19 July 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

Article 81 deals with the composition of the Lok Sabha, including the allocation of seats to states. Article 82 deals with the readjustment of constituencies after each census. These are the articles directly involved in the delimitation process mentioned in the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Bill proposed increasing Lok Sabha seats to a maximum of 850. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Bill proposed to use the 'latest Census' (2011) data, not the 1971 Census, which conflicted with the promise to maintain state proportions. Statement 3 is correct: the Amendment required a two-thirds majority and was defeated.

Explanation

The article states that the Bill proposed to increase the maximum number of Lok Sabha seats from 550 to 850. Therefore, the current maximum is 550 seats.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Bills 'did not align with the oral promise' regarding maintaining state seat proportions, and this conflict prevented consensus for the two-thirds majority needed. The promise was that the 50% increase in seats would be proportionally distributed among states.

Explanation

Article 44, part of the Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV), states that 'The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.' Article 14 deals with equality, Article 21 with life and liberty, and Article 342 with Scheduled Tribes definition.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Bill prohibits polygamy, triple talaq, and nikah halala. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Bill exempts only Scheduled Tribes (STs), not all minority communities. Statement 3 is correct as live-in couples must file an affidavit within one month, failing which legal action may be taken. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

Chief Minister Mohan Yadav claimed that over 80% of Muslim women and 40% of Muslim men backed the UCC proposal. The other options are close distractors; 80% is the exact figure mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The government official stated that the exemption is to protect the 'unique cultural heritage and traditional lifestyle' of ST communities, respecting constitutional safeguards under Articles 342 and 366(25). This reflects the balance between uniform laws and special protections for tribal groups.

Explanation

The article mentions the Minister of Electronics and Information Technology (Ashwini Vaishnaw) and MeitY Additional Secretary, confirming that the ISM falls under MeitY.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Phase 1 approved Dec 2021 with ₹76,000 cr. Statement 2 is incorrect: Phase 2 trims capital subsidy to 30-40%, not 50% (that was phase 1). Statement 3 is correct: MPMS incentives range from 2.25% to 5% based on local design level.

Explanation

The article states the government expects the scheme to draw ₹4 lakh crore in investment over its tenure of five years. The other options are outlays or committed investments from phase 1.

Explanation

The article quotes Minister Vaishnaw stating that there is a massive market for 28nm chips as everyday electronics, where size and computing power are not constraints, require such components too. The other options are not the primary reason mentioned.

Explanation

UCIL, under the Department of Atomic Energy, is responsible for uranium mining and processing in India, operating major mines in Jaduguda, Turamdih, and Tummalapalle.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions 47 uranium deposits across 11 states. Statement 2 is incorrect because PHWRs use domestic natural uranium, not entirely imported. Statement 3 is correct as the deal comes nearly 12 years after the agreement, which was signed in 2014 (2026-12=2014). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states 'the uranium requirement for only 2.4 GWe out of the country's total 8.7 GWe capacity is currently met from domestic sources.' Thus, the current capacity is 8.7 GWe.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that mining and processing domestic uranium costs 3-4 times more than international markets due to poor grade of ore, making imports economically preferable. Insufficient reserves is not the issue as India has 4.3 lakh tonnes.

Explanation

As per the RBI Act 1934, the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is the statutory body that decides the policy repo rate to achieve inflation targeting. The news article mentions the MPC's unanimous vote, confirming this role.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the MPC voted unanimously to keep rates unchanged at 5.25%. Statement 2 is incorrect: the inflation forecast of 5.65% is for the second half of the year, not the first half. Statement 3 is correct: growth is projected at 6.6% for 2026-27, down from 7.7%.

Explanation

The article states that the MPC voted to keep the repo rate at 5.25%. This is a key data point for exams. The other options are common distractors; 5.50% and 6.00% are higher rates, while 4.50% is the reverse repo rate.

Explanation

The article clarifies that a neutral stance, as noted by the RBI governor, calls for neither stimulating nor controlling inflation. It contrasts with the negative real interest rates that actually stimulate growth, highlighting the inconsistency.

Explanation

ICMR is the apex body in India for the formulation, coordination, and promotion of biomedical research, functioning under the Department of Health Research, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: 87.3% of adults have abnormal lipid levels. Statement 2 is incorrect: low HDL was the most common abnormality, not the least. Statement 3 is correct: the study found dyslipidemia peaks between 30 and 39 years of age.

Explanation

The study explicitly states that 87.3% of Indian adults have at least one abnormal lipid level. The other options are close distractors not supported by the article.

Explanation

The study found that 355 million Indians with normal blood sugar, blood pressure, and no obesity still have abnormal lipids. Therefore, waiting until high-risk conditions appear misses many cases. Early and broader screening is needed.

Explanation

IN-SPACe was created in 2020 under the Department of Space to act as a single-window, independent nodal agency for promoting and authorising private sector participation in India's space sector. It serves as an interface between ISRO and private parties.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Vikram-1 is a four-stage rocket (three solid fuel Kalam engines and one liquid Raman engine) with carbon composite body and 3D printed engines. Statement 2 is correct: It is India's first private orbital rocket, launched under Mission Aagaman. Statement 3 is correct: It is designed to carry up to 350 kg to LEO. Hence all three statements are correct.

Explanation

The article states that CPI inflation rose to 4.38% in June 2026 from 3.93% in May. The other options are distractors: 3.93% is the May figure, 9.68% is a WPI figure, and 9.87% is another WPI figure. CPI inflation is the RBI's target measure.

Explanation

The article mentions that the committee, headed by Tribal Development Minister, will examine the constitutional and legal position governing reservation and welfare benefits for STs after religious conversion, study the approach of the Centre and other states, and recommend a policy for Maharashtra. Option B is too broad, C is not mentioned, and D is not the primary objective.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the ITU manages radio frequencies and prevents harmful interference between satellites. UNOOSA deals with space law and policy, but the ITU is the specific agency for frequency and orbit allocation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because India is the third country with PRIVATE launch capability, not overall launch capability (ISRO has had launch capability for decades). Statement 3 is correct as the Indian Space Policy 2023 formalized the framework for private sector participation.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that Vikram-1 can carry a payload of up to 350 kg to LEO. The other options are close distractors but are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the true strategic value lies in creating sovereign 'surge capacity', granting India the ability to rapidly rebuild or increase the number of intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR) satellites on demand, without relying on ISRO. This is vital for national security in the Indo-Pacific region.

Explanation

The IAEA is the UN's nuclear watchdog, tasked with verifying compliance with the NPT through safeguards and inspections. The article specifically mentions the IAEA's Additional Protocol and the deal's decision to skip it.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states the deal allows Saudi to enrich uranium. Statement 2 is incorrect: the deal skips the Additional Protocol, using bilateral oversight. Statement 3 is correct: the 2009 US-UAE deal is described as the 'gold standard' because it gave up enrichment and reprocessing entirely.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that during Trump's visit to Riyadh in May 2025, the two sides signed a $142 billion arms deal. The $1 trillion figure refers to Saudi Arabia's pledge to increase US investment commitments.

Explanation

The article quotes Kelsey Davenport warning that granting Saudi a customized safeguards arrangement could set a precedent, questioning how Washington would react if Russia offered similar bilateral deals. This undermines the global non-proliferation regime.

Explanation

The NGT is a statutory body established under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, not under the Environment Protection Act. The other options are different environmental laws, but only the NGT Act provides for the tribunal's establishment and powers.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the bench comprised Chairperson Justice Prakash Shrivastava and expert members. Statement 2 is correct as per the report: urban areas generate 420.82 tonnes daily, 20.48 tonnes uncollected. Statement 3 is incorrect; the NGT did not direct elimination of STPs but identified 20 non-compliant STPs and directed recovery of environmental compensation and prosecution for violators.

Explanation

The article states that approximately 159.117 MLD of sewage is generated, of which only 88.293 MLD is treated, leaving about 70.824 MLD (44.5%) untreated and discharged into rivers, streams, and lakes. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The NGT specifically noted that rivers like Yamuna, Sutlej, Beas, and Ravi serve as drinking water sources for lakhs of citizens and sustain unique Himalayan biodiversity. Untreated sewage discharge poses serious risks to public health and the fragile Himalayan ecosystem, not primarily tourism or agriculture.

Explanation

The Ordinance strengthens the District Regulatory Bodies, headed by Deputy Commissioners, as the principal enforcement authorities. They can approve fee hikes beyond 5% and order forensic audits, a key function mentioned in the news article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Ordinance caps annual hikes at 5% without prior approval. Statement 2 is incorrect: the refund applies to increases exceeding 15% over the last three years, not five. Statement 3 is incorrect: the definition includes transport charges where transport is not separately contracted.

Explanation

The Ordinance mandates that schools must refund the excess amount collected from parents within 90 days of the notification of the Ordinance. This is a precise data point for prelims.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the government concluded several proposed changes would not survive judicial scrutiny unless incorporated into the parent legislation itself. This highlights the difference between delegated legislation (rules) and primary legislation (Act).

Explanation

Article 19(1)(a) guarantees freedom of speech and expression, while Article 19(1)(b) guarantees the right to assemble peaceably and without arms. Together, they provide the constitutional basis for the right to protest, subject to reasonable restrictions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the right to protest is not absolute and comes with reasonable restrictions. Statement 2 is correct as per Article 19(2) and (3). Statement 3 is correct because Section 163 BNSS (earlier Section 144 CrPC) allows authorities to impose prohibitory orders on ongoing protests.

Explanation

The article mentions that even permission for an ongoing peaceful protest can be revoked by imposing a curfew under Section 163 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, which replaces the earlier Section 144 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.

Explanation

The police require an NOC to assess and manage potential risks to public order, safety, and the rights of others. The article states that permission can be denied if the protest might affect public order, sovereignty, security, or decency, reflecting the state's duty to balance fundamental rights with societal interests.

Explanation

The article states that IIM Lucknow's BS in AI and Business Analytics is the only IIM undergraduate programme that admits students through JEE Advanced. The others use JEE Main or alternative routes.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: IIM Mumbai's BS programme has 70 seats. Statement 2 is incorrect: IIM Kozhikode does not provide direct admission; a JEE Main percentile of 80 or above only exempts candidates from the aptitude test. Statement 3 is correct: IIM Sambalpur's maximum age is 20 years. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the upper age limit for admission to IIM Lucknow's BS programme is 21 years. IIM Sambalpur has a limit of 20 years, so the two should not be confused.

Explanation

The core significance is diversifying options for students who have taken JEE exams, allowing them to pursue management, data science, and AI programmes at IIMs instead of only engineering at IITs/NITs. The other options are either not supported by the article (replacing CUET) or are secondary effects.

Explanation

As per the article, the Bihar Governor, Syed Ata Hasnain, is the chancellor of the state universities. This is a standard constitutional provision where the Governor serves as the visitor/chancellor of state universities.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions over 500 constituent colleges would come under a new department. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Bill is 'likely to be introduced' in the monsoon session, not yet introduced. Statement 3 is correct as DU teachers wrote to the Governor opposing the move.

Explanation

The article specifically states that the proposed Bill would affect 'over 500 constituent colleges offering undergraduate degrees'. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The DU teachers' letter argues that the Bill would fragment the integrated university system, reduce academic authority of universities, and contradict NEP 2020's emphasis on autonomy. Financial burden or closure of colleges are not the primary concerns highlighted.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions the Strait of Hormuz as the waterway accounting for roughly 20% of global oil supplies. The US strikes were designed to degrade Iran's ability to restrict tanker traffic there.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the US launched strikes to punish Iran for the Jordan base attack that killed two troops. Statement 2 is incorrect: the strikes targeted Iran's ability to restrict traffic through the Strait of Hormuz, not the Suez Canal. Statement 3 is correct as Iran's supreme leader warned of 'unforgettable lessons' and Tehran suspended its commitments to the interim deal.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Since the war began, 16 U.S. service members have been killed and over 430 wounded.' The number 2 refers to those killed in the specific Jordan attack, while 16 is the total since the war began.

Explanation

The article states: 'The strikes were designed to further degrade Iran's ability to restrict the traffic of oil tankers through the Strait of Hormuz, U.S. Central Command said.' This is a focused strategic objective related to energy security, not regime change or nuclear disarmament.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Chhattisgarh government submitted an affidavit to the Chhattisgarh High Court after the court rapped it over river pollution in the Shivnath and Kharun rivers. This is a direct factual reference to the High Court of the state.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: geo-tagging of river origin points was completed and mapped on PM Gati Shakti. Statement 2 is incorrect: the institutions engaged were IIT Roorkee, NIT Raipur, and CSVTU Bhilai, not IIT Delhi or IIT Kanpur. Statement 3 is correct: the State Level Source Festival (Rajya Stariya Shrot Mahotsav) is scheduled during the last week of July. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The last line of the article explicitly states 'The court will hear the case on August 11.' The other options are distractors; July 15 and June 30 are approximate dates related to the meeting mentioned (June 15 meeting) or the festival (last week of July).

Explanation

The article explicitly states these institutions were engaged 'to prepare technically sustainable restoration plans' and to ensure 'scientific monitoring of river discharge, water quality and groundwater levels'. The core objective is technical and scientific sustainability, not legal or auditing purposes.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) issued the memorandum regarding the deferral of the domestic cell sourcing mandate. The MNRE is the nodal ministry for all renewable energy matters in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article says the government had said on May 25 that there would be no blanket relief. Statement 2 is incorrect: the exemption is meant to help smaller manufacturers, not large ones. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions India's module manufacturing base is nearly 200 GW per annum.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the manufacturing capacity of cells is far lower at around 30 GW, compared to the module manufacturing capacity of 200 GW. The other options are close distractors. 200 GW is the module capacity, not cell capacity.

Explanation

The article states that the decision was taken after deliberations to ensure a smooth transition to the mandatory domestic cell sourcing mandate, and it highlights that the exemption could disproportionately affect smaller manufacturers that do not produce their own cells. The primary objective is to ease the transition, not to reduce tariffs, boost exports, or comply with WTO rulings.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the reform is aligned with the RTE Act, 2009, shifting from subjective assessments to objective norms and standards.

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are directly mentioned in the article. Statement 3 is incorrect because the government relaxed (reduced) the minimum land area requirement, not increased it.

Explanation

The article states that Rule 44(3) (prior notice of intention) and Rule 50(ii) (assessment of real need) have been amended.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the move will simplify the school recognition process and is part of a compliance reduction and deregulation exercise.

Explanation

The CBDT is the nodal body for direct tax policy and administration under the Ministry of Finance. It notified the amended protocol to the India-Sri Lanka DTAA.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as PPT prevents treaty shopping. Statement 2 is incorrect because the PPT applies to income derived from April 1, 2027, not June 19, 2026 (which is when the protocol entered into force). Statement 3 is correct as PPT is an MLI-mandated change under OECD BEPS.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the MLI entered into force for India on October 1, 2019. While the India-Sri Lanka PPT was recently notified, the MLI itself has been in force in India since 2019.

Explanation

As highlighted by experts in the article, the PPT introduces subjectivity. Previously, meeting objective criteria (residency, documentation) was enough. Now, investors must prove the commercial rationale of their structure to claim treaty benefits, marking a significant shift.