22 July 2026, Questions & Answers

192 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.

192 questions  ·  0 topics covered  ·  39 min revision

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This page contains 192 current affairs questions with answers from 22 July 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.

These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.

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22 July 2026, Questions with Answers

192 Qs
Q1.

Which ministry of the Government of India is primarily responsible for negotiating and implementing trade agreements like the India-U.K. CETA?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of External Affairs
  • B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Finance
  • D.Ministry of Textiles
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Ministry of Commerce and Industry, through its Department of Commerce, handles all trade negotiations, including FTAs and comprehensive economic agreements. While the Ministry of External Affairs provides diplomatic support, the lead role rests with Commerce and Industry.

Source: India-U.K. CETA Comes Into Force: Zero-Duty Access for 99% Exports, $100 Billion Trade Target by 2030 →
Q2.

Consider the following statements regarding the India-U.K. CETA:

1. The agreement provides zero-duty access for 99% of Indian exports to the U.K.

2. Electric vehicles imported from the U.K. will face immediate zero tariffs under the agreement.

3. The agreement includes provisions for mutual recognition of professional qualifications to facilitate services mobility.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: 99% of Indian exports get zero duty. Statement 2 is false: electric vehicles are subject to tariff-rate quotas with phased tariff reduction, not immediate zero tariffs. Statement 3 is correct: the agreement expands access for services providers and includes mobility provisions, which often involve mutual recognition of qualifications.

Source: India-U.K. CETA Comes Into Force: Zero-Duty Access for 99% Exports, $100 Billion Trade Target by 2030 →
Q3.

According to the article, what is the bilateral trade target set by India and the U.K. under the CETA framework?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.$50 billion by 2025
  • B.$100 billion by 2030✓ Correct Answer
  • C.$150 billion by 2035
  • D.$200 billion by 2040
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Both countries have further set a target of doubling bilateral trade to over $100 billion by 2030.' The other options are plausible distractors but do not match the given data.

Source: India-U.K. CETA Comes Into Force: Zero-Duty Access for 99% Exports, $100 Billion Trade Target by 2030 →
Q4.

What is the primary objective of the India-U.K. CETA as described in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce India's trade deficit with the U.K.
  • B.To enhance bilateral trade and investment flows while supporting India's domestic manufacturing and services sectors✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To replace all existing bilateral agreements with a single comprehensive pact
  • D.To align India's trade policies with the U.K.'s post-Brexit strategy
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article highlights that CETA aims to 'reshape trade and investment flows, create quality jobs and growth, and transition India to a more competitive and innovation-driven economy.' It supports Atmanirbhar Bharat, Make in India, and Digital India schemes. Option A is not mentioned; Option C is too absolute; Option D is a partial motive but not the primary objective as per the article.

Source: India-U.K. CETA Comes Into Force: Zero-Duty Access for 99% Exports, $100 Billion Trade Target by 2030 →
Q5.

Which constitutional body is primarily responsible for conducting the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Election Commission of India✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Supreme Court of India
  • C.West Bengal Government
  • D.Parliament of India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Election Commission of India is the constitutional body responsible for conducting elections and maintaining electoral rolls. The SIR is a process carried out by the ECI to update voter lists. The Supreme Court issued notices to the ECI in this case.

Source: SC Reiterates SIR Exclusion Cannot Deny Welfare Benefits; 34 Lakh Appeals in WB →
Q6.

Consider the following statements:

1. The Supreme Court reiterated that SIR outcomes can only be used for determining voting rights.

2. The West Bengal government linked removal from electoral rolls to the Annapurna Yojana and Public Distribution System.

3. The Supreme Court held that exclusion from the electoral roll is proof of non-citizenship.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: SC reiterated that SIR outcomes are linked only to electoral purposes. Statement 2 is correct: WB government orders linked removal to Annapurna Yojana and PDS. Statement 3 is incorrect: SC explicitly stated that exclusion from electoral roll cannot by itself determine citizenship status.

Source: SC Reiterates SIR Exclusion Cannot Deny Welfare Benefits; 34 Lakh Appeals in WB →
Q7.

According to the article, how many appeals have been filed against SIR outcomes in West Bengal?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.14 lakh
  • B.24 lakh
  • C.34 lakh✓ Correct Answer
  • D.44 lakh
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states 'Approximately 34 lakh appeals have been filed against SIR outcomes in West Bengal'. The other options are distractors not mentioned in the article.

Source: SC Reiterates SIR Exclusion Cannot Deny Welfare Benefits; 34 Lakh Appeals in WB →
Q8.

What is the primary purpose of the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls, as per the Supreme Court's ruling?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To update voter lists for elections✓ Correct Answer
  • B.To determine citizenship status
  • C.To link with welfare schemes
  • D.To cancel caste certificates
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Supreme Court in its Bihar SIR judgment clearly stated that SIR outcomes are linked only to electoral purposes. The other options are incorrect because the Court barred using SIR outcomes for citizenship determination, welfare linkage, or caste certificate cancellation.

Source: SC Reiterates SIR Exclusion Cannot Deny Welfare Benefits; 34 Lakh Appeals in WB →
Q9.

Which US government body is responsible for reviewing and approving international nuclear agreements like the US-Saudi civilian nuclear deal?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The White House only
  • B.The US Congress✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The State Department
  • D.The Nuclear Regulatory Commission
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, the agreement is expected to be sent to Congress for review in the coming days. The US Congress has the constitutional authority to review and approve major international agreements, including nuclear deals, especially those involving non-proliferation concerns.

Source: US Approves 30-Year Civilian Nuclear Deal with Saudi Arabia, Includes Uranium Enrichment Plant →
Q10.

Consider the following statements regarding the US-Saudi nuclear deal:

1. The deal is set to run for 30 years and is estimated to be worth tens of billions of dollars.

2. American firms will build a uranium enrichment plant in Saudi Arabia without any prior review.

3. The deal is designed to give American companies a leading role while excluding foreign competitors.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the agreement is set to run for 30 years and is estimated to be worth tens of billions of dollars. Statement 2 is incorrect because the enrichment plant would only be built if a joint US-Saudi review concludes it is justified. Statement 3 is correct as the deal is designed to shut out other foreign competitors.

Source: US Approves 30-Year Civilian Nuclear Deal with Saudi Arabia, Includes Uranium Enrichment Plant →
Q11.

According to the article, what is the duration of the US-Saudi civilian nuclear agreement?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.20 years
  • B.25 years
  • C.30 years✓ Correct Answer
  • D.35 years
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the agreement is set to run for 30 years. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Source: US Approves 30-Year Civilian Nuclear Deal with Saudi Arabia, Includes Uranium Enrichment Plant →
Q12.

What is the primary concern of lawmakers who are expected to oppose the US-Saudi nuclear deal in Congress?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.The high cost of the deal to US taxpayers
  • B.The exclusion of other US industries from the deal
  • C.The risk of nuclear proliferation in the Middle East✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The lack of Saudi investment in US infrastructure
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the deal is likely to face opposition from lawmakers worried about expanding nuclear capabilities in an already unstable Middle East. The concern is that Saudi Arabia's nuclear programme, especially the enrichment plant, could be used to develop weapons, increasing proliferation risks.

Source: US Approves 30-Year Civilian Nuclear Deal with Saudi Arabia, Includes Uranium Enrichment Plant →
Q13.

Which article of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to be defended by a legal practitioner?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 21
  • B.Article 22(1)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Article 20(3)
  • D.Article 14
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article 22(1) of the Constitution states that no person who is arrested shall be denied the right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner of his choice. Article 21 guarantees the right to life and personal liberty, which the Supreme Court has interpreted to include the right to a fair trial. Article 20(3) protects against self-incrimination, and Article 14 guarantees equality before law.

Source: SC Sets Aside Death Penalty in 1996 Dausa Blast Case Over Denial of Legal Aid, Orders Retrial →
Q14.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court judgment in the 1996 Dausa blast case:

1. The Supreme Court set aside the conviction of Abdul Hameed on the merits of the case, finding him innocent.

2. The Court ordered a fresh trial to be concluded within one year by a fast-track court.

3. The Court observed that it is better for a hundred guilty persons to escape than for one innocent person to be condemned.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Supreme Court explicitly stated that its order was based on lack of fairness and procedural propriety, and it had not gone into the merits of the case. Statement 2 is correct as the Court directed a retrial within one year by a specialized fast-track court. Statement 3 is correct as the Court quoted this canonical maxim of criminal jurisprudence.

Source: SC Sets Aside Death Penalty in 1996 Dausa Blast Case Over Denial of Legal Aid, Orders Retrial →
Q15.

How many people were killed in the 1996 Samleti bus bomb blast in Dausa, Rajasthan?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.13
  • B.14✓ Correct Answer
  • C.18
  • D.37
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the blast on May 22, 1996, killed 14 people and injured 37. Option A (13) is the number of people killed in the Lajpat Nagar blast in Delhi that occurred a day before. Option D (37) is the number of injured.

Source: SC Sets Aside Death Penalty in 1996 Dausa Blast Case Over Denial of Legal Aid, Orders Retrial →
Q16.

What was the primary constitutional violation that led the Supreme Court to set aside the death sentence in the Dausa blast case?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Violation of the right against self-incrimination
  • B.Denial of the right to a fair trial due to lack of legal assistance✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Violation of the right to equality before law
  • D.Improper investigation by the police
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Supreme Court found that the trial court proceedings did not reflect that Abdul Hameed was represented by any legal counsel at any stage. This violated the constitutional guarantee of a fair trial under Article 21 and the right to be defended under Article 22(1). The Court emphasized that if a trial is conducted in breach of the constitutional guarantee of a fair trial, the conviction stands vitiated.

Source: SC Sets Aside Death Penalty in 1996 Dausa Blast Case Over Denial of Legal Aid, Orders Retrial →
Q17.

Which organization provided most of the infrastructure used to design Skyroot Aerospace's Vikram-1 rocket?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)✓ Correct Answer
  • B.National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)
  • C.European Space Agency (ESA)
  • D.Department of Space (DoS)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that ISRO provided most of the infrastructure used to design Vikram-1. ISRO is India's premier space agency and has been handholding private players in the space sector.

Source: Skyroot Vikram-1 Launch: India Enters League of Private Orbital Launches, Sector Valued at ₹70,000 Cr →
Q18.

Consider the following statements:

1. Skyroot Aerospace's Vikram-1 rocket reached Geostationary Orbit (GEO).

2. The Indian government opened the space sector to private participation in 2020.

3. India is now the third country after the US and China to have a private company independently launch a rocket to orbit.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because Vikram-1 reached Low Earth Orbit (LEO), not GEO. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions the sector was opened in 2020. Statement 3 is correct — only US and Chinese private companies had achieved this before Skyroot.

Source: Skyroot Vikram-1 Launch: India Enters League of Private Orbital Launches, Sector Valued at ₹70,000 Cr →
Q19.

What is the current estimated value of India's space sector, according to the article?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.₹50,000 crore
  • B.₹60,000 crore
  • C.₹70,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • D.₹80,000 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the sector is currently valued at roughly ₹70,000 crore. The government expects it to expand four- to five-fold over the coming decade.

Source: Skyroot Vikram-1 Launch: India Enters League of Private Orbital Launches, Sector Valued at ₹70,000 Cr →
Q20.

What is the primary strategic advantage of shifting commercial satellite launches to private players, as highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce the cost of satellite launches for foreign customers
  • B.To free ISRO to focus on deep-space exploration missions like Chandrayaan and Gaganyaan✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To increase the number of satellites in Geostationary Orbit
  • D.To compete directly with SpaceX in the global launch market
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that shifting commercial launches to private players would free ISRO to focus on deep-space exploration missions such as Chandrayaan and Gaganyaan, leveraging the growing LEO market handled by private firms.

Source: Skyroot Vikram-1 Launch: India Enters League of Private Orbital Launches, Sector Valued at ₹70,000 Cr →
Q21.

Which ministry is primarily responsible for formulating the proposed standalone AI law in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Law and Justice
  • B.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • D.Ministry of Science and Technology
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) is exploring the AI law. Its cyber laws division is tasked with the regulatory analysis. The Ministry of Law and Justice handles legislative drafting but the policy initiative is led by MeitY.

Source: MeitY Explores Standalone AI Law: Consent Framework for Synthetic Content, Curbs on Agentic Autonomy →
Q22.

Consider the following statements regarding the proposed AI law in India:

1. The law will be a standalone piece of legislation, separate from the Information Technology Act, 2000.

2. The government has already finalised the draft liability framework for AI models.

3. The law is expected to include a consent-based framework for synthetically-generated content.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says the AI law is likely to be presented as a standalone piece of legislation, not under the IT Act. Statement 2 is incorrect: the government has asked two legal experts to submit separate draft liability frameworks, but they are not yet finalised. Statement 3 is correct: building a consent-based framework for synthetically generated media is a key requirement for the AI law.

Source: MeitY Explores Standalone AI Law: Consent Framework for Synthetic Content, Curbs on Agentic Autonomy →
Q23.

Which two regulatory bodies is the IT Ministry expected to consult for setting up a regulatory sandbox for AI applications?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.RBI and IRDAI
  • B.SEBI and PFRDA
  • C.RBI and SEBI✓ Correct Answer
  • D.IRDAI and PFRDA
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the IT Ministry is expected to consult the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) to set up a regulatory sandbox for AI applications, particularly in high-impact areas like finance and public services.

Source: MeitY Explores Standalone AI Law: Consent Framework for Synthetic Content, Curbs on Agentic Autonomy →
Q24.

What is the primary regulatory gap that the proposed consent-based framework for synthetic content aims to address?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Lack of penalties for cybercrime under the IT Act
  • B.Exemption of publicly available personal data under the DPDP Act, 2023✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Absence of data localisation requirements for AI companies
  • D.Insufficient provisions for cross-border data flows
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article highlights that the DPDP Act exempts personal data voluntarily made public by an individual. This means AI platforms can scrape data from public social media profiles without guardrails. The consent-based framework for synthetic content is designed to fill this gap, requiring consent even for publicly available data used to generate AI content like deepfakes.

Source: MeitY Explores Standalone AI Law: Consent Framework for Synthetic Content, Curbs on Agentic Autonomy →
Q25.

Which US entity is responsible for approving civilian nuclear cooperation agreements under Section 123 of the Atomic Energy Act?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.US Congress
  • B.US President✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Department of Energy
  • D.Senate Foreign Relations Committee
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Under the US Atomic Energy Act, the President approves 123 agreements, which are then subject to congressional review. In this news, President Trump approved the agreement with Saudi Arabia.

Source: Trump Approves 30-Year Nuclear Deal Allowing Saudi Arabia to Enrich Uranium →
Q26.

Consider the following statements regarding the US-Saudi nuclear agreement:

1. The agreement is for a duration of 30 years.

2. The deal allows Saudi Arabia to build a uranium enrichment facility without any prior study.

3. US firms are expected to be involved in developing the programme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the deal is expected to last 30 years. Statement 2 is incorrect: the deal allows enrichment only after a joint US-Saudi study, not immediately. Statement 3 is correct: US firms will be involved in developing the programme.

Source: Trump Approves 30-Year Nuclear Deal Allowing Saudi Arabia to Enrich Uranium →
Q27.

What is the duration of the nuclear agreement approved by President Trump with Saudi Arabia?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.20 years
  • B.25 years
  • C.30 years✓ Correct Answer
  • D.35 years
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'The deal is expected to last 30 years'. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the news.

Source: Trump Approves 30-Year Nuclear Deal Allowing Saudi Arabia to Enrich Uranium →
Q28.

What is the primary non-proliferation concern associated with the US-Saudi nuclear agreement?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Saudi Arabia may use the enrichment technology for nuclear weapons✓ Correct Answer
  • B.The deal will reduce oil prices globally
  • C.US firms will dominate the global nuclear market
  • D.The agreement may violate the NPT outright
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Uranium enrichment is a dual-use technology that can be used for both civilian reactors and nuclear weapons. Allowing Saudi Arabia to enrich raises the risk of a nuclear arms race in the Middle East, especially given regional tensions. The other options are not the primary concern.

Source: Trump Approves 30-Year Nuclear Deal Allowing Saudi Arabia to Enrich Uranium →
Q29.

Which constitutional body is responsible for conducting the Civil Services Examination and introduced the new AI‑based eligibility check?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Election Commission of India
  • B.Union Public Service Commission✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Staff Selection Commission
  • D.Department of Personnel and Training
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) introduced the reforms, including the AI‑based eligibility check. UPSC is a constitutional body under Article 315 of the Constitution.

Source: UPSC Modernises Recruitment: AI Eligibility Check, OTR Portal, 78,394 Appointments Since 2014 →
Q30.

Consider the following statements regarding recent UPSC reforms:

1. UPSC used AI to check eligibility at the interview stage for the first time in 2026.

2. Persons with Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD) can now choose their preferred examination centre.

3. The One-Time Registration portal is integrated with Aadhaar and DigiLocker.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is wrong because AI was used at the application stage, not the interview stage. Statements 2 and 3 are correct as per the article: PwBD can choose centres, and OTR is integrated with Aadhaar and DigiLocker.

Source: UPSC Modernises Recruitment: AI Eligibility Check, OTR Portal, 78,394 Appointments Since 2014 →
Q31.

According to the news report, how many ineligible applications were rejected by AI during the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2026 process?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.78,394
  • B.569✓ Correct Answer
  • C.94
  • D.2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically states that AI rejected 569 applications during the CSE 2026 process. Option A is the total appointments since 2014, option C is the Aadhaar opt‑in percentage, and option D is the year.

Source: UPSC Modernises Recruitment: AI Eligibility Check, OTR Portal, 78,394 Appointments Since 2014 →
Q32.

What is the primary objective of the One-Time Registration (OTR) portal introduced by UPSC?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To allow candidates to apply for multiple UPSC exams without filling forms again✓ Correct Answer
  • B.To replace the need for Aadhaar authentication
  • C.To enable AI‑based evaluation of answer sheets
  • D.To provide a separate portal for PwBD candidates
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that OTR enables candidates to register once and access verified documents while applying for different UPSC examinations, reducing repetitive data entry and paperwork.

Source: UPSC Modernises Recruitment: AI Eligibility Check, OTR Portal, 78,394 Appointments Since 2014 →
Q33.

Which ministry issued the Environmental Clearance stipulation for the Ken-Betwa Link Project?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Ministry of Jal Shakti
  • C.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
  • D.Ministry of Water Resources
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions that the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) mandated that all rehabilitation and resettlement issues be completed before commissioning of the project. This is a standard environmental clearance condition.

Source: Ken-Betwa Link Project: ₹44,605 Cr First Inter-Basin River Link Faces Rehabilitation Hurdles →
Q34.

Consider the following statements:

1. The Ken-Betwa Link Project is India's first inter-basin river link.

2. The Daudhan dam reservoir has a gross storage capacity of 2,953 million cubic metres.

3. The project will irrigate 9.04 lakh hectares of land.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article explicitly says Ken-Betwa is India's first inter-basin river link. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article states the gross storage capacity is 2,853 million cubic metres, not 2,953 (the caption mentions 2,953 but the text confirms 2,853). Statement 3 is correct: the project will irrigate 9.04 lakh hectares. Hence option C is correct.

Source: Ken-Betwa Link Project: ₹44,605 Cr First Inter-Basin River Link Faces Rehabilitation Hurdles →
Q35.

According to the article, what is the estimated number of affected families identified in the project's resettlement and rehabilitation plan?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.1,913✓ Correct Answer
  • B.8,339
  • C.2,000
  • D.1,800
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states 'The project's resettlement and rehabilitation plan identifies 1,913 affected families across 10 villages, with an estimated population of 8,339.' 8,339 is the population number, not families. The correct answer is 1,913.

Source: Ken-Betwa Link Project: ₹44,605 Cr First Inter-Basin River Link Faces Rehabilitation Hurdles →
Q36.

What is the primary objective of the Ken-Betwa Link Project?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To generate 103 MW hydropower for the region
  • B.To provide drinking water to Bundelkhand districts
  • C.To transfer water from the Ken basin to the Betwa basin for irrigation✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To control floods in the Ken river
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the project 'aims to transfer water from the Ken to the Betwa basin' and lists irrigation of 9.04 lakh hectares as a key benefit. While hydropower and drinking water are secondary benefits, the core objective is water transfer for irrigation in the drought-prone Bundelkhand region.

Source: Ken-Betwa Link Project: ₹44,605 Cr First Inter-Basin River Link Faces Rehabilitation Hurdles →
Q37.

Which of the following bodies is responsible for promoting pharmaceutical exports from India, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Pharmexcil✓ Correct Answer
  • B.ORF
  • C.IQVIA
  • D.NAFTA
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Pharmexcil (Pharmaceutical Export Promotion Council of India) is the apex body under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry for promoting pharma exports. ORF and IQVIA are research organizations mentioned in the article, while NAFTA is a trade agreement.

Source: US President Trump Announces 200% Tariff on Indian Generic Drugs by 2029 →
Q38.

Consider the following statements:

1. India currently imposes a 10% duty on pharmaceutical products imported from the United States.

2. Indian companies supply 47% of all generic medicines prescribed in the United States.

3. The US tariff on Indian generics will be raised to 200% immediately from August 1, 2026.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) 1 and 2 only✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) 2 only
  • C.(C) 1 and 3 only
  • D.(D) 1, 2 and 3
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states India imposes ~10% duty on US pharma imports. Statement 2 is correct as Indian firms supply 47% of US generics. Statement 3 is incorrect because the tariff will remain 0% for 2 years, then 100% for 1 year, before reaching 200%.

Source: US President Trump Announces 200% Tariff on Indian Generic Drugs by 2029 →
Q39.

According to the article, what was the total value of India's pharmaceutical exports to the United States in FY2025?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.$913.9 million
  • B.$10.5 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • C.$219 billion
  • D.$34.5 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the US accounted for 34.5% of India's total pharma exports, valued at USD 10.5 billion. $913.9 million is the value of exports to the UK, and $219 billion is the savings to the US healthcare system.

Source: US President Trump Announces 200% Tariff on Indian Generic Drugs by 2029 →
Q40.

What is the primary stated objective of the US President's decision to impose a phased 200% tariff on Indian generic drugs?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase revenue for the US government
  • B.To reduce the cost of healthcare in the US
  • C.To reshore generic pharmaceutical production to America✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To penalize Indian companies for violating trade laws
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Trump's announcement explicitly stated the plan is to 'RESHORE Generic Pharmaceutical Production into America, with a penalty to those Companies that decide not to build Plant and Equipment within the stated period of time.'

Source: US President Trump Announces 200% Tariff on Indian Generic Drugs by 2029 →
Q41.

Which of the following terms best describes drugs that are bioequivalent to a brand-name drug but sold without a brand name?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Biological drugs
  • B.Patented drugs
  • C.Generic medicines✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Innovative drugs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Generic medicines are identical or bioequivalent to brand-name drugs in dosage, strength, route of administration, and quality, but are sold without a brand name. They are typically cheaper and are produced after the patent on the original drug expires, as highlighted in the news article.

Source: 200% US Tariff Plan on Generic Medicines: India's $9.7B Pharma Export at Risk →
Q42.

Consider the following statements regarding the US tariff plan on generic medicines announced by President Trump:

1. From August 1, 2026, generic drugs will face a 0% tariff for the first two years.

2. The tariff will rise directly to 200% from the first year onward.

3. The plan exempts patented, branded, and innovative drugs from the new tariff.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states the tariff will be 0% for the first two years starting August 1. Statement 2 is incorrect: the tariff rises to 100% after two years, and then to 200% from the third year onward. Statement 3 is correct: the article explicitly says 'the existing approach to patented, branded and innovative drugs would remain unchanged.' Hence option C is correct.

Source: 200% US Tariff Plan on Generic Medicines: India's $9.7B Pharma Export at Risk →
Q43.

What was the total value of India's pharmaceutical exports to the US in 2025, according to the Global Trade Research Initiative report?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.$25.8 billion
  • B.$9.7 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • C.$7.2 billion
  • D.$15.4 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that India exported pharmaceuticals worth $9.7 billion to the US in 2025. $25.8 billion is India's total global pharma exports, not the figure for the US alone. The other options are close distractors not mentioned in the article.

Source: 200% US Tariff Plan on Generic Medicines: India's $9.7B Pharma Export at Risk →
Q44.

Why might the direct impact of the US tariff on Indian pharmaceutical companies be lower than initially feared?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Because Indian firms primarily export patented drugs, not generics
  • B.Because the tariff only applies to drugs manufactured in the US
  • C.Because many Indian pharma firms operate through US-based subsidiaries, making the tariff applicable to lower transfer prices✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Because the Indian government plans to subsidize exports to the US
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes a brokerage analyst who explains that many Indian pharma companies have US-based subsidiaries. The tariff would apply to the lower transfer price at which products enter the US rather than the final retail price, reducing the effective cost impact. Options A, B, and D are not supported by the article.

Source: 200% US Tariff Plan on Generic Medicines: India's $9.7B Pharma Export at Risk →
Q45.

Which of the following statutory bodies is/are proposed to be replaced by the Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan (VBSA) Bill?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.University Grants Commission (UGC)
  • B.All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)
  • C.National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE)
  • D.All of the above✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The VBSA Bill aims to replace UGC, AICTE, and NCTE with a single 12-member umbrella commission called the Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan. This is a major regulatory consolidation in higher education.

Source: VBSA Bill 2025: Govt Agrees to State Govt Clearance for Regulatory Decisions on State University Colleges →
Q46.

Consider the following statements regarding the Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan (VBSA) Bill:

1. The bill proposes a 12-member commission to replace UGC, AICTE, and NCTE.

2. The bill was introduced in the Parliament in December 2025.

3. The Regulatory Council under the commission will operate independently without requiring state government clearance for decisions on state university colleges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) Both 2 and 3
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the VBSA Bill proposes a 12-member umbrella commission. Statement 2 is correct as it was introduced in December 2025. Statement 3 is incorrect because the government agreed to add a provision requiring state government clearance for key decisions on state university colleges, addressing centralisation concerns.

Source: VBSA Bill 2025: Govt Agrees to State Govt Clearance for Regulatory Decisions on State University Colleges →
Q47.

How many councils are proposed to operate under the Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan according to the VBSA Bill?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.2
  • B.3✓ Correct Answer
  • C.4
  • D.5
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The VBSA Bill proposes three separate councils under the umbrella commission: for regulation, accreditation, and standards-setting. This is a key structural detail for understanding the new regulatory framework.

Source: VBSA Bill 2025: Govt Agrees to State Govt Clearance for Regulatory Decisions on State University Colleges →
Q48.

What was the primary concern raised by the opposition regarding the VBSA Bill?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Lack of funding for private universities
  • B.Increasing centralisation of higher education regulation✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Reduction in the number of universities
  • D.Removal of the teacher education council
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The opposition questioned the increasing centralisation of powers in the VBSA Bill, the sidelining of state representation (decided by the Centre), and the future funding mechanism for public universities. This reflects the federal tension in education policy.

Source: VBSA Bill 2025: Govt Agrees to State Govt Clearance for Regulatory Decisions on State University Colleges →
Q49.

Which US department is primarily represented by the Secretary of State in diplomatic meetings?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Department of Defense
  • B.State Department✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Department of Commerce
  • D.Department of Homeland Security
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The US Secretary of State heads the State Department, which is the federal executive department responsible for foreign affairs and international relations. Marco Rubio, mentioned in the article, is the US Secretary of State.

Source: US Interim Trade Deal Almost Complete; Rubio Likely to Visit India, Jaishankar-Rubio Meet in Manila →
Q50.

Consider the following statements regarding the India-US meeting in Manila:

1. External Affairs Minister Jaishankar met US Secretary of State Marco Rubio on the sidelines of the ASEAN and East Asia meetings.

2. The interim trade deal between India and the US was described as 'almost complete' by US officials.

3. US President Trump announced that tariffs on generic medicines will be kept at 100% for the next two years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) Both 2 and 3
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Jaishankar met Rubio in Manila on the sidelines of ASEAN and East Asia meetings. Statement 2 is correct: US officials said the interim trade deal is 'almost complete'. Statement 3 is incorrect: Trump announced tariffs on generic medicines would be kept at 0% for two years (not 100%), then raised to 100% in August 2028, and then 200%.

Source: US Interim Trade Deal Almost Complete; Rubio Likely to Visit India, Jaishankar-Rubio Meet in Manila →
Q51.

According to the US President's announcement, after August 2028, what will be the tariff rate on imported generic medicines?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.100%✓ Correct Answer
  • B.50%
  • C.200%
  • D.0%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

US President Trump announced that tariffs on generic medicines will be kept at 0% for two years, then raised to 100% in August 2028, and then to 200% thereafter. The question specifically asks for the rate 'after August 2028', which is 100%.

Source: US Interim Trade Deal Almost Complete; Rubio Likely to Visit India, Jaishankar-Rubio Meet in Manila →
Q52.

What is the primary objective of the 'interim trade deal' being finalized between India and the US?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To eliminate all tariffs on all goods traded between the two countries
  • B.To resolve pending bilateral trade irritants and set the stage for a broader comprehensive agreement✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To reduce Indian exports of generic drugs to the US
  • D.To establish a free trade area covering all Southeast Asian nations
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

An interim trade deal is a limited-scope agreement aimed at resolving immediate trade issues (tariffs, market access) while negotiations for a more comprehensive trade deal continue. This is distinct from a full FTA or a deal covering all goods.

Source: US Interim Trade Deal Almost Complete; Rubio Likely to Visit India, Jaishankar-Rubio Meet in Manila →
Q53.

Before which committee of the US Congress did Defence Secretary Pete Hegseth testify regarding the Iran war cost?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.House Armed Services Committee
  • B.Senate Appropriations Committee✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Senate Foreign Relations Committee
  • D.House Budget Committee
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that Hegseth testified during a Senate Appropriations Committee hearing. This committee oversees federal funding allocations, making it the correct body for a supplemental funding request.

Source: US Defence Secretary Pete Hegseth Estimates Iran War Cost at $37.5 Billion, Seeks $67B Supplemental →
Q54.

Consider the following statements:

1. U.S. Defence Secretary Pete Hegseth estimated the Iran war cost at $37.5 billion as of July 2026.

2. The supplemental funding request of $67 billion includes costs for rebuilding US military bases in West Asia.

3. Senator Jeanne Shaheen pointed out that the Pentagon still has $75 billion in unspent funding.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as Hegseth said the estimate is $37.5 billion. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article explicitly says the requested funds do not include rebuilding costs. Statement 3 is correct as Senator Shaheen mentioned the $75 billion in unspent funds.

Source: US Defence Secretary Pete Hegseth Estimates Iran War Cost at $37.5 Billion, Seeks $67B Supplemental →
Q55.

What was the estimated cost of the Iran war according to U.S. Defence Secretary Pete Hegseth during the Senate hearing?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.$29 billion
  • B.$37.5 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • C.$67 billion
  • D.$75 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Hegseth stated 'The estimate we have as of today is $37.5 billion.' The previous estimate was $29 billion in mid-May. $67 billion is the supplemental request, and $75 billion is the unspent funding.

Source: US Defence Secretary Pete Hegseth Estimates Iran War Cost at $37.5 Billion, Seeks $67B Supplemental →
Q56.

Why did U.S. Defence Secretary Pete Hegseth argue that the $75 billion in unspent funds could not be used for the Iran war?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Because the funds were earmarked for diplomatic efforts
  • B.Because the funds were allocated for other priorities like Golden Dome and hypersonics✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Because the funds were frozen by a court order
  • D.Because the funds were intended for rebuilding US bases in West Asia
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Hegseth said the unspent money was 'otherwise allocated' for President Trump's other priorities such as the 'Golden Dome for America and hypersonics and other munitions investments.' Option A and C are not mentioned; option D is incorrect as rebuilding costs are not covered by the requested funds either.

Source: US Defence Secretary Pete Hegseth Estimates Iran War Cost at $37.5 Billion, Seeks $67B Supplemental →
Q57.

Which regulatory body is primarily responsible for implementing the Repurpose Used Cooking Oil (RUCO) initiative mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  • B.Food Safety and Drug Administration (FSDA) Karnataka
  • C.Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.World Health Organization (WHO)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

RUCO is a national initiative launched by FSSAI (under Ministry of Health & Family Welfare) to collect used cooking oil and convert it into biodiesel. While FSDA Karnataka is the state enforcement body, the parent scheme and regulatory oversight rests with FSSAI.

Source: Karnataka Intensifies Trans Fat Elimination: 45.87 Lakh Litres Used Oil Collected, ₹28.91 Lakh Penalties →
Q58.

Consider the following statements:

1. Industrially produced trans fats are commonly found in partially hydrogenated oils used in processed and fried foods.

2. The WHO has called for reducing industrial trans fats to less than 2% in all food items by 2025.

3. Excess consumption of trans fats is linked to cardiovascular diseases, obesity, and adverse reproductive health outcomes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Only 2 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per article: partially hydrogenated oils are a source of industrial trans fats. Statement 3 is correct - article lists CVD, obesity, metabolic disorders, and reproductive health issues. Statement 2 is incorrect: the WHO called for 'complete elimination' (not reduction to 2%), and India's limit of <2% is a national regulation. Also, the target date was 2023, not 2025.

Source: Karnataka Intensifies Trans Fat Elimination: 45.87 Lakh Litres Used Oil Collected, ₹28.91 Lakh Penalties →
Q59.

According to the article, how many food business operators and professionals have been trained on trans-fat regulations in Karnataka?

EasyUPSC, Banking
  • A.Over 45,000
  • B.Over 52,000✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Over 60,000
  • D.Over 58,000
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'More than 52,000 food business operators and professionals have been trained on safe food practices and trans-fat regulations.' Option A (45,000) refers to the litres of oil collected, not trained personnel.

Source: Karnataka Intensifies Trans Fat Elimination: 45.87 Lakh Litres Used Oil Collected, ₹28.91 Lakh Penalties →
Q60.

What is the primary public health rationale behind the RUCO (Repurpose Used Cooking Oil) initiative?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce the cost of biodiesel production for the transport sector
  • B.To prevent repeated heating and reuse of cooking oil in food preparation, which increases trans fat formation✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To generate revenue for the state through penalties on food business operators
  • D.To encourage the use of imported edible oils in Karnataka's food industry
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Repeated use of cooking oil at high temperatures generates harmful trans fats and other toxic compounds. RUCO collects used oil and diverts it for industrial purposes (biodiesel), thereby preventing its re-entry into the food chain and reducing dietary risks of heart disease and other NCDs.

Source: Karnataka Intensifies Trans Fat Elimination: 45.87 Lakh Litres Used Oil Collected, ₹28.91 Lakh Penalties →
Q61.

Which committee under the Union Environment Ministry grants in-principle clearance for hydroelectric projects involving forest land?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Board for Wildlife
  • B.Forest Advisory Committee✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Central Empowered Committee
  • D.Wildlife Crime Control Bureau
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Forest Advisory Committee (FAC) is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change that evaluates proposals for diversion of forest land for non-forest purposes, including hydroelectric projects. The National Board for Wildlife deals with wildlife clearance, while the other options are not relevant for forest land diversion.

Source: Critically Endangered White-Bellied Heron Faces Extinction as 1,200 MW Lohit Dam Clears Forest Panel →
Q62.

Consider the following statements:

1. White-bellied heron is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List since 2007.

2. The species is currently found in the Teesta region of India.

3. It is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act 1972.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the white-bellied heron has been Critically Endangered since 2007. Statement 2 is incorrect: the species was first described from the Teesta region but is now locally extinct there. Statement 3 is correct: it is listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act 1972, offering the highest legal protection. Hence option C is correct.

Source: Critically Endangered White-Bellied Heron Faces Extinction as 1,200 MW Lohit Dam Clears Forest Panel →
Q63.

What is the installed capacity of the proposed hydroelectric project on the Lohit River?

EasyUPSC, Banking
  • A.600 MW
  • B.1,200 MW✓ Correct Answer
  • C.2,000 MW
  • D.500 MW
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Forest Advisory Committee granted in-principle clearance to a 1,200 MW hydroelectric power project on the Lohit River. The other options are plausible distractors but do not match the data.

Source: Critically Endangered White-Bellied Heron Faces Extinction as 1,200 MW Lohit Dam Clears Forest Panel →
Q64.

What is the primary reason for the likely local extinction of white-bellied herons due to the Lohit dam?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Increased human disturbance from construction workers
  • B.Change in water turbidity and flow affecting foraging✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Direct poaching by project staff
  • D.Introduction of invasive fish species
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that the dam will alter the water's turbidity and flow, which is critical for the heron's unique foraging strategy. The heron hunts in shallow water and feeds exclusively on fish. Changes in water conditions will disrupt its ability to catch prey, leading to local extinction. While human disturbance is a factor, the primary mechanism is hydrological alteration.

Source: Critically Endangered White-Bellied Heron Faces Extinction as 1,200 MW Lohit Dam Clears Forest Panel →
Q65.

Which regulatory body approved India's first dengue vaccine Qdenga?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.World Health Organisation (WHO)
  • B.Drug Controller General of India (DCGI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
  • D.National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Drug Controller General of India (DCGI) approved Qdenga. WHO prequalification was obtained separately, but the regulatory approval for India was granted by DCGI.

Source: DCGI Approves India's First Dengue Vaccine Qdenga; Tax Treaty Amended with PPT; POPs Monitoring Launched →
Q66.

Consider the following statements regarding the Principal Purpose Test (PPT):

1. PPT allows tax authorities to deny treaty benefits if obtaining a tax advantage is one of the principal purposes of an arrangement or transaction.

2. PPT is an anti-avoidance tool included in Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements (DTAAs) under the Multilateral Convention (MLI).

3. PPT ensures that treaty benefits are granted even if the arrangement is not consistent with the treaty's object and purpose.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: PPT denies benefits if tax advantage is a principal purpose. Statement 2 is correct: PPT is included under the MLI framework. Statement 3 is incorrect: PPT denies benefits if the arrangement is not consistent with the treaty's object and purpose.

Source: DCGI Approves India's First Dengue Vaccine Qdenga; Tax Treaty Amended with PPT; POPs Monitoring Launched →
Q67.

What is the total budget allocated for the Global Chemicals Monitoring Programme (GCMP) launched by UNEP and GEF?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.US$ 15.5 million
  • B.US$ 23.5 million✓ Correct Answer
  • C.US$ 32.5 million
  • D.US$ 50 million
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that UNEP and GEF launched the GCMP with a budget of US$ 23.5 million. The other options are close distractors.

Source: DCGI Approves India's First Dengue Vaccine Qdenga; Tax Treaty Amended with PPT; POPs Monitoring Launched →
Q68.

What is the primary objective of including the Principal Purpose Test (PPT) in the India-Sri Lanka Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase tax rates for both countries
  • B.To eliminate double taxation without creating opportunities for tax evasion or avoidance through treaty shopping✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To promote foreign direct investment by reducing tax rates
  • D.To simplify tax filing procedures for multinational corporations
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the amendment aims to 'eliminate double taxation without creating opportunities for non-taxation or reduced taxation through tax evasion or avoidance through treaty-shopping arrangements'. PPT is the tool to achieve this by denying benefits if the principal purpose is tax advantage.

Source: DCGI Approves India's First Dengue Vaccine Qdenga; Tax Treaty Amended with PPT; POPs Monitoring Launched →
Q69.

Which French institution is responsible for reviewing the constitutionality of the social media ban law before implementation?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Assembly
  • B.Senate
  • C.Constitutional Council✓ Correct Answer
  • D.President
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

President Macron's statement explicitly mentioned that the Constitutional Council must rule on the law before it can be implemented. The National Assembly and Senate are legislative bodies, while the President is the executive head.

Source: France Bans Social Media for Under 15 from Sept 2026, Mobile Phones in High Schools Too →
Q70.

Consider the following statements:

1. The French law bans social media for children under 15 immediately upon passage.

2. The law also includes a clause to ban mobile phones in high schools.

3. The European Commission has developed an age verification application tested by several EU countries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the ban is phased: new accounts banned from Sept 2026, existing from Jan 2027. Statement 2 is correct: the law has a clause banning mobile phones in high schools. Statement 3 is correct: the European Commission developed an age verification app tested by France and other EU countries.

Source: France Bans Social Media for Under 15 from Sept 2026, Mobile Phones in High Schools Too →
Q71.

From which date will new social media accounts be banned for users under 15 in France?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.September 1, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • B.January 1, 2027
  • C.July 21, 2026
  • D.September 1, 2027
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that children under 15 will not be allowed to create new social media accounts from September 1, 2026. Existing accounts will be blocked from January 2027. July 21, 2026 is the date of the vote, and 2027 dates are for existing accounts.

Source: France Bans Social Media for Under 15 from Sept 2026, Mobile Phones in High Schools Too →
Q72.

What is the primary objective of France's social media ban for under 15, as stated by President Macron and Digital Minister Anne Le Hénanff?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase government surveillance of online activity
  • B.To protect children online and reduce negative impacts of social media on teens✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To promote French digital platforms over foreign ones
  • D.To comply with European Commission directives on digital regulation
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

President Macron said the law is to 'protect our children online'. Digital Minister stated the reform is driven by 'better protect our children'. The article also mentions France's public health authority warned about negative effects of platforms like TikTok, Snapchat, and Instagram on teens. While EU alignment exists, the primary stated objective is child protection.

Source: France Bans Social Media for Under 15 from Sept 2026, Mobile Phones in High Schools Too →
Q73.

Iran's Pickaxe Mountain nuclear site is located adjacent to which major nuclear enrichment facility?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.A. Bushehr
  • B.B. Natanz✓ Correct Answer
  • C.C. Qom
  • D.D. Isfahan
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that Pickaxe Mountain is situated to the south of Iran's Natanz nuclear enrichment facility. Bushehr is a reactor site, Qom is a different facility, and Isfahan is a conversion plant. Natanz is the correct adjacent facility.

Source: US Threatens to Bomb Iran's Pickaxe Mountain Nuclear Site: Underground Enrichment Facility Near Natanz →
Q74.

Consider the following statements regarding the Pickaxe Mountain nuclear site:

1. The facility was targeted during Operation Midnight Hammer in 2025 but remained unscathed.

2. The Institute for Science and International Security (ISIS) assessed that the facility is fully operational for enrichment.

3. The site spans 2.7 square kilometres and has multiple entrances visible from satellite images.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.A. Only 1
  • B.B. Only 2
  • C.C. Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.D. All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article mentions Operation Midnight Hammer (2025) targeted the site but it remained unscathed. Statement 2 is incorrect: ISIS said the facility is 'not yet operational' and construction continues. Statement 3 is correct: the facility sprawls across 2.7 sq km with multiple entrances visible from satellite.

Source: US Threatens to Bomb Iran's Pickaxe Mountain Nuclear Site: Underground Enrichment Facility Near Natanz →
Q75.

According to the article, what is the size of the Pickaxe Mountain nuclear facility?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.A. 1.5 sq km
  • B.B. 2.2 sq km
  • C.C. 2.7 sq km✓ Correct Answer
  • D.D. 3.8 sq km
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the facility 'sprawls across 2.7 square kilometres in the country’s arid Central Plateau.' The other options are plausible distractors but only 2.7 sq km is correct per the source.

Source: US Threatens to Bomb Iran's Pickaxe Mountain Nuclear Site: Underground Enrichment Facility Near Natanz →
Q76.

What is the primary risk if the Pickaxe Mountain nuclear site is bombed by the US?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.A. Immediate nuclear weaponization by Iran
  • B.B. Closure of the Strait of Hormuz
  • C.C. Iran moving nuclear operations even deeper underground, ending diplomatic oversight✓ Correct Answer
  • D.D. Collapse of the Iranian government
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly states: 'An attack on the nuclear site might drive Iran’s nuclear operations even deeper underground, completely ending diplomatic oversight and accelerating their pursuit of a weapon.' While Strait of Hormuz closure is a risk, the primary consequence highlighted is the loss of oversight and further deepening of operations.

Source: US Threatens to Bomb Iran's Pickaxe Mountain Nuclear Site: Underground Enrichment Facility Near Natanz →
Q77.

Which international law principle was cited by the US to oppose Iran's demand to control the Strait of Hormuz?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Right of innocent passage
  • B.Freedom of navigation✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Exclusive Economic Zone rights
  • D.Archipelagic sea lanes passage
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The US argued that Iran's demand threatens the principle of freedom of navigation, a core tenet of UNCLOS that ensures ships can traverse international waters without interference. The article explicitly states Rubio warned about the principle of freedom of navigation.

Source: US Warns Iran's Strait of Hormuz Toll Threatens Global Navigation, Rubio Tells ASEAN Meet →
Q78.

Consider the following statements regarding the ASEAN meeting in Manila:

1. US Secretary of State Marco Rubio warned that Iran's demand to control the Strait of Hormuz would set a dangerous precedent.

2. Rubio stated that the Quad is no longer a priority for the US.

3. External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar met Rubio and they discussed the Iran war and a trade agreement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; Rubio posted on X that 'The Quad remains a priority.' Statement 3 is correct; the article states Rubio met Jaishankar and they discussed regional issues, the Iran war, and a trade agreement. Hence option C is correct.

Source: US Warns Iran's Strait of Hormuz Toll Threatens Global Navigation, Rubio Tells ASEAN Meet →
Q79.

On which date did the ASEAN Foreign Ministers meeting begin in Manila?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.July 20, 2026
  • B.July 21, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.July 22, 2026
  • D.July 23, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions 'three days of talks that started Tuesday (July 21, 2026) in Manila.' Rubio spoke on Wednesday July 22. So the meeting began on July 21. Option B is correct; the other options are close distractors.

Source: US Warns Iran's Strait of Hormuz Toll Threatens Global Navigation, Rubio Tells ASEAN Meet →
Q80.

Why did Rubio link Iran's Strait of Hormuz demands to the Indo-Pacific region?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To justify US military intervention in the Middle East
  • B.To warn that a dangerous precedent could be repeated in other waterways like the South China Sea✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To pressure Iran into accepting the nuclear deal
  • D.To secure oil supply routes for US allies in Asia
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes Rubio saying the precedent would repeat in other parts of the world, including the region (Indo-Pacific), referring to the South China Sea disputes. This highlights the link between West Asia instability and maritime security in Asia.

Source: US Warns Iran's Strait of Hormuz Toll Threatens Global Navigation, Rubio Tells ASEAN Meet →
Q81.

Which High Court recently passed a resolution recommending enhancement of the retirement age of judicial officers from 60 to 62 years, as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Madhya Pradesh High Court✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Punjab and Haryana High Court
  • C.Telangana High Court
  • D.Delhi High Court
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Full Court of the Madhya Pradesh High Court passed a resolution recommending enhancement of the retirement age of judicial officers from 60 to 62 years. Telangana had previously taken a similar decision.

Source: SC Directs States to Raise Judicial Officers' Retirement Age to 61; Interim Relief from April 1, 2026 →
Q82.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's interim order:

1. The Bench consisted of Chief Justice Surya Kant, Justice Joymalya Bagchi, and Justice V. Mohana.

2. The interim order raises the retirement age of all judicial officers in India to 62 years from April 1, 2026.

3. The order applies only in states where both the state government and the High Court agree.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Bench comprised CJI Surya Kant and Justices Joymalya Bagchi and V. Mohana. Statement 2 is incorrect — the interim order raises age to 61 years, not 62, and is not applicable across India uniformly; it depends on state consent. Statement 3 is correct: the order allows judicial officers to continue up to 61 years only in states where the state government and High Court agree.

Source: SC Directs States to Raise Judicial Officers' Retirement Age to 61; Interim Relief from April 1, 2026 →
Q83.

What is the effective date from which the interim increase in retirement age of judicial officers (to 61 years) will come into effect, as per the Supreme Court order?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.July 22, 2026
  • B.April 1, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.November 20, 2026
  • D.January 1, 2027
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The provision will come into effect from April 1, 2026.' The other options are distractors — July 22 is the date of the order, November 20 refers to a previous interim order for Madhya Pradesh, and January 1 is not mentioned.

Source: SC Directs States to Raise Judicial Officers' Retirement Age to 61; Interim Relief from April 1, 2026 →
Q84.

Why did the Supreme Court issue an interim direction instead of a final order on enhancing the retirement age of judicial officers?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Because states and High Courts have differing positions and the court needs their responses before final adjudication.✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Because the government opposed the petition and the court wanted to avoid confrontation.
  • C.Because the 2002 judgment is binding and cannot be overruled without a constitutional amendment.
  • D.Because the court wanted to first test the financial impact of the increase on state exchequers.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions that the bench observed 'differing positions adopted across the country' and put in place an interim mechanism 'pending final outcome'. The court clarified that the substantive legal question (uniform 62 years) would be decided independently later. Options B, C, and D are not supported by the text.

Source: SC Directs States to Raise Judicial Officers' Retirement Age to 61; Interim Relief from April 1, 2026 →
Q85.

Which of the following countries is NOT a member of the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (Quad)?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Australia
  • B.India
  • C.Japan
  • D.United Kingdom✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Quad consists of Australia, India, Japan, and the United States. The United Kingdom is not a member. The Quad focuses on ensuring a free and open Indo-Pacific region.

Source: Jaishankar at 59th ASEAN FM Meet: Stable India-China Ties Key for Multi-Polar Asia, Quad Backs Free Indo-Pacific →
Q86.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent India-China meeting in Manila:

1. External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar met his Chinese counterpart Wang Yi on the sidelines of the 59th ASEAN Foreign Ministers' Meeting.

2. Jaishankar stated that border peace is a prerequisite for normal India-China ties.

3. The meeting resulted in the immediate withdrawal of all Chinese troops from the Line of Actual Control (LAC).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) Both 1 and 3
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the meeting occurred in Manila at the 59th ASEAN Foreign Ministers' Meeting. Statement 2 is correct: Jaishankar said 'peace and tranquillity in the border areas is obviously the pre-requisite for normal ties.' Statement 3 is incorrect: no such immediate withdrawal was announced; the meeting focused on normalization steps already taken.

Source: Jaishankar at 59th ASEAN FM Meet: Stable India-China Ties Key for Multi-Polar Asia, Quad Backs Free Indo-Pacific →
Q87.

How many Indian seafarers were killed in a Russian projectile strike in the Black Sea, as mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.2
  • B.3
  • C.4✓ Correct Answer
  • D.5
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'four Indian seafarers were killed in a Russian projectile strike in the Black Sea' near Odesa. This incident prompted Jaishankar to express strong concern to Russian Foreign Minister Lavrov.

Source: Jaishankar at 59th ASEAN FM Meet: Stable India-China Ties Key for Multi-Polar Asia, Quad Backs Free Indo-Pacific →
Q88.

What is the primary significance of the Quad Foreign Ministers' reaffirmation of support for ASEAN centrality and the ASEAN Outlook on the Indo-Pacific (AOIP)?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To establish a military alliance against China
  • B.To promote ASEAN as the central platform for regional cooperation and stability in the Indo-Pacific✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To replace the United Nations in Southeast Asian security matters
  • D.To create a free trade zone among Quad and ASEAN countries
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Quad's support for ASEAN centrality and AOIP emphasizes a rules-based order and inclusive regional architecture, countering unilateral actions and promoting dialogue. It is not a military alliance or a replacement for the UN, nor does it create a free trade zone.

Source: Jaishankar at 59th ASEAN FM Meet: Stable India-China Ties Key for Multi-Polar Asia, Quad Backs Free Indo-Pacific →
Q89.

Which ministry is primarily responsible for the UDISE+ database mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  • B.Ministry of Women and Child Development
  • C.Ministry of Education✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

UDISE+ is managed by the Department of School Education & Literacy under the Ministry of Education, as stated in the article. The Ministry of Health handles NFHS, but UDISE+ is an education database.

Source: NFHS-6 & UDISE+ 2025-26: Girls Overtake Boys in Higher Secondary Attainment, Male Dropout Up in 6 States →
Q90.

Consider the following statements:

1. The percentage of women with 10+ years of schooling increased more than that of men between NFHS-5 and NFHS-6.

2. According to UDISE+ 2025-26, boys' dropout rate at the secondary stage is lower than girls' nationally.

3. In Goa, men's higher secondary attainment declined in absolute terms from NFHS-5 to NFHS-6.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: women's increase was 5.4 pp and men's 4.4 pp. Statement 2 is false: boys' dropout is 10.9%, higher than girls' 8%. Statement 3 is correct: Goa shows a decline of -6.7 pp in men's attainment. Hence option C is correct.

Source: NFHS-6 & UDISE+ 2025-26: Girls Overtake Boys in Higher Secondary Attainment, Male Dropout Up in 6 States →
Q91.

What is the gender gap in higher secondary Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) according to UDISE+ 2025-26 (girls' GER minus boys' GER)?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.3.8 percentage points
  • B.4.7 percentage points
  • C.5.9 percentage points✓ Correct Answer
  • D.6.8 percentage points
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states girls' GER is 64.8% and boys' GER is 58.9%, giving a gap of 5.9 percentage points. The other options correspond to the gaps in previous years: 3.8 in 2023-24 and 4.7 in 2024-25.

Source: NFHS-6 & UDISE+ 2025-26: Girls Overtake Boys in Higher Secondary Attainment, Male Dropout Up in 6 States →
Q92.

According to the article, what is a likely reason for declining male higher secondary attainment in states like Goa and Ladakh?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Lack of secondary schools in those states
  • B.Immediate employment opportunities in tourism and seasonal work that do not require formal qualifications✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Government's policy of promoting girls' education over boys'
  • D.Higher fees for boys in higher secondary schools
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that in high tourism states like Goa and Ladakh, adolescent boys often find paid work well before completing school, leading to higher dropout. Other options are not supported by the article.

Source: NFHS-6 & UDISE+ 2025-26: Girls Overtake Boys in Higher Secondary Attainment, Male Dropout Up in 6 States →
Q93.

Which organisation is responsible for implementing the Mumbai-Ahmedabad High Speed Rail corridor?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Railways
  • B.National High Speed Rail Corporation Limited (NHSRCL)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL)
  • D.Research Design and Standards Organisation (RDSO)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the NHSRCL is implementing the bullet train corridor. While the Ministry of Railways oversees railway projects, NHSRCL is the special purpose vehicle (SPV) specifically created for this high-speed rail project.

Source: NHSRCL Equips Mumbai-Ahmedabad Bullet Train with 2×25 kV Advanced Overhead Traction System →
Q94.

Consider the following statements regarding the Mumbai-Ahmedabad Bullet Train corridor:

1. The corridor will use a 2×25 kV Overhead Traction System, being introduced in India for the first time.

2. A total of 14 switching posts are being installed along the corridor to ensure uninterrupted power supply.

3. The system includes 28 seismometers, of which 22 are installed along the high-speed corridor.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the 2×25 kV system is a first in India. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article mentions 31 switching posts, not 14 (14 is the number of traction substations). Statement 3 is correct: 28 seismometers are being installed, with 22 along the corridor and 6 additional inland seismometers in earthquake-prone regions.

Source: NHSRCL Equips Mumbai-Ahmedabad Bullet Train with 2×25 kV Advanced Overhead Traction System →
Q95.

What is the total number of traction substations being built along the Mumbai-Ahmedabad bullet train corridor?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.12
  • B.14✓ Correct Answer
  • C.16
  • D.31
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that 14 traction substations are being constructed – 5 in Maharashtra (Mumbai, Thane, Virar, Boisar, Thane Depot) and 9 in Gujarat (Vapi, Bilimora, Surat, Bharuch, Vadodara, Anand, Mahemdabad, Ahmedabad, Sabarmati Depot). 31 is the number of switching posts, and 16 is the number of distribution substations for stations and signalling.

Source: NHSRCL Equips Mumbai-Ahmedabad Bullet Train with 2×25 kV Advanced Overhead Traction System →
Q96.

What is the primary purpose of installing seismometers along the bullet train corridor?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To monitor weather conditions and adjust train speed accordingly
  • B.To detect seismic activity and automatically stop trains within seconds to ensure safety✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To collect geological data for future infrastructure projects in earthquake-prone regions
  • D.To measure vibration levels and improve passenger comfort during high-speed travel
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that each traction substation will be equipped with Early Earthquake Detection Seismometers capable of detecting seismic activity and initiating protective actions within seconds to stop trains in case of an earthquake. While data collection is a secondary benefit, the primary objective is safety.

Source: NHSRCL Equips Mumbai-Ahmedabad Bullet Train with 2×25 kV Advanced Overhead Traction System →
Q97.

Which public sector undertaking is constructing the 500 MW Teesta Stage VI Hydropower Project in Sikkim where the tunnel explosion occurred?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Sikkim Urja Limited
  • B.National Hydroelectric Power Corporation (NHPC)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.NTPC Limited
  • D.Power Grid Corporation of India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The NHPC is the nodal public sector undertaking executing the 500 MW Teesta Stage VI Hydropower Project. The disaster occurred in its Head Race Tunnel (HRT). Sikkim Urja Limited was responsible for the 1,200 MW Chungthang dam that was destroyed in the 2023 GLOF.

Source: NHPC Tunnel Explosion in Sikkim Namchi: Methane Blast Kills 13 Workers in Teesta Stage VI Project →
Q98.

Consider the following statements regarding the NHPC tunnel disaster in Sikkim:

1. The explosion was caused by a sudden release of methane trapped in rock formations, which ignited due to sparks during drilling.

2. Sikkim has no identified coal reserves in the Namchi area, making the incident unprecedented.

3. The incident occurred in the Head Race Tunnel (HRT) of the 500 MW Teesta Stage VI Hydropower Project.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the explosion is suspected from methane trapped in rocks, ignited by drilling sparks. Statement 2 is incorrect: Geological Survey of India has identified ~1.4 lakh tonnes of coal reserves in southern Sikkim (Namchi area). Statement 3 is correct: the incident involved the Head Race Tunnel of the Teesta Stage VI project.

Source: NHPC Tunnel Explosion in Sikkim Namchi: Methane Blast Kills 13 Workers in Teesta Stage VI Project →
Q99.

What was the approximate coal reserve identified by GSI in southern Sikkim, primarily the Namchi area, as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.1.40 lakh tonnes✓ Correct Answer
  • B.1.40 crore tonnes
  • C.14,000 tonnes
  • D.14 lakh tonnes
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that Geological Survey of India studies identified coal reserves of approximately 1.40 lakh tonnes in southern Sikkim, primarily the Namchi area where the NHPC tunnel incident occurred. The coal was analysed to contain 53.40% fixed carbon.

Source: NHPC Tunnel Explosion in Sikkim Namchi: Methane Blast Kills 13 Workers in Teesta Stage VI Project →
Q100.

What is the primary reason why standard pre-construction surveys failed to detect the methane hazard that caused the NHPC tunnel explosion?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Surveys were not conducted for the Teesta-VI project due to budget constraints
  • B.No test can detect colourless and odourless methane trapped in rock formations✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Methane is only detectable through satellite imagery, which was unavailable
  • D.The project site was in a restricted border area with limited survey access
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

NHPC officials stated that while comprehensive surveys (topographical, geotechnical, geophysical, etc.) are conducted, no test can detect the presence of colourless and odourless methane gas, which can explode when mixed with air and ignited. This highlights a critical safety gap in Himalayan tunnelling projects.

Source: NHPC Tunnel Explosion in Sikkim Namchi: Methane Blast Kills 13 Workers in Teesta Stage VI Project →
Q101.

Which Indian ministry provided the data on outbound investment from India to the US in a Lok Sabha reply?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Commerce and Industry✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Ministry of Finance
  • C.Ministry of External Affairs
  • D.Ministry of Pharmaceuticals
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions that the Commerce Ministry replied to a Lok Sabha question regarding outbound investment from India to the US, which stood at $4.08 billion in FY26.

Source: Trump Threatens 100-200% Tariffs on Generic Drugs: India's $9.7B Pharma Exports at Risk →
Q102.

Consider the following statements:

1. Trump threatened to impose 100% tariffs on generic drugs after two years and 200% thereafter.

2. India's pharmaceutical exports to the US in 2025 were $9.7 billion, accounting for nearly 40% of India's total pharma exports.

3. Sun Pharmaceutical Industries acquired US-based Organon & Co. for $11.8 billion, the largest overseas acquisition by an Indian pharma company.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

All statements are directly supported by the article. Trump announced the tariff plan, India's export data is mentioned, and Sun Pharma's acquisition of Organon is confirmed as the largest overseas acquisition by an Indian pharma company.

Source: Trump Threatens 100-200% Tariffs on Generic Drugs: India's $9.7B Pharma Exports at Risk →
Q103.

What was the value of India's pharmaceutical exports to the US in 2025?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.$9.7 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • B.$94.1 billion
  • C.$213 billion
  • D.$11.8 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that India exported $9.7 billion worth of pharmaceuticals to the US in 2025. The other figures are also mentioned: $94.1 billion is the US import of finished medicines, $213 billion is total US pharmaceutical imports, and $11.8 billion is Sun Pharma's acquisition value.

Source: Trump Threatens 100-200% Tariffs on Generic Drugs: India's $9.7B Pharma Exports at Risk →
Q104.

What is the primary objective of Trump's tariff threat on generic drugs according to the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase US government revenue
  • B.To reshore generic pharma production in the US✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To penalize Indian pharma companies
  • D.To reduce drug prices in the US
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the tariff threat is designed to 'reshore' generic pharma production in the US. The other options are not mentioned as primary objectives; in fact, tariffs could increase drug prices.

Source: Trump Threatens 100-200% Tariffs on Generic Drugs: India's $9.7B Pharma Exports at Risk →
Q105.

Which implementing agency is responsible for the Mumbai-Ahmedabad High Speed Rail (MAHSR) corridor?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Indian Railways
  • B.National High Speed Rail Corporation Limited (NHSRCL)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
  • D.National Highways Authority of India (NHAI)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

NHSRCL is a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) jointly owned by the Government of India (Ministry of Railways) and the state governments of Gujarat and Maharashtra, specifically created to implement the Mumbai-Ahmedabad bullet train project.

Source: NHSRCL Equips Mumbai-Ahmedabad Bullet Train Corridor with 2x25 kV System for 320 kmph →
Q106.

Consider the following statements regarding the Mumbai-Ahmedabad bullet train corridor:

1. It will be India's first railway line with a high-speed electrification system designed for operations up to 320 kmph.

2. The corridor will have 14 traction substations, all located in Gujarat.

3. A total of 28 seismometers are being installed for early earthquake detection.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states it is India's first high-speed electrification for 320 kmph operations. Statement 2 is incorrect because out of 14 traction substations, 5 are in Maharashtra and 9 in Gujarat. Statement 3 is correct as 28 seismometers (22 on corridor + 6 inland) are being installed.

Source: NHSRCL Equips Mumbai-Ahmedabad Bullet Train Corridor with 2x25 kV System for 320 kmph →
Q107.

How many traction substations are being constructed along the Mumbai-Ahmedabad bullet train corridor?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.12
  • B.14✓ Correct Answer
  • C.16
  • D.28
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly mentions that 14 traction substations are being constructed along the route - 5 in Maharashtra (Mumbai, Thane, Virar, Boisar, Thane Depot) and 9 in Gujarat (Vapi, Bilimora, Surat, Bharuch, Vadodara, Anand, Ahmedabad, Sabarmati Depot). 16 refers to distribution substations, and 28 refers to seismometers.

Source: NHSRCL Equips Mumbai-Ahmedabad Bullet Train Corridor with 2x25 kV System for 320 kmph →
Q108.

Why is the 2x25 kV Overhead Traction System being introduced for the Mumbai-Ahmedabad bullet train corridor?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce the overall cost of railway electrification
  • B.To provide stable and uninterrupted power supply for trains operating at speeds up to 320 kmph✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To enable the use of existing Indian Railway locomotives on the corridor
  • D.To reduce the number of traction substations required
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the 2x25 kV system is 'specifically designed to provide a stable and uninterrupted power supply required for trains operating at very high speeds up to 320 kmph.' Standard 25 kV systems face voltage drop issues at such high speeds, making the 2x25 kV system essential.

Source: NHSRCL Equips Mumbai-Ahmedabad Bullet Train Corridor with 2x25 kV System for 320 kmph →
Q109.

Which Supreme Court case is cited as the foundational precedent on custodial safeguards in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.D.K. Basu vs State of West Bengal✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Maneka Gandhi vs Union of India
  • C.Vishaka vs State of Rajasthan
  • D.S.R. Bommai vs Union of India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions 'the Supreme Court’s ruling in D K Basu vs. State of West Bengal, the foundational precedent on custodial safeguards.' The other cases are landmark but not related to custodial violence.

Source: Gujarat HC Suo Motu on Police Flogging in Surat; Violation of Articles 14, 21 and D.K. Basu →
Q110.

Consider the following statements:

1. The Gujarat HC took suo motu cognisance of police flogging in Surat.

2. The representation was made by advocate Utkarsh Dave on July 22, 2026.

3. The incident allegedly violated Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the HC acted suo motu. Statement 2 is incorrect: the representation was made on July 14, 2026, not July 22. Statement 3 is correct as the representation alleged violation of Articles 14 and 21. Hence option C is correct.

Source: Gujarat HC Suo Motu on Police Flogging in Surat; Violation of Articles 14, 21 and D.K. Basu →
Q111.

How many police personnel were allegedly accompanying DCP Rajdeepsinh Nakum during the incident?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.10 to 15
  • B.15 to 20✓ Correct Answer
  • C.20 to 25
  • D.25 to 30
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states 'Deputy Commissioner of Police Rajdeepsinh Nakum, accompanied by 15 to 20 police personnel.' The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the news.

Source: Gujarat HC Suo Motu on Police Flogging in Surat; Violation of Articles 14, 21 and D.K. Basu →
Q112.

What is the primary constitutional violation alleged in the representation regarding the police conduct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Violation of Article 32 (Right to Constitutional Remedies)
  • B.Violation of Articles 14 and 21 (Right to Equality and Right to Life)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Violation of Article 19 (Freedom of Speech)
  • D.Violation of Article 22 (Protection against arrest)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The representation describes the conduct as a 'blatant violation' of Articles 14 and 21. Article 32 is about remedies, Article 19 about freedoms, Article 22 about arrest protections. The core issue is equality and dignity under Articles 14 and 21.

Source: Gujarat HC Suo Motu on Police Flogging in Surat; Violation of Articles 14, 21 and D.K. Basu →
Q113.

Which U.S. space agency is responsible for the Artemis program mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.NASA✓ Correct Answer
  • B.ESA
  • C.ISRO
  • D.Roscosmos
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions 'Nasa’s Artemis III mission' and refers to the agency multiple times. The Artemis program is a NASA-led initiative for lunar exploration.

Source: NASA Artemis III: 3 Spacecraft, Multiple Launches to Validate Lunar Landers for 2028 Moon Return →
Q114.

Consider the following statements regarding the Artemis III mission:

1. Artemis III will involve three separate spacecraft: Orion, Starship, and Blue Moon.

2. Astronauts will land on the Moon during Artemis III.

3. Artemis IV is targeted for 2028.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article lists Orion, Starship, and Blue Moon as the three spacecraft. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article states Artemis III is an orbital test and that the lunar landing will occur on Artemis IV. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions Artemis IV is currently targeted for 2028. Hence option C is correct.

Source: NASA Artemis III: 3 Spacecraft, Multiple Launches to Validate Lunar Landers for 2028 Moon Return →
Q115.

According to the article, how many Starship refuelling launches are estimated to be required before Starship can carry astronauts from Earth orbit to the lunar surface?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.5
  • B.10
  • C.15✓ Correct Answer
  • D.20
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Nasa estimates that at least 15 Starship refuelling launches will eventually be required before Starship can carry astronauts from Earth orbit to the lunar surface during Artemis IV.' Hence the correct answer is 15.

Source: NASA Artemis III: 3 Spacecraft, Multiple Launches to Validate Lunar Landers for 2028 Moon Return →
Q116.

What is the primary objective of the Artemis III mission as described in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To land astronauts on the lunar surface
  • B.To test commercial lunar landers in low Earth orbit and validate procedures✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To establish a permanent lunar habitat
  • D.To launch a space station around the Moon
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article repeatedly states that Artemis III is an orbital test to 'validate the spacecraft and mission procedures' before the lunar landing on Artemis IV. Astronauts will not land on the Moon, nor will a habitat or space station be established. Hence option B is correct.

Source: NASA Artemis III: 3 Spacecraft, Multiple Launches to Validate Lunar Landers for 2028 Moon Return →
Q117.

Which ministry released the National Policy on Geothermal Energy 2025?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Power
  • B.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
  • D.Ministry of Earth Sciences
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The National Policy on Geothermal Energy 2025 was released by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) in September 2025. MNRE is the nodal ministry for all renewable energy sources in India.

Source: India's First Geothermal Wells Inaugurated at Puga Valley: 1 MW Pilot Project Under National Policy on Geothermal Energy 2025 →
Q118.

Consider the following statements regarding the geothermal wells at Puga Valley:

1. These are India's first and deepest geothermal wells, drilled to a depth of 1,000 meters.

2. The wells were inaugurated by the Lieutenant Governor of Ladakh on July 17, 2026.

3. The project is executed by the Geological Survey of India (GSI).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the wells are India's first and deepest at 1,000 m. Statement 2 is correct: inaugurated by LG VK Saxena on July 17, 2026. Statement 3 is incorrect: the executing agency is ONGC Energy Centre, not GSI. GSI mapped hot springs but did not execute the wells.

Source: India's First Geothermal Wells Inaugurated at Puga Valley: 1 MW Pilot Project Under National Policy on Geothermal Energy 2025 →
Q119.

What is the estimated geothermal energy potential of India according to the article?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.5.2 GW
  • B.10.6 GW✓ Correct Answer
  • C.17 GW
  • D.100 GW
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that India has an estimated 10.6 GW of geothermal potential, which could rise with further exploration. 17 GW is the global harnessed capacity, and 100 GW is the IEA estimate for India by 2045.

Source: India's First Geothermal Wells Inaugurated at Puga Valley: 1 MW Pilot Project Under National Policy on Geothermal Energy 2025 →
Q120.

What is the primary advantage of geothermal energy over solar and wind energy as highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It is cheaper to produce
  • B.It has a higher utilization rate and provides baseload power✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It does not require any land
  • D.It produces zero emissions during operation
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions that geothermal has a utilization rate over 75% (2023) compared to less than 30% for wind and less than 15% for solar PV. It is always available, unlike solar and wind which face intermittency. This makes geothermal suitable for predictable baseload power generation.

Source: India's First Geothermal Wells Inaugurated at Puga Valley: 1 MW Pilot Project Under National Policy on Geothermal Energy 2025 →
Q121.

The recent meeting between India and China's Foreign Ministers was held on the sidelines of which forum?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.East Asia Summit✓ Correct Answer
  • B.G20 Summit
  • C.BRICS Summit
  • D.Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the meeting took place in Manila on the sidelines of the East Asia Summit and ASEAN Regional Forum meetings. The East Asia Summit is a key regional forum for strategic dialogue.

Source: India-China Border Peace Prerequisite, Trade Deficit Widens to $112.16 Billion →
Q122.

Consider the following statements regarding the India-China meeting:

1. Jaishankar reiterated that peace along the border is a prerequisite for normalising bilateral relations.

2. The trade deficit in 2025-26 was $151.1 billion.

3. Confidence-building steps include resumption of the Kailash Manasarovar Yatra and direct flights.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'Peace and tranquillity in the border areas is obviously the prerequisite for normal ties.' Statement 2 is incorrect: $151.1 billion is the total bilateral trade, not the deficit. The deficit is $112.16 billion. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions resumption of direct flights, Kailash Manasarovar Yatra, and border trade.

Source: India-China Border Peace Prerequisite, Trade Deficit Widens to $112.16 Billion →
Q123.

What was the value of bilateral trade between India and China in 2025-26, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.$112.16 billion
  • B.$151.1 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • C.$19.47 billion
  • D.$136.5 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'bilateral trade touching $151.1 billion' for 2025-26. The other options are close distractors: $112.16 billion is the trade deficit, $19.47 billion is Indian exports, and $136.5 billion is not mentioned.

Source: India-China Border Peace Prerequisite, Trade Deficit Widens to $112.16 Billion →
Q124.

According to the article, what does India consider as the prerequisite for normalising bilateral ties with China?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Resolution of all border disputes
  • B.Peace and tranquillity in border areas✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Reduction of trade deficit to zero
  • D.China's recognition of Arunachal Pradesh as Indian territory
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Jaishankar clearly stated that 'peace and tranquillity in the border areas is obviously the prerequisite for normal ties.' This is a nuanced position, not requiring full resolution of disputes, but maintaining border peace. Option A and D go beyond the article's scope; option C is not mentioned as a prerequisite.

Source: India-China Border Peace Prerequisite, Trade Deficit Widens to $112.16 Billion →
Q125.

Which of the following is NOT a member of the Quad (Quadrilateral Security Dialogue)?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.India
  • B.Japan
  • C.South Korea✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Australia
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Quad comprises India, the United States, Australia, and Japan. South Korea is not a member, though it is a key US ally in the region. The article mentions only these four nations as Quad members.

Source: Quad FMs Meet in Manila: Reaffirm Free, Open Indo-Pacific & ASEAN Centrality →
Q126.

Consider the following statements regarding the Quad Foreign Ministers Meeting in Manila (July 2026):

1. The meeting reaffirmed commitment to a free and open Indo-Pacific with ASEAN centrality.

2. The Quad launched an Indo-Pacific Maritime Surveillance Corporation during this meeting.

3. 2026 has been designated as the ASEAN-India Year of Maritime Cooperation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the joint statement reaffirmed a free and open Indo-Pacific with ASEAN centrality. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Maritime Surveillance Corporation was launched in May 2026, not during this Manila meeting. Statement 3 is correct as the MEA noted that 2026 is the ASEAN-India Year of Maritime Cooperation.

Source: Quad FMs Meet in Manila: Reaffirm Free, Open Indo-Pacific & ASEAN Centrality →
Q127.

Which foreign minister represented India at the Quad Foreign Ministers Meeting in Manila on July 22, 2026?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Nirmala Sitharaman
  • B.S. Jaishankar✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Rajiv Kumar
  • D.Harsh Vardhan Shringla
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar represented India at the meeting. Nirmala Sitharaman is the Finance Minister, Rajiv Kumar is the Election Commissioner, and Harsh Vardhan Shringla was the Foreign Secretary. The article explicitly names Jaishankar as the Indian representative.

Source: Quad FMs Meet in Manila: Reaffirm Free, Open Indo-Pacific & ASEAN Centrality →
Q128.

What is the primary strategic objective of the Quad's emphasis on 'ASEAN centrality' in the Indo-Pacific region?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To replace ASEAN with a new regional bloc led by Quad members
  • B.To ensure ASEAN remains the central diplomatic platform for regional cooperation, countering unilateral dominance✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To integrate ASEAN members into a military alliance under Quad leadership
  • D.To reduce economic cooperation with ASEAN and focus on bilateral deals
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

ASEAN centrality means that regional frameworks like the Quad should support and work through ASEAN, not undermine it. This approach counters any single power's dominance (e.g., China) and promotes a rules-based order. The article explicitly states support for ASEAN's 'unity and centrality' and the ASEAN Outlook on the Indo-Pacific.

Source: Quad FMs Meet in Manila: Reaffirm Free, Open Indo-Pacific & ASEAN Centrality →
Q129.

Which body conducts the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Chief Electoral Officer of each state
  • B.Election Commission of India✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Law and Justice
  • D.State Election Commission
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Election Commission of India (ECI) conducted the 2002 SIR and decides logical discrepancies. The ECI is the constitutional authority for electoral roll revision, though the CEO oversees implementation at the state level.

Source: Maharashtra SIR Electoral Rolls: Logical Discrepancies, Draft on Aug 17, Mapping with 2002 Roll →
Q130.

Consider the following statements regarding the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls:

1. Door-to-door verification ends on August 8.

2. Logical discrepancies are decided by the Chief Electoral Officer of each state.

3. Women whose surname changed after marriage can submit a marriage certificate to resolve the discrepancy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article says door-to-door verification ends August 8. Statement 2 is incorrect because logical discrepancies are decided by the ECI, not the CEO. Statement 3 is correct as per the article: for women whose surname changed, a marriage certificate 'may be sufficient'.

Source: Maharashtra SIR Electoral Rolls: Logical Discrepancies, Draft on Aug 17, Mapping with 2002 Roll →
Q131.

How many voters were excluded from the voter list in West Bengal due to logical discrepancies during the SIR?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.13 lakh
  • B.27 lakh✓ Correct Answer
  • C.30 lakh
  • D.17 lakh
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that around 27 lakh people were excluded from the voter list in West Bengal because of logical discrepancies and were unable to vote in the 2026 West Bengal Assembly elections.

Source: Maharashtra SIR Electoral Rolls: Logical Discrepancies, Draft on Aug 17, Mapping with 2002 Roll →
Q132.

What is the primary purpose of the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.To add new voters to the electoral roll
  • B.To remove duplicate or deceased voters
  • C.To map current voters with the 2002 electoral roll to identify discrepancies✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To update addresses of voters
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that the SIR involves mapping voters in the current electoral roll with the 2002 electoral roll to detect logical discrepancies. While adding and removing voters are part of the process, the core purpose is mapping for verification.

Source: Maharashtra SIR Electoral Rolls: Logical Discrepancies, Draft on Aug 17, Mapping with 2002 Roll →
Q133.

Which international legal instrument prohibits permanent structural alterations in occupied territory, as cited in the article regarding the Gaza earthen barrier?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Geneva Convention I (1949)
  • B.Geneva Convention IV (1949)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Hague Convention (1907)
  • D.United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically mentions Articles 47 and 53 of the Fourth Geneva Convention, which protect civilians in occupied territories and prohibit destruction of property and permanent structural changes except for military necessity. Geneva Convention I deals with wounded and sick in armed forces, not occupation.

Source: Israel Constructs 23 km Earthen Barrier in Gaza, Dividing Territory into Controlled Zones →
Q134.

Consider the following statements regarding the Israel earthen barrier in Gaza:

1. Israel has constructed 23 km of earthen barrier in the Gaza Strip.

2. The barrier is built along the entire 45 km Yellow Line separating Israeli and Palestinian areas.

3. The barrier is intended to prevent the return of displaced Palestinians and to deepen the blockade.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: 23 km of barrier has been built. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article says the barrier separates areas along the Yellow Line but does not claim it covers the entire 45 km; only 23 km has been constructed. Statement 3 is correct: the barrier blocks return of displaced people and deepens the blockade.

Source: Israel Constructs 23 km Earthen Barrier in Gaza, Dividing Territory into Controlled Zones →
Q135.

According to the article, what is the planned length of the Israeli West Bank barrier, which is a precedent for the Gaza earthen barrier?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.45 km
  • B.700 km✓ Correct Answer
  • C.2,700 km
  • D.23 km
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that Israel has been building a planned 700 km barrier to separate the West Bank from Jerusalem and Israel. Option A is the length of the Yellow Line, option C is the length of the Moroccan Wall in Western Sahara, and option D is the length of the Gaza earthen barrier constructed so far.

Source: Israel Constructs 23 km Earthen Barrier in Gaza, Dividing Territory into Controlled Zones →
Q136.

What is the primary legal concern raised by the construction of the earthen barrier inside Gaza, as highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Violation of the Oslo Accords
  • B.Violation of the Fourth Geneva Convention✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Violation of UNCLOS maritime boundaries
  • D.Violation of UNSC Resolution 242 on land for peace
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly cites Articles 47 and 53 of the Fourth Geneva Convention, which prohibit permanent structural alterations in occupied territory without absolute military necessity. The barrier is seen as a long-term change, not a temporary measure. The Oslo Accords are not the main legal framework here, and UNCLOS and Resolution 242 are not directly relevant.

Source: Israel Constructs 23 km Earthen Barrier in Gaza, Dividing Territory into Controlled Zones →
Q137.

Which strait connects the Red Sea to the Gulf of Aden, as mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Strait of Hormuz
  • B.Strait of Malacca
  • C.Bab el-Mandeb Strait✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Strait of Gibraltar
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Bab el-Mandeb Strait connects the Red Sea to the Gulf of Aden. Strait of Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman, while Malacca is in Southeast Asia and Gibraltar connects the Atlantic to the Mediterranean.

Source: Houthi Declares Naval Blockade on Saudi Arabia via Bab el-Mandeb Strait; 12% Global Trade at Risk →
Q138.

Consider the following statements:

1. The Houthis have controlled the Yemeni capital Sanaa since 2014 and are aligned with Iran.

2. The Saudi-led coalition intervened in Yemen's civil war in 2015.

3. The Bab el-Mandeb Strait is 29 km wide at its narrowest point and carries about 5% of global trade.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Only 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: Houthis have controlled Sanaa since 2014 and are Iran-aligned. Statement 2 is correct: the Saudi-led coalition intervened in 2015. Statement 3 is incorrect because while the strait is 29 km wide, it carries about 12% of global trade, not 5% (5% refers to the oil share). Hence option B.

Source: Houthi Declares Naval Blockade on Saudi Arabia via Bab el-Mandeb Strait; 12% Global Trade at Risk →
Q139.

According to the article, what percentage of global trade passes through the Bab el-Mandeb Strait?

EasyUPSC, Banking
  • A.5%
  • B.7%
  • C.12%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.25%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states 'Around 12% of global trade usually passes through it.' Option A (5%) is the share of global oil, not total trade. Option D (25%) is the combined risk if both straits are closed.

Source: Houthi Declares Naval Blockade on Saudi Arabia via Bab el-Mandeb Strait; 12% Global Trade at Risk →
Q140.

Why does the Houthi blockade threat matter for India, according to the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Because India exports most of its goods through the Red Sea
  • B.Because India imports about 7% of its crude oil from Saudi Arabia via this route✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Because India has a military base in Yemen
  • D.Because the Suez Canal is India's only trade route to Europe
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that Saudi Arabia was India's third-largest crude supplier in June, accounting for over 7% of imports, and a large share moves through Bab el-Mandeb. Disruption would delay crude shipments and raise import costs, fueling inflation. The other options are not supported by the article.

Source: Houthi Declares Naval Blockade on Saudi Arabia via Bab el-Mandeb Strait; 12% Global Trade at Risk →
Q141.

Which strategic strait is controlled by the Houthi militia in Yemen, as mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Strait of Hormuz
  • B.Bab el-Mandeb✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Strait of Malacca
  • D.Suez Canal
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Houthis control northern Yemen including the coast along the Bab el-Mandeb strait, which is the southern entrance to the Red Sea. The Strait of Hormuz is a separate chokepoint in the Persian Gulf, and the Strait of Malacca is in Southeast Asia. The Suez Canal is to the north of the Red Sea.

Source: Houthi Naval Blockade Forces 3 Oil Tankers Bound for India, China to Abort Red Sea Transit →
Q142.

Consider the following statements regarding the Houthi blockade in the Red Sea:

1. The Houthis are an Iran-aligned militia that control parts of northern Yemen.

2. The tanker Xin Long Yang was carrying 2 million barrels of Saudi crude oil bound for India.

3. The tanker New Prime successfully arrived at Yanbu port to load crude.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article describes the Houthis as 'Iran-aligned' and they control northern Yemen. Statement 2 is correct: Xin Long Yang completed loading 2 million barrels of Saudi crude at Yanbu and was initially headed out of the Red Sea. Statement 3 is incorrect: New Prime turned back off the coast of Oman before entering the Red Sea and did not arrive at Yanbu.

Source: Houthi Naval Blockade Forces 3 Oil Tankers Bound for India, China to Abort Red Sea Transit →
Q143.

How many barrels of Saudi crude was the tanker 'Rodos' carrying when it made a U-turn in the Red Sea?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.2 million barrels
  • B.700,000 barrels✓ Correct Answer
  • C.1 million barrels
  • D.500,000 barrels
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

According to the article, the smaller tanker Rodos was carrying about 700,000 barrels of Saudi crude bound for India. The other options are close distractors: 2 million barrels is the capacity of Xin Long Yang, and 1 million and 500,000 are not mentioned.

Source: Houthi Naval Blockade Forces 3 Oil Tankers Bound for India, China to Abort Red Sea Transit →
Q144.

What is the most significant consequence of the Houthi blockade mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Closure of the Suez Canal
  • B.Disruption of a major global shipping route and increased risk to energy markets✓ Correct Answer
  • C.A halt in Saudi Arabian oil production
  • D.Direct military conflict between India and Yemen
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that this disruption 'could deepen the strain on energy markets already reeling from the closure of the Strait of Hormuz.' It does not mention Suez Canal closure, halt in Saudi production, or conflict with India. The primary impact is on shipping and energy supply.

Source: Houthi Naval Blockade Forces 3 Oil Tankers Bound for India, China to Abort Red Sea Transit →
Q145.

Which strait is located between Yemen and Djibouti/Eritrea, connecting the Red Sea to the Gulf of Aden?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Strait of Hormuz
  • B.Bab al-Mandeb Strait✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Strait of Malacca
  • D.Bosphorus Strait
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

According to the article, Bab al-Mandeb strait is situated between Yemen and Djibouti and Eritrea, connecting the Red Sea to the Gulf of Aden. It is 29 km wide at its narrowest point.

Source: Houthis Impose Naval Blockade on Saudi Vessels via Bab al-Mandeb; Risks 7% Global Oil Supply Cut →
Q146.

Consider the following statements regarding the Houthi naval blockade:

1. The Houthis announced a maritime embargo solely on Saudi-linked vessels passing through Bab al-Mandeb.

2. The blockade was a retaliation for a Houthi attack on Saudi oil infrastructure.

3. A complete closure of the strait could reduce global oil supply by 7%.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because the article states the Houthis announced a blockade targeting 'only Saudi-linked vessels'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the retaliation was for an attack on Sanaa airport by Saudi Arabia, not the other way. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions a complete closure would reduce global oil supply by 7%.

Source: Houthis Impose Naval Blockade on Saudi Vessels via Bab al-Mandeb; Risks 7% Global Oil Supply Cut →
Q147.

According to the article, how many billion barrels of crude oil and refined petroleum products passed through the Bab al-Mandeb strait in 2024?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.3.2 billion barrels
  • B.4.1 billion barrels✓ Correct Answer
  • C.5.0 billion barrels
  • D.4.8 billion barrels
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article cites Al Jazeera that around 4.1 billion barrels of crude oil and refined products passed through the strait in 2024, about 5% of the total energy supply.

Source: Houthis Impose Naval Blockade on Saudi Vessels via Bab al-Mandeb; Risks 7% Global Oil Supply Cut →
Q148.

What is the primary objective of the Houthi maritime embargo announced in the news?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To disrupt global oil supply and increase prices
  • B.To retaliate against Saudi Arabia for attacking Sanaa airport✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To support Iran's military operations in the Strait of Hormuz
  • D.To force the US Navy to withdraw from the Red Sea
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Houthis announced the blockade 'in retaliation for an attack on Sanaa International Airport last week'. The Houthis blamed Riyadh for breaking a four-year ceasefire. While reducing oil supply is a potential consequence, the stated aim is retaliation.

Source: Houthis Impose Naval Blockade on Saudi Vessels via Bab al-Mandeb; Risks 7% Global Oil Supply Cut →
Q149.

Which US legal provision is being used by the Trump administration to impose new tariffs on Canada?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Section 301 of the Trade Act of 1974
  • B.Section 338 of the Tariff Act of 1930✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Section 232 of the Trade Expansion Act of 1962
  • D.Section 201 of the Trade Act of 1974
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Article explicitly mentions that lawyers see Trump's use of Section 338 of the Tariff Act of 1930 as a means to gain leverage over Canada in USMCA negotiations. The other sections are commonly used in US trade actions but are not mentioned in this news.

Source: US Readies New Forced Labour Tariffs on 60 Nations as 10% Global Levy Expires →
Q150.

Consider the following statements regarding the US tariff actions:

1. The 10% global tariff imposed by Trump expires on July 24, 2026.

2. New forced labour tariffs are set at a uniform rate of 15% for all targeted nations.

3. The 50% tariff on Canada exempts products entering under the USMCA.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the 10% global levy expires on Friday, July 24, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: new tariffs are 10% or 12.5%, not 15%. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article clearly states that the Canada tariffs 'will not exempt affected Canadian products entering his country under the USMCA.' Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Source: US Readies New Forced Labour Tariffs on 60 Nations as 10% Global Levy Expires →
Q151.

What is the tariff rate imposed on India under the new US forced labour tariffs?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.10%
  • B.12.5%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.25%
  • D.50%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

According to the article, goods from over 40 other major economies like China, India and Japan face a 12.5% levy. The 10% rate applies to nations found to have taken steps against forced labour (e.g., Canada, EU, Mexico, Taiwan, UK). 25% is for Brazil, 50% for Canada.

Source: US Readies New Forced Labour Tariffs on 60 Nations as 10% Global Levy Expires →
Q152.

What is the primary strategic objective behind the US using Section 338 of the Tariff Act of 1930 to impose a 50% tariff on Canada?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To enforce forced labour standards in Canada
  • B.To gain leverage in USMCA negotiations with Canada✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To retaliate against Canada for wildfire smoke entering the US
  • D.To protect the US generic drug industry from Canadian imports
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes trade lawyers stating that the use of Section 338 'appear(s) to be aimed at encouraging an agreement between Canada and the United States, or in retaliation for the failure to reach such agreement, or both.' It is explicitly linked to USMCA negotiations. The other options are not supported by the article; wildfire smoke was explicitly said to be unrelated, and forced labour tariffs are separate.

Source: US Readies New Forced Labour Tariffs on 60 Nations as 10% Global Levy Expires →
Q153.

Which ministry is primarily responsible for the implementation of the Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY)?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Rural Development
  • D.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

PMJAY is a flagship health insurance scheme under Ayushman Bharat, managed by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. The other ministries deal with different sectors.

Source: MAA Yojana Outbound Portability: 30,000 Patients Avail Free Treatment in 4 States Under PMJAY Integration →
Q154.

Consider the following statements:

1. The Mukhyamantri Ayushman Aroygya (MAA) Yojana is a Rajasthan state health insurance scheme.

2. Under the outbound portability, beneficiaries can avail cashless treatment only in private hospitals of other states.

3. The scheme covers 2,179 treatment packages including heart surgeries and cancer care.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as MAA is a Rajasthan state scheme. Statement 2 is incorrect because the portability provides access to both government and private hospitals (16,000 govt + 14,000 private). Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions 2,179 treatment packages covering serious conditions like heart disease and cancer.

Source: MAA Yojana Outbound Portability: 30,000 Patients Avail Free Treatment in 4 States Under PMJAY Integration →
Q155.

According to the news, how many claims have been submitted under the outbound portability of MAA Yojana, and what is the total amount?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.5,900 claims; ₹17 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • B.6,000 claims; ₹18 crore
  • C.5,500 claims; ₹16 crore
  • D.30,000 claims; ₹25 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states 'Over 5,900 claims amounting to ₹17 crore have been submitted'. The other options are close distractors but not matching the exact data.

Source: MAA Yojana Outbound Portability: 30,000 Patients Avail Free Treatment in 4 States Under PMJAY Integration →
Q156.

What is the primary objective of the outbound portability of the MAA Yojana as highlighted in the news?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To reduce the financial burden on Rajasthan's state budget
  • B.To provide Rajasthan patients access to specialty treatment in other states without financial hardship✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To increase the number of hospitals empanelled under PMJAY
  • D.To promote medical tourism within India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article emphasizes that patients can 'access quality medical treatment even outside the State’s boundaries without any financial burden'. The scheme is about patient welfare, not budget reduction or medical tourism.

Source: MAA Yojana Outbound Portability: 30,000 Patients Avail Free Treatment in 4 States Under PMJAY Integration →
Q157.

Which government body manages the NGO Darpan portal mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • B.NITI Aayog✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Finance
  • D.Election Commission of India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

NITI Aayog's portal NGO Darpan lists approximately six lakh voluntary organisations. Of those, only about 14,500 hold active FCRA registration, as noted in the article. NITI Aayog is the nodal body for this database.

Source: FCRA Debate: Domestic Philanthropy at ₹1.18 Lakh Cr Outpaces Foreign Inflows 5x →
Q158.

Consider the following statements:

1. The article states that foreign contributions received by Indian NGOs doubled over the decade from about ₹10,000 crore to around ₹22,000 crore.

2. According to the Bain–Dasra India Philanthropy Report 2026, domestic private philanthropy now exceeds foreign inflows by more than ten times.

3. The authors propose raising the Section 80G deduction from 50% to 100% and lifting the ceiling to 25% of adjusted gross total income.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2 and 3
  • C.(C) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: foreign contributions doubled from about ₹10,000 crore to ₹22,000 crore. Statement 2 is incorrect: domestic philanthropy (₹1.18 lakh crore) exceeds foreign inflows by more than five times, not ten times. Statement 3 is correct: the authors advocate raising 80G deduction to 100% and the ceiling to 25%.

Source: FCRA Debate: Domestic Philanthropy at ₹1.18 Lakh Cr Outpaces Foreign Inflows 5x →
Q159.

According to the Bain–Dasra India Philanthropy Report 2026, what is the annual amount of domestic private philanthropy in India?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹22,000 crore
  • B.₹40,000 crore
  • C.₹1.18 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
  • D.₹10,000 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Bain–Dasra India Philanthropy Report 2026, cited in the article, puts domestic private philanthropy at ₹1.18 lakh crore per year—more than five times the annual foreign philanthropic inflows of about ₹22,000 crore. The other options are distractors: ₹22,000 crore is the foreign inflow amount, and ₹40,000 crore is the CSR spend.

Source: FCRA Debate: Domestic Philanthropy at ₹1.18 Lakh Cr Outpaces Foreign Inflows 5x →
Q160.

What is the primary objective of building an 'Atmanirbhar philanthropy ecosystem' as advocated in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To completely ban foreign funding to Indian NGOs
  • B.To reduce the compliance burden on all NGOs under FCRA
  • C.To shift the centre of gravity of giving from foreign to domestic sources, fostering ownership and accountability✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To increase the CSR expenditure cap from 2% to 5% of net profits
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article argues that domestic philanthropy creates not just money but ownership, governance, and accountability. By moving from reliance on foreign funding to domestic giving (families, entrepreneurs, citizens), India can strengthen its social contract and non-profit sector governance. The other options misinterpret the article's balanced approach—it doesn't call for a ban on foreign funding or a change in CSR caps.

Source: FCRA Debate: Domestic Philanthropy at ₹1.18 Lakh Cr Outpaces Foreign Inflows 5x →
Q161.

Under which section of the Motor Vehicles Act has the National Road Safety Board been constituted?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Section 215A
  • B.Section 215B✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Section 216A
  • D.Section 217B
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the board was constituted on June 29 under Section 215B of the Motor Vehicles Act. This is a statutory provision that came into force with rules notified in September 2021.

Source: National Road Safety Board Constituted Under MV Act Section 215B, Advisory Role Questioned →
Q162.

Consider the following statements regarding the National Road Safety Board:

1. It is a statutory body constituted under the Motor Vehicles Act.

2. The board has the power to prescribe standards and conduct safety audits.

3. The board comprises experts and officials from the Union and State governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the board was constituted under Section 215B of the Motor Vehicles Act, making it a statutory body. Statement 2 is incorrect because the board has only an advisory role, not regulatory powers to prescribe standards or conduct audits (those were features of the earlier Sundar Committee proposal). Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article that the board comprises experts and officials from Union and State governments. Hence option C is correct.

Source: National Road Safety Board Constituted Under MV Act Section 215B, Advisory Role Questioned →
Q163.

According to the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways report, how many lives were claimed by road accidents in India in 2024?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.1,57,175
  • B.1,67,175
  • C.1,77,175✓ Correct Answer
  • D.1,87,175
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article repeatedly mentions that road accidents claimed 1,77,175 lives in 2024, as per the latest Road Accidents in India report of the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways. The other options are close distractors with slight numerical variations.

Source: National Road Safety Board Constituted Under MV Act Section 215B, Advisory Role Questioned →
Q164.

What is the primary limitation of the National Road Safety Board as highlighted by experts in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It lacks adequate funding and infrastructure
  • B.Its role is only advisory and not regulatory✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It has not been notified under the Motor Vehicles Act
  • D.It only covers highways and not state roads
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article highlights that the board is under mandatory duty to advise, but authorities receiving that advice are under no equally clear duty to respond. This advisory nature is seen as a weakness compared to earlier proposals for a stronger regulatory body with powers to prescribe standards and enforce compliance.

Source: National Road Safety Board Constituted Under MV Act Section 215B, Advisory Role Questioned →
Q165.

Which provision of US trade law is being used to investigate forced labour in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Section 232 of the Trade Expansion Act
  • B.Section 301 of the Trade Act of 1974✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Section 201 of the Trade Act of 1974
  • D.Section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'under Section 301' regarding the forced labour investigation. Section 301 allows the US to impose tariffs or other restrictions on countries engaging in unfair trade practices.

Source: US Section 301 Probe: India Bans Forced Labour Imports, Faces 100% Tariff Threat on Russian Crude →
Q166.

Consider the following statements regarding India's trade with China:

1. India's imports from China in the first half of 2026 increased by 21.8%.

2. India's trade deficit with China in 2025 was $116 billion.

3. India's exports to China in the first half of 2026 rose by 37.2% on a large base.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: imports from China rose 21.8% in H1 2026. Statement 2 is correct: trade deficit with China in 2025 was $116 billion. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article says exports rose 37.2% 'on a small base', not a large base. Hence option C.

Source: US Section 301 Probe: India Bans Forced Labour Imports, Faces 100% Tariff Threat on Russian Crude →
Q167.

According to the article, what was India's overall trade deficit in the year 2025?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.$94 billion
  • B.$116 billion
  • C.$120 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • D.$67 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'The overall trade deficit increased in 2025 to $120 billion from $94 billion in 2024.' The other options are distractors: $94 billion is the 2024 figure, $116 billion is the China trade deficit, and $67 billion is the China trade deficit in H1 2026.

Source: US Section 301 Probe: India Bans Forced Labour Imports, Faces 100% Tariff Threat on Russian Crude →
Q168.

What is the primary objective of the US's forced labour investigation against India as argued in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To eliminate all forms of forced labour worldwide
  • B.To create a non-tariff barrier to extract trade concessions from India✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To align Indian labour laws with international standards
  • D.To protect Indian workers from exploitation
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that by investigating forced labour, 'the U.S. is seeking to create a bottleneck to extract concession.' It argues that low wages in the developing world are due to weak bargaining power, not coercion, and that the real intention is to pressure India in trade negotiations.

Source: US Section 301 Probe: India Bans Forced Labour Imports, Faces 100% Tariff Threat on Russian Crude →
Q169.

Which body is responsible for conducting the national Census in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Election Commission of India
  • B.NITI Aayog
  • C.Registrar General of India (RGI)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Registrar General of India (RGI) under the Ministry of Home Affairs is the nodal authority for conducting the Census as per the Census Act, 1948. The article mentions RGI grappling with caste enumeration methodology.

Source: Census Caste Enumeration: 46.7 Lakh Names from 2011 SECC, Govt Weighs Open-Ended vs Drop-Down Options →
Q170.

Consider the following statements regarding the 2011 Socio Economic and Caste Census (SECC):

1. The 2011 SECC recorded over 46 lakh distinct caste names.

2. The raw caste data from the 2011 SECC was officially published by the government.

3. The last comprehensive caste census in India before 2011 was conducted in 1931.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says nearly 46.7 lakh distinct caste names were recorded. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Union government withheld the raw caste data. Statement 3 is correct: the article states the last comprehensive caste census was in 1931.

Source: Census Caste Enumeration: 46.7 Lakh Names from 2011 SECC, Govt Weighs Open-Ended vs Drop-Down Options →
Q171.

How many distinct caste names were recorded in the 2011 Socio Economic and Caste Census (SECC)?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.4,147
  • B.46.7 lakh✓ Correct Answer
  • C.46 lakh
  • D.47.6 lakh
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifies that the final dataset contained nearly 46.7 lakh distinct caste names. Option A (4,147) is the number of castes recorded in the 1931 census, a distractor. Options C and D are close but incorrect figures.

Source: Census Caste Enumeration: 46.7 Lakh Names from 2011 SECC, Govt Weighs Open-Ended vs Drop-Down Options →
Q172.

What is the primary concern of the RSS regarding the drop-down menu approach for caste enumeration in the Census?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It would be too expensive to implement
  • B.It would reinforce the colonial caste architecture✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It would exclude many OBC communities
  • D.It would delay the Census schedule
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the RSS believes a drop-down menu based on existing caste lists would effectively reinforce the caste architecture institutionalised during British rule. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Source: Census Caste Enumeration: 46.7 Lakh Names from 2011 SECC, Govt Weighs Open-Ended vs Drop-Down Options →
Q173.

Which country assumed the ASEAN Chairmanship for 2026?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.India
  • B.Philippines✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Indonesia
  • D.Vietnam
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Philippines assumed the ASEAN Chairship for 2026 under the theme 'Navigating Our Future, Together'. ASEAN chairmanship rotates annually among member states, and for 2026 it is the Philippines.

Source: Quad FMs Meet in Manila: ASEAN-India Year of Maritime Cooperation, Indo-Pacific Surveillance & Energy Initiatives →
Q174.

Consider the following statements regarding the Quad meeting in Manila:

1. The Quad Foreign Ministers' meeting was held on the sidelines of ASEAN-related summits.

2. The Quad launched the Indo-Pacific Maritime Surveillance Corporation to expand maritime domain awareness in the Atlantic Ocean.

3. 2026 has been designated as the ASEAN-India Year of Maritime Cooperation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Quad FMs met on the margins of ASEAN-related meetings. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Maritime Surveillance Corporation focuses on the Indo-Pacific, not the Atlantic Ocean. Statement 3 is correct: 2026 is the ASEAN-India Year of Maritime Cooperation. Hence option C is correct.

Source: Quad FMs Meet in Manila: ASEAN-India Year of Maritime Cooperation, Indo-Pacific Surveillance & Energy Initiatives →
Q175.

In which month and year did the previous Quad Foreign Ministers' meeting take place in Delhi?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.May 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • B.July 2026
  • C.May 2025
  • D.July 2025
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions that in May this year (2026), the Quad Foreign Ministers met in Delhi and decided to launch the Indo-Pacific Maritime Surveillance Corporation and other initiatives.

Source: Quad FMs Meet in Manila: ASEAN-India Year of Maritime Cooperation, Indo-Pacific Surveillance & Energy Initiatives →
Q176.

What is the primary objective of the 'Indo-Pacific Maritime Surveillance Corporation' launched by the Quad?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To enhance maritime trade routes in the Atlantic Ocean
  • B.To expand maritime domain awareness and enhance port infrastructure in Fiji✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To establish a joint military command in the South China Sea
  • D.To promote tourism in the Indo-Pacific region
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Quad decided to launch the Indo-Pacific Maritime Surveillance Corporation, expanding maritime domain awareness and enhancing port infrastructure in Fiji. This is a strategic move to counter China's influence in the region.

Source: Quad FMs Meet in Manila: ASEAN-India Year of Maritime Cooperation, Indo-Pacific Surveillance & Energy Initiatives →
Q177.

Which institution led the research on Low Frequency Ultrasound for oral cancer treatment?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Madras
  • B.Indian Institute of Science (IISc) Bengaluru✓ Correct Answer
  • C.All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) Delhi
  • D.Tata Memorial Hospital Mumbai
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The research was conducted by IISc Bengaluru in collaboration with MS Ramaiah Medical College, as clearly stated in the article.

Source: IISc Develops Low-Frequency Ultrasound Method to Treat Oral Cancer, Targets 50% Survival Rate →
Q178.

Consider the following statements regarding the IISc study on oral cancer:

1. The study used a 3D co-culture platform to mimic the tumour environment.

2. Low Frequency Ultrasound (LFU) generates heat to burn cancer cells, similar to HIFU.

3. The protein Tropomyosin 2.1 is found at lower levels in cancer cells, making them vulnerable to LFU.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the study used a 3D co-culture platform. Statement 2 is incorrect: LFU does not generate heat; HIFU does. Statement 3 is correct: lower Tropomyosin 2.1 levels cause vulnerability to mechanical forces.

Source: IISc Develops Low-Frequency Ultrasound Method to Treat Oral Cancer, Targets 50% Survival Rate →
Q179.

According to the article, what is the five-year survival rate for oral cancer in India?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.50%✓ Correct Answer
  • B.60%
  • C.68%
  • D.75%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

A 2024 study in Oral Oncology stated that Indians have a five-year survival rate of 50%, compared to 68% in developed nations.

Source: IISc Develops Low-Frequency Ultrasound Method to Treat Oral Cancer, Targets 50% Survival Rate →
Q180.

What is the primary advantage of Low Frequency Ultrasound (LFU) over High Intensity Focused Ultrasound (HIFU) in cancer treatment?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.LFU generates more heat for better cell destruction
  • B.LFU is non-invasive and does not burn cells, reducing side effects✓ Correct Answer
  • C.LFU has higher penetration depth than any other ultrasound
  • D.LFU can target deep-seated tumours like liver cancer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states HIFU generates heat to ‘burn’ cells with side effects, while LFU uses mechanostimulation without heat, making it a safer alternative for superficial cancers.

Source: IISc Develops Low-Frequency Ultrasound Method to Treat Oral Cancer, Targets 50% Survival Rate →
Q181.

Which department is primarily responsible for implementing the Punyashlok Ahilyadevi Holkar Farm Loan Waiver Scheme in Maharashtra?

EasyUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
  • B.Cooperation Department (Maharashtra)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Finance
  • D.NITI Aayog
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions that a senior Cooperation Department official provided details about the scheme. The Cooperation Department is the nodal department for implementing this state-level farm loan waiver in Maharashtra.

Source: Maharashtra Govt Tightens Screening with I-T Verification for ₹36,585 Cr Farm Loan Waiver Scheme →
Q182.

Consider the following statements regarding the Punyashlok Ahilyadevi Holkar Farm Loan Waiver Scheme:

1. The scheme waives crop loans of up to Rs 2 lakh per farmer.

2. The verification process includes checking with Income Tax records to exclude income tax payers.

3. The scheme was approved by the state Cabinet on July 5, 2026.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the scheme waives crop loans up to Rs 2 lakh. Statement 2 is correct: the government shared the list of probable beneficiaries with the Income Tax department to exclude income tax payers. Statement 3 is incorrect: the scheme was approved by the state Cabinet on June 2, 2026, not July 5.

Source: Maharashtra Govt Tightens Screening with I-T Verification for ₹36,585 Cr Farm Loan Waiver Scheme →
Q183.

What is the total estimated cost of the Punyashlok Ahilyadevi Holkar Farm Loan Waiver Scheme for the Maharashtra government?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.₹20,000 crore
  • B.₹36,585 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹56,000 crore
  • D.₹2 lakh crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the government has estimated around 56 lakh farmers will benefit at a cost of Rs 36,585 crore. ₹20,000 crore is the amount provided through supplementary demands, not the total scheme cost.

Source: Maharashtra Govt Tightens Screening with I-T Verification for ₹36,585 Cr Farm Loan Waiver Scheme →
Q184.

Why did the Maharashtra government introduce an additional round of eligibility checks, including Income Tax verification, for the farm loan waiver scheme?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.To increase the number of beneficiaries under the scheme
  • B.To reduce the fiscal burden by excluding income tax payers
  • C.To avoid a repeat of the eligibility controversy seen in the Ladki Bahin scheme✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To comply with a Supreme Court directive on welfare schemes
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the government is determined to avoid a repeat of the Mukhyamantri Majhi Ladki Bahin Yojana controversy, where benefits were disbursed before large-scale eligibility verification, leading to removal of lakhs of ineligible beneficiaries.

Source: Maharashtra Govt Tightens Screening with I-T Verification for ₹36,585 Cr Farm Loan Waiver Scheme →
Q185.

Which country is currently serving as the Country Coordinator for India-ASEAN relations, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Indonesia
  • B.Philippines✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Vietnam
  • D.Singapore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Philippines is the country coordinator in further strengthening the India-ASEAN Comprehensive Strategic Partnership. The conference was co-chaired by EAM Jaishankar and Philippine Foreign Secretary Enrique A. Manalo.

Source: EAM Jaishankar at ASEAN PMC: Calls for Deeper India-ASEAN Ties Amid Global Turbulence →
Q186.

Consider the following statements regarding the India-ASEAN meeting:

1. EAM Jaishankar described the world as 'extremely turbulent' and said no single nation can deal with it alone.

2. The theme of the ASEAN-India Post-Ministerial Conference 2026 was 'Strengthening Strategic Partnership'.

3. 2026 has been designated as the ASEAN-India Year of Maritime Cooperation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Jaishankar said the world is 'extremely turbulent' and no single nation or grouping can handle it alone. Statement 2 is incorrect: the theme was 'Navigating Our Future Together', not 'Strengthening Strategic Partnership'. Statement 3 is correct: 2026 is the ASEAN-India Year of Maritime Cooperation.

Source: EAM Jaishankar at ASEAN PMC: Calls for Deeper India-ASEAN Ties Amid Global Turbulence →
Q187.

What is the combined population of India and ASEAN countries as mentioned by EAM Jaishankar?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.1.5 billion
  • B.2 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • C.2.5 billion
  • D.3 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Jaishankar stated that India and ASEAN together account for 2 billion people. This demographic heft underscores the strategic importance of the partnership for regional stability and economic growth.

Source: EAM Jaishankar at ASEAN PMC: Calls for Deeper India-ASEAN Ties Amid Global Turbulence →
Q188.

What is the primary strategic rationale behind EAM Jaishankar's call for deeper India-ASEAN cooperation, as highlighted in the news?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To counter China's military presence in the South China Sea
  • B.To de-risk and diversify supply chains amid global volatility✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To establish a free trade agreement with all ASEAN members
  • D.To increase India's soft power through cultural exchanges
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Jaishankar explicitly stated that 'it is only through deeper cooperation that we can de-risk and diversify.' He linked this to visible stress on supply chains, energy, food, and health security, making supply chain resilience the core strategic rationale.

Source: EAM Jaishankar at ASEAN PMC: Calls for Deeper India-ASEAN Ties Amid Global Turbulence →
Q189.

Which ministry is responsible for conducting the All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE)?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • B.Ministry of Education✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Finance
  • D.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

AISHE is an annual survey conducted by the Ministry of Education to collect data on higher education institutions and enrolment across India. The Ministry of Education replaced the earlier MHRD in 2020 and oversees both school and higher education.

Source: First-Time Decline in UG Enrolments: AISHE Shows Male Drop 2.2%, States Like UP, WB Worst Hit →
Q190.

Consider the following statements regarding the AISHE reports for 2022-23 and 2023-24:

1. For the first time, total undergraduate enrolments in India declined.

2. Female enrolment declined by 2.2% during this period.

3. West Bengal, Maharashtra, and Uttar Pradesh were among the worst affected states.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states 'inexplicable decline in the total number of students enrolled in undergraduate courses across the country' for the first time. Statement 2 is incorrect because male enrolment declined by 2.2% while female enrolment increased by 1.8%. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions 'particularly in States such as West Bengal, Maharashtra and U.P.' Hence option C is correct.

Source: First-Time Decline in UG Enrolments: AISHE Shows Male Drop 2.2%, States Like UP, WB Worst Hit →
Q191.

According to the AISHE reports, what was the percentage decline in male undergraduate enrolment between 2022-23 and 2023-24?

EasyUPSC, Banking
  • A.1.8%
  • B.2.2%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.2.5%
  • D.3.0%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that 'The enrolment of male students dropped by 2.2% between 2022-23 and 2023-24'. The 1.8% figure corresponds to the increase in female enrolment, while the other percentages are distractors not mentioned in the news.

Source: First-Time Decline in UG Enrolments: AISHE Shows Male Drop 2.2%, States Like UP, WB Worst Hit →
Q192.

What is the most likely implication of the first-ever decline in undergraduate enrolments in India?

MediumUPSC, Teaching
  • A.Improved access to primary education leading to better school outcomes
  • B.Potential economic and policy challenges in achieving higher education targets like GER of 50% by 2035✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Increase in the number of institutions offering undergraduate courses
  • D.Migration of students from India to foreign universities due to better opportunities
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The decline in enrolments raises concerns about the NEP 2020's goal of achieving a 50% Gross Enrolment Ratio in higher education by 2035. It suggests that factors such as economic pressures or lack of employability may be deterring students. The other options are speculative or not directly supported by the news article.

Source: First-Time Decline in UG Enrolments: AISHE Shows Male Drop 2.2%, States Like UP, WB Worst Hit →

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Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?

For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.

  • Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
  • Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
  • Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.

Frequently Asked Questions

What are the important current affairs questions for 22 July 2026?▼

This page contains 192 current affairs questions from 22 July 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.

How to use 22 July 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼

Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.

How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼

Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.

Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼

Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.

What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼

Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.

All Questions in This Set

  1. Q1. ministry of the Government of India is primarily responsible f…
  2. Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the India-U.K. CET…
  3. Q3. According to the article, what is the bilateral trade target s…
  4. Q4. is the primary objective of the India-U.K. CETA as described i…
  5. Q5. constitutional body is primarily responsible for conducting th…
  6. Q6. Consider the following statements: 1. The Supreme Court reite…
  7. Q7. According to the article, how many appeals have been filed aga…
  8. Q8. is the primary purpose of the Special Intensive Revision (SIR)…
  9. Q9. US government body is responsible for reviewing and approving …
  10. Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the US-Saudi nucle…
  11. Q11. According to the article, what is the duration of the US-Saudi…
  12. Q12. is the primary concern of lawmakers who are expected to oppose…
  13. Q13. article of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to be …
  14. Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
  15. Q15. many people were killed in the 1996 Samleti bus bomb blast in …
  16. Q16. was the primary constitutional violation that led the Supreme …
  17. Q17. organization provided most of the infrastructure used to desig…
  18. Q18. Consider the following statements: 1. Skyroot Aerospace's Vik…
  19. Q19. is the current estimated value of India's space sector, accord…
  20. Q20. is the primary strategic advantage of shifting commercial sate…
  21. Q21. ministry is primarily responsible for formulating the proposed…
  22. Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the proposed AI la…
  23. Q23. two regulatory bodies is the IT Ministry expected to consult f…
  24. Q24. is the primary regulatory gap that the proposed consent-based …
  25. Q25. US entity is responsible for approving civilian nuclear cooper…
  26. Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the US-Saudi nucle…
  27. Q27. is the duration of the nuclear agreement approved by President…
  28. Q28. is the primary non-proliferation concern associated with the U…
  29. Q29. constitutional body is responsible for conducting the Civil Se…
  30. Q30. Consider the following statements regarding recent UPSC reform…
  31. Q31. According to the news report, how many ineligible applications…
  32. Q32. is the primary objective of the One-Time Registration (OTR) po…
  33. Q33. ministry issued the Environmental Clearance stipulation for th…
  34. Q34. Consider the following statements: 1. The Ken-Betwa Link Proj…
  35. Q35. According to the article, what is the estimated number of affe…
  36. Q36. is the primary objective of the Ken-Betwa Link Project?
  37. Q37. of the following bodies is responsible for promoting pharmaceu…
  38. Q38. Consider the following statements: 1. India currently imposes…
  39. Q39. According to the article, what was the total value of India's …
  40. Q40. is the primary stated objective of the US President's decision…
  41. Q41. of the following terms best describes drugs that are bioequiva…
  42. Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the US tariff plan…
  43. Q43. was the total value of India's pharmaceutical exports to the U…
  44. Q44. Why might the direct impact of the US tariff on Indian pharmac…
  45. Q45. of the following statutory bodies is/are proposed to be replac…
  46. Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the Viksit Bharat …
  47. Q47. many councils are proposed to operate under the Viksit Bharat …
  48. Q48. was the primary concern raised by the opposition regarding the…
  49. Q49. US department is primarily represented by the Secretary of Sta…
  50. Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the India-US meeti…
  51. Q51. According to the US President's announcement, after August 202…
  52. Q52. is the primary objective of the 'interim trade deal' being fin…
  53. Q53. Before which committee of the US Congress did Defence Secretar…
  54. Q54. Consider the following statements: 1. U.S. Defence Secretary …
  55. Q55. was the estimated cost of the Iran war according to U.S. Defen…
  56. Q56. Why did U.S. Defence Secretary Pete Hegseth argue that the $75…
  57. Q57. regulatory body is primarily responsible for implementing the …
  58. Q58. Consider the following statements: 1. Industrially produced t…
  59. Q59. According to the article, how many food business operators and…
  60. Q60. is the primary public health rationale behind the RUCO (Repurp…
  61. Q61. committee under the Union Environment Ministry grants in-princ…
  62. Q62. Consider the following statements: 1. White-bellied heron is …
  63. Q63. is the installed capacity of the proposed hydroelectric projec…
  64. Q64. is the primary reason for the likely local extinction of white…
  65. Q65. regulatory body approved India's first dengue vaccine Qdenga?
  66. Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the Principal Purp…
  67. Q67. is the total budget allocated for the Global Chemicals Monitor…
  68. Q68. is the primary objective of including the Principal Purpose Te…
  69. Q69. French institution is responsible for reviewing the constituti…
  70. Q70. Consider the following statements: 1. The French law bans soc…
  71. Q71. From which date will new social media accounts be banned for u…
  72. Q72. is the primary objective of France's social media ban for unde…
  73. Q73. Iran's Pickaxe Mountain nuclear site is located adjacent to wh…
  74. Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the Pickaxe Mounta…
  75. Q75. According to the article, what is the size of the Pickaxe Moun…
  76. Q76. is the primary risk if the Pickaxe Mountain nuclear site is bo…
  77. Q77. international law principle was cited by the US to oppose Iran…
  78. Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the ASEAN meeting …
  79. Q79. On which date did the ASEAN Foreign Ministers meeting begin in…
  80. Q80. Why did Rubio link Iran's Strait of Hormuz demands to the Indo…
  81. Q81. High Court recently passed a resolution recommending enhanceme…
  82. Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
  83. Q83. is the effective date from which the interim increase in retir…
  84. Q84. Why did the Supreme Court issue an interim direction instead o…
  85. Q85. of the following countries is NOT a member of the Quadrilatera…
  86. Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the recent India-C…
  87. Q87. many Indian seafarers were killed in a Russian projectile stri…
  88. Q88. is the primary significance of the Quad Foreign Ministers' rea…
  89. Q89. ministry is primarily responsible for the UDISE+ database ment…
  90. Q90. Consider the following statements: 1. The percentage of women…
  91. Q91. is the gender gap in higher secondary Gross Enrolment Ratio (G…
  92. Q92. According to the article, what is a likely reason for declinin…
  93. Q93. organisation is responsible for implementing the Mumbai-Ahmeda…
  94. Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the Mumbai-Ahmedab…
  95. Q95. is the total number of traction substations being built along …
  96. Q96. is the primary purpose of installing seismometers along the bu…
  97. Q97. public sector undertaking is constructing the 500 MW Teesta St…
  98. Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the NHPC tunnel di…
  99. Q99. was the approximate coal reserve identified by GSI in southern…
  100. Q100. is the primary reason why standard pre-construction surveys fa…
  101. Q101. Indian ministry provided the data on outbound investment from …
  102. Q102. Consider the following statements: 1. Trump threatened to imp…
  103. Q103. was the value of India's pharmaceutical exports to the US in 2…
  104. Q104. is the primary objective of Trump's tariff threat on generic d…
  105. Q105. implementing agency is responsible for the Mumbai-Ahmedabad Hi…
  106. Q106. Consider the following statements regarding the Mumbai-Ahmedab…
  107. Q107. many traction substations are being constructed along the Mumb…
  108. Q108. Why is the 2x25 kV Overhead Traction System being introduced f…
  109. Q109. Supreme Court case is cited as the foundational precedent on c…
  110. Q110. Consider the following statements: 1. The Gujarat HC took suo…
  111. Q111. many police personnel were allegedly accompanying DCP Rajdeeps…
  112. Q112. is the primary constitutional violation alleged in the represe…
  113. Q113. U.S. space agency is responsible for the Artemis program menti…
  114. Q114. Consider the following statements regarding the Artemis III mi…
  115. Q115. According to the article, how many Starship refuelling launche…
  116. Q116. is the primary objective of the Artemis III mission as describ…
  117. Q117. ministry released the National Policy on Geothermal Energy 2025?
  118. Q118. Consider the following statements regarding the geothermal wel…
  119. Q119. is the estimated geothermal energy potential of India accordin…
  120. Q120. is the primary advantage of geothermal energy over solar and w…
  121. Q121. The recent meeting between India and China's Foreign Ministers…
  122. Q122. Consider the following statements regarding the India-China me…
  123. Q123. was the value of bilateral trade between India and China in 20…
  124. Q124. According to the article, what does India consider as the prer…
  125. Q125. of the following is NOT a member of the Quad (Quadrilateral Se…
  126. Q126. Consider the following statements regarding the Quad Foreign M…
  127. Q127. foreign minister represented India at the Quad Foreign Ministe…
  128. Q128. is the primary strategic objective of the Quad's emphasis on '…
  129. Q129. body conducts the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electora…
  130. Q130. Consider the following statements regarding the Special Intens…
  131. Q131. many voters were excluded from the voter list in West Bengal d…
  132. Q132. is the primary purpose of the Special Intensive Revision (SIR)…
  133. Q133. international legal instrument prohibits permanent structural …
  134. Q134. Consider the following statements regarding the Israel earthen…
  135. Q135. According to the article, what is the planned length of the Is…
  136. Q136. is the primary legal concern raised by the construction of the…
  137. Q137. strait connects the Red Sea to the Gulf of Aden, as mentioned …
  138. Q138. Consider the following statements: 1. The Houthis have contro…
  139. Q139. According to the article, what percentage of global trade pass…
  140. Q140. Why does the Houthi blockade threat matter for India, accordin…
  141. Q141. strategic strait is controlled by the Houthi militia in Yemen,…
  142. Q142. Consider the following statements regarding the Houthi blockad…
  143. Q143. many barrels of Saudi crude was the tanker 'Rodos' carrying wh…
  144. Q144. is the most significant consequence of the Houthi blockade men…
  145. Q145. strait is located between Yemen and Djibouti/Eritrea, connecti…
  146. Q146. Consider the following statements regarding the Houthi naval b…
  147. Q147. According to the article, how many billion barrels of crude oi…
  148. Q148. is the primary objective of the Houthi maritime embargo announ…
  149. Q149. US legal provision is being used by the Trump administration t…
  150. Q150. Consider the following statements regarding the US tariff acti…
  151. Q151. is the tariff rate imposed on India under the new US forced la…
  152. Q152. is the primary strategic objective behind the US using Section…
  153. Q153. ministry is primarily responsible for the implementation of th…
  154. Q154. Consider the following statements: 1. The Mukhyamantri Ayushm…
  155. Q155. According to the news, how many claims have been submitted und…
  156. Q156. is the primary objective of the outbound portability of the MA…
  157. Q157. government body manages the NGO Darpan portal mentioned in the…
  158. Q158. Consider the following statements: 1. The article states that…
  159. Q159. According to the Bain–Dasra India Philanthropy Report 2026, wh…
  160. Q160. is the primary objective of building an 'Atmanirbhar philanthr…
  161. Q161. Under which section of the Motor Vehicles Act has the National…
  162. Q162. Consider the following statements regarding the National Road …
  163. Q163. According to the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways repor…
  164. Q164. is the primary limitation of the National Road Safety Board as…
  165. Q165. provision of US trade law is being used to investigate forced …
  166. Q166. Consider the following statements regarding India's trade with…
  167. Q167. According to the article, what was India's overall trade defic…
  168. Q168. is the primary objective of the US's forced labour investigati…
  169. Q169. body is responsible for conducting the national Census in India?
  170. Q170. Consider the following statements regarding the 2011 Socio Eco…
  171. Q171. many distinct caste names were recorded in the 2011 Socio Econ…
  172. Q172. is the primary concern of the RSS regarding the drop-down menu…
  173. Q173. country assumed the ASEAN Chairmanship for 2026?
  174. Q174. Consider the following statements regarding the Quad meeting i…
  175. Q175. In which month and year did the previous Quad Foreign Minister…
  176. Q176. is the primary objective of the 'Indo-Pacific Maritime Surveil…
  177. Q177. institution led the research on Low Frequency Ultrasound for o…
  178. Q178. Consider the following statements regarding the IISc study on …
  179. Q179. According to the article, what is the five-year survival rate …
  180. Q180. is the primary advantage of Low Frequency Ultrasound (LFU) ove…
  181. Q181. department is primarily responsible for implementing the Punya…
  182. Q182. Consider the following statements regarding the Punyashlok Ahi…
  183. Q183. is the total estimated cost of the Punyashlok Ahilyadevi Holka…
  184. Q184. Why did the Maharashtra government introduce an additional rou…
  185. Q185. country is currently serving as the Country Coordinator for In…
  186. Q186. Consider the following statements regarding the India-ASEAN me…
  187. Q187. is the combined population of India and ASEAN countries as men…
  188. Q188. is the primary strategic rationale behind EAM Jaishankar's cal…
  189. Q189. ministry is responsible for conducting the All India Survey on…
  190. Q190. Consider the following statements regarding the AISHE reports …
  191. Q191. According to the AISHE reports, what was the percentage declin…
  192. Q192. is the most likely implication of the first-ever decline in un…