29 July 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The 2006 notification requiring prior environmental clearance was issued under the Environmental Protection Act, 1986. The Supreme Court in this case held that the 2021 OM was ultra vires the objectives of the EPA 1986.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the OM was quashed prospectively, not retrospectively, to protect ongoing projects. Statement 2 is correct as the court allowed the Centre to issue proper amnesty notifications. Statement 3 is correct as the judgment explicitly stated that 2017 one-time amnesty clearances remain valid unless individually challenged.

Explanation

The article states that the judgment was delivered on Wednesday, July 29, 2026. The other options are distractors: May 2025 was an earlier Division Bench judgment, and November 2025 was when a larger Bench diluted that judgment.

Explanation

The court quashed the OM prospectively 'in an apparent bid to not upset ongoing projects.' This means projects already underway using clearances under the 2021 OM are not automatically invalidated, though they may face individual challenges. The Centre can still grant amnesty via proper notification, and the SC retains Article 142 powers.

Explanation

The article mentions the Radhakrishnan Committee, chaired by former ISRO chief K. Radhakrishnan, which proposed encrypted digital transmission, biometric authentication, and a network of secure government testing centres to overhaul NTA and examination processes.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct based on the reported data. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Radhakrishnan Committee proposed governance and infrastructure measures (encrypted transmission, biometric authentication, secure centres), but the IRT-backed question bank and two-tier architecture are additional proposals from the article writer. Statement 3 is correct as the article specifies a phased rollout with no adaptive testing in Year 1.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'over 2.4 million candidates competed for roughly 120,000 undergraduate medical seats in June 2024'. The other options are close distractors to test exact recall.

Explanation

The article explains that the two-tier architecture allows candidates to take a preliminary screening exam on-demand throughout the year, which reduces the candidate pool for the final selection by over 80% and distributes infrastructure load across 12 months, eliminating single-day psychological stress and undercutting coaching industry leverage.

Explanation

The article states that the US Senate cleared a procedural vote 86-12 on the bill. The House and President are involved later in the process.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the bill proposes up to 100% tariffs. Statement 2 is incorrect: India is the second-largest buyer, with China being first. Statement 3 is correct: the bill targets Russia's shadow fleet.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the Senate cleared a procedural vote 86-12. The other options are distractors.

Explanation

The article states that a US tariff of up to 100% would force a hard choice between cheap Russian oil and access to the US market, which is the bill's central pressure point.

Explanation

The Bill was introduced by the Union Government following the NEET UG 2026 paper leak and the resignation of the former Union Education Minister. The Ministry of Education handles policies related to public examinations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the penalty increased from ₹1 crore to ₹10 crore. Statement 2 is incorrect: unlike the Lokpal Act or SC/ST Act, the Bill does NOT provide for extending the investigation timeline. Statement 3 is correct: the Bill requires trial completion within three months of filing the charge sheet.

Explanation

The article states that pending cases in FTSCs swelled from 2.02 lakh in 2023 to 2.45 lakh in 2025, as per data tabled in Rajya Sabha on July 23, 2026.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that despite the Bill's provisions for time-bound investigations and speedy trials, the existing FTSCs have over 2.45 lakh pending cases, and average trial times vary drastically across states — from 257 days in Andhra Pradesh to 1,717 days in Delhi for POCSO cases. This backlog threatens the law's effectiveness.

Explanation

The article mentions S Krishnan, Secretary, Ministry of Electronics & IT (MeitY), as the official explaining the scheme details. MeitY is the nodal ministry for all semiconductor-related initiatives, including ISM 1.0 and 2.0.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Cabinet approved ISM 2.0 with Rs 1.27 lakh crore for six years. Statement 2 is incorrect: the subsidy is no longer uniform – silicon fabs get 40%, other fabs 35%, advanced packaging 35%, conventional packaging 25%. Statement 3 is correct: the scheme explicitly includes equipment, materials, chemicals, R&D, and talent development, moving beyond just fabrication.

Explanation

The article clearly states that under ISM 2.0, silicon fabs will receive a subsidy of 40% of project cost, down from the uniform 50% under ISM 1.0. Other fabs get 35%, advanced packaging 35%, and conventional packaging 25%.

Explanation

The article highlights that ISM 2.0 aims to insert India into the global chip supply chain and deepen domestic value addition. It expands from fabrication to equipment, materials, chemicals, design, R&D, and talent development, reflecting a shift to a comprehensive value-chain strategy for long-term competitiveness and strategic autonomy.

Explanation

The Supreme Court repeatedly referred to Section 3 of the Environment Protection Act, 1986 as the source of power for the Centre to issue notifications like the 2017 notification. The other acts are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the 2021 memorandum was struck down. Statement 2 is incorrect: the 2017 notification was upheld as valid. Statement 3 is correct: the bench said the ruling will apply prospectively, leaving existing clearances unaffected. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the bench as consisting of Chief Justice Surya Kant and Justices Joymalya Bagchi and Vipul M Pancholi. The other options are incorrect benches not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The Court held that the 2021 memorandum envisaged a perpetual regime applicable to all permissible projects without laying down intelligible differentia, and thus failed the proportionality test and violated Articles 14 and 21. The Jan Vishwas Act was cited as reinforcing the Centre's power, not as a violation.

Explanation

The article mentions that Union Minister of State for Home Affairs Nityanand Rai replied to the bill in Rajya Sabha, indicating that the Ministry of Home Affairs handles this legislation. The original Act also falls under the MHA's purview.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the bill was passed with a voice vote. Statement 2 is incorrect: the bill also covers desecration of the national flag, Constitution, and national anthem. Statement 3 is correct: the bill was introduced on July 24, 2026. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the proposed legislation provides for up to three years' imprisonment for desecration of or disrespect towards national symbols, including the national flag, Constitution, national anthem, and now Vande Mataram.

Explanation

The article states that the bill 'seeks to give Vande Mataram the same statutory protection as the national anthem, Jana Gana Mana'. While the bill also covers other symbols, its specific focus on the national song is the key objective highlighted.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that the 'Code of Practice on Transparency of AI-Generated Content' falls under Article 50 of the EU AI Act. Article 49 deals with registration, Article 51 with notified bodies, and Article 52 with transparency obligations for certain AI systems.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the code covers deepfakes and manipulated text. Statement 2 is incorrect: artistic, satirical, and fictional works have simplified transparency obligations, not the same icon as other content. Statement 3 is correct: India's IT Rules amendment (Feb 2026) puts onus on users and platforms for synthetic content. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the code stipulates 'administrative fines up to €15 million for non-compliance'. The other options are distractors: €10 million is a common fine in other EU regulations, €20 million and €25 million are higher than specified.

Explanation

The article states the code aims to 'ensure transparency and enable human users to distinguish manipulated content online' and 'maintain the integrity of the information ecosystem'. While AI development is indirectly affected, the core purpose is transparency and user protection, not trade restrictions or technical standardisation.

Explanation

The article states that the study titled 'Pan-India Molecular Surveillance of Dengue Serotypes, 2023–2025' was conducted by ICMR's Virus Research and Diagnostic Laboratory (VRDL). ICMR is the apex body in India for the formulation, coordination, and promotion of biomedical research.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the study notes multiple virus strains circulating together, indicating hyperendemic transmission. Statement 2 is incorrect: hyperendemic transmission involves multiple serotypes co-circulating, not just one. Statement 3 is correct as the study period was 2023-2025. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the study titled 'Pan-India Molecular Surveillance of Dengue Serotypes, 2023–2025' was a two-year nationwide surveillance study. Options A, C, and D are incorrect durations.

Explanation

The article explains that hyperendemic transmission (multiple serotypes co-circulating) increases the risk of severe illness because sequential infections with different serotypes can lead to severe dengue (dengue hemorrhagic fever/dengue shock syndrome). The other options are not mentioned as primary concerns.

Explanation

The article states that the Senate voted 86-12 to invoke the cloture motion to advance the bill. Cloture is a formal procedure to set a time limit on debate, requiring 60 votes. Filibuster is the opposite (extended debate), veto override is for presidential vetoes, and executive orders are from the President.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says the bill would impose primary and secondary sanctions against Russia. Statement 2 is false: the article says up to 100% tariffs, not 200%. Statement 3 is correct: the bill extends the Iran Sanctions Act for an additional five years, keeping restrictions until 2031. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Senate voted 86-12 to invoke the cloture motion. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states that the bill aims to 'stop purchasers of Russian oil and gas from fuelling Putin's war machine and to continue restricting the Iranian regime's ability to support terrorism and build its nuclear programme.' Options A, C, and D are not mentioned as objectives.

Explanation

The RBI, as the central bank, is responsible for monetary policy and managing the exchange rate of the Indian rupee under a managed float regime. The Ministry of Finance handles fiscal policy, while SEBI regulates securities markets.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Governor stated the rupee is 'undervalued', not overvalued. Statement 2 is correct as a weaker currency makes exports cheaper. Statement 3 is correct as REER is an inflation-adjusted measure of a currency's value.

Explanation

The article states that the interview took place on Sunday, July 26, 2026. The article itself was published on July 29, 2026. Option B is the publication date, not the interview date.

Explanation

An undervalued currency makes a country's goods cheaper for foreign buyers, boosting exports. Imported goods become costlier (not cheaper), fueling inflation. While it may attract some FDI, it does not guarantee an immediate rush. The RBI continues its managed float intervention policy.

Explanation

India's Permanent Representative Parvathaneni Harish spoke at a UNSC open debate on the Situation in West Asia, as mentioned in the article. The UNSC is the primary body for international peace and security.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as India condemned the attacks. Statement 2 is incorrect because India called for 'immediate de-escalation', not escalation. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article that 10 million Indians live and work in the Gulf region. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article states: 'one Indian tragically lost his life' in the attacks. The other options are distractors; no other casualties were reported for Indians in the article.

Explanation

The article emphasizes India's high stakes: $180 billion trade, energy supply chains, and 10 million Indians in the Gulf. India called for de-escalation to protect these interests. Option A is too narrow, C is not mentioned, D is a separate issue (Lebanon).

Explanation

The report was authored by Lee Crawfurd, a researcher at the Center for Global Development (CGD), London. The World Bank is cited for the cost of lead exposure, but the report itself is from CGD.

Explanation

Statement 1: The article explicitly states 'Lead-acid batteries alone contribute to 86% of global lead consumption.' Statement 2: The article says in high-income countries poorer localities are more exposed, but in LMICs the pattern is reversed with urban schools more exposed. Statement 3: Mexico City is cited as a success story with almost no toxic-site contamination due to regulation. Hence all three are correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'It concluded that 10% of schools in LMICs lie within 5 km of a documented toxic site, especially in urban areas.' The other options are distractors; 5% and 15% are not mentioned, and 20% is too high.

Explanation

The report's author states: 'If you don't have good regulation of where recycling can happen, then it happens in the most convenient places, which is where people are.' This explains the urban clustering of toxic sites near schools. Options A and C are not supported; option D is incorrect as lead is not naturally more abundant in urban soils.

Explanation

The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO), under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, is the national regulatory authority for pharmaceuticals and medical devices in India. It issued the guidance document to clarify the regulatory pathway for AI and software-based medical devices under the Medical Devices Rules, 2017.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the CDSCO explicitly noted that the guidance 'should not be misconstrued as a new regulatory control' but rather explains how existing provisions apply. Statement 2 is correct as the guidance distinguishes between SaMD and SiMD, aligned with IMDRF principles. Statement 3 is incorrect because the guidance does NOT apply to software merely intended for general wellness, promoting a healthy lifestyle, or fitness purposes.

Explanation

The CDSCO guidance classifies AI and machine learning-based software medical devices into four risk categories — Classes A, B, C and D — based on their intended use and the potential risk they pose to patients. Higher-risk products are subject to greater regulatory scrutiny.

Explanation

The CDSCO guidance is intended to help manufacturers, importers, innovators and researchers prepare applications for regulatory approval. For AI companies, it provides a clearer compliance roadmap from product development to market approval, reducing uncertainty and improving investor confidence. It does not introduce new taxes, bans, or discriminatory policies.

Explanation

The article states that the reforms were approved by Defence Minister Rajnath Singh, indicating that the Indian Coast Guard falls under the Ministry of Defence. The Coast Guard is a maritime security force under the administrative control of the Ministry of Defence.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the new policy introduces Permanent Absorption in GD cadre. Statement 2 is false – before the reform, women were denied Permanent Commission/absorption. Statement 3 is correct – the article explicitly states the IAF offers the widest operational integration. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article mentions that 'the number of women officers across the services has increased to around 11,000'. This is a direct data point from the news. The other options are plausible distractors.

Explanation

The article states the reforms 'seek to bridge that gap' and 'ensure equal career progression and long-term service opportunities'. Options A and C are not mentioned; option D is about the Army, not the Coast Guard. Hence B is correct.

Explanation

The IAEA is the global body that conducts inspections and audits of nuclear facilities under safeguard agreements and the Additional Protocol. The article mentions that without the Additional Protocol, the IAEA will not have enhanced permissions for audits.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the deal lacks an 'Additional Protocol', as mentioned in the article. Statement 2 is correct: the U.S. said enrichment will only proceed after a joint study. Statement 3 is correct: critics warn of a weapons race in the region. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that goods amounting to 70% of India's exports will face the 10% tariffs. The other options are close distractors but not supported by the article.

Explanation

The article states that the task force, headed by Nandan Nilekani, was formed to recommend steps to make the examination system leak-proof and technology-driven. While the paper leak is the context, the task force's mandate is broader systemic reform, not just investigation or curriculum review.

Explanation

The article states that the Department of Military Medicine is established under the Directorate General of Medical Services (Army), not directly under the Ministry of Defence or the hospital itself.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article calls it India's first dedicated department. Statement 2 is incorrect because the location is Command Hospital (Central Command) in Lucknow, not Western Command. Statement 3 is correct as combat psychiatry, CBRNE defence, and HADR are explicitly mentioned as focus areas.

Explanation

The article clearly states that Union Defence Minister Rajnath Singh virtually inaugurated the department on July 29, 2026.

Explanation

The article states that the department seeks to strengthen operational medical preparedness by improving combat medical readiness, research, and specialized expertise for battlefields and humanitarian contingencies.

Explanation

The data was presented by Minister of State for Home Affairs Bandi Sanjay Kumar in a written reply to Rajya Sabha. The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Minister clearly stated that the NCRB does not maintain data on money lost or recovered. Statement 2 is correct as per the reply that CFCFRMS saved over ₹11,158 crore from 32.80 lakh complaints. Statement 3 is correct as Telangana had 18,922 cases in 2024, the highest among states.

Explanation

The data shows 29,758 cases in 2024, up from 10,395 in 2020. Option 19,466 is the 2023 figure, while 30,000 is a close but incorrect distractor.

Explanation

The article states that CFCFRMS facilitates immediate reporting of financial frauds to prevent siphoning of funds. While tracking criminals and compensation may be related, the core objective is real-time prevention of fund loss.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Centre attributed low acceptance to factors identified through an independent evaluation conducted by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. Hence, option B is correct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Maharashtra posted 17,004 opportunities in Round III, the highest. Statement 2 is incorrect: Tamil Nadu completed only 82 internships in Round I, while Assam completed 605 (highest). Statement 3 is correct: The monthly allowance was raised from ₹5,000 to ₹9,000 as per the March 2026 guidelines.

Explanation

The table in the article lists 'Internship opportunities posted' for Round III as 122,148. Option A (127,508) is Round I, option B (118,948) is Round II, and option D (260,747) is the number of applications received in Round III.

Explanation

The article lists three reasons from the evaluation: the 12-month duration being too long, location concerns (5-10 km preference), and lack of interest in roles. Insufficient stipend is not mentioned as a reason for low acceptance; however, the government later raised the allowance to improve uptake. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The Competition Act, 2002 established the CCI to prevent practices having adverse effect on competition. The article explicitly states that CUTS found the existing Competition Act sufficient to address cloud market concerns. The Digital Competition Bill is a proposed ex-ante framework, not yet enacted.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: article says over 60% feedback was negative. Statement 2 is incorrect: CUTS warned against premature ex-ante regulation and argued existing Competition Act is sufficient. Statement 3 is correct: CUTS urged adoption of UK CMA voluntary commitments on egress fees and interoperability. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'The remaining 10 per cent of views were neutral.' The other options are distractors; 5%, 15%, and 20% are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that negative feedback was 'mainly due to concerns about regulatory uncertainty, high compliance costs, the risk of arbitrary SSDE designations, and possible chilling effects on innovation.' Option A captures the core concerns. Other options are not highlighted as primary reasons in the study.

Explanation

The article mentions the 'Jal Shakti Ministry's Parliament reply on July 27'. The Ministry of Jal Shakti is the nodal ministry for water resources, river development, and Ganga rejuvenation. Other ministries are not involved in this specific reply.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: CWDT awarded 419 TMC to Tamil Nadu. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Supreme Court increased Karnataka's share to 284.75 TMC, not 312 TMC. Statement 3 is correct: The SC allowed Tamil Nadu to extract 10 TMC of groundwater. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'The dam has a proposed capacity of 48 TMC (thousand million cubic feet)'. The other options are distractors; 50 TMC is close but incorrect.

Explanation

The article states: 'Tamil Nadu maintains that increased upstream storage could enable Karnataka to regulate flows in a manner detrimental to downstream releases during dry years.' This directly explains TN's opposition. Options A, C, and D are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The bill was introduced by Minister of State for Home Affairs Nityanand Rai, indicating the Ministry of Home Affairs is the nodal ministry for this legislation. The Home Ministry handles matters related to national honour and internal security.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the bill amends the 1971 Act. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 1971 Act already criminalises insults to the national anthem; the amendment only adds the national song. Statement 3 is correct as per the article: the bill was passed by voice vote after opposition walkout.

Explanation

The article states that the bill makes intentional disruption punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years, or fine, or both. This is a direct fact from the news.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the bill criminalises intentional disruption of singing Vande Mataram, thereby according it legal sanctity at par with the national anthem. The other options are not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

As per the news, the Delhi Jal Board (DJB) approved the sewerage and wastewater treatment projects worth ₹4,500 crore. DJB is the statutory body responsible for water supply and sewage treatment in Delhi.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the 15 DSTPs have a combined capacity of 103.5 MGD. Statement 2 is incorrect: the total project cost is ₹4,500 crore, while the DSTPs alone cost ₹2,000 crore. Statement 3 is correct: total capacity will increase from 814 MGD to 1,041 MGD. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the new DSTPs will add 227 MGD to the existing 814 MGD capacity, resulting in a total of 1,041 MGD. This exceeds the current sewage load of around 1,000 MGD.

Explanation

DSTPs are located near sewage generation points to directly intercept drains, reducing the need for long sewer networks and pumping. This helps in tackling untreated sewage entering Yamuna, which is the single largest source of pollution in the river.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the HIV and AIDS (Prevention and Control) Act, 2017 as a legal safeguard against discrimination. The other acts are related to mental health, disability, and transgender rights respectively.

Explanation

All three statements are directly mentioned in the article: new infections fell 44.2%, AIDS deaths dropped 79.2%, and viral suppression is 97%. The article also mentions treatment retention at 94%, which is a different metric.

Explanation

The article states that the proportion of people living with HIV over 50 rose from 17% in 2000 to 37% in 2023. 17% is the 2000 figure, 27% and 47% are distractors not mentioned.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that as people with HIV live longer, they develop age-related NCDs like diabetes and hypertension, requiring integrated care. Stigma and funding are secondary concerns, and drug resistance is not mentioned.

Explanation

Union Minister Jitendra Singh is the Minister of State for Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, and he introduced the Bill in Lok Sabha. The Ministry of Personnel oversees administrative reforms and public service matters including examination conduct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Lok Sabha passed the Bill on July 29, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: the maximum punishment is 10 years imprisonment and a fine of ₹50 lakh, not 5 years/₹25 lakh. Statement 3 is correct: the Bill followed the NEET paper leak case and large-scale protests leading to the Education Minister's resignation. Hence option C.

Explanation

The Bill prescribes a maximum fine of ₹50 lakh for offenders involved in paper leaks and unfair means. The other options are distractors: ₹25 lakh is half the amount, ₹75 lakh and ₹1 crore are higher than the actual provision.

Explanation

The article states that the Bill was introduced days after large-scale student protests led by the Cockroach Janta Party forced Dharmendra Pradhan to resign as Education Minister, following the NEET paper leak case. The government acted swiftly to introduce stricter penalties.

Explanation

The article states that Minister of Youth Affairs and Sports Mansukh Mandaviya announced the campaign, indicating the ministry's responsibility. The campaign is led by MY Bharat youth under this ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: PM Modi will launch on August 2, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect because activities are scheduled every Sunday, not Saturday. Statement 3 is correct: over 1 crore youth will take the pledge.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions 'about 1.34 lakh kilograms of narcotic drugs were seized' in the NCB 2025 report. Option A is a crore vs lakh confusion, C is the opium cultivation destroyed figure, D is the 2020 opium cultivation acres.

Explanation

The article states the campaign aims to 'drive home the message of drug-free society' and 'unite young people in a collective national mission against substance abuse'. While sports and meditation are activities used, the core objective is drug abuse awareness.

Explanation

AustralianSuper, Australia's largest superannuation fund, announced a A$500 million investment in Mumbai-based NIIF, taking its total holdings in India to A$3.3 billion. NIIF is India's sovereign wealth fund for infrastructure investment.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: since January, all Indian goods exports to Australia have become tariff-free under ECTA. Statement 2 is incorrect because Australian uranium exports are exclusively for peaceful purposes under IAEA safeguards, not for military use. Statement 3 is correct: eight Australian universities have committed to campuses in India, including the University of Western Australia in Mumbai.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'Two-way trade now exceeds A$50 billion'. This is a key data point for trade-related questions. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article mentions that the Sports Collaboration Roadmap covers sports science, major-event delivery, and capability development, specifically in the context of India's pursuit of the 2036 Olympics. This reflects a strategic partnership beyond just sports, including event management and infrastructure.

Explanation

The article mentions that a committee constituted by the DPIIT (Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade) proposed a direction on copyright and AI training, favoring a licensing regime. This is a key nodal body to remember for exam questions on AI regulation in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court held that AI-driven research can be non-infringing. Statement 2 is incorrect because the court implicitly invoked technological neutrality, not rejected it. Statement 3 is correct as the Adobe study (83% creator AI use) was cited. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the 2025 LSE report found that AI use in the creative industry has sparked dynamism, with different sub-sectors developing tailored tools, often built by start-ups. This is described as a 'Cambrian explosion of innovation'.

Explanation

The article argues that the licensing regime proposed by the DPIIT panel could raise the cost of developing AI models, with the burden falling particularly heavily on start-ups and smaller developers. This could also affect creators and creative businesses as AI tools become embedded in workflows.

Explanation

The Allahabad High Court, through Justices J J Munir and Tarun Saxena, delivered the judgment on July 25, 2026, quashing an FIR and imposing costs on the police and the woman's father.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect - the cost of ₹5,000 was imposed on the woman's father, not the police. The police were asked to pay ₹1,000 jointly and severally. Statement 2 is correct as the court explicitly said Article 21 includes the right to marry. Statement 3 is correct as per the article details.

Explanation

The court imposed a cost of ₹1,000 to be paid jointly and severally by the Superintendent of Police and the Station House Officer concerned to the woman. The father was separately asked to pay ₹5,000.

Explanation

The court held that investigating a consensual marriage between two adults is an abuse of criminal law process and a gross violation of their fundamental right to liberty under Article 21. This principle protects the autonomy of adults in choosing their life partners.

Explanation

The externment order was passed under Section 56 of the Maharashtra Police Act, which permits externment if there is reasonable apprehension of danger to person or property. The Bombay HC quashed the order, holding it 'totally illegal' and not in compliance with the statutory requirements of this section.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Court described externment as an 'extraordinary measure' that deprives a citizen of the fundamental right to free movement, not an ordinary measure. Statement 2 is correct as the Court asked whether action was taken 'just because they belong to one religion' and noted other parties were also involved. Statement 3 is correct as the Court held that the FIRs only showed opposition to government decisions, not danger to person or property.

Explanation

The externment orders were issued on December 3, 2025, for a duration of one year. The Bombay High Court quashed these orders on July 29, 2026, calling them 'totally illegal'.

Explanation

The Court emphasized that externment is an 'extraordinary measure' that deprives a citizen of the fundamental right to free movement under Article 19(1)(d). It held that subjective satisfaction must be based on material on record, and that FIRs showing only opposition to government decisions cannot justify externment. This reinforces the principle that preventive actions must strictly adhere to legal safeguards.

Explanation

The article states that the announcement was made by the Chief Minister's Office (CMO) of Delhi and that the scheme is a state-level initiative. Therefore, the Delhi Government is the implementing body, not a central ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article explicitly excludes women with more than three children. Statement 2 is incorrect: women from families owning a four-wheeler are excluded. Statement 3 is correct: the article states that only the eldest eligible woman in a family qualifies.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the scheme provides ₹2,500 a month to eligible women. The other options are distractors; ₹1,000 is the digital wallet portion under Option 1, not the full amount.

Explanation

The article explains that the digital wallet option aims to promote use of digital rupee, while the full RD/FD option is intended to help women build long-term savings. This dual approach targets financial inclusion and savings culture.

Explanation

The CAG is the constitutional authority under Article 148 that audits government expenditure. In this news, the CAG audited the Swasthya Sathi scheme and tabled its report in the West Bengal Assembly.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: enrolment was 2.43 crore families vs 2.21 crore ration card holders (10% higher). Statement 2 is incorrect: the CAG said none of the 27 government super-speciality hospitals were empanelled as Grade-A, leading to lower revenue. Statement 3 is correct: the CAG specifically mentioned that opting out of Ayushman Bharat deprived migrants of cashless healthcare access.

Explanation

The CAG report specifically mentioned an excess expenditure of ₹46.97 crore on enrolment and distribution of smart cards to 1.65 crore families. The other options are close distractors to test exact recall.

Explanation

The CAG explicitly stated that the 10% higher enrolment than ration card holders meant the 'risk of benefits of the scheme getting passed on to ineligible beneficiaries... could not be ruled out'. This points to weak data verification and potential leakage, which is a core governance issue.

Explanation

CBDC stands for Central Bank Digital Currency, a digital form of fiat money issued by the central bank. The article mentions CBDC wallet as a mode of disbursement under the scheme.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the scheme caps eligibility to women with up to three living children. Statement 2 is correct: one option is to invest the full Rs 2,500 in RD/FD. Statement 3 is correct: the CBDC wallet includes a negative list blocking alcohol, tobacco, narcotics, lottery, and gambling.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the scheme covers women whose annual family income is less than Rs 2.5 lakh. The other options are plausible distractors often used in similar schemes.

Explanation

According to the article, the RD/FD option is designed to 'encourage both immediate financial support and long-term financial security' and 'build a savings corpus over time'. While digital payments are involved via CBDC, the core objective of RD/FD is savings and asset creation.

Explanation

The article mentions that the NWDA functions under the control of the Union Ministry of Jal Shakti. This ministry was formed in 2019 by merging the Ministry of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation with the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the project was a venture of the former Travancore-Cochin State, not a joint venture initially. Statement 2 is incorrect as there was NO formal agreement; only an understanding. Statement 3 is correct as the article states Tamil Nadu moved the Supreme Court in 2012.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that Kerala supplied 'around 150 cusecs' of water to Tamil Nadu for nearly 40 years since 1965. The other options are distractors: 300 cusecs is the head discharge of each main canal of the dam.

Explanation

The article links the stoppage to Kerala's strong opposition to the NWDA's proposal to link west-flowing rivers (Pamba, Achankovil) to Vaippar in Tamil Nadu. Kerala's Assembly passed a resolution against the proposal and enacted a law to regulate inter-state water agreements. While rainfall deficit (2003) was a factor, the immediate trigger was the inter-linking controversy.