23 July 2026, Questions & Answers
104 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
104 questions · 0 topics covered · 21 min revision
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This page contains 104 current affairs questions with answers from 23 July 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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104 QsWhich organization developed the 'Kusha' Long-Range Surface-to-Air Missile (SAM) that was successfully flight-tested in July 2026?
- A.Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
- B.Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL)
- D.Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)
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Explanation
DRDO is the premier defence R&D agency under the Ministry of Defence responsible for developing indigenous weapon systems like the Kusha SAM. ISRO focuses on space, while BEL and HAL are PSUs that manufacture defence equipment under DRDO's design.
Consider the following statements regarding the 'Kusha' missile test:
1. The maiden flight test was conducted from the APJ Abdul Kalam Island off the coast of Odisha.
2. Kusha is a short-range surface-to-air missile with a range of less than 100 km.
3. The test successfully intercepted an electronic target simulating a high-speed, high-altitude aerial threat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the test was held at APJ Abdul Kalam Island, Odisha. Statement 2 is incorrect: Kusha is a long-range SAM with a range >200 km, not short-range. Statement 3 is correct: the test was against an electronic target simulating a high-speed, high-altitude threat. Hence option C is correct.
What is the approximate range of the 'Kusha' Long-Range Surface-to-Air Missile?
- A.Less than 100 km
- B.Over 200 km✓ Correct Answer
- C.Over 400 km
- D.Over 500 km
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Explanation
The article states that a long-range SAM typically has a range of over 200 km, and Kusha is a long-range SAM. The S-400 Triumf has a range of up to 400 km, but Kusha's exact range is not specified, only that it is a long-range system (>200 km). Options C and D are distractors for the S-400.
What is the primary strategic objective behind developing the indigenous 'Kusha' Long-Range SAM system?
- A.To increase India's satellite launch capabilities
- B.To protect strategic assets from aerial threats and reduce import dependency✓ Correct Answer
- C.To replace the Akash missile system with a shorter-range alternative
- D.To develop a hypersonic cruise missile for offensive operations
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Explanation
The article highlights that Kusha is designed to protect strategic military and civilian assets from a range of aerial threats, and Defence Minister Rajnath Singh stated it will eliminate India's import dependency for such systems. Option A is unrelated to SAM, C is incorrect as Akash is a medium-range SAM, and D is about offensive missiles, not defensive.
Which U.S. department signed the civilian nuclear deal with Saudi Arabia?
- A.State Department
- B.Energy Department✓ Correct Answer
- C.Defense Department
- D.Commerce Department
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Explanation
The article states that the deals were signed by U.S. Energy Secretary Chris Wright and his Saudi counterpart. The Energy Department is responsible for civilian nuclear energy agreements and nonproliferation.
Consider the following statements regarding the US-Saudi civilian nuclear deal:
1. The deal includes a provision for a uranium enrichment facility in Saudi Arabia.
2. The Houthi rebels have formally opposed the deal.
3. The deal has been submitted to the U.S. Congress for review.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Wall Street Journal reported a provision for uranium enrichment. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Houthis threatened to blockade Saudi ports but did not oppose the deal itself. Statement 3 is correct: The Energy Department confirmed the deal will be submitted to Congress for review.
In which year did the United States sign a nuclear agreement with the United Arab Emirates, as mentioned in the article?
- A.2005
- B.2009✓ Correct Answer
- C.2012
- D.2015
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'The United States signed a nuclear agreement with the kingdom's neighbour the United Arab Emirates in 2009.' The UAE does not enrich its own uranium.
What is the primary concern of opponents of the Saudi civilian nuclear deal?
- A.High cost of nuclear energy
- B.Environmental impact of nuclear waste
- C.Risk of proliferation to nuclear weapons✓ Correct Answer
- D.Impact on oil exports
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Explanation
The article states that U.S. lawmakers and Israeli officials opposed the deal over fears it could be converted to eventually develop nuclear weapons. The enrichment provision is a key proliferation concern.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for administering the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA) in India?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of External Affairs
- D.Ministry of Law and Justice
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Explanation
The FCRA is administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), Government of India. The MHA handles the registration, renewal, suspension, and cancellation of FCRA licenses for NGOs and associations receiving foreign contributions.
Consider the following statements regarding the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2026:
1. The Bill proposes the appointment of a 'designated authority' to take over, manage, or dispose of assets created from foreign funds when an NGO's FCRA registration is suspended, cancelled, or not renewed.
2. The designated authority will have the powers of a criminal court and its orders are final and not subject to any appeal.
3. The PIB has clarified that the religious character of places of worship will be retained by law in all cases under the Bill.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the Bill provides for a designated authority to take over, manage, or dispose of assets. Statement 2 is incorrect because the authority has powers of a civil court, not a criminal court, and its orders are subject to revision and appeal before the District Judge. Statement 3 is correct as the PIB clarified that the religious character of places of worship will be retained by law in all cases.
According to the PIB's backgrounder on FCRA, approximately how many associations were actively registered and received foreign contributions in 2024-25?
- A.Approx. 10,200 associations; ₹15,000 crore
- B.Approx. 16,200 associations; ₹22,963 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.Approx. 20,000 associations; ₹30,000 crore
- D.Approx. 12,500 associations; ₹18,500 crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that in 2024-25, approximately 16,200 associations were actively registered and received around ₹22,963 crore in foreign contribution. This data point was used by the PIB to counter the perception of a prohibition.
What is the primary objective of the 'designated authority' proposed under the FCRA Amendment Bill, 2026?
- A.To permanently confiscate all assets of NGOs whose FCRA registration is cancelled
- B.To manage assets created from foreign contributions only when an NGO's registration has lawfully ceased, with provisional vesting and full restoration on renewal✓ Correct Answer
- C.To investigate all NGOs receiving foreign funds for potential anti-national activities
- D.To replace the existing FCRA registration process with a new licensing system
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Explanation
The PIB clarified that the designated authority manages only assets created from foreign contributions, and only once an organisation's registration has lawfully ceased. Vesting is initially provisional, with full restoration if registration is renewed. This is a regulatory measure, not a punitive confiscation.
Which country hosts the Information Fusion Centre–Indian Ocean Region (IFC-IOR) mentioned in the article?
- A.France
- B.Japan
- C.India✓ Correct Answer
- D.United States
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Explanation
The article states that the Information Fusion Centre–Indian Ocean Region is hosted by India. It provides maritime domain awareness for the proposed task force.
Consider the following statements regarding the 2024 Houthi attacks in the Red Sea:
1. The Houthis targeted vessels claiming they were linked to or bound for Israel.
2. Operation Prosperity Guardian was launched by the United States alone without any allies.
3. The Indian Navy rescued the crew of a British tanker after it was set on fire.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the article says Houthis claimed vessels were linked to or bound for Israel. Statement 2 is incorrect: the US launched Operation Prosperity Guardian together with allies including Singapore and Sri Lanka. Statement 3 is correct: the Indian Navy rescued the crew of a British tanker on January 26-27, 2024. Hence option C is correct.
How many ships avoided the Suez Canal and sailed around the Cape of Good Hope between November 2023 and March 2024 due to Houthi attacks?
- A.1,000
- B.1,500
- C.2,000✓ Correct Answer
- D.2,500
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that between November 2023 and March 2024, at least 2,000 ships avoided the Suez Canal and instead sailed around the Cape of Good Hope.
What is the primary risk to India if the Houthis resume attacks on shipping in the Strait of Bab el-Mandeb?
- A.Loss of revenue from the Suez Canal
- B.Disruption of one-third of India's trade✓ Correct Answer
- C.Bankruptcy of Israel's Eilat port
- D.Increase in marine insurance premiums
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Explanation
The article highlights that the Strait carries one-third of India's entire trade. A new crisis would have a dire impact on India's economy, which is already reeling from the Strait of Hormuz crisis. While other options are consequences mentioned, the primary risk to India is the disruption of its trade.
What is the primary demand of the 'Rome Declaration for an Unarmed and Disarming Peace' regarding artificial intelligence?
- A.A ban on all development of AI for military purposes
- B.An international treaty banning autonomous systems from accessing nuclear launches✓ Correct Answer
- C.A global framework for ethical AI development only in commercial sectors
- D.A moratorium on AI research until ethical guidelines are established
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Explanation
The declaration explicitly calls for an international treaty to ban autonomous systems from accessing nuclear launches, emphasizing that AI should not have the final decision on nuclear weapon use. Other options are broader or different in scope.
Consider the following statements regarding the Rome Declaration:
1. The Declaration was inspired by Pope Leo XIV's encyclical 'Magnifica Humanitas'.
2. The Declaration calls for a ban on all forms of artificial intelligence in military operations.
3. The Declaration includes a principle of 'Mandatory meaningful human control' over nuclear weapons.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the declaration was inspired by Pope Leo XIV's encyclical 'Magnifica Humanitas'. Statement 2 is incorrect: the declaration does not call for a ban on all AI in military operations, but specifically on autonomous systems accessing nuclear launches. Statement 3 is correct: the declaration puts forth 'Mandatory meaningful human control' as a key ethical and operational principle.
Which global policy think-tank's study from 2025 is referenced in the article regarding AI's potential to pose an existential threat?
- A.RAND Corporation✓ Correct Answer
- B.Brookings Institution
- C.Chatham House
- D.International Institute for Strategic Studies (IISS)
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Explanation
The article specifically mentions that 'one study from the Rand Corporation, a global policy think-tank, argued that such risks could not be ruled out' and identified four capabilities AI would need to pose an existential threat.
What is the primary security risk of integrating AI into nuclear command-and-control systems, as highlighted by the Rome Declaration?
- A.AI could make nuclear weapons more accurate and powerful
- B.AI could compress decision-making windows, eliminating human hesitation and moral pause✓ Correct Answer
- C.AI could lead to the proliferation of nuclear technology to non-state actors
- D.AI could increase the cost of maintaining nuclear arsenals
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that AI-driven systems operate at speeds that compress decision windows from hours to seconds, and could eliminate the 'safety valve' of human doubt and hesitation. Historical examples show that human moral choice averted disaster during the Cuban Missile Crisis and the 1983 Soviet false alarm incident.
Which US legal provision governs nuclear cooperation agreements with other countries, as mentioned in the US-Saudi nuclear deal?
- A.Section 123 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954✓ Correct Answer
- B.Nuclear Nonproliferation Act of 1978
- C.Hyde Act of 2006
- D.Energy Policy Act of 2005
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Explanation
The 123 Agreement is named after Section 123 of the US Atomic Energy Act of 1954. It is a legally binding agreement required for the US to engage in significant nuclear cooperation with another country. The article explicitly mentions that the deal is a 123 Agreement and that India is also a signatory.
Consider the following statements regarding the US-Saudi nuclear deal:
1. The deal allows Saudi Arabia to enrich uranium on its soil.
2. The deal has already been ratified by the US Congress.
3. The deal is a 30-year pact for peaceful nuclear cooperation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: American media reports indicate the deal could allow Saudi Arabia to enrich uranium. Statement 2 is incorrect: the deal requires ratification by the US Congress, which is yet to happen. Statement 3 is correct: the article states it is a 30-year pact. Hence option C is correct.
What is the duration of the US-Saudi nuclear cooperation agreement signed in July 2026?
- A.20 years
- B.30 years✓ Correct Answer
- C.40 years
- D.10 years
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the deal is a '30-year pact'. The other options are distractors; 20 years and 40 years are common durations for other international agreements, but the correct figure is 30 years as per the news.
What is a major proliferation concern raised by the US-Saudi nuclear deal?
- A.Increased oil prices in global markets
- B.Potential for Saudi Arabia to develop nuclear weapons, triggering an arms race in West Asia✓ Correct Answer
- C.Loss of US jobs in the energy sector
- D.Violation of the Nuclear Nonproliferation Treaty (NPT)
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Explanation
The article discusses that allowing Saudi uranium enrichment could enable it to build nuclear weapons. This could set off an arms race with Israel (already a nuclear power) and Iran (nearing weapon capability). The other options are not the primary concern raised in the article.
Which US department issued the statement regarding the nuclear deal with Saudi Arabia?
- A.Department of State
- B.Department of Energy✓ Correct Answer
- C.Department of Defense
- D.Department of Commerce
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'The US Department of Energy stated that along with the said deal, a bilateral safeguards agreement was also signed.' Hence the Department of Energy is the nodal body for this announcement.
Consider the following statements regarding the US-Saudi nuclear deal:
1. The nuclear agreement is set to run for 20 years.
2. The deal allows American firms to build a uranium enrichment plant in Saudi Arabia immediately.
3. A bilateral safeguards agreement was signed alongside the nuclear deal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) Both 1 and 3
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: the agreement is for 30 years, not 20. Statement 2 is incorrect: the enrichment plant is conditional upon a joint US-Saudi review concluding it is justified. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions a bilateral safeguards agreement was also signed.
What is the duration of the nuclear agreement signed between the US and Saudi Arabia?
- A.20 years
- B.30 years✓ Correct Answer
- C.40 years
- D.50 years
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Explanation
The Wall Street Journal reported that the nuclear agreement is set to run for 30 years. The other options are distractors; no other duration is mentioned in the article.
What is the primary concern expressed by experts regarding the US-Saudi nuclear deal?
- A.High economic cost for Saudi Arabia
- B.Risk of nuclear proliferation in the Middle East✓ Correct Answer
- C.Environmental impact of uranium mining
- D.Technological dependence on US firms
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Explanation
The article states: 'According to experts, the deal would mark a first for the US and hold the risk of future nuclear proliferation in an already unstable region.' The other options are not mentioned as primary concerns.
Which year was British Steel originally nationalised under Harold Wilson's Labour government?
- A.1967✓ Correct Answer
- B.1988
- C.2025
- D.2026
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Explanation
The article states that the British Steel Corporation was created in 1967 after Harold Wilson's Labour government nationalised 14 of the UK's largest steel producers. 1988 was the year of privatisation, and 2025/2026 relate to recent government interventions.
Consider the following statements:
1. The UK government took full ownership of British Steel in July 2026.
2. The Scunthorpe plant houses electric arc furnaces.
3. OECD projects global steelmaking excess capacity to reach 745 million tonnes by 2028.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the article says the government took full ownership 'last week' from the July 23, 2026 publication date, so July 2026. Statement 2 is false: Scunthorpe has blast furnaces, not electric arc furnaces. Statement 3 is correct: the OECD Steel Outlook 2026 projects excess capacity of 745 million tonnes by 2028.
According to the OECD Steel Outlook 2026, what is the projected excess steelmaking capacity by 2028?
- A.645 million tonnes
- B.745 million tonnes✓ Correct Answer
- C.845 million tonnes
- D.745 billion tonnes
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'excess capacity projected to reach 745 million tonnes by 2028'. The other options are close distractors - 645 and 845 million tonnes are plausible but incorrect, and 745 billion tonnes is a unit error.
What was the primary reason cited by the UK government for taking control of British Steel?
- A.To protect jobs
- B.National security to preserve primary steelmaking capability✓ Correct Answer
- C.To reduce steel prices
- D.To comply with EU regulations
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Explanation
The article mentions that the government cited 'national security considerations' and argued that 'retaining primary steelmaking capacity was a matter of national interest'. While job protection and price reductions may be secondary, the core justification was strategic national security.
Which US government agency announced the tariff on Indian goods under Section 301 of the Trade Act of 1974?
- A.World Trade Organization (WTO)
- B.Office of the US Trade Representative (USTR)✓ Correct Answer
- C.US Department of Commerce
- D.US International Trade Commission
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Explanation
The USTR is the agency responsible for US trade policy and negotiations. It announced the tariffs on 60 economies, including India, under Section 301 of the Trade Act of 1974. The WTO is an international organization, not a US agency.
Consider the following statements regarding the US tariff on Indian goods:
1. The US imposed a 10% tariff on Indian goods under Section 301 of the Trade Act of 1974.
2. India was placed in the higher 12.5% tariff band along with the European Union and Japan.
3. The USTR reviewed over 1,600 written comments before deciding on the tariff rates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The US imposed a 10% tariff on India under Section 301. Statement 2 is incorrect: India was placed in the lower 10% band, not the higher 12.5% band. The higher band includes EU, Taiwan, Japan, South Korea, and Switzerland. Statement 3 is correct as per the article: USTR reviewed over 1,600 written comments before deciding the rates.
What was the initial tariff rate considered for India before constructive talks with Washington led to a lower rate?
- A.10%
- B.12.5%✓ Correct Answer
- C.15%
- D.7.5%
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Explanation
The article states that India was initially considered for a steeper 12.5% rate, but after constructive talks on labour practices, it was placed in the lower 10% tariff category. The other options are distractors: 10% is the final rate, 15% and 7.5% are not mentioned.
Why did the US administration pursue the tariff under Section 301 of the Trade Act of 1974 instead of using emergency powers?
- A.To increase the tariff rate beyond what emergency powers allowed
- B.Because a US Supreme Court ruling earlier in 2026 made many tariffs under emergency powers unlawful✓ Correct Answer
- C.To comply with WTO rules that restrict emergency tariffs
- D.To avoid bilateral negotiations with India
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that the move follows a US Supreme Court ruling earlier in 2026 that many tariffs imposed under emergency powers were unlawful, pushing the administration to pursue other legal routes, including Section 301. Options A and C are not supported by the article; WTO rules are not mentioned in this context. Option D is incorrect as the US did engage in talks with India.
Which ministry was bifurcated into two departments as per the recent gazette notification?
- A.Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- B.Ministry of Urban Development
- C.Ministry of Home Affairs
- D.Ministry of Delhi Affairs
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Explanation
The article states that the government bifurcated the Union Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) into two departments: Department of Capital Development and Department of Urban Development.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Department of Capital Development will look after national schemes like Swachh Bharat Mission and AMRUT.
2. The Department of Urban Development will oversee Delhi Metro Rail Corporation and DDA.
3. The amendment to the Allocation of Business Rules removed the subject of 'stationery and printing' from the Ministry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is false because the Department of Capital Development handles Delhi-specific subjects, not national schemes. Statement 2 is false because the Department of Urban Development handles national schemes, not Delhi-specific bodies like DMRC and DDA. Statement 3 is correct as per the article: the subject of stationery and printing was transferred to the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
According to the news, how many subjects were allotted to the Department of Capital Development?
- A.15
- B.20
- C.25✓ Correct Answer
- D.30
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that the Department of Capital Development will look after 25 subjects allotted to it, including CPWD, DDA, DMRC, and NCRTC.
What is the primary objective of creating the Department of Capital Development for Delhi?
- A.To improve focus and efficiency in Delhi's urban development and central government properties✓ Correct Answer
- B.To merge all national urban schemes under a single department
- C.To reduce the workload of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
- D.To transfer subjects to other ministries for administrative convenience
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Explanation
The article indicates that the new department will handle Delhi-specific subjects (CPWD, DDA, DMRC, etc.), implying a dedicated focus to streamline governance of the national capital's development.
Which public sector undertaking is responsible for the Teesta Stage-VI hydroelectric project mentioned in the news?
- A.NHPC Limited✓ Correct Answer
- B.NTPC Limited
- C.SJVN Limited
- D.THDC India Limited
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Teesta Stage-VI hydroelectric project is under NHPC Limited (formerly National Hydroelectric Power Corporation). NTPC, SJVN, and THDC are other PSUs in the power sector but are not involved in this project.
Consider the following statements regarding the Sikkim tunnel accident:
1. The tunnel accident was caused by a methane gas burst during excavation.
2. The Teesta basin is located in a seismically inactive zone.
3. In 2023, a glacial lake outburst flood destroyed the Teesta-III dam and killed over 100 people.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article says workers struck a pocket of suspected trapped methane. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states the Teesta basin sits in a seismically active zone. Statement 3 is correct: the 2023 glacial lake outburst from South Lhonak lake destroyed Teesta-III dam and killed more than 100 people. Hence option C is correct.
How many workers were killed in the Sikkim tunnel accident according to the article?
- A.10
- B.15✓ Correct Answer
- C.25
- D.41
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Explanation
The article explicitly states 'killing at least 15 of an estimated 25 workers'. Option C (25) is the estimated total workers, not fatalities. Option D (41) refers to the number of workers trapped in the 2023 Uttarakhand tunnel collapse, not this incident.
What is the primary concern raised by the article regarding infrastructure projects in the Himalayan region?
- A.High construction costs leading to project delays
- B.Lack of skilled labour for underground excavation
- C.Inadequate environmental risk assessment and compliance with clearance conditions✓ Correct Answer
- D.Frequent political opposition to hydropower projects
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Explanation
The article questions whether the risk of methane pockets was assessed during planning, whether gas-detection safeguards were in place, and whether environmental clearance conditions were strictly met. While cost overruns are mentioned, the core concern is about safety and regulatory compliance in fragile zones.
Which concept emphasizes a nation's right to govern and regulate digital data collected within its borders, as highlighted in the article regarding India's trade negotiations?
- A.Digital Public Infrastructure
- B.Data Sovereignty✓ Correct Answer
- C.Net Neutrality
- D.Open Source Governance
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions India's need to preserve its 'sovereign ability to govern its data'. Data sovereignty is the concept that digital data is subject to the laws of the country where it is located, contrasting with 'Digital Public Infrastructure' which is about shared systems, 'Net Neutrality' about equal internet access, and 'Open Source' about collaborative software development.
Consider the following statements regarding the India-US trade deal discussed in the article:
1. The article argues that the deal is purely about commercial tariffs and trade volumes.
2. The author warns that commitments in such trade agreements can set geopolitical precedents, not just commercial obligations.
3. The author advises India to focus on tactical, short-term gains in the negotiation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the article argues the deal is about 'far more than trade' and involves strategic confidence. Statement 2 is correct, as the article states 'Trade agreements increasingly establish geopolitical precedents, not merely commercial obligations'. Statement 3 is incorrect, as the author advises India to negotiate with an eye on the 'next decade' and avoid 'tactical expediency'.
According to the article, what is the primary risk of pursuing immediate economic gain or political satisfaction from announcing the India-US trade agreement?
- A.It could lead to a temporary increase in the fiscal deficit.
- B.It could gradually narrow the policy choices available to future governments.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It would immediately increase tariffs on US imports.
- D.It would reduce India's access to US technology markets.
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Explanation
The article explicitly warns that 'The pursuit of immediate economic gain, or the political satisfaction of announcing a successful agreement, could gradually narrow the policy choices available to future governments'. This is the core risk highlighted, not a direct fiscal or tariff impact.
Based on the article's analysis, what should be India's primary objective when negotiating trade agreements with technologically advanced nations?
- A.To secure the lowest possible tariff rates on all imported goods.
- B.To preserve its sovereign ability to govern its data and digital economy.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To increase the volume of merchandise trade as quickly as possible.
- D.To adopt all international standards without any modifications.
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Explanation
The article emphasizes that trade agreements must preserve India's sovereign ability to govern its data, regulate its digital economy, and shape its technological future. This is presented as more important than short-term tariff reductions or trade volume increases, ensuring long-term strategic autonomy.
Which subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India floated the tender for polymer sheets for plastic notes?
- A.BRBNMPL✓ Correct Answer
- B.SPMCIL
- C.TERI
- D.RBI itself
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Explanation
As per the article, the Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran Pvt Ltd (BRBNMPL), a subsidiary of RBI, invited bids for 3.4 crore polymer sheets. SPMCIL is the Security Printing and Minting Corporation, and TERI conducted the life cycle study.
Consider the following statements:
1. Plastic notes were first issued by Australia in 1988.
2. The RBI's 2012 trial of plastic notes was successful and led to full adoption.
3. Plastic notes are more durable than paper notes, lasting 2-6 times longer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Australia first issued plastic banknotes in 1988. Statement 2 is incorrect: the 2012 trial failed due to technical infirmities. Statement 3 is correct: the article states plastic notes last 2-6 times longer than paper notes.
According to the article, how many counterfeit notes were detected in India in 2025-26?
- A.2.17 lakh
- B.2.3 lakh✓ Correct Answer
- C.2.5 lakh
- D.2.1 lakh
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Explanation
The article mentions that the number of counterfeit notes detected in 2025-26 rose to 2.3 lakh pieces, up from 2.17 lakh in 2024-25. The other options are close distractors.
What is the primary environmental benefit of replacing paper notes with plastic notes as highlighted in the article?
- A.Reduced plastic waste generation
- B.Lower carbon footprint due to longer life and recyclability✓ Correct Answer
- C.Use of renewable resources for production
- D.Elimination of counterfeit notes
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Explanation
The article cites a TERI Life Cycle Impact Assessment that concluded replacing cotton-based notes with plastic ones would have significant environmental benefits. Plastic notes last longer, reducing the need for frequent printing and disposal, and can be recycled into other products, thereby lowering the overall carbon footprint.
Which Indian state's Data Centre Policy 2021 offers capital subsidies, 100% stamp duty exemption on land, and a single-window clearance system for large investors?
- A.Tamil Nadu
- B.Uttar Pradesh✓ Correct Answer
- C.Telangana
- D.Karnataka
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Explanation
The article mentions Uttar Pradesh's Data Centre Policy 2021 specifically offering capital subsidies, 100% stamp duty exemption, electricity duty exemption, and single-window clearance. Tamil Nadu provides subsidised land and tax reimbursements, while Telangana allocates land in IT corridors and power subsidies.
Consider the following statements regarding global data centre regulations:
1. New York imposed a permanent ban on new large data centres in July 2026.
2. Singapore enforced an absolute moratorium on new data centre construction between 2019 and 2022, later replaced by a quota system.
3. Ireland's grid operator blocked new data centre connections around Dublin from 2021 to December 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: New York imposed a one-year moratorium, not a permanent ban. Statement 2 is correct: Singapore's moratorium was absolute from 2019-2022, then replaced by a Green Data Centre Roadmap quota system. Statement 3 is correct: Ireland's grid operator blocked connections from 2021, and the freeze ended in December 2025.
According to the article, what is the current size of India's AI data centre market in terms of capacity?
- A.$5.5 billion, 1.6 GW✓ Correct Answer
- B.$90 billion, 12-14 GW
- C.$130 billion, 75 GW
- D.$1.6 billion, 5.5 GW
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Explanation
The article states: 'India's AI data-centre market, currently at $5.5 billion and about 1.6 GW capacity, is set to rise to $90 billion and about 12-14 GW capacity by 2035.' Option B is the projected figure, not current. Option C is the value of US projects blocked. Option D reverses the numbers.
What is the primary environmental risk highlighted in the article regarding India's data centre expansion?
- A.Increased air pollution from diesel generators
- B.Groundwater depletion due to water-intensive cooling✓ Correct Answer
- C.Deforestation for land acquisition
- D.Increased carbon emissions from power consumption
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Explanation
The article specifically highlights India's water stress and the case of Yotta Data Centre in Uttar Pradesh where the groundwater table dropped from 30m to 250m. While other risks like carbon emissions and land use exist, the article emphasizes water depletion as a critical concern, especially given India is the most water-stressed among top 10 hosting countries.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for the scientific mine closure initiative mentioned in the news?
- A.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- B.Ministry of Coal✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Mines
- D.Ministry of Power
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Explanation
The news explicitly states that the Union Coal Minister G. Kishan Reddy announced the allocation. The Ministry of Coal is the nodal ministry for coal mining and related closure activities in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the scientific mine closure initiative:
1. The government has allocated ₹40,000 crore for scientific mine closures.
2. 42 mines were closed in FY 2025-26 alone.
3. India is building an indigenous model combining environmental protection with economic opportunity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the minister announced ₹40,000 crore allocation. Statement 2 is incorrect because 33 mines (not 42) were closed in FY 2025-26; 42 is the total closed so far. Statement 3 is correct as the minister explicitly mentioned building an 'Indian model' combining environmental protection with economic opportunity.
What is the target number of mines to be scientifically closed in the next 2-3 years according to the Coal Ministry?
- A.33 mines
- B.42 mines
- C.147 mines✓ Correct Answer
- D.150 mines
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Explanation
The Coal Ministry has set a target to scientifically close 147 mines in the next 2-3 years. 33 mines were closed in FY 2025-26, and 42 is the total closed so far. 150 is a distractor close to 147.
What is the primary objective of the new 'Indian model' of mine closure as described by the Union Coal Minister?
- A.To maximize coal production before mine closure
- B.To combine environmental protection with economic opportunity and community participation✓ Correct Answer
- C.To privatize all mine closure operations
- D.To reduce the number of coal mines in India
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Explanation
The minister explicitly stated the Indian model combines 'environmental protection with economic opportunity, technology with community participation and global best practices with India's innovation.' This goes beyond just closing mines to creating new opportunities on reclaimed land.
Which type of fast-track courts are these new courts for paper leak cases akin to?
- A.Fast-track courts for sexual offences
- B.MP/MLA fast-track courts✓ Correct Answer
- C.Commercial courts
- D.Family courts
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'These courts will be akin to the MP/MLA fast-track courts.' Hence, option B is correct.
Consider the following statements:
1. PM Modi announced the setting up of fast-track courts for paper leak cases.
2. The announcement was made in response to protests by the Congress party.
3. The opposition demanded the resignation of the Union Education Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the protests were by Cockroach Janta Party (CJP), not Congress. Statement 3 is correct: the opposition demanded resignation of Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan. Hence option C is correct.
On which date did PM Modi announce the decision to set up fast-track courts for paper leak cases?
- A.July 22, 2026
- B.July 23, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.July 24, 2026
- D.July 25, 2026
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Explanation
The article's published date is July 23, 2026, and the PM's post on X is dated that day. The article states 'Prime Minister Narendra Modi said on Thursday (July 23, 2026)'. Hence option B is correct.
What is the primary objective of establishing fast-track courts for paper leak cases?
- A.To reduce the workload of existing courts
- B.To ensure swift and stringent punishment for those involved in paper leaks✓ Correct Answer
- C.To provide a platform for political parties to raise concerns
- D.To expedite the trials of all criminal cases
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Explanation
The article quotes PM Modi saying 'to ensure swift and stringent punishment for those involved in paper leaks'. This is the stated objective. The other options are not mentioned or are broader than the specific purpose.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for the Tobacco Board that participated in the delegation to seek GST reduction on tobacco exports?
- A.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
- B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Finance
- D.Ministry of External Affairs
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Explanation
The Tobacco Board functions under the administrative control of the Department of Commerce, Ministry of Commerce and Industry. This is a static GK fact often tested in exams.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Union Government has positively responded to a proposal to reduce GST on unmanufactured tobacco meant for exports from 40% to 28%.
2. The government has agreed to provide direct price support of ₹20 per kg to tobacco farmers as market intervention.
3. The delegation requested extension of RoDTEP benefits to tobacco products under HSN 2401 series.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the Centre responded positively to the GST cut proposal. Statement 2 is incorrect: the government did not agree to the ₹20/kg direct support but assured alternative incentive mechanisms. Statement 3 is correct: extension of RoDTEP to HSN 2401 was a key demand.
What is the proposed GST rate that the Andhra Pradesh government requested for unmanufactured tobacco used for exports?
- A.18%
- B.12%
- C.28%✓ Correct Answer
- D.40%
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Explanation
The article states the request was to roll back GST from 40% to 28% on unmanufactured tobacco for exports. 18% and 12% are common GST rates but not the proposed figure. 40% is the current rate.
What is the primary reason cited in the article for reducing GST on unmanufactured tobacco meant for exports?
- A.To increase government revenue from tobacco exports
- B.To reduce the working capital lock-in for exporters and improve global competitiveness✓ Correct Answer
- C.To lower domestic prices of tobacco for local consumers
- D.To discourage the cultivation of tobacco and promote alternative crops
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that the higher tax burden 'locks up exporters' working capital and weakens India's competitiveness in global markets'. The other options are not supported by the news.
Which country became the first European Union nation to legislate a blanket ban on social media access for children under 15?
- A.France✓ Correct Answer
- B.Germany
- C.United Kingdom
- D.Australia
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Explanation
France passed the legislation on July 21, 2026, becoming the first EU nation to impose such a ban. The United Kingdom is not an EU member, and Australia is not in Europe. Germany has not yet passed such a blanket ban.
Consider the following statements:
1. France's social media ban applies to children under 15 years of age.
2. The ban was passed only by the French Senate.
3. Australia implemented a similar ban on social media for children in December 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the ban covers children under 15. Statement 2 is incorrect: the ban was passed by both the National Assembly and the Senate. Statement 3 is correct: Australia's ban took effect in December 2025 as mentioned in the article. Hence option C is correct.
What was the vote count in the French National Assembly for the social media ban for children?
- A.279 in favour, 81 against, 66 abstentions✓ Correct Answer
- B.289 in favour, 71 against, 76 abstentions
- C.269 in favour, 91 against, 56 abstentions
- D.279 in favour, 71 against, 66 abstentions
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Explanation
The article states: 'the National Assembly voting 279 in favour, 81 against and 66 abstentions.' The other options are close distractors with swapped numbers.
What is the primary objective of France's social media ban for children under 15?
- A.To increase government revenue through fines on platforms
- B.To protect children from online harms like pornography and cyberbullying✓ Correct Answer
- C.To promote French social media platforms over foreign ones
- D.To reduce overall internet usage among the population
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Explanation
The article highlights concerns over 'young users’ exposure to pornography, cyberbullying, and other forms of online exploitation' as the driving force behind the ban. President Macron's quote about 'brains of our children are not for sale' reinforces the protective intent. Revenue generation and promotion of domestic platforms are not mentioned.
Which Article of the Indian Constitution has been interpreted by the Supreme Court to include the right to shelter as part of the right to life?
- A.Article 19
- B.Article 21✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 300A
- D.Article 14
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Explanation
The Supreme Court in Olga Tellis vs Bombay Municipal Corporation held that the right to livelihood and shelter is an essential component of the right to life under Article 21. Article 19 protects certain freedoms, Article 300A protects against deprivation of property except by authority of law, and Article 14 guarantees equality.
Consider the following statements regarding the Allahabad High Court split verdict on bulldozer justice:
1. Justice Atul Sreedharan proposed a two-year embargo on demolitions of any structure after an FIR is registered.
2. Justice Siddharth Nandan concurred with the Supreme Court's guidelines but disagreed with the additional safeguards proposed by Justice Sreedharan.
3. The matter has been referred to a third judge who will rehear the entire case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Justice Sreedharan proposed a two-year embargo on demolitions after an FIR. Statement 2 is correct: Justice Nandan agreed with SC guidelines but not the additional safeguards. Statement 3 is incorrect: the third judge will only settle the specific disputed points, not rehear the whole case.
What was the length of the embargo on demolitions proposed by Justice Atul Sreedharan in the Allahabad High Court split verdict?
- A.1 year
- B.2 years✓ Correct Answer
- C.3 years
- D.5 years
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Explanation
Justice Sreedharan proposed a two-year embargo on demolishing an accused person's home after an FIR, unless there is a genuine urgent public need. The other options are distractors: 1 year is the notice period for structures older than 3 years, 3 years is the age threshold for that notice, and 5 years is not mentioned.
What was the primary constitutional concern raised by Justice Siddharth Nandan against the additional safeguards proposed by Justice Sreedharan?
- A.They violate the right to property under Article 300A
- B.They amount to judicial legislation and violate separation of powers✓ Correct Answer
- C.They are too lenient on accused persons
- D.They interfere with federalism by overriding state laws
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Explanation
Justice Nandan argued that the proposed directions effectively amend the statutory framework (e.g., UP Urban Planning and Development Act) and that courts cannot substitute judicially created timelines for existing legislative provisions. This is a classic separation of powers concern. The other options were not his primary argument.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for implementing the IT (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media, Ethics Code) Rules, 2021 for OTT platforms?
- A.Ministry of Home Affairs
- B.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
- C.Ministry of Information and Broadcasting✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Law and Justice
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Explanation
The article mentions that the Information & Broadcasting Ministry issued advisories, ordered blocking of platforms, and is the nodal ministry for the IT Rules, 2021 Part-III which governs OTT platforms. The Ministry of Electronics and IT handles the IT Act generally, but the specific Code of Ethics for digital news and OTT is under I&B.
Consider the following statements:
1. Section 67 of the IT Act, 2000 prescribes punishment for publishing or transmitting obscene material in electronic form.
2. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 criminalises the sale of obscene books under Section 294.
3. The government blocked 18 OTT platforms in March 2024 based on references from the National Commission on Protection of Child Rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per article: Section 67 of IT Act covers obscene material. Statement 2 is correct: BNS Section 294 criminalises obscene books and materials. Statement 3 is correct: The article states that in March 2024, 18 platforms were blocked after references from NCPCR in July and August 2024. Hence all three are correct.
How many OTT platforms were blocked by the Union government in February 2026?
- A.5✓ Correct Answer
- B.18
- C.25
- D.50
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'In February 2026, five OTT platforms were blocked for allegedly streaming obscene content.' The other options refer to different rounds: 18 in March 2024, 25 in July 2025, and 50 is the total over two years.
What is the primary objective of the government's action of disabling OTT platforms as mentioned in the article?
- A.To increase tax revenue from digital services
- B.To ensure a safer online environment✓ Correct Answer
- C.To promote domestic OTT platforms over foreign ones
- D.To reduce internet traffic and bandwidth usage
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Explanation
The article concludes: 'The move is understood to be part of the government’s broader effort to strengthen compliance with the country’s digital content laws to ensure a safer online environment.' Options A, C, and D are not mentioned or implied in the article.
Which agreement contains Annex 4, which lists Plurilateral Trade Agreements under the WTO framework?
- A.General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT)
- B.Marrakesh Agreement Establishing the WTO✓ Correct Answer
- C.Agreement on Agriculture
- D.Trade Related Investment Measures (TRIMs)
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Explanation
The Marrakesh Agreement, signed in 1994, established the WTO and its structure. Annex 4 specifically contains Plurilateral Trade Agreements that are binding only on signatory members, unlike the mandatory multilateral agreements in other annexes.
Consider the following statements regarding India's stance at the WTO:
1. India opposes plurilateral agreements as they violate the WTO's consensus-based decision-making principle.
2. The European Union supported India's opposition to plurilateral agreements during the trade policy review.
3. India was the only country at MC14 that opposed the inclusion of the IFD agreement into Annex 4.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: India argues plurilateral pacts undermine the consensus principle. Statement 2 is incorrect: The EU actually encouraged India to rethink its approach, not supported it. Statement 3 is correct: The article states India was the only country opposing IFD's incorporation at MC14.
How many WTO members have supported the Investment Facilitation for Development (IFD) agreement, according to the article?
- A.66
- B.129✓ Correct Answer
- C.164
- D.100
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Explanation
The article explicitly states 'As many as 129 members have supported IFD'. Option A (66) refers to the number of members that adopted the e-commerce interim arrangement. Option C (164) is the total WTO membership. Option D is a distractor.
What is India's primary objection to the interim arrangement on e-commerce at the WTO?
- A.It imposes customs duties on electronic transmissions, hurting developing countries.
- B.It bypasses WTO consensus rules and lacks a legal basis under the Marrakesh Agreement.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It gives excessive powers to the WTO Director-General.
- D.It only benefits developed countries and ignores digital divide issues.
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Explanation
India questioned the 'legal basis' of the interim arrangements, noting that consensus was not reached for adding the agreement to Annex 4. The article highlights India's letter asking how the WTO DG could act as depository without consensus, thus bypassing established rules.
Which High Court passed the judgment allowing a minor rape survivor to terminate a pregnancy beyond the MTP Act's statutory limit?
- A.Madhya Pradesh High Court
- B.Chhattisgarh High Court✓ Correct Answer
- C.Delhi High Court
- D.Bombay High Court
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Explanation
The article states that the Chhattisgarh High Court, presided over by Justice Amitendra Kishore Prasad, issued the ruling. This is a direct factual recall question from the news.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Medical Board's opinion that termination was not permissible was held to be binding on the High Court.
2. The court invoked Article 226 of the Constitution to allow the termination.
3. The court noted that the gestational age estimation via ultrasonography has an accepted margin of error.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the court held that the medical board's opinion is not binding on a constitutional court. Statement 2 is correct as the court used its writ jurisdiction under Article 226. Statement 3 is correct as the court mentioned that ultrasonography has a margin of error of about two weeks.
At how many weeks of pregnancy was the survivor when the Chhattisgarh High Court allowed the termination?
- A.24 weeks
- B.25 weeks and 5 days✓ Correct Answer
- C.26 weeks
- D.24 weeks and 5 days
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Medical Board examined the survivor and reported that she was carrying a pregnancy of approximately 25 weeks and five days. The statutory limit is 24 weeks, so the pregnancy was beyond that limit.
What was the primary constitutional right invoked by the Chhattisgarh High Court to allow the termination beyond the statutory limit?
- A.Right to equality under Article 14
- B.Right to freedom of speech under Article 19
- C.Right to life and personal liberty under Article 21✓ Correct Answer
- D.Right to constitutional remedies under Article 32
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Explanation
The court held that refusing termination would violate the survivor's right to dignity, privacy, bodily autonomy, and reproductive choice, all of which are facets of the right to life under Article 21. Article 32 is the Supreme Court's writ jurisdiction, not the High Court's.
Which organization is primarily responsible for archaeological excavations like the one at Tenkasi in Tamil Nadu?
- A.Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR)
- B.Archaeological Survey of India (ASI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.National Museum Institute
- D.Tamil Nadu State Department of Archaeology
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Explanation
The article mentions that the Keeladi excavation was led by archaeologist K Amarnath Ramakrishna under the ASI. The ASI is the premier organization under the Ministry of Culture responsible for archaeological research, protection, and conservation of national heritage sites in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the Tenkasi excavation:
1. The excavation site is located on the banks of the Vaigai river in Tamil Nadu.
2. The cultural sequence at Tenkasi shows a transition from Microlithic to Neolithic to Iron Age, similar to northern Tamil Nadu.
3. A burial urn decorated with painted peacocks was found, linking the site to both Harappan and Sangam literary traditions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the site is on the Vaippar river, not the Vaigai. Statement 2 is incorrect as Tenkasi bypasses the Neolithic/Chalcolithic phases (sequence: Microlithic → Iron Age → Early Historic), unlike northern Tamil Nadu. Statement 3 is correct as the peacock-decorated urn connects to Harappan Cemetery-H contexts and Sangam literature (Akananuru).
What are the dimensions of the large brick structure discovered at the Tenkasi excavation site?
- A.8.7m x 4.2m✓ Correct Answer
- B.12.5m x 6.3m
- C.7.2m x 3.8m
- D.10.1m x 5.0m
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the brick structure measures about 8.7 metres by 4.2 metres, built with bricks of 40 x 20 x 7 centimetres. This structure, with descending steps, is believed to have served as an underground granary or rainwater harvesting tank.
What is the primary significance of the Tenkasi excavation for understanding Indian history?
- A.It proves that the Indus Valley Civilization extended into South India.
- B.It provides evidence of continuous human occupation from the Stone Age to the Sangam period in southern Tamil Nadu, challenging existing chronological models.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It confirms that the Neolithic period was widespread across all parts of India.
- D.It establishes that Tamil Nadu was the first region in India to develop iron-working.
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Explanation
The site's unique cultural sequence (Microlithic → Iron Age → Early Historic, bypassing Neolithic/Chalcolithic) and the material evidence of an organized industrial settlement over millennia reshape understanding of South India's antiquity. It also bridges archaeology with Sangam literature, offering a more nuanced view of regional development.
Which ministry is responsible for implementing the 'Assistance to States and Union Territories for Modernisation of Police' (ASUMP) scheme?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Law and Justice
- D.Ministry of Defence
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Explanation
The ASUMP scheme is under the Ministry of Home Affairs, as mentioned in the article. The MHA handles police modernisation and internal security matters.
Consider the following statements regarding the report on CCTV installation in police stations:
1. Jharkhand has not installed a single CCTV camera in any police station.
2. Himachal Pradesh is the only state that has received funds under the ASUMP scheme for 2026-27.
3. The ASUMP scheme has been extended till December 2027.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Jharkhand is yet to install a single camera. Statement 2 is correct: Himachal is the only state to have received funds. Statement 3 is incorrect: the amicus curiae has requested extension, but it has not been granted yet. Hence option C is correct.
According to the report, how much funds were approved for Karnataka under the ASUMP scheme for 2026-27?
- A.₹173 crore✓ Correct Answer
- B.₹278 crore
- C.₹46.58 crore
- D.₹8.69 crore
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Explanation
The report states that Karnataka saw Rs 173 crore approved against a proposed Rs 278 crore. The other options are for other states: Rs 46.58 crore for Andhra Pradesh, Rs 8.69 crore for Himachal Pradesh.
What is the primary objective of the Supreme Court's 2020 mandate regarding CCTV cameras in police stations?
- A.To improve traffic management
- B.To curb custodial torture and ensure transparency✓ Correct Answer
- C.To monitor the activities of criminals
- D.To reduce the workload of police personnel
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the Supreme Court mandated CCTV installation to curb custodial torture. The other options are not mentioned and are not the primary objective of the mandate.
Which country is widely believed to have the only nuclear arsenal in the West Asia region, as mentioned in the article?
- A.Iran
- B.Saudi Arabia
- C.Israel✓ Correct Answer
- D.United States
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Explanation
The article states that 'Israel, which is widely believed to have the region’s only nuclear arsenal'. This is a static GK fact about Israel's undeclared nuclear status.
Consider the following statements regarding the US-Saudi nuclear deal:
1. The deal was announced on July 22, 2026 and still needs US Congressional approval.
2. The deal was part of a broader normalization agreement between Israel and Saudi Arabia.
3. Israeli Prime Minister Benjamin Netanyahu has publicly supported the deal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the deal was announced on July 22, 2026 and requires Congressional approval. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article says Israelis 'had hoped any deal would come as part of' normalization, but it did not. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article says Netanyahu and his ministers have not commented on the deal.
According to the article, on what date is the Israeli general election scheduled?
- A.July 22, 2026
- B.October 27, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.October 27, 2025
- D.November 5, 2026
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Explanation
The article mentions that former PM Naftali Bennett is seeking to unseat Mr. Netanyahu in an 'October 27 election'. No other date is given.
What is the primary concern of Israeli leaders regarding the US-Saudi civilian nuclear deal?
- A.It will reduce US military aid to Israel
- B.It will lead to a regional nuclear arms race✓ Correct Answer
- C.It will increase Saudi oil production
- D.It will strengthen Iran's nuclear program
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Explanation
The article quotes Bennett warning of 'a regional nuclear race' and Lieberman saying it will 'lead to a crazy arms race'. The other options are not mentioned in the article.
Which US government body is primarily responsible for authorising the annual defence budget through the National Defence Authorisation Act (NDAA)?
- A.The Pentagon
- B.The US House of Representatives
- C.The US Congress (House and Senate)✓ Correct Answer
- D.The President's Cabinet
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Explanation
The NDAA is a legislative bill that must be passed by both chambers of Congress (the House of Representatives and the Senate) and then signed by the President. The Pentagon executes the budget but does not authorise it.
Consider the following statements regarding the 2027 US National Defence Authorisation Act (NDAA):
1. The NDAA authorises a record $1.15 trillion for the Pentagon, including a 5-7% pay raise for service members.
2. The bill passed the House of Representatives with overwhelming bipartisan support.
3. The 'Golden Dome' missile defence system mentioned in the bill is modelled after Israel's 'Iron Dome'.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the bill authorises $1.15 trillion and includes a 5-7% pay raise. Statement 2 is incorrect: the bill passed narrowly 216-212, indicating growing polarisation, not overwhelming bipartisan support. Statement 3 is correct: the Golden Dome is modelled after Israel's Iron Dome.
By what margin did the 2027 National Defence Authorisation Act pass the US House of Representatives?
- A.216-212✓ Correct Answer
- B.220-210
- C.215-213
- D.225-200
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the bill passed the lower chamber in a 216-212 vote, reflecting a very narrow margin and significant political polarisation.
What is the primary strategic objective behind the 'Golden Dome' missile defence system mentioned in the 2027 NDAA?
- A.To protect US military bases in the Middle East
- B.To defend the US mainland from missile attacks✓ Correct Answer
- C.To replace the existing Iron Dome system in Israel
- D.To counter Chinese naval expansion in the Pacific
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Explanation
The article states that President Trump sought to develop the Golden Dome missile defence system to protect the US mainland, modelled after Israel's Iron Dome. It is a homeland defence initiative, not for overseas bases or replacing Israeli systems.
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