21 July 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The Indus Waters Treaty is an international treaty between India and Pakistan, and its handling falls under the Ministry of External Affairs, which manages bilateral relations and diplomatic negotiations. While the Ministry of Jal Shakti deals with water resources, the treaty's abeyance and renegotiation are primarily a diplomatic matter.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because India has placed the treaty in 'abeyance' (temporary suspension), not terminated it. Statement 2 is correct as per the article: the treaty was placed in abeyance after the Pahalgam attack. Statement 3 is incorrect because the official explicitly stated that India's IWT stance does not set a precedent for China's Brahmaputra projects, as no treaty exists with China on that river.

Explanation

The article states that 'almost 50% of the water flow that Pakistan received under the Indus Waters Treaty flowed into the ocean.' This was cited as a reason for India's dissatisfaction, as Pakistan has not built adequate storage facilities over 76 years.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that Pakistan's sponsorship of terrorism, especially after the Pahalgam attack, was the primary trigger. The official stated that Pakistan's support for terrorism 'can be considered a breach of the treaty' and that India cannot be compelled to stay in a treaty against its interest. While other factors like climate change and storage issues were mentioned, they were secondary to the terror sponsorship issue.

Explanation

CDSCO is the national regulatory authority for drugs in India under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. It granted marketing authorization for Qdenga after evaluating its quality, safety, and efficacy under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the vaccine is developed using recombinant DNA technology and is a live attenuated tetravalent vaccine. Statement 2 is incorrect because the approved age group is 4 to 60 years, not 2 to 60 years. Statement 3 is correct as per the recommended schedule of two doses at 0 and 3 months. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that globally, more than 24 million doses of the vaccine have been distributed, with post-marketing surveillance demonstrating a favorable safety profile.

Explanation

The Ministry stated that the vaccine is expected to complement the ongoing vector control, surveillance, early diagnosis, and case management measures under the National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme, not replace them.

Explanation

The Supreme Court in Maniyar Iliyaz @ Shaik Riyaz vs P. Ayyappan (2026) held that walking on demarcated footpaths is a fundamental right protected under Article 19(1)(d) (right to move freely) and Article 21 (right to life). The other options are incorrect because they involve different constitutional provisions not mentioned in the judgment.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the WHO report says 49.4% do NOT meet the recommended levels, not that they meet them. Statement 3 is correct as the Ministry report states that pedestrians and two-wheeler riders together accounted for nearly 67% of road fatalities. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The WHO report states that 49.4% of Indian adults do not meet the recommended physical activity levels. Option B (57.2%) is the percentage for women specifically, C (74%) is for adolescents, and D (67%) is the share of road fatalities for pedestrians and two-wheeler riders. Hence the correct overall figure is 49.4%.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the judgment is a public health intervention, road safety measure, and democratic test. It does not mandate flyovers (A), ban vehicles (C), or provide compensation (D). Instead, it directs states to frame policies for safe footpaths, linking walking to health and constitutional rights.

Explanation

EPFO is a statutory body under the Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India. It administers provident fund, pension, and insurance schemes for formal sector employees.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The new pension scheme is a defined contribution scheme, not defined benefit. Statement 2 is correct: Gig workers are covered via UAN mapping with multiple aggregators. Statement 3 is correct: EPFO will adopt CBS for real-time transactions.

Explanation

The article states: 'the EPFO expects around 2.5 crore gig workers and building and other construction workers (BOCW) over the next five years.' Option D (3.5 crore) is the number of registered BOCW workers currently.

Explanation

The article mentions that CBS is a centralized payments software used by banks, and EPFO needs it to handle the large volume of transactions for over 60 crore workers. It ensures timely interest credit and visibility of eligible balance.

Explanation

The article mentions that the handbook 'Realising Rights' was published by the Centre for the Study of the Indian Economy, Azim Premji University. It traces the history and budgetary implications of key central welfare programmes.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: combined allocations were ₹24.20 lakh crore. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article states that the Union government's share has remained largely stagnant, not increasing. Statement 3 is correct: MGNREGA was funded in a 90:10 ratio (Centre:State). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Union government's contribution to selected welfare schemes accounted for just 1.89% of GDP. 6.77% is the combined (Union + State) spending. 4.14% is states' spending on unconditional cash transfers (from 16th Finance Commission).

Explanation

The article's core argument is that while tax revenues favour the Union government, the onus of funding welfare falls disproportionately on states who already face budget constraints. This vertical fiscal imbalance is the key concern, not the total spending level or the effectiveness of cash transfers per se.

Explanation

The article states that Trump tapped Section 338 of the Tariff Act of 1930 for the new duties, a provision never used before. Other options are common trade remedy laws but not relevant here.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the tariffs do not apply to energy, potash, and goods already impacted by sector-specific tariffs. Statement 2 is correct: Section 338 has never been used and is subject to litigation risk. Statement 3 is correct: Canada has matched US measures and warned of further retaliation.

Explanation

The article clearly states that Trump ordered new 50% tariffs on many Canadian goods. The other options are common tariff rates but not the correct one in this case.

Explanation

The article quotes former US trade official Ryan Majerus saying the tariffs are 'clearly designed to get some leverage over Canada' as USMCA negotiations are ongoing. While other factors are mentioned, the primary objective is strategic leverage.

Explanation

The Tenth Schedule to the Constitution, added by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985, contains the anti-defection law. It provides for disqualification of MPs/MLAs for defecting from their political party, with exceptions for mergers as per rules.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: For a merger to be valid, at least two-thirds of the party's members must agree. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Speaker's decision is subject to judicial review by the Supreme Court (as held in Kihoto Hollohan case). Statement 3 is correct: The 52nd Amendment added the Tenth Schedule.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that on July 18, 2026, Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla recognized the merger of six Shiv Sena (UBT) MPs with the Shinde-led faction. This circular was challenged by the UBT faction in the Supreme Court.

Explanation

The petition argued that the six MPs decided unilaterally to merge with the rival party without the original party (Shiv Sena UBT) merging. Under the Tenth Schedule, individual defection without party merger is unconstitutional. The Speaker's recognition was challenged as 'ex-facie unconstitutional'.

Explanation

The Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE) is an autonomous organisation under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). Its Director General, Kanchan Devi, chairs the High-Powered Committee on Aravalli Hills, as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states the Aravallis were formed during the Precambrian Era. Statement 2 is incorrect: the 100-metre definition was proposed by an Environment Secretary-led panel, not by the ICFRE DG-led committee. Statement 3 is correct: the Supreme Court's December 29 order stayed both the ministry report and its own November 20 judgment.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 100-metre elevation benchmark would leave 'over 90 per cent of the vulnerable hill range outside protection.' This key data point is crucial for prelims and demonstrates the impact of definitional ambiguity.

Explanation

The Supreme Court established the panel to obtain a 'fair, impartial, and independent' assessment and to resolve critical ambiguities in the October 2025 report. Its mandate includes definitively enumerating regions under the 100-metre definition and analysing the ecological consequences of mining, not an outright ban or compensation.

Explanation

Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue writs for enforcement of fundamental rights and for any other purpose. Article 32 empowers the Supreme Court for fundamental rights enforcement. Article 136 deals with special leave petition, and Article 142 with enforcement of decrees and orders of the Supreme Court.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the verdict was split, not unanimous. Statement 2 is correct as Justice Sreedharan proposed a two-year bar. Statement 3 is correct as both judges concurred on these points.

Explanation

The court specifically referred to India's rank of 91st among 182 countries in the 2025 CPI, as per Transparency International. The other options are close distractors with incorrect numbers or total countries.

Explanation

Both judges concurred that arbitrary demolitions violate the rule of law and due process. The two-year ban was proposed only by one judge and was not agreed upon. The court held that violations of due process could invite contempt proceedings.

Explanation

The article explicitly identifies the City of London Corporation as the U.K.'s financial and commercial hub, with its policy chief commenting on the CETA. The Bank of England is the central bank, and the other options are not the designated hub.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The CETA came into effect on July 15, 2026. Statement 2 is correct: The UKIIFB was launched in September 2024. Statement 3 is incorrect: The $4.5 trillion is India's infrastructure target by 2030, not an achievement of the UKIIFB.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India aims to achieve a $4.5 trillion infrastructure target by 2030, supported by the UKIIFB unlocking global capital.

Explanation

According to the article, the UKIIFB brings together experts to make Indian projects more investable (de-risk) and link them with global pools of capital, as exemplified by the Versova Sea Link project.

Explanation

The International Maritime Organisation (IMO) is the UN specialised agency that regulates shipping. In the article, the IMO is cited as having confirmed at least 59 such incidents (vessel attacks) since March 1. The other options are unrelated to maritime safety regulation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the CETA came into effect on July 15, 2026, one year after it was signed. Statement 2 is incorrect: the UK eliminated 96.8% of its tariff lines (9,249 of 9,736), not 64.1%. Statement 3 is correct: India will eliminate tariffs on 77.3% of trade volume (including 47% phased). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'Two commercial vessels carrying 30 Indian crew combined were attacked off the coast of Oman in the Strait of Hormuz on Tuesday last week (July 14).' Options A, C, and D provide incorrect numbers – the article clearly mentions two vessels and 30 Indian crew.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that this legislation 'would be first instance of the US Congress explicitly authorising tariffs as a geopolitical instrument to penalise countries accused of financing another nation’s war effort.' The bill targets countries buying Russian oil, aiming to cut off revenue flows to Russia amid the Ukraine war. While trade deficit and IP enforcement are ongoing issues, the primary objective here is geopolitical.

Explanation

The Bombay High Court, specifically the bench of Acting Chief Justice Ravindra V Ghuge and Justice Gautam A Ankhad, made this observation while hearing a petition related to the stoppage of a parking project by the BMC.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the court said officials should pay damages from their salary accounts, not from taxpayers' money. Statement 2 is correct as the project was a 17-storey robotic parking facility worth ₹122 crore near Mumbadevi Temple. Statement 3 is correct as BMC argued it had written to the state government multiple times seeking permission.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the BMC had initiated a 17-storey robotic parking facility project worth ₹122 crore in Mumbadevi. The other options are close distractors designed to test precise recall.

Explanation

The court explicitly stated that taxpayers are not at fault and that officers responsible for illegal cancellation of projects should pay damages from their salary accounts. This aims to protect public exchequer and hold individual officers accountable for their decisions.

Explanation

The Telangana High Court, through Justice K Sarath, delivered this judgment on July 15, 2026. The Madras High Court had earlier given a similar ruling in J Sharmila case, but the current judgment is from the Telangana High Court.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court cited SC judgments linking maternity leave to reproductive rights and dignity under Article 21. Statement 2 is correct as the court held that twins from a single pregnancy constitute one delivery for the purpose of maternity leave. Statement 3 is incorrect - the court did not direct any amendment; it only granted relief to the petitioner and interpreted the existing rules purposively.

Explanation

The judgment was delivered on July 15, 2026, as mentioned in the article. July 21, 2026 is the publication date of the news article. April 14, 2026 is the date from which the petitioner was granted maternity leave. May 17, 2014 is the date of the government order (GO Ms. No. 50) that was being challenged.

Explanation

The court clarified that when a woman gives birth to twins in her first pregnancy, it counts as one delivery, so she remains eligible for maternity leave for her second delivery. The court did not strike down the two-child norm entirely (option A is false). Option C is opposite to the judgment. Option D is too narrow - while the immediate case is about Telangana, the interpretation has wider persuasive value.

Explanation

The news specifically deals with the Kerala Waqf Board, a statutory body under the UMEED Act 2025. The Supreme Court freed it from supervision by a state official.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Supreme Court allowed the Joint/Additional Secretary to continue as ex-officio member, not removed. Statement 2 is correct: The Kerala HC had directed supervision. Statement 3 is correct as per the UMEED Act 2025 requirements mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states the Supreme Court passed the order on Tuesday, July 21, 2026. The Kerala HC interim order was on July 15, 2026.

Explanation

The Supreme Court modified the order because it found the High Court's direction to be 'egregious interference' in the Board's management. This underscores the principle of judicial restraint and the autonomy of statutory bodies.

Explanation

The article states that QDENGA received market authorisation from the Drug Controller General of India (DCGI). DCGI is the head of CDSCO under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and is responsible for approving new drugs and vaccines in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says QDENGA is the first dengue vaccine approved in India. Statement 2 is incorrect: the approved age group is 4 to 60 years, not 2 to 60. Statement 3 is correct: the vaccine is designed to protect against all four dengue serotypes. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article cites WHO data stating that an estimated 100–400 million dengue infections occur each year worldwide. The other options are incorrect ranges; 100-400 million is the exact figure mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the vaccine 'is designed to protect against all four dengue serotypes'. While elimination and reducing costs may be long-term goals, the immediate objective of the vaccine is serotype coverage. The vaccine complements, not replaces, mosquito control measures.

Explanation

The article mentions that a senior official from the Ministry of Commerce and Industry provided details on the FTA negotiations. This ministry leads India's trade policy and FTA talks.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the ToR was signed on February 24, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: the first round was held in New Delhi in February 2026, not Tel Aviv. Statement 3 is correct: the second round was held in Moscow in June 2026.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India conducts $178.7 billion worth of annual trade with the GCC countries. The other options are for EAEU ($60.7 billion), Israel ($3.9 billion), and the total affected ($243 billion).

Explanation

The article repeatedly mentions that the wars in West Asia and Ukraine have created security issues, making in-person visits and negotiations difficult. For example, the Israel team changed location due to safety concerns, and the GCC visit is pending because of the West Asia war.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Gujarat recorded this reduction. The other states are major industrial states but were not mentioned in this context.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the annual GHG emissions are about 442 million tonnes; 179 million tonnes is the cumulative reduction over five years. Statement 3 is correct. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states a record 67,655 million units (MU) of electricity from renewable energy. 49.79 MU is the emission reduction, 179 MU is a cumulative figure, and 100 GW is the capacity target for 2030.

Explanation

The article attributes the emission reduction to policy measures including the Integrated RE Policy 2026, which accelerated the transition to clean energy. The 100 GW target is a separate goal, net-zero is a national target, and air quality improvement is a co-benefit.

Explanation

The article states that the committee is headed by Kanchan Devi, Director General of the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE). The other options are institutions whose former officers are members, not the head.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the committee was formed on May 25. Statement 2 is correct: critics argue the head reports to the Environment Ministry's Secretary and Minister. Statement 3 is incorrect: special invitees are from the Indian Institute for Human Settlements, Bengaluru, and the Central University of Haryana, not IIT.

Explanation

The article clearly mentions a 21-day window for feedback, starting from July 21, 2026. The other options are common timeframes but not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The article states: 'The development has come amid concerns about the committee's neutrality, as it mainly comprises ex-government officers.' This is the key criticism. Other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank responsible for currency issuance and management. Its currency printing subsidiary invited global Expressions of Interest for polymer substrates, as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states plastic banknotes last 2.5 to 4 times longer. Statement 2 is incorrect: Australia was the pioneer, not India. Statement 3 is correct, with ~60 nations using polymer currency. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that plastic banknotes last 2.5 to 4 times longer than cotton-paper notes. The other options are plausible distractors but not supported by the article.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that polymer notes last 2.5 to 4 times longer, which is their primary advantage. However, it also notes that they may be costlier to produce, so lower production cost is not correct. Recyclability and public acceptance are not discussed.

Explanation

Article 262 of the Constitution empowers Parliament to provide for the adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-state rivers or river valleys. It also allows Parliament to exclude the Supreme Court's jurisdiction in such matters. Article 246 deals with distribution of legislative powers, Article 263 with inter-state councils, and Article 256 with obligation of states to Union laws.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the CWMA was established on June 1, 2018. Statement 2 is incorrect: the CWMA includes representatives of all four basin constituents (Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Puducherry), not just two states. Statement 3 is correct: the CWRC is required to meet at least once a fortnight during the southwest and northeast monsoons.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the CWDT determined the total availability of water in the Cauvery basin during a normal year to be 740 thousand million cubic (tmc) feet. The other options are close distractors but are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article highlights that there is no scientific study that forms the basis for the Authority's decisions regarding distress sharing. Attempts to arrive at a consensus on a formula have failed due to differences over parameters. The CWMA currently follows a proportionate reduction principle per the SC/CWDT, but this has not satisfied either state. Options A, C, and D are not identified as the primary unresolved issue in the article.

Explanation

A chargé d'affaires is a diplomat who temporarily heads a diplomatic mission in the absence of the ambassador. They are accredited to the foreign ministry, not the head of state. In the news, India summoned the Russian chargé d'affaires as a diplomatic protest.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the ship was flagged to Guinea-Bissau, not India. Statement 2 is correct: the attack occurred as the ship was leaving Odesa port. Statement 3 is correct: Kremlin spokesman Dmitry Peskov said Russia will continue to hit vessels involved in supplying the Ukrainian military.

Explanation

The article states that the missile strike killed 10 people including four Indians. Option D (10) is the total casualties, not the number of Indians. Option C (6) is the number of Syrian crew killed. The article explicitly mentions 'four Indians'.

Explanation

India has maintained a neutral stance on the Russia-Ukraine war, buying Russian oil and avoiding condemnation. The killing of Indian citizens puts pressure on the government to take a stronger stance while not jeopardizing strategic ties with Russia. The article shows India summoned the Russian chargé, but Russia justifies its actions. The core challenge is balancing bilateral relations with citizen safety.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the tanker 'flying the Liberian flag'. Liberia is a common flag state for merchant ships due to its open registry. This is a classic static GK linkage testing knowledge of flag states and maritime law.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the strike occurred 'approximately 20 nautical miles off the Romanian coast'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the tanker was carrying propane from Alexandria (Egypt) to Reni (Ukraine), not the reverse. Statement 3 is correct: India summoned Russia's envoy over the Odesa attack that killed four Indians.

Explanation

The article states that 'two Romanian rescue vessels evacuated the ship's 17 crew members'. This is a direct data point from the news. The other options are plausible distractors.

Explanation

The strike on a civilian LPG tanker carrying propane to Ukraine underscores the dangers faced by commercial vessels in active conflict zones like the Black Sea. This can disrupt global supply chains and increase insurance costs, affecting trade and energy security.

Explanation

The article states Canada established a 'national Defence Investment Agency to streamline military procurement.' This is a new agency, distinct from existing bodies like DRDC. Option B is correct as per the text.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the target is by 2035, not 2030. Statement 2 is correct: Canada is the second largest producer and exporter of uranium globally. Statement 3 is correct: a Canada-India MoU on Critical Minerals Value Chain was signed in early 2026. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Canada is the second largest producer and exporter of uranium globally, with 24% of global production in 2024.' Option C is the exact figure mentioned.

Explanation

The article highlights Canada's 'full-spectrum aerospace sector' and its status as the second largest uranium producer. India's scale and manufacturing capacity complement these strengths, making option A the core strategic benefit. Options B and C are factually incorrect. Option D is opposite—India offers low-cost platforms, not acquires them.

Explanation

The article states that the PARIVARTAN scheme is an initiative of the Union Ministry of Road Transport and Highways. The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs approved the guidelines, but the scheme's formulation and ownership lie with Road Transport and Highways.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: owners of BS-IV or older LGVs scrapping and buying new electric LGVs get 100% tax exemption for 10 years. Statement 2 is incorrect: the total outlay is ₹9,585 crore, with Centre share of ₹5,041 crore (not fully funded by Centre). Statement 3 is correct: the scheme is for Delhi-NCR commercial vehicles.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the PARIVARTAN scheme has a total outlay of ₹9,585 crore, out of which ₹5,041 crore is from the Centre. The other options are distractors: ₹5,041 crore is only the Centre's share, not the total.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the scheme aims to reduce air pollution by incentivising replacement of older, highly polluting trucks and buses with cleaner electric and BS-VI vehicles. Options A, C, and D are contrary to the scheme's stated goals.

Explanation

The ICI is compiled and released by the Office of the Economic Adviser, which is under the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry. The Ministry of Finance handles fiscal policy, while MOSPI deals with national accounts and IIP.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the base year was updated to 2022-23. Statement 2 is correct: iron ore was added, and coal now measures only raw coal. Statement 3 is incorrect: the electricity sector's weight increased from 19.85% to 30.932%, not decreased.

Explanation

The coal sector's weight was revised downward from 10.33% to 5.596% in the new series. Option A (10.33%) is the old weight. Option C (6.88%) is the old weight of natural gas, and Option D (3.841%) is the new weight of natural gas.

Explanation

The base year was updated because the previous base (2011-12) had become outdated. Updating the base year ensures that the index weights and composition better represent the current industrial landscape, making it a more accurate gauge of industrial activity.

Explanation

Under the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law), the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is the authority to decide on questions of disqualification, including approving mergers. The article mentions Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla approving the merger of six MPs.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Tenth Schedule was added by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985. Statement 2 is incorrect: Paragraph 4 requires the original political party to merge, not just the legislature party. Statement 3 is correct: The 2023 Subhash Desai judgment confirmed the distinction between original political party and legislature party.

Explanation

The article states that six of the nine Shiv Sena (UBT) MPs unilaterally merged with the rival Shiv Sena faction led by Eknath Shinde. The Lok Sabha Speaker approved this merger, which the UBT faction is challenging.

Explanation

The core argument is that Paragraph 4 of the Tenth Schedule requires the original political party to merge with another party first. The six MPs unilaterally merged without the original Shiv Sena (UBT) party merging, which the petitioner argues is invalid. The 2023 Subhash Desai judgment supports this distinction.

Explanation

The article explicitly lists three sub-categories of WPI: primary articles, fuel and power, and manufactured products. Services are not part of WPI; they are captured in the Consumer Price Index (CPI) or other service-sector indices.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Kaleckian framework states that industrial/manufactured prices are cost-determined (not by demand-supply mismatch). Statement 2 is correct as the article explicitly recommends countercyclical indirect tax policy. Statement 3 is correct — Chart 3 in the article shows that drought years are accompanied by significant food inflation spikes.

Explanation

The article states: 'Wholesale Price Index (WPI) inflation is hovering close to 10% in June (Chart 1a).' The other options are plausible distractors but not the exact figure mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article uses the Kaleckian structuralist framework to show that manufactured inflation is cost-determined (by material costs like oil) and food inflation is supply-driven (by monsoons). Demand-side tools like repo rate hikes are designed to curb demand-pull inflation, not cost-push or supply-shock inflation. Hence, they are ineffective in the current context.

Explanation

The article mentions the '2026 Long-Term National Resource Adequacy Plan', which is prepared by the Central Electricity Authority (CEA) under the Ministry of Power. The CEA is responsible for power system planning and adequacy assessments.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct (peak demand 270.8 GW in May 2026). Statement 2 is incorrect: the target is 80 GW battery storage, not 94 GW. Statement 3 is correct: pumped hydro is planned for ~6 hour discharge. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article specifically states that on May 21, India recorded its highest peak demand of 270.8 GW. The other options are distractors: 180 GW is the approximate 2019 level, while 250.8 and 290.8 are close but incorrect.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that short-duration storage (4-6 hours) is insufficient for overnight or multi-day gaps when solar and wind generation is low. LDES is needed to maintain grid reliability during such periods, which is essential for integrating high shares of renewable energy.

Explanation

The article states that the meeting is hosted by the Philippines in Manila. The Philippines is one of the founding members of ASEAN and frequently hosts regional summits.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the meeting is in Manila. Statement 2 is correct because the US-Iran conflict raises concerns about energy supplies through the Strait of Hormuz. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article says ASEAN and China are still trying to conclude a Code of Conduct after nearly 10 years, meaning it has not been successfully concluded.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the civil war has killed an estimated 100,000 people. The other options are plausible distractors but not supported by the text.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that the US-Iran conflict raises concerns about energy supplies through the Strait of Hormuz, as well as inflation and global growth. While other options are possible consequences of conflict, they are not mentioned in the article as the primary concern for Southeast Asia.

Explanation

The IAC movement, led by Anna Hazare, primarily demanded the enactment of a strong Jan Lokpal Bill to establish an independent anti-corruption ombudsman. The other options are unrelated to the movement's core demand.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says IAC 'consciously projected itself as a citizens' campaign.' Statement 2 is incorrect: the article draws a comparison but does not state they are the same movement. Statement 3 is correct: both movements 'display the potential to disrupt politics by presenting an outsider's challenge.' Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the IAC movement 'rattled the second United Progressive Alliance (UPA) government between 2011 and 2013.' The other options are incorrect timeframes.

Explanation

The article defines anti-system movements by their ability to 'disrupt politics by presenting an outsider's challenge to the political establishment.' They are not necessarily led by a political party, nor are they limited to economic issues or violence. Option B best captures this core characteristic.

Explanation

The article states that the Haryana Department of Industries and Commerce drafted the bill. The other options are implementing agencies under the proposed bill, not the drafting body.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the bill provides a 3-year inspection-free period. Statement 2 is incorrect because the bill proposes a two-tier approval system, not single-tier. Statement 3 is correct as HEPC is designated as the State Nodal Agency. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article mentions that nearly 70% of Haryana's geographical area, which lies outside controlled zones, does not require CLU permission for converting agricultural land to non-agricultural use. The other options are close distractors but not supported by the article.

Explanation

The bill aims to make it easier for manufacturing MSMEs to start businesses by providing in-principle approval based on self-declaration and a 3-year inspection-free period, reducing compliance burden. The other options contradict the deregulation and investor-friendly intent of the bill.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the collapse of the Soviet Union in December 1991 was a principal anchor of Indian foreign policy during the Cold War. Its disintegration, along with Iraq's invasion of Kuwait, constituted the twin shocks of 1991.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the article's central thesis is that the biggest lesson is NOT about diplomacy, but about the necessity of domestic reforms. Statement 2 is correct as the article emphasizes that no balance of power is permanent. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly calls for stronger expertise on Russia, Iran, Central Asia, and Middle Eastern politics.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The war that began with the killing of Iran's Supreme Leader on February 28 has raised energy costs, disrupted navigation through the Strait of Hormuz and exposed India's dependence on the Middle East.' The year 2026 is inferred from the publication date of July 21, 2026.

Explanation

The article's third and most important lesson is that 'external shocks and systemic changes cannot be managed by diplomacy alone. What rescued India after 1991 were the internal reforms. The answer must be the same today — sweeping domestic reform to cope with a changing world.' This emphasizes that domestic transformation is the primary strategic tool, not diplomacy or alliances.