25 July 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The article states that Minister of State for Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, Jitendra Singh, wrote the statement of objects and reasons for the Bill. Hence, the Act falls under the purview of this ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Bill increases individual imprisonment from 3-5 years to 5-10 years. Statement 2 is incorrect: the fine for organized crime has been increased from at least Rs 1 crore to at least Rs 10 crore, not Rs 10 lakh to Rs 50 lakh (that's for individuals). Statement 3 is correct: a Special Task Force is to be constituted with a 2-month investigation timeline. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the fine for organized crime is increased from at least Rs 1 crore to at least Rs 10 crore. Rs 1 crore is the old amount, Rs 50 lakh is the new individual fine, and Rs 5 crore is a distractor.

Explanation

The article highlights that the Bill provides for a Special Task Force to investigate within two months and fast-track courts to complete trial within three months. This is specifically to facilitate speedy justice and restore credibility of the examination system, not merely to reduce court burden or increase convictions.

Explanation

The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) is conducted by the National Statistical Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. However, the nodal ministry for labour and employment data is the Ministry of Labour and Employment. The article discusses WPR and LFPR, which are key indicators published in PLFS reports.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states female WPR in India is below 30%, among the lowest globally, comparable to Saudi Arabia and Yemen. Statement 2 is incorrect: the study estimates a 10pp rise in female WPR could add nearly 2% (not 5%) to GDP growth. Statement 3 is correct: Tamil Nadu employs over 40% of India's women factory workers despite having only 5-6% of the population. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states the number of young women (15-29) neither working nor in education was under 70 million until 2004, increased to 84 million in 2012, and then rose to over 100 million by 2018. This represents a massive waste of human capital and a key barrier to achieving Viksit Bharat.

Explanation

The article clearly states the post-2020 increase in female WPR is 'distress-driven feminisation of agriculture', where women were compelled to intensify their role in subsistence agriculture and allied activities as unpaid family labour due to COVID-19 distress, male workers losing urban jobs, and shrinking non-farm opportunities. It is not a sign of empowerment but of economic distress.

Explanation

The NTA is an autonomous organisation under the Ministry of Education (formerly Ministry of Human Resource Development). It was established in 2017 to conduct entrance exams.

Explanation

All three statements are correct as per the article. The Cabinet met on July 24, 2026, cleared the amendments with tougher penalties and time-bound trials, and 47 NTA officials were sacked.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Centre terminated services of up to 47 officials in the NTA. Other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The Cabinet cleared the amendment to endow the anti-paper leak law with tougher penalties and time-bound trial mechanisms, aimed at deterring and swiftly punishing exam malpractices.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that CDSCO approved Qdenga. CDSCO is India's national drug regulatory authority under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct – the article calls it 'the first in India's history'. Statement 2 is false – protection varies: highest against DENV-2, then DENV-1, with uncertainty for DENV-3 and DENV-4. Statement 3 is correct – it requires two doses across three months apart.

Explanation

The article states 'licensing in over 40 countries'. Option C (40) is the closest correct value. The other options are distractors not supported by the text.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions difficulty in ensuring the second dose for the highly mobile migrant workforce and that Qdenga may be too expensive for people living in dense urban slums. Options A and D are false (no pre-screening needed; it has WHO prequalification). Option B is false – it is effective against DENV-2.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Bill was titled 'Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Bill, 2024' and was passed by both Houses in February 2024. The other options are fabricated distractors.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Act stipulates 3-5 years imprisonment and fine up to Rs 10 lakh for individuals. Statement 2 is correct: organized leaks attract up to 10 years and fine over Rs 1 crore. Statement 3 is incorrect: students/candidates are explicitly exempted from the purview of the Act.

Explanation

The article states that for organized paper leaks, the Act provides for a jail term up to 10 years and a fine over Rs one crore. Options A (3-5 years) is for individual unfair means, not organized. Life imprisonment is not mentioned.

Explanation

Adhir Ranjan Chowdhury, then Congress leader in Lok Sabha, said that 'the Bill has penal provisions for committed offences but lacks preventive measures to reduce such acts'. This was a notable criticism. The Bill did not apply only to state exams, and it had bipartisan support.

Explanation

Article 44 of the Indian Constitution, part of the Directive Principles of State Policy, states that the State shall endeavor to secure a uniform civil code for all citizens. Article 14 deals with equality, Article 21 with right to life, and Article 368 with amendment process.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the news. Statement 2 is correct; the committee is indeed headed by Justice (Retd) Ranjana Prakash Desai. Statement 3 is incorrect because while Uttarakhand, Gujarat, and Assam have implemented UCC, Madhya Pradesh has only passed a UCC Bill (as mentioned in the article), not fully implemented it.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that a five-member committee was appointed, headed by Justice (Retd) Ranjana Prakash Desai. The other members include retired IAS officers Shatrughan Singh and MK Raut, senior advocate Mohan Pawar, and former principal Jyoti Rani Singh.

Explanation

The article states that the committee has been tasked with examining the existing legal framework relating to the implementation of a Uniform Civil Code in Chhattisgarh and making recommendations on issues such as marriage, divorce, maintenance, inheritance, adoption, and other related matters. This is a study and recommendation role, not immediate implementation.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) approved the National Investment Policy for Urea (NIPU)-2026. CCEA is a high-level cabinet committee under the Prime Minister that decides on economic matters including investment policies.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions a 'viable Return on Equity (RoE) band with a floor at 12% and a ceiling at 16%'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the conversion of fixed cost into Indian Rupees occurs after four years, not two years. Statement 3 is correct as the government promotes INM for efficient nutrient management.

Explanation

The article states: 'From 225 LMT per annum during 2014-15, the current production from all these units has reached 314.07 LMT during 2023-24.' Option A (269.42 LMT) is the installed capacity in 2026-27, Option C (293.30 LMT) is production in 2025-26, and Option D (370.84 LMT) is the requirement for Kharif 2026.

Explanation

The article clearly states the policy is 'aimed at self reliance in urea production' and 'will encourage new investments in the urea sector'. Option B is related but not the primary objective; the article mentions INM separately. Options A and D are opposite to the policy's intent.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the CKYC 2.0 project is jointly executed by the RBI, SEBI, and the insurance regulator (IRDAI). PFRDA is not mentioned as part of this joint execution.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because CKYC 2.0 eliminates the need for separate document submissions; customers give consent via OTP for institutions to fetch data from the Central Registry. Statement 2 is correct as the system will include a confidence score on data accuracy. Statement 3 is correct as capital markets firms (mutual funds, brokerages) are expected to join later in the year.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that 89% of adults owned bank accounts in 2024, as per World Bank data. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states that the move is aimed at deepening participation in financial products after India largely achieved basic financial inclusion (89% bank account ownership). CKYC 2.0 makes it easier for customers to access mutual funds, insurance, and pensions without separate KYC submissions, thereby aiming to increase penetration in these sectors.

Explanation

The case was heard by Justice Amit Bansal of the Delhi High Court, which ruled on July 24, 2026. The other options are incorrect as the case was filed and decided in Delhi.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: ANI sought ₹2 crore damages. Statement 2 is incorrect: the court ruled that storing articles for training does NOT constitute infringement. Statement 3 is correct: the ruling was under Section 52 (fair use exemption). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

According to the article, ANI sought ₹2 crore in damages and an order barring OpenAI from using its work. The other options are distractors not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The court applied Section 52 of the Copyright Act, which exempts private use and research from infringement. This sets a precedent that mere storage for AI training may not violate copyright, balancing innovation with protection.

Explanation

The article states: 'State Governments and UT Administrations will designate Sessions Courts to conduct trials on a continuous, day-to-day basis.' This is a static GK point about the federal structure where state governments implement judicial reforms.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: under Section 10(1), imprisonment is 5 to 10 years, fine up to ₹50 lakh. Statement 2 is correct: under Section 10(2), service provider directors/management face 3 to 10 years and fine of ₹5 crore. Statement 3 is incorrect: the investigation deadline is 60 days, not 90 days.

Explanation

The article specifies under Section 11(1) (Organized Crime): 'a minimum of 7 years jail and fine up to ₹10 crore'. This is a precise data point from the proposed amendment. Options ₹1 crore and ₹5 crore are from other sections of the bill.

Explanation

The article mentions that the amendments are to address prolonged legal delays and ensure time-bound investigations and speedy trials. The objective is to bring greater transparency, fairness, and credibility to the public examination system, as stated by Dr. Jitendra Singh. While other options are plausible, the core purpose is to curb malpractices through quick justice.

Explanation

Section 301 of the Trade Act, 1974 allows the USTR to investigate and impose retaliatory tariffs on foreign trade practices deemed unfair. The article explicitly mentions that the USTR opened investigations under Section 301.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Justice Amit Bansal held that OpenAI's act falls under fair dealing. Statement 2 is incorrect: the court refused to grant an interim injunction, reasoning that balance of convenience lies with OpenAI. Statement 3 is correct: the court noted that outputs were not substantially similar to ANI inputs.

Explanation

The article states that the Cabinet approved amendments increasing the punishment for organised crime to imprisonment up to 10 years and a fine up to Rs 10 crore. Option A (3-5 years) is for individual offences under Section 10.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the USTR considered India's policy improvement of banning forced labour imports as a factor for placing it in the lower band. While India also engaged in negotiations and increased energy imports, the primary reason cited is the policy change on forced labour.

Explanation

The article states that 'Kavach specification version 4.0 was approved by RDSO on 16.07.2024'. RDSO is the nodal research and standardization body under the Ministry of Railways. The other options are involved but not the approving authority.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as Kavach is an indigenously developed ATP system. Statement 2 is correct: it was adopted as National ATP system in July 2020. Statement 3 is incorrect: Version 3.2 was deployed on 1,465 route km (not 2,490) on South Central Railway. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states '2,490 Rkm - Total route km commissioned, as on 13.07.2026'. The other options are distractors: 1,465 Rkm was the deployment of version 3.2, 7,721 Rkm is trackside equipment installed, and 11,253 km is optical fibre cable laid.

Explanation

The article states that Kavach 'automatically applies the brakes if the loco pilot fails to act, keeps trains within speed limits, and ensures safer operations even during adverse weather conditions'. While speed and comfort may be secondary benefits, the core objective is safety enhancement.

Explanation

In the State of Maharashtra v. Rajendra Jawanmal Gandhi case, the Supreme Court was direct in describing trial by press, electronic media, or public agitation as antithetical to the rule of law because such coverage tends to influence judges and prejudice the right to a fair trial.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Sahara case did balance media reporting rights with the need for restraint. Statement 2 is incorrect: The R. Rajagopal case held that privacy protects from publication of information NOT from public records; information from public records can be published. Statement 3 is correct: The Press Council's norms do urge restraint from sensationalism.

Explanation

The Supreme Court delivered the judgment in Harijai Singh v. Vijay Kumar in the year 1996. The Court specifically stated that no individual or institution outside the judiciary can assume the role of an investigator.

Explanation

The article highlights the tension between the media's freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a) and the accused's right to a fair trial under Article 21. Media trials can prejudice judges and the public, violating the presumption of innocence and the right to an impartial trial.

Explanation

The Supreme Court explicitly stated that any collection, processing, storage, retention, sharing, or use of personal information under the APAAR Scheme shall be strictly governed by the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023. The Aadhaar Act and IT Act are not the primary framework for this purpose.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the SC directed pan-India implementation of the Orissa HC order. Statement 2 is incorrect: the petitioners contended that the scheme operates as a surveillance mechanism, but the court did not endorse this view; it termed concerns about misuse as 'misconceived'. Statement 3 is correct: the court said merely because collection is voluntary does not absolve authorities of data protection obligations.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Orissa High Court's judgment was delivered on December 12, 2025. The Supreme Court order was passed on July 20, 2026, but the HC date is the factual data point asked.

Explanation

The Supreme Court stated that providing an opt-out/refusal option is essential to ensure that the requirement of consent is meaningful and informed. The order does not aim to prevent Aadhaar use entirely, nor is it about reducing administrative burden or RTE compliance.

Explanation

The World Squash Federation (WSF) is the international governing body for squash, responsible for organizing world championships and maintaining the rules of the sport. The IOC recognizes the WSF, but the IOC itself does not govern squash. The other options are not official governing bodies.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Anahat Singh became the first Indian to win any World Squash Junior title. Statement 2 is incorrect: Joshna Chinappa won a silver medal, not gold, in the junior championship 21 years ago. Statement 3 is correct: The final score was 11-3, 11-7, 11-9. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Anahat Singh defeated Ruqayya Salem 11-3, 11-7, 11-9 in straight games. The other options are plausible but incorrect scorelines.

Explanation

Anahat's win is historic as it is the first world title for India in squash at any level. The article mentions she is expected to lead India's medal charge at the 2028 LA Olympics. However, it does not guarantee Olympic qualification, funding, or automatic priority under Khelo India.

Explanation

OpenAI is a proponent of proprietary (closed) AI systems and was not among the 25 signatories. The signatories included Nvidia, Microsoft, Meta, IBM, Hugging Face, Dell, Mozilla, and others.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: open-weight AI makes trained parameters (weights) available. Statement 2 is incorrect: open-weight AI typically does not release training data or source code, unlike fully open-source AI. Statement 3 is correct: the letter argues that open models allow security teams to analyse sensitive data locally and identify vulnerabilities faster.

Explanation

The article clearly states that a joint letter was signed by 25 firms, including Nvidia, Microsoft, Meta, and IBM. The earlier letter from the Little Tech Association had over 200 startups.

Explanation

The coalition argues that open-weight AI fosters competition among developers, cloud providers, and chipmakers, reduces costs by allowing reuse, and gives businesses greater control over their data and customisation. While security is mentioned, the core arguments are economic and competitive.

Explanation

The Consortium of National Law Universities conducts CLAT. The Ministry of Law and Justice, Bar Council of India, and UGC are not directly involved in conducting CLAT.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct - the panel proposed scrapping the GK section for UG. Statement 2 is incorrect - the changes will be considered for CLAT 2028, not 2027. Statement 3 is correct - the panel was set up after the apex court criticised the Consortium's 'callous' approach. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The report has been made available for public feedback until August 31, 2026. The other options are close distractors but the exact deadline mentioned in the article is August 31.

Explanation

The committee proposed capping each section at 10-15 questions within the same two-hour duration to reduce the 'premium on speed' and focus on analytical ability rather than how quickly a student can answer. Cost reduction, rural access, or international alignment were not cited as reasons.

Explanation

The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) functions under the Ministry of Culture. It is the premier organization for archaeological research and conservation of national monuments.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as Sarnath is indeed where Buddha gave his first sermon. Statement 2 is incorrect because Sarnath is India's 45th, not 46th, World Heritage Site. Statement 3 is correct as per the article: the 48th session in Busan announced the inscription. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

According to the article, Sarnath was added to UNESCO's tentative list on July 3, 1998, and inscribed in July 2026, a span of exactly 28 years. The other options are plausible distractors.

Explanation

The article states that ASI replaced the plaque to 'correct' its recorded history, replacing colonial rulers' names with credit to Babu Jagat Singh, a local royal. This was part of a broader effort to acknowledge the indigenous discovery rather than British archaeologists.

Explanation

NTA is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Education (formerly Ministry of Human Resource Development). The article mentions an 'official from Education Ministry', confirming this.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says NTA opened hiring for four General Manager positions on a three-year contract. Statement 2 is correct: the overhaul follows recommendations of the Radhakrishnan committee. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article says 'some of whom are set to face legal and criminal action', not all.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that NTA is leveraging the UPSC Pratibha Setu portal to recruit 16 young professionals. 47 refers to the number of officials fired, not recruited.

Explanation

The article emphasizes the need to overhaul academic, operational, cybersecurity, and investigative capabilities after the NEET paper leak. Recruitment of experts in psychometrics, cybersecurity, and anti-malpractice directly aims at strengthening exam integrity.

Explanation

The Directorate of Enforcement (ED) is under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, Government of India. It is responsible for enforcing the PMLA, 2002 and FEMA, 1999.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: ED attached ₹1,906 crore assets. Statement 2 is correct: total attached, frozen, and seized is ₹2,401 crore. Statement 3 is incorrect because the FIRs were registered in Telangana, not Karnataka, and under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), not the IPC.

Explanation

The article states that with the latest attachment of ₹1,906 crore, the total value of assets attached, frozen, and seized has reached approximately ₹2,401 crore. The other options are individual components: ₹1,906 crore (latest attachment), ₹1,035 crore (marketing spend), ₹495 crore (earlier frozen movable assets).

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the ED initiated its investigation based on multiple FIRs for cheating under BNS, which are scheduled offences under PMLA. This allows the ED to investigate proceeds of crime. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the tariffs are imposed under Section 301 of the US Trade Act of 1974. IEEPA tariffs were previously used but struck down by the Supreme Court in February.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India is in the second tier with a flat 10% addition. Statement 2 is correct: For EU/Taiwan, the sum of MFN and Section 301 tariff is capped at 10%. Statement 3 is correct: China and Vietnam are in the least favoured group with a flat 12.5% addition.

Explanation

The ICRIER report states India's exports to the US grew 0.9% from $86.5 billion to $87.3 billion. $36.6 billion is the value of excluded product exports, and $50.7 billion is non-excluded exports.

Explanation

The article states that India engaged in negotiations, stepped up energy imports, lowered duties on some US goods, and amended its foreign trade policy on June 14 to explicitly ban forced labour imports. This policy improvement led to India being placed in the lower-tariff category.

Explanation

The article states that the US-Saudi agreement should accelerate the implementation of the SHANTI Act and help prepare Indian industry to export nuclear technologies across the Middle East. The other options are related to nuclear regulation but not mentioned in the context of exports.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the deal helps Riyadh build a civilian nuclear energy programme. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article says the facility will be built by American companies and operate under US supervision, not Saudi. Statement 3 is correct: Washington is linking the deal to Saudi recognition of Israel. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article mentions that the growth of Iranian power has already encouraged the UAE to establish a civilian nuclear programme. This is used as a regional precedent for Saudi Arabia's nuclear ambitions.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the main controversy is the enrichment facility, but the strategic rationale is to address Saudi concerns about the regional nuclear balance (i.e., countering Iran's capabilities). While other options are related, the core driver is strategic parity with Tehran.

Explanation

The article mentions that enhanced oversight is needed from regulators including the Competition Commission of India, which enforces the Competition Act to prevent anti-competitive practices. AAI manages government-owned airports, SEBI regulates securities markets, and NAA is not a statutory body mentioned.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because airport operators are not prohibited from holding any stake; they are barred from owning more than 10% in a scheduled carrier. Statement 2 is incorrect; Adani Enterprises denied evaluating any proposal to enter the airline business. Statement 3 is correct as IndiGo MD Rahul Bhatia said the move will create a 'massive conflict of interest'. Hence only statement 3 is correct.

Explanation

The article specifically states that IndiGo and the Air India group have a cumulative domestic market share of over 90%. The other options are close distractors but do not match the exact figure given.

Explanation

The article highlights that the most obvious concern is conflict of interest in important decisions like slot allocation. Since airports control critical infrastructure, an airport-owned airline could receive preferential treatment, undermining fair competition. Options A, C, and D are not mentioned or directly implied in the article.

Explanation

The SJTA is the administrative body of the 12th-century Puri Jagannath Temple. It filed 29 trademark applications to protect sacred names and logos associated with the temple.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Trade Marks Registry was established in 1940. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Digha temple was built under the Trinamool Congress government, not the BJP government. Statement 3 is correct: final certificates are issued after a 3-month objection period.

Explanation

The article states that SJTA has filed a total of 29 trademark applications so far. 5 names cleared the second round and were approved for publication in the Trademark Journal.

Explanation

SJTA chief administrator Arvind Padhee stated that trademark registration would prevent 'unauthorised use for commercial exploitation' of sacred words while preserving the distinct identity and traditions associated with Lord Jagannath.

Explanation

The article states that the Ministry of Civil Aviation is examining the issue and preparing a concept note for consultations with NITI Aayog and other ministries. This ministry oversees aviation policy and regulation in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the article explicitly says restrictions are embedded in airport concession agreements, not in legislation. Statement 2 is correct: Adani Group is the largest airport operator with 8 airports and 25% of traffic. Statement 3 is correct: IndiGo and Air India together account for nearly 90% of the domestic market.

Explanation

The article states that concession agreements for Delhi and Mumbai airports cap aggregate airline ownership in the airport operator at 10%. The 26% cap applies to airline ownership in the airport operator for Noida International Airport (Jewar) and Navi Mumbai airports, which is a different context.

Explanation

The article mentions that the government is interested in relaxing rules ostensibly to allow new airline entrants, increase investment in the sector, and help break the near-duopoly. While global examples exist, they are state-owned and not the primary objective. The Adani Group's interest is reported separately but not the stated government objective.

Explanation

MSEDCL is a subsidiary of its parent company, Maharashtra State Electricity Board (MSEB) Holding Company Limited, established in 2005. The other options are also subsidiaries of MSEB Holding Company: MSPGCL (generation), MSETCL (transmission), and MSAPL (agricultural distribution).

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the waiver clears backlog up to 2024, not all dues after 2024. Statement 2 is correct as the waiver helps clean the balance sheet for the IPO. Statement 3 is correct as MSEDCL spokesperson confirmed the utility will remain under government ownership even if listed.

Explanation

Chief Minister Devendra Fadnavis stated that every year the budgetary allocation of ₹25,000 crore is made to pay power companies through MSEDCL for free electricity to farmers up to 7.5 HP under the Mukhyamantri Baliraja Mofat Veej Yojana. ₹12,000 crore is the amount MSEDCL pays to cater to 45 lakh farmers under the scheme, while ₹36,585 crore and ₹48,000 crore relate to the loan waiver and power dues waiver respectively.

Explanation

The restructuring splits MSEDCL into MSEDCL (serving residential, commercial, industrial) and MSEB Solar Agro Power Ltd (agricultural). This isolates the agricultural wing, which carries subsidy burdens, making the non-agricultural business more attractive for investors ahead of its IPO. The government denies it is privatisation and says MSEDCL will remain under government ownership.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the three-judge bench at the Boston-based First Circuit Court of Appeals denied the federal government's motion. The other options are incorrect: the Supreme Court was not involved yet, and the other circuits are not mentioned.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the court termed the fee an unlawful tax not authorized by Congress. Statement 2 is correct: President Trump issued the proclamation in September last year (2025). Statement 3 is incorrect: the plaintiffs were 20 Democrat-ruled states, not Republican-ruled states. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states the U.S. issues 65,000 H-1B visas annually, plus an additional 20,000 for foreign workers with advanced degrees, totaling 85,000. Option A (65,000) is only the regular cap, option D (20,000) is only the advanced degree cap, and option C (1,00,000) is incorrect.

Explanation

The court ruled that the executive branch (President) cannot impose a financial burden (tax) without clear authorization from Congress (the legislative branch). This directly reinforces the separation of powers. While other principles are important in US law, the core of this ruling is about which branch has the authority to create new taxes.

Explanation

The court held that the capacity-based levy was unreasonable and vague, failing the tenets of Article 14 (Right to Equality). Article 19(1)(g) deals with trade freedom, Article 21 with life and liberty, and Article 265 with taxation without law – none were the primary basis of this judgment.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the court UPHELD the Union's power to levy cess but struck down the specific mechanism. Statement 2 is correct as the court noted machines have different capacities but the same cess was assumed. Statement 3 is correct: Rule 15(a) was struck down for ignoring shorter shutdowns.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that from February 1, 2026, the GST on the pan masala sector increased to 40% of the MRP minus deductions. The other dates are distractors not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The court upheld the Union's legislative power to levy cess (so option A is wrong). The flaw was in the 'manner' of levy – based on assumed capacity rather than actual production – making it unreasonable and vague under Article 14. Options B and D were not the basis of the judgment.

Explanation

The article quotes Defence Minister Rajnath Singh defending the project, indicating the Ministry of Defence is the nodal ministry for this strategic initiative. The project also includes military infrastructure and is driven by national security concerns.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the project includes a greenfield airport and trans-shipment port. Statement 2 is incorrect: the government decided against expanding INS Baaz and opted for a greenfield project at Galathea Bay. Statement 3 is correct: Ramesh stressed the project is 'most fundamentally a commercial enterprise' for which strategic rationale is being invented.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'The Rs 81,000 crore project'. The other options are plausible distractors: Rs 18,000 crore is too low, Rs 41,000 crore might be confused with other projects, and Rs 1,00,000 crore is a round number often used for large projects.

Explanation

According to Rajnath Singh's response, expanding INS Baaz (brownfield) was examined but rejected because 'it would have entailed substantial land reclamation and disturbance to the tribal population, flora and fauna'. This reasoning underscores the environmental and social considerations in the decision.

Explanation

As per the article, the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) notified Vizhinjam as a customs port. CBIC is the nodal body under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, responsible for customs and indirect tax administration.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Vizhinjam is India's first international deepwater transshipment port. Statement 2 is incorrect: EXIM operations will begin on August 18, 2026, not immediately after commencement (July 2024). Statement 3 is correct: The port is developed under PPP by Kerala government and Adani Ports and SEZ (APSEZ). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that within 18 months of commencing commercial operations, Vizhinjam handled 2 million TEUs (twenty-foot equivalent units) of container traffic, making it one of the world's fastest-growing container ports.

Explanation

The article highlights that the customs notification will transform Vizhinjam into a full-fledged EXIM gateway, reducing logistics costs, improving supply chain efficiency, and enhancing exporters' competitiveness by allowing direct movement of goods without relying on foreign transshipment hubs like Colombo or Singapore.

Explanation

The NTA is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Education (formerly MHRD), established in 2017 to conduct entrance examinations for higher educational institutions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect: the initial period is 24 months, extendable up to 36 months. Statement 3 is correct: the Information Security head will serve as the Chief Information Security Officer.

Explanation

The article mentions 16 Young Professionals: 12 in academic research, 2 in legal research, and 2 in finance and accounts. The total new positions (4 GMs + 16 YPs) is 20, but the question specifically asks for Young Professionals.

Explanation

The article states this role will lead investigations into suspected malpractice and coordinate with agencies like CBI, IB, ED, state police, and cybercrime units. Option A relates to Test Centre Network head, Option B to Assessment Research head, and Option D to Information Security head.

Explanation

The article clearly states that US Senator Tim Sheehy, a Republican from Montana, introduced the Bill. The other senators are well-known figures but not the one mentioned in the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the bill seeks a 3-year pause on new H-1B visas. Statement 2 is correct as the bill proposes a sharp reduction in caps to 25,000 and codifies the $100,000 fee. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions FAIR as a supporter of the proposed bill.

Explanation

The article states that under the current programme, about 65,000 visas are offered each year, with an additional 20,000 for people with advanced degrees, making the total annual cap 85,000. The proposed cap is 25,000.

Explanation

Senator Sheehy stated the bill aims to 'restore the programme to its original intent and puts American workers first' by closing loopholes that incentivize abuse and strengthening guardrails. The other options contradict the bill's provisions.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the case was filed against the United States Trade Representative (USTR) for the use of Section 301 to impose tariffs. USTR is the agency responsible for trade negotiations and enforcement of US trade laws.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article mentions 'US imposed fresh tariffs on 60 countries including 10% duty on India'. Statement 2 is correct: the small businesses argued Section 301 is a 'targeted, country-specific and practice-specific remedial authority'. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article states IEEPA was struck down by the Supreme Court, not Section 301. The current challenge is to Section 301 itself, and the court has not yet ruled on it.

Explanation

The ICRIER report stated that exports of non-excluded products fell by 11.2% over the same period, declining from $57.1 billion to $50.7 billion. The 24.5% figure refers to the increase in exports of excluded products (electronics and pharma). The 10% is the duty rate on India, and 50% is the earlier Section 122 tariff rate mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Government officials say that India is willing to sign the deal when the new US architecture gives India a competitive edge compared to its competitors in the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) region'. This is a strategic calculation to maximize India's export advantage.

Explanation

As per the article, the Assam State Disaster Management Authority recorded the deaths and is coordinating relief. ASDMA is the state nodal agency for disaster management under the Disaster Management Act, 2005.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per IMD definition. Statement 2 is incorrect because 137 mm over 8-9 hours does not meet the cloudburst criterion (100 mm in 1 hour). Statement 3 is correct as per expert analysis in the article.

Explanation

The Chief Minister stated that Charaideo recorded a 436% departure from normal rainfall. 493% was for Mokokchung in Nagaland. 137 mm was the actual rainfall amount in Mon, not a percentage departure.

Explanation

The Chief Minister explained that receding floodwaters left behind layers of sediment several feet high, making access by foot or vehicle impossible. This is a key example of the secondary impacts of flooding relevant for disaster management studies.

Explanation

The article clearly states that SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) passed the final order barring Viresh Joshi and imposing penalties. SEBI is the statutory regulator for India's securities market, including mutual funds and stock exchanges.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Joshi was the former Axis MF chief dealer. Statement 2 is incorrect: the total penalty was Rs 7.4 crore, while Rs 30.55 crore was the amount of unlawful gains impounded as per the interim order. Statement 3 is correct: SEBI noted Joshi created a company in Dubai for routing gains abroad. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states SEBI slapped a total of Rs 7.4 crore penalty on 21 people involved in the case. Rs 3 crore was the penalty on Viresh Joshi alone, and Rs 30.55 crore was the amount of unlawful gains impounded (not the penalty). Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

SEBI's action targets the illegal practice of front-running, where an insider uses non-public information about pending trades for personal gain. The regulator's core mandate is to protect investor interests and ensure the securities market operates fairly and transparently. Penalizing such abuse deters future misconduct and upholds market integrity.

Explanation

The USTR investigation was conducted under Section 301 of the US Trade Act of 1974, which targets unfair trade practices including forced labour. Section 232 relates to national security, and Section 201 to import surges. Section 337 concerns intellectual property.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Commerce Ministry said 45% of exports remain outside the purview. Statement 2 is incorrect: India was NOT included in the textile mechanism; it was for Bangladesh, Cambodia, Indonesia, and Malaysia. Statement 3 is correct: the article states the final tariff is lower than the initially proposed 12.5%.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the new 10% tariff is lower than the initially proposed 12.5% on India and some other countries. The other options are distractors: 10% is the final rate, 15% and 25% are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article states the USTR investigation examined whether trade partners were doing enough to prevent imports of goods made using forced labour. This is the stated objective. Option C relates to Section 232, and Option D is a secondary effect of the textile mechanism, not the primary objective.