the specific suggestion for widening is for NITI Aayog.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the white paper is titled 'More Just and Equitable Global Governance' and was released as G7 leaders were meeting. Statement 2 is correct: Xi Jinping proposed the GGI at the SCO summit in September 2025. Statement 3 is incorrect: the paper criticises the UN Security Council as looking 'more like 1945 than 2026' and advocates reform.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'China has attracted 43 countries as Friends of GGI, including 21 from Africa.' The other options are close distractors with wrong numbers.

Explanation

The article argues that India must move from reactive diplomacy to 'anticipatory statecraft' by widening NITI Aayog's mandate, strengthening MEA's Policy Planning Division, and using NSCS to spot proposals early, align ministries, and build coalitions before negotiations begin.

Explanation

The Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969 mandates compulsory registration of every birth within 21 days. The article highlights that this system failed for decades, with only 41% of births registered among children under 5 in 2005-06.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: Aadhaar is not proof of citizenship by its own statute. Statement 2 is correct: Aadhaar was physically delivered to the holder's door via Speed Post with acknowledgement due. Statement 3 is correct: The author argues that biometrics taken around 2013 or earlier prove the person was at least 5 then and is 18 now, so Aadhaar can verify age without a date.

Explanation

The article states that the passport is held by under 8% of Indians. It also clarifies that the Ministry of External Affairs in June 2026 stated that a passport is only a travel document, not a proof of citizenship.

Explanation

The article states that the Assam NRC excluded 19 lakh people and 'resolved nothing.' This is a key data point for understanding the failure of document-heavy citizenship verification exercises in India.

Explanation

The author argues that instead of demanding documents the state never provided, Aadhaar should be used pragmatically: biometrics can verify age (18+), the delivery address is strong proof of residence, and only genuine outliers should be flagged for Home Ministry review.

Explanation

The author argues that the SIR demands proof of date of birth, residence, and citizenship from citizens, but the state failed to register births (only 41% in 2005-06), never issued a citizenship document, and now disowns its own documents like Aadhaar. This makes the verification process a 'machine for exclusion.'

Explanation

The article states: 'the Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps (IRGC) has since announced the temporary closure of the strait.' The IRGC is a key Iranian military force involved in maritime security.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the MoU was signed on June 17, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 5 requires Iran to 'make arrangements for the safe passage of commercial vessels', not unrestricted passage. Statement 3 is correct: the US lifted its maritime blockade and issued a sanctions waiver for Iranian crude.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'In 2025, about 20 million barrels of oil a day passed through the strait.' The other options are close distractors; 15 million is too low, 25 and 30 are above the reported figure.

Explanation

The article argues that control over the strait gives enormous strategic and economic leverage, and 'whoever controls the strait could emerge as a regional great power.' Iran uses this leverage to force US concessions and shift focus from its nuclear programme.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Women and Child Development Department implemented the scheme and incurred the expenditure. The Finance Department handles budget allocations, but the implementing department is the Women and Child Development Department.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct per the CAG report. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article says 'the Women and Child Development Department did not provide any specific justification for the substantial excess expenditure.' Statement 3 is correct as per audit scrutiny findings. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The CAG report specifically mentioned 'excess expenditure of Rs 3,541.16 crore'. Option A (₹3,490.75 crore) is the amount re-appropriated from Lek Ladki Yojana, a close distractor. Option C has a slight number change, and D uses wrong unit.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the scheme 'aims to ensure women’s economic independence' by providing ₹1,500 per month through DBT. Option D is contrary as the CAG noted a shift toward welfare transfers rather than capital asset formation. Options A and C are not mentioned as objectives.

Explanation

Article 48, a Directive Principle of State Policy under Part IV, mandates the State to organise agriculture and animal husbandry on modern lines and in particular to prohibit the slaughter of cows, calves, and other milch and draught cattle. Article 48A deals with environment protection, Article 21 with right to life, and Article 14 with equality.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The TN Act, 1958 allows slaughter of cows over 10 years if unfit for work/breading. Statement 2 is incorrect: The HC cited Article 48 but also relied on a 1976 TN government order and past SC judgments, not solely Article 48. Statement 3 is correct: The SC bench issued notice on the state's appeal and stayed the HC order. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The Tamil Nadu Animal Preservation Act, 1958 specifically permits the slaughter of cows only if they are over 10 years of age and have been declared unfit for work or breeding by a competent authority. The other options are distractors: 8 years is too low, 12 and 15 years are not mentioned in the Act.

Explanation

The Tamil Nadu government argued that the High Court's blanket ban went beyond the scope of the petition and effectively overrode the Tamil Nadu Animal Preservation Act, 1958, which permits regulated slaughter. This, they claimed, was judicial lawmaking and unsustainable in law. While religious freedom (Article 25) was mentioned in the original petition, the state's appeal focused on the separation of powers and legislative competence.

Explanation

The article specifically states that the judgments were of the Gauhati High Court and that the cases involved Foreigners Tribunals, which are functional in the context of Assam's citizenship determination framework.

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are directly mentioned in the article. Statement 3 is incorrect as the Supreme Court was reviewing the decisions of the Foreigners Tribunals (through the High Court), thus they are subject to judicial review.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the Supreme Court set aside 'a batch of 27 judgments' and remanded 'all 27 cases' to the Foreigners Tribunals.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Supreme Court ruled 'citizenship determinations must be carried out through a fair, lawful and reasonable process.' This reinforces the application of the Rule of Law in quasi-judicial proceedings.

Explanation

The article mentions 'the Look East/Act East policy' as a core strategic framework. India's Look East Policy was launched in 1991 and upgraded to Act East Policy in 2014 to deepen engagement with ASEAN and East Asia. While SAGAR relates to maritime security and Quad is a strategic dialogue, Act East is the overarching policy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states India concluded FTAs with ASEAN, Japan, South Korea, Australia, and recently New Zealand. Statement 2 is incorrect: India is not a member of RCEP; it walked out of negotiations in 2019. Statement 3 is correct: the article says India's imports from China are 'more than $130 billion' out of $150 billion total trade.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions 'a $630 million missile deal with Indonesia' as one of the key outcomes of the tour. The other options are plausible distractors; only $630 million is correct as per the news.

Explanation

The article states: 'Without becoming part of the value chains driving the region’s dynamic growth, maritime and defence cooperation with key partners alone will not be sufficient to shape the evolving regional order.' It explicitly links joining CPTPP to participation in value chains. Options A, B, and D are not mentioned in the article as reasons.

Explanation

The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) releases CPI data through its National Statistical Office (NSO). The Reserve Bank of India uses this data for monetary policy decisions, but the data itself is published by MoSPI.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: CPI inflation was 4.4% in June 2026, the highest in 18 months. Statement 2 is incorrect: the RBI's tolerance band is 2-6%, so 4.4% is within the band, not above it. Statement 3 is correct: food inflation crossed 5% in June 2026. Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

The article states that retail inflation touched 4.4% in June 2026, an 18-month high. The other options are distractors: 4.0% is the RBI's target, 5.0% is the food inflation rate, and 6.0% is the upper tolerance limit.

Explanation

While 4.4% is within the 2-6% tolerance band, it is above the 4% target. The RBI's MPC typically responds to persistent above-target inflation by maintaining a hawkish stance, which could mean keeping the repo rate unchanged or increasing it to control inflation. Option A is incorrect because the RBI does not automatically cut rates. Option C is extreme and not a stated consequence. Option D is incorrect because the breach does impact policy deliberations, even if within the band.

Explanation

SEBI is the statutory regulator for the securities market in India, established under the SEBI Act, 1992. Its primary functions include protecting investor interests and regulating the securities market. RBI regulates banking and monetary policy, IRDAI regulates insurance, and the Ministry of Finance oversees fiscal policy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the cooling-off period is two years, not one year. Statement 2 is correct as the threshold was raised from ₹10,000 to ₹50,000. Statement 3 is correct as the new definition includes stepchildren, adopted children, and other dependent relatives. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that an employee will be considered to have a material interest if the employee and family members together hold non-permitted investments exceeding ₹20 lakh (based on acquisition cost) in an entity. The other options are distractors: ₹10 lakh is the old gift threshold, ₹50,000 is the new gift threshold, and ₹1 crore is not mentioned.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the review was initiated after former SEBI Chairperson Madhabi Puri Buch faced conflict-of-interest allegations by the now-defunct Hindenburg Research. While she denied the allegations and was cleared by the anti-corruption body, this prompted SEBI to strengthen its ethical framework.

Explanation

Article 317(1) of the Constitution allows the President to refer the case of a Chairman or member of a Public Service Commission to the Supreme Court for an inquiry into allegations of misbehaviour. Article 324 deals with the Election Commission, Article 315 establishes Public Service Commissions, and Article 356 deals with President's Rule in a state.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Governor recommended a reference to the Supreme Court under Article 317(1). Statement 2 is incorrect because only the President can remove a PSC Chairman after a Supreme Court inquiry; the Governor cannot directly remove them. Statement 3 is correct as per the news: the Governor directed the senior-most member to act as Acting Chairman.

Explanation

The FIR stated that Suma S. Sahukar produced an Income and Asset Certificate declaring her family's annual income as ₹40,000 to claim reservation benefits under the 3B category. However, her father was the KPSC Chairman drawing a monthly salary of ₹2.25 Lakh plus allowances, making the certificate false.

Explanation

The Governor's action aims to protect the integrity and credibility of the KPSC by ensuring a fair, impartial, and uninfluenced investigation into the allegations. Article 317(1) provides a constitutional mechanism to hold PSC members accountable, thereby maintaining public trust in the recruitment process.

Explanation

The CCPA, established under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, issued guidelines on December 1, 2023, for the prevention and regulation of 13 dark patterns. IRDAI is separately monitoring dark patterns in insurance but did not issue the original guidelines.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: dark patterns manipulate users into unintended actions. Statement 2 is correct: SaaS billing is one of the 13 dark patterns specified by CCPA. Statement 3 is incorrect: 'Bait and Switch' involves advertising one product but delivering another (often lower quality); the hidden price practice is 'Drip Pricing'.

Explanation

The study published by LocalCircles found that over 95% of publicly-listed companies involved in online consumer transactions are riddled with various dark patterns. The other options are close distractors but 95% is the exact figure mentioned in the article.

Explanation

IRDAI has partnered with the statutory body Institute of Public Auditors of India specifically to monitor dark patterns across the insurance industry over a period of 9 months. This follows an April directive asking insurers to self-assess and report on dark patterns.

Explanation

The court specifically cited Section 24 of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, which prohibits the disposal of polluting matter into streams. The Environment Protection Act is a broader umbrella law, but the Water Act directly addresses river pollution.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court declared it an axiomatic proposition. Statement 2 is incorrect because the court did not impose an immediate ban; it directed awareness campaigns and stakeholder consultation. Statement 3 is correct as the court observed that Indian black turtles and flapshell turtles get entangled in discarded clothes and die of suffocation.

Explanation

The court referred to data collected between May 7 and May 28 showing that 86-90 tonnes of clothes were removed from the river. The other options are distractors; 60-70 tonnes is lower than the actual figure.

Explanation

The court stated that Article 25 guarantees religious freedom subject to public health, and believers can practice religion provided it has no adverse implication for ecology. The court did not ban rituals but sought to regulate them to prevent pollution, thus balancing competing interests.

Explanation

The notification regarding emission norms for coal-fired power plants, including the categorization and FGD mandates, comes under the purview of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). The 2021 notification and subsequent July 2025 exemption were issued by this ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the CREA report found 20 of 37 units exceed safe SO2 limits. Statement 2 is incorrect: Category C (not A) plants were fully exempted. Category A must comply by 2027. Statement 3 is correct: India's SO2 emissions from power plants are the highest globally, as per the report.

Explanation

The report states that Category C plants, which constitute 78% of India's coal fleet, were fully exempted from installing FGD. The other options are distractors: 12% is the proportion of plants that actually have FGD installed, 50% and 90% are not mentioned in this context.

Explanation

The report explicitly identifies SO2 as a precursor to secondary pollutants like particulate matter (PM) and acid rain. FGD systems are designed to remove SO2. Exempting Category C plants means 78% of India's coal fleet can release SO2 unchecked, directly contributing to air pollution and health impacts in the region.

Explanation

Article 317 (1) provides that the President may remove a member of a Public Service Commission only after a reference to the Supreme Court and on the Court's report of misbehaviour. Article 315 deals with establishment of PSCs, Article 324 with Election Commission, and Article 320 with functions of PSCs.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Governor suspended him under Article 317(1) and recommended SC reference. Statement 2 is correct: The income certificate showed ₹40,000, claiming 3B OBC category. Statement 3 is incorrect: He was elevated to Chairperson on April 5, 2021, not 2025. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states she obtained a certificate declaring family annual income as ₹40,000, which was false since her father as KPSC Chairperson earned ₹2.25 lakh per month, placing her in the creamy layer. The other options are close distractors but the correct figure is ₹40,000.

Explanation

Article 317(1) mandates that a PSC member can be removed only after a Supreme Court inquiry and Presidential order. The Governor's suspension is pending that inquiry. Option A is wrong because Governor cannot directly remove; option C is opposite; option D is not stated in news.

Explanation

The IMO is a specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for regulating shipping. Its legal stance on tolls is based on UNCLOS principles, which the UN oversees.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Trump proposed a 20% toll. Statement 2 is correct: Iran agreed on the principle of compensation but mocked the 20% figure. Statement 3 is incorrect: The IMO rejected the legal basis for mandatory tolls, not supported them.

Explanation

The article clearly states Trump demanded reimbursement of 20% of the value of cargo to help cover costs of providing safety and security.

Explanation

The IMO explicitly stated there is no legal basis through which to introduce mandatory tolls simply to transit through a strait, referencing the principle of freedom of navigation under UNCLOS.

Explanation

The SASCI scheme is managed by the Ministry of Finance, as mentioned in the article. The Ministry of Finance oversees central assistance to states for capital investment and fiscal transfers.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct – SASCI provides 50-year interest-free loans. Statement 2 is incorrect – the scheme was launched in 2020-21, not 2022-23. Statement 3 is correct – it includes UTs with legislatures such as Delhi, Jammu & Kashmir, and Puducherry. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the Centre approved all 28 projects at a total cost of ₹1,647 crore – a nearly 200% hike from last year's ₹825 crore. The other options are distractors: ₹756 crore is the additional incentive, and ₹2 lakh crore is the total budget allocation for all states.

Explanation

The article describes SASCI as providing 'long-term, 50-year interest-free loans to states and union territories to boost capital spending.' The scheme aims to enhance state-level infrastructure investment, not to fund welfare or reduce deficits directly.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Indian delegation was led by Defence Secretary Rajesh Kumar Singh. The Defence Minister Rajnath Singh was not present at this dialogue, though his greetings were conveyed to the Japanese Defence Minister.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the dialogue was held in Tokyo, not New Delhi. Statement 2 is correct as the Japanese delegation was led by Vice Minister Kano Koji. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions they discussed probable outcomes of the forthcoming Ministerial visits, including 2+2.

Explanation

The article mentions that the key Defence Policy Dialogue followed soon after Japanese PM Sanae Takaichi's visit to India from July 1 to 3 for the 16th India-Japan Annual Summit. This was her first official visit to India.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the dialogue reviewed the entire spectrum of bilateral defence engagements, including military exchanges, exercises, and technology cooperation. Both sides also expressed satisfaction with growing convergence on regional and global security issues, reaffirming commitment to a free and open Indo-Pacific.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 20th Directorate is part of Russia's military intelligence agency, the GRU (Main Intelligence Directorate). FSB is domestic security, SVR is foreign intelligence, and FSO is presidential protection.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says the unit predated the war in Ukraine. Statement 2 is correct: GRU spies have used Aeroflot jobs as cover since Soviet era. Statement 3 is incorrect: while the Tokyo station is crucial, the article does not say the unit operates exclusively there; it implies operations in other locations.

Explanation

The article states: 'Ninety percent of Russian missiles and drones contain Japanese components, according to Ukrainian government estimates.' The other options are distractors not supported by the text.

Explanation

The article directly attributes Japan's vulnerability to 'post-World War II constraints ... that keep the country's intelligence services weak' and notes Japan 'does not even have a foreign intelligence agency'. Option A is opposite, C is not a primary reason, D is a factor but not the defining one for being a spy haven.

Explanation

The article mentions that commercial plants using agricultural residues like rice straw are supported under Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas schemes. This ministry is responsible for fuel blending policies and related infrastructure.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states that when oil prices dip under $70 a barrel, E20 production costs more than pure petrol. Statement 2 is incorrect: The primary feedstock is sugarcane, not maize. Statement 3 is correct: 2G ethanol is produced from lignocellulosic biomass like rice straw and maize stover.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that when oil prices dip under $70 a barrel, the cost of producing E20 petrol exceeds that of pure petrol. This is a key data point for understanding the policy's economic impact.

Explanation

The article highlights that 2G ethanol from residues avoids using cropland for fuel, reducing competition with food crops and addressing the problem of stubble burning. While cost and subsidies are mentioned, the primary environmental benefit is land-use efficiency and pollution reduction.

Explanation

The article states that the research team used a metal-organic framework, work on which won the Nobel Prize for chemistry last year (2025). MOFs are porous crystalline materials with high surface area, making them ideal for separation applications.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the MOF used is NH2-MIL-101(Cr) coated on stainless steel. Statement 2 is incorrect: the material is 'active'—it swaps tritium atoms with hydrogen, not just passive adsorption. Statement 3 is correct: 42.5 theoretical plates per meter is the record efficiency reported.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that adding NH2-MIL-101(Cr) increased the available area of the packing by 32-fold. The other numbers refer to different metrics: 42.5 is the theoretical plates per meter, 134-fold is the improvement over best material at 10m, and 1 million-fold is the improvement over commercial packings.

Explanation

The researchers stated that their strategy 'provides a new approach for improving the detritiation of tritiated water and reducing tritium releases to natural water bodies.' The other options overstate the technology's capabilities; it does not eliminate all waste or prevent tritium production.

Explanation

The draft regulations propose that the Apex Body at the Supreme Court, composed of SC and HC judges, MeitY officials, and experts, will set the minimum mandatory standards for approving AI systems and issuing implementation guidelines. CoRE-AI evaluates tools, and the AI Committee oversees implementation at the High Court level.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the regulations come into force for the SC only on a date notified by the CJI, and for HCs on dates notified by the respective Chief Justice — they are not automatic. Statement 2 is correct: submitting AI-generated output as independent evidence without full disclosure is prohibited. Statement 3 is correct: using blackbox (unexplainable) AI systems is barred specifically in matters affecting personal liberty.

Explanation

The draft regulations mandate a 24-hour notification requirement for logging malfunctions, errors, and biases in the AI Incident Database if a tool fails or is suspended. This is a key provision to ensure accountability and quick corrective action.

Explanation

The absolute prohibition on risk scoring and recidivism prediction aims to prevent algorithmic bias from influencing decisions on personal liberty (bail, sentencing). Such AI tools may carry inherent biases and lack transparency, which could undermine fairness. The regulations prioritize human judicial authority in all adjudicative matters.

Explanation

The article quotes Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on GCCs and their expansion to tier-2/3 cities. The Ministry of Finance oversees economic policy, including FDI and services trade matters. While other ministries may have related roles, the Finance Minister is the nodal authority mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India hosts 2,100+ GCCs of over 500 Forbes top-2000 companies. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article states GCCs have evolved beyond cost-saving back offices to become strategic hubs for R&D, AI, and clinical research. Statement 3 is correct: India is home to half of all GCCs worldwide and adds one every day. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states India had a services trade surplus of $216.6 billion in FY 2025-26. $337.3 billion is the merchandise trade deficit, $421.3 billion is services exports, and $446.1 billion is goods exports. These are common distractors that examiners use to test precise data recall.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that manufacturing (textiles, leather, agro-processing, gems and jewellery) alone can absorb the mass of India's less-skilled workforce. While services generate high-value exports, they require skilled talent. Manufacturing provides employment for semi-skilled and unskilled labour, which is critical for inclusive growth.

Explanation

The IAEA is the international body responsible for promoting peaceful nuclear energy and providing safeguards to prevent diversion to weapons. The article states that exports will be 'under IAEA watch'. NSG is a supplier group, not an oversight body.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Australia holds >25% of global uranium reserves and is the 4th largest producer. Statement 2 is incorrect: India is a non-signatory to the NPT, not a signatory. India has a safeguards agreement with the IAEA, not a bilateral safeguards agreement with Australia. Statement 3 is correct: The SHANTI Act was passed in December 2025 to open the nuclear sector to private players.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India has set a target of 1,000 gigawatts of nuclear energy capacity by 2047. The 500 GW figure is the clean energy target (including nuclear) by 2030 with Australia's help. Other options are distractors.

Explanation

The article explains that the administrative arrangements enable private Australian mining entities to export uranium to Indian private sector companies exclusively for peaceful purposes under IAEA watch. This is based on the 2015 Nuclear Cooperation Agreement. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they contradict the peaceful use condition and non-proliferation commitments.

Explanation

EPFO is a statutory body under the Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India. It administers the Employees' Provident Fund (EPF) and related schemes. The other ministries handle different areas: Finance (taxation, budget), Corporate Affairs (company law), and Social Justice (welfare of specific groups).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the scheme provides a six-month window (from June 29, 2026). Statement 2 is incorrect: the amnesty is granted retrospectively (from inception of the trust), not prospectively. Statement 3 is correct: the article explicitly states that member accounts must receive contributions and interest at least equal to statutory EPFO rates for the designated reliefs to be applicable. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the Amnesty Scheme is valid for six months from the date of its notification, which was on June 29, 2026. July 12 and 13 are dates related to the news publication, not the scheme's start. January 1 is a generic fiscal year start.

Explanation

The scheme aims to provide a one-time opportunity for establishments operating PF Trusts without formal exemption to regularise their status retrospectively from inception. Option A is not mentioned; Option B is opposite to the amnesty's purpose; Option D is not stated in the article.

Explanation

The Code on Social Security is one of the four labour codes enacted by the Ministry of Labour and Employment. The ministry oversees its implementation and rules. The other ministries are not directly responsible for labour codes.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Chapter XI provides that the appropriate Government shall set up a worker re-skilling fund. Statement 2 is incorrect: The employer must contribute 15 days' wages, not 30 days. Statement 3 is correct: The Kerala Labour Minister and opposition called the retrenchment illegal. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that CorroHealth Infotech Private Limited retrenched about 800 employees from its Kochi and Kozhikode centres. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The worker re-skilling fund is intended to provide re-skilling and help retrenched workers find alternative employment, as per the provisions of Chapter XI. It is not for cash compensation, legal expenses, or wage subsidies. This aligns with the 're-skilling' purpose highlighted in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions '10CFR810' (Part 810 of Title 10, Code of Federal Regulations of the US Atomic Energy Act of 1954) as the restrictive regulation that Holtec received specific authorisation for, permitting technology transfer to India. Section 123 governs nuclear cooperation agreements, not technology transfer controls.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The DoE's specific authorisation (SA IN2023-001) conditionally permits Holtec to transfer technology to Holtec Asia, Tata Consulting Engineers Ltd, and Larsen & Toubro Ltd. Statement 2 is correct: The SHANTI Act, 2005 (passed late last year relative to the article date of 2026) opened the sector. Statement 3 is incorrect: The SMR-300 is a pressurised light-water reactor (not boiling water), and it can be adjusted to use an air-cooling system, not requiring large quantities of water.

Explanation

The article states that Holtec's SMR-300 is a pressurised light-water reactor that will produce at least 300 MWe of electric power. The other options are distractors: 100 MWe and 500 MWe are not mentioned, and 1000 MWe is typical for large traditional reactors.

Explanation

The article mentions Holtec proposes using existing coal plant sites to deploy its SMR-based projects. This approach leverages existing transmission infrastructure, land, and skilled workforce, facilitating a smoother energy transition from coal to nuclear power, which is a key policy objective for decarbonisation.

Explanation

The article states that the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) acknowledged the vulnerabilities. UMANG is a flagship e-governance initiative under MeitY, not the Ministry of Labour (which oversees EPFO).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article mentions UMANG has onboarded over 2,400 services. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article explicitly says 'The Aadhaar module itself within UMANG was not vulnerable.' Statement 3 is correct: the EPFO module recorded over 40 crore transactions over the last three months. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'The EPFO module is UMANG’s most-used service, recording over 40 crore transactions over the last three months.' The other options are plausible distractors: 40 lakh is too low, 4 crore is also lower, 400 crore would be an order of magnitude higher.

Explanation

The article explicitly says: 'The Aadhaar numbers were found across many services in plaintext, even though such storage is disallowed by the Aadhaar Act, 2016.' The IT Act may also apply, but the specific violation mentioned is the Aadhaar Act. The Data Protection Bill was not yet enacted at the time of the article (2026).

Explanation

Entry 15 of the State List specifically deals with 'Preservation, protection and improvement of stock and prevention of animal diseases', which includes the power to legislate on cow slaughter. The other entries deal with different subjects (water, land, forests) under the State List.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because cow slaughter regulation falls under the State List (Entry 15, List II), not the Concurrent List. Statement 2 is correct: the Supreme Court stayed the Madras HC order on July 13, 2026. Statement 3 is correct: the Gujarat Animal Preservation Amendment Act, 2017 imposes life imprisonment (minimum 7 years) and a fine of ₹1-5 lakh for slaughter of cows, calves, bulls, and bullocks.

Explanation

Gujarat, under its Animal Preservation Amendment Act, 2017, mandates life imprisonment (minimum 7 years) and a fine of ₹1-5 lakh for the slaughter of cows, calves, bulls, and bullocks. Uttar Pradesh has 3-10 years imprisonment, Maharashtra has up to 5 years, and Haryana has 3-10 years — all less severe than Gujarat's life imprisonment provision.

Explanation

Cow slaughter regulation is placed under Entry 15 ('Preservation of Stock') of the State List (List II) of the Seventh Schedule. This constitutional arrangement empowers each state legislature to make its own laws on the matter, leading to a diverse legal framework across the country. The absence of a central legislation is not the reason — it is the deliberate constitutional design of federalism.

Explanation

Article 213 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Governor of a state to promulgate ordinances when the state legislature is not in session. Article 123 deals with the President's ordinance-making power, Article 368 with amendments, and Article 356 with President's Rule.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the ordinance caps fee hikes at 5% per annum. Statement 2 is incorrect because the ordinance is promulgated by the Governor, not the Chief Minister. Statement 3 is correct as the ordinance aims to ensure transparency and protect students from arbitrary fee hikes.

Explanation

The ordinance passed by the Punjab government caps the annual fee hike at 5% per annum. This was a key provision aimed at protecting parents from arbitrary and excessive fee increases by private schools.

Explanation

The article mentions that a 17-year-old girl in Amritsar allegedly committed suicide after facing mental harassment in her school over pending dues. This incident prompted the Chief Minister to take immediate action, leading to the ordinance.

Explanation

The Bombay High Court held that the right to privacy is an integral part of the right to life and personal liberty guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution. The other options are related to equality, freedom, and protection against arrest, but not directly to privacy in this context.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court declared the search illegal. Statement 2 is incorrect because the compensation amount is ₹10,000, not ₹1,00,000. Statement 3 is correct as per the court's direction that the government can recover the penalty from the errant officer.

Explanation

The court directed the state to pay ₹10,000 to the 26-year-old petitioner within two months. The other options are distractors; the exact figure is ₹10,000 as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The court emphasized that investigative powers cannot justify illegal searches and that non-compliance with BNSS procedures makes the search and seizure illegal. The ruling does not create a new right but reaffirms existing protections. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as per the judgment.

Explanation

The article states that the RBD Act, 1969 covers births, deaths and stillbirths, replacing the earlier 1886 Act. The 2023 amendment introduced digital registration and other reforms.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 99.4% death registration completeness. Statement 2 is incorrect because 60.4% of registered deaths are male and 39.6% female. Statement 3 is correct: only 24.8% of deaths occur in health institutions. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article reports CRS 2024 registered stillbirths at 81,000, down from 101,000 in 2023. Option C (66,413) is the number of births of Indian nationals abroad, and D (11,384) is deaths abroad.

Explanation

The article states that only 24.8% of registered deaths occur in health institutions, limiting accurate Medical Certification of Cause of Death (MCCD). This weakens the country's ability to track disease burdens and guide public health action.

Explanation

The UK Security Minister stated that members of Iran's IRGC Qods Force almost certainly directed IMCR attacks across Europe. Qods Force is the expeditionary unit of the IRGC responsible for overseas operations and supporting proxy groups.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the UK banned IMCR for the arson attacks. Statement 2 is incorrect: the UK banned Iran's paramilitary Revolutionary Guard (IRGC), not the regular Artesh military. Statement 3 is correct: the EU listed the IRGC as a terrorist organisation in January 2026.

Explanation

Security Minister Angela Eagle stated that the IMCR has claimed seven attacks in the UK, including fires at synagogues and Jewish charity ambulances in London.

Explanation

The ban makes it a criminal offence to belong to, support, or fund these groups, directly targeting Iran's ability to use proxy networks for attacks on Jewish communities and Persian-language media in Europe. While diplomatic and economic measures may follow, the immediate goal is legal and operational disruption.

Explanation

The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) is the nodal ministry for releasing CPI data in India. The RBI uses this data for monetary policy decisions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: CPI inflation at 4.38% crossed the 4% target for the first time since January 2025. Statement 2 is correct: transport inflation surged to 7.35% due to four fuel price hikes from mid-May. Statement 3 is incorrect: the new CPI series uses 2024 as the base year, not 2012.

Explanation

The Consumer Food Price Index (CFPI) inflation stood at 5.32% in June 2026, up from 4.78% in May. Option A (3.93%) is the headline CPI for May, option B (4.38%) is the headline CPI for June, and option D (7.35%) is the transport inflation for June.

Explanation

The article states that the June inflation data reinforces the RBI's intention to remain on hold. With inflation at 4.38% (above the 4% target) and expected to rise further to 4.9% in July, the MPC is likely to keep the repo rate unchanged at 5.25% to contain inflationary pressures.

Explanation

NHAI is a statutory body under the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, responsible for development and management of National Highways. The Lucknow-Kanpur Expressway is a National Highway project developed by NHAI.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the article states two-wheelers, three-wheelers, and other non-access-controlled vehicles are NOT allowed. Statement 2 is correct: speed limit is 120 kmph and ATMS issues e-challans. Statement 3 is correct: cost ₹4,000 crore, inaugurated by Rajnath Singh (Defence Minister), Nitin Gadkari (Road Transport Minister), and Yogi Adityanath (UP CM).

Explanation

According to the toll table, cars, jeeps, and vans pay Rs 275 for a single journey. Rs 415 is the return journey fare, Rs 935 is for buses/trucks, and Rs 445 is for light commercial vehicles (single).

Explanation

The article repeatedly highlights that the expressway cuts travel time from 90 minutes to 35-40 minutes and alleviates traffic jams. While AIMC piloting and revenue are secondary aspects, the core objective is faster, barrier-free commuting for thousands of daily commuters.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that the Governor recommended reference to the Supreme Court under Article 371(1). This provision is a special constitutional safeguard for the Karnataka Public Service Commission.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Governor's order stated that the suspension was to ensure a fair investigation. Statement 2 is incorrect: the daughters were selected for the post of Industrial Extension Officer, not Junior Engineer (Junior Engineer was a separate FIR for another daughter). Statement 3 is correct: the daughter claimed OBC reservation by declaring family income of Rs 40,000 per annum.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'One of the daughters of the Chairman has obtained the income and caste certificate by declaring the family income of Rs 40,000 per annum.' This is a key data point for prelims.

Explanation

The article states: 'The Governor suspended the chairman to ensure a fair, impartial and uninfluenced investigation.' The suspension is a procedural step to protect the integrity of the inquiry, not a final punishment.

Explanation

The UAE Ministry of Defence stated that the tankers were attacked while transiting the southern shipping lane of the Strait of Hormuz, which is inside Omani territorial waters.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the UAE blamed Iran for the cruise missile attack. Statement 2 is incorrect because six of the injured were Indian nationals and two were Ukrainian nationals. Statement 3 is correct as the UAE said it reserves its full right to respond.

Explanation

The article states that six of the eight injured crew members were Indian nationals, while two were Ukrainian nationals. Four of the eight sustained serious injuries.

Explanation

The Strait of Hormuz is a vital chokepoint for global oil shipments. An attack here threatens to disrupt energy supplies, impacting global oil prices and economic stability. While other options are possible secondary effects, the primary concern is energy security.

Explanation

CENTCOM is the unified combatant command responsible for US security interests in the Middle East, including the recent strikes on Iran. PACOM covers the Pacific, EUCOM covers Europe, and AFRICOM covers Africa.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions hitting air-defence systems, coastal radar, missiles, drones, and small boats. Statement 2 is incorrect because the US used fighter aircraft, naval vessels, and attack drones (not just Navy vessels). Statement 3 is correct as IRGC attacked Prince Hassan Air Base (Jordan), a drone command centre (Bahrain), and Ali Al Salem Air Base (Kuwait). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the US military carried out the strikes on Sunday, July 12. July 13 is the date of the news report, and the other options are distractors.

Explanation

CENTCOM explicitly stated the strikes were aimed at 'degrading Iran's ability to continue attacking international shipping flowing through the Strait of Hormuz.' The other options are not mentioned in the article. This highlights the importance of the Strait as a global trade chokepoint.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the FBI has announced a $50,000 reward for information leading to Brar's arrest. The FBI is the primary federal law enforcement agency in the US.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the US official confirmed extradition of Bishnoi and Nagra. Statement 2 is incorrect because Nijjar was killed in Surrey, Canada, not the US. Statement 3 is correct as per the article: 24 arrested, 11 in California.

Explanation

The article states: 'In total, the U.S. Department of Justice charged 37 people in the indictment as part of its 'Operation Hardball'.' 24 persons were arrested, but 37 were charged.

Explanation

The case involves crimes in Canada, the US, and Europe, demonstrating transnational organised crime. The joint operation and extradition request underscore cooperation between multiple countries to tackle these networks.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Iran's Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps (IRGC) claimed it launched the 'first phase' of retaliatory missile and drone strikes against US facilities in Bahrain, Kuwait, and Jordan.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per Trump's interview. Statement 2 is correct (20% mentioned in article). Statement 3 is incorrect: IRGC said the only way to restore shipping is to end US military intervention, not to continue the blockade.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Strait of Hormuz is 'responsible for 20 per cent of global oil and gas supply.' Options 15%, 25%, and 30% are distractors; 15% is the approximate share of the Strait of Malacca.

Explanation

The article states: 'Since Iran blockaded the strait, oil and energy prices have shot up, raising inflation globally.' The blockade directly disrupted supply, causing price hikes, while other factors are secondary or proposals.

Explanation

Article 48 is a Directive Principle of State Policy under Part IV of the Constitution. It specifically directs the State to take steps for prohibiting the slaughter of cows, calves, and other milch and draught cattle. Article 48A deals with protection of environment, Article 51A contains fundamental duties, and Article 21 guarantees right to life.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The SC stayed the HC's blanket ban. Statement 2 is incorrect: The SC did not uphold the validity of the Act; it merely granted a stay and issued notice. Statement 3 is correct: The HC explicitly cited Article 48 in its order. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the High Court had ordered a blanket ban on May 27. The Supreme Court stayed this order on July 13, 2026. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The Tamil Nadu government argued that the High Court's order was 'judicial lawmaking' and internally inconsistent because it directed a complete ban while the Tamil Nadu Animal Preservation Act, 1958 permits regulated slaughter. The state also pointed out that other laws do not impose a blanket prohibition. The other options are not the primary arguments mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article repeatedly refers to the 'Forest Rights Act, 2006' which is the short name for the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006. PESA (1996) and other acts are different legislations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article (bench of Justices Gadkari and Khata). Statement 2 is incorrect – the petition was filed by NGO Vanashakti. Statement 3 is correct – the court directed the Additional Chief Secretary of the Forest Department to file a detailed affidavit. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'Forest Rights Act, introduced in 2006'. The Act is officially the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006.

Explanation

The FRA aims to correct historical injustice by recognizing the rights of forest-dwelling communities to land and resources. It provides Individual Forest Rights (IFR) for cultivation/habitation and Community Forest Resource (CFR) rights for sustainable management.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the All IITs Placement Committee has made this decision. UGC and AICTE are regulatory bodies, while the Ministry of Education is the parent ministry. The committee directly handles placement policies for all IITs.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article clearly states the exclusion of JEE/GATE scores. Statement 2 is incorrect – NEP 2020 actually emphasises moving beyond examination-dominated systems towards holistic development, so the decision is consistent with NEP 2020. Statement 3 is correct – the article mentions moving away from only the highest salary packages to median salaries. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Median salary is a better representative measure to get an overall sense of how the larger graduating cohort has fared.' Average salary can be skewed by outliers, while median provides a more realistic picture. The committee endorsed median over highest packages.

Explanation

The article highlights that entrance ranks can indirectly reveal social category or admission route, leading to bias. More importantly, a degree reflects years of learning and growth beyond a single exam score. The reform aims to assess current professional readiness rather than an old rank, thereby promoting fairness and holistic evaluation.

Explanation

The 'Act East' policy, announced in 2014, is a more proactive version of the 'Look East' policy and primarily focuses on strengthening India's ties with ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian Nations) and East Asian countries. The article explicitly discusses India's trade and strategic engagement with ASEAN as a key measure of this policy's success.

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct as per the article: India-ASEAN trade grew from ~$7 billion (2000) to ~$125 billion (2025), while China-ASEAN trade grew from ~$40 billion to nearly $1 trillion. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article explicitly states that India's principal constraint is the failure to implement agreements, not the lack of diplomatic initiatives.

Explanation

The article states that India's trade with ASEAN rose from about $7 billion in 2000 to around $125 billion in 2025. The $40 billion figure is China's trade with ASEAN in 2000, and $1 trillion is China's trade with ASEAN in 2025. These are common distractors.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'India's principal constraint has not been the lack of diplomatic initiatives. It lies in the failure to implement them.' It cites the Sabang port and Australian uranium discussions that began nearly a decade ago as examples. The article warns that the significance of the tour depends on post-visit domestic actions, not just the intent behind agreements.