30 July 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The article mentions the Goldwater-Nichols Act (1986) of the United States as a success that spent a decade absorbing its readiness costs. The US took 10 years to create theatre commands.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the merger of 17 single-service commands into 3 integrated theatres is mentioned. Statement 2 is incorrect: the VCDS adds a layer between theatre commanders and the Raksha Mantri; theatre commanders are to report directly to the Raksha Mantri once fighting starts, but peacetime habits route through VCDS. Statement 3 is correct: the article proposes a reserve force outside the new structure.

Explanation

The article states: ‘China created theatre commands in two years’ (raised in 2016). This is a key data point for prelims.

Explanation

The article emphasises that the transition may temporarily reduce operational readiness, and India faces pressure on two fronts (China and Pakistan). A readiness framework with metrics, standards, and oversight is needed to manage the risk and avoid losing capability during the transition.

Explanation

The 2021 Office Memorandum was issued by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). It laid down a Standard Operating Procedure for retrospective environmental clearances, which the Supreme Court struck down as an invalid administrative order.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the 2021 OM was struck down but the 2017 notification was upheld. Statement 2 is incorrect: the court allowed a limited, time-bound amnesty through statutory notification for projects of supervening public interest. Statement 3 is correct: the court ruled that future amnesty must be by statutory notification under Section 3 of the Environment Protection Act, 1986.

Explanation

The Union government argued that striking down the regime would affect public projects worth nearly ₹20,000 crore, including hospitals, airports, and steel plants. This figure was cited in the judgment to illustrate the practical consequences of an absolute prohibition on post facto approvals.

Explanation

The Supreme Court invoked its extraordinary power under Article 142 of the Constitution to do complete justice. It retained the authority to grant ex post facto environmental clearance in exceptional cases, even after striking down the 2021 OM. This ensures that the court can balance environmental protection with urgent public interest needs.

Explanation

The news explicitly states that the insurance regulator IRDAI approved the PEPF regulations and other reforms at its meeting on July 28, 2026. IRDAI is the statutory body responsible for regulating the insurance sector in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says PEPF will be a dedicated institutional mechanism for insurance awareness, literacy, grievance redressal, and unclaimed amount recovery. Statement 2 is incorrect: the mandatory tagging applies to 'every insurance proposal, policy and certificate of insurance' – not just new proposals. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions that ProTec General Insurance is the fourth registration since January – comprising two general insurers, one health insurer, and one reinsurer.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the SBSR Act permits up to 100% foreign direct investment in insurers. The earlier limit was 74% (raised in 2021 from 49%). The news also mentions that one life insurer and one general insurer have increased foreign shareholding beyond the earlier 74% limit, confirming the 100% cap is now in effect.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the mandatory tagging has been introduced 'to enhance accountability and traceability across the insurance distribution process, strengthen regulatory oversight and promotes greater transparency for policyholders.' Options A, C, and D are not mentioned as objectives.

Explanation

The article mentions that the statutory notification was issued under the authority of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The MoEF&CC issues environmental clearance notifications under this umbrella Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the July 2021 OM was struck down. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Court did not impose a complete ban; it allowed a 'narrowly tailored amnesty' in public interest, departing from the May 2025 absolute ban. Statement 3 is correct: the March 2017 notification was upheld as a valid limited statutory amnesty.

Explanation

The article states: 'the Environment Ministry had issued ex-post facto ECs to more than 100 projects and issued terms of reference for EIA to at least another 150 projects under the violation category since March 2017.' The correct number for ECs issued is over 100.

Explanation

The SC held that an OM (which lacks the force of law) cannot create a 'perpetual regime' for condoning violations. Only a statutory notification issued under an Act can provide for such amnesty, and that too must be justified by 'supervening public interest'. This upholds the principle of delegated legislation and executive accountability.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that U.S. Central Command (CENTCOM) announced the completion of the strikes. CENTCOM is responsible for U.S. military operations in the Middle East and Central Asia.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: U.S. Central Command said they struck 'dozens' of IRGC targets including command centers and missile/drone facilities. Statement 2 is incorrect: the missile attack was on a U.S. base in Jordan, not Saudi Arabia. Statement 3 is correct: drone strikes caused fires on two natural gas vessels at Damietta port in Egypt.

Explanation

Iranian state media reported that two people were injured in attacks on the island of Qeshm. The article does not mention any fatalities, so the correct number is 2.

Explanation

The article states that the Strait of Hormuz is a 'crucial waterway for global energy supplies' and its closure effectively cuts off a major transit route for oil tankers. This disrupts global energy supply chains and can lead to price spikes and economic instability.

Explanation

The article states that the Indian Statistical Institute Act, 1959 declared ISI an institution of national importance. The new Bill seeks to repeal this Act and replace it with comprehensive legislation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Bill says the President of India will be the Visitor. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Board of Governors will be headed by a Chairperson, not the Director. Statement 3 is correct: All full-time professors and faculty will be members of the Academic Council. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article mentions the Indian Statistical Institute Act, 1959 declared the institute an institution of national importance. The 1995 amendment expanded its degree-granting powers, and 2026 is the year of the new Bill.

Explanation

The article states that the 1959 Act has limited provisions and is inadequate for the evolving academic environment. The new Bill aims to provide comprehensive legislation, strengthen governance, and enable ISI to respond to emerging needs in statistics and allied fields.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that IRDAI approved the reforms at its board meeting. IRDAI is the statutory regulator for the insurance sector in India, established under the IRDA Act, 1999.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article mentions perpetual registration for intermediaries with annual fee. Statement 2 is incorrect: PEPF is established under PEPF Regulations, 2026, not the Insurance Act, 1938. Statement 3 is correct: the 2025 Act raised FDI to 100%.

Explanation

The article states that ProTec General Insurance Ltd is the 'fourth insurance entity licensed in 2026', indicating four entities have been licensed so far this year.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that tagging creates a clear record of who sold the product, making it easier to fix responsibility in cases of mis-selling or disputes. This improves transparency and strengthens consumer confidence.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'China remains the world's largest buyer of oil'. This gives Beijing significant economic leverage over oil-exporting nations like Iran and Gulf states.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as Gulf states are seeking Chinese help. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article says oil imports plunged (declined) by over 40%, not increased. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the Reuters report.

Explanation

The article specifically states: 'In June, Chinese oil imports were down by over 40 per cent, in comparison to last year.' This is a key data point for prelims.

Explanation

The article highlights that China is both a major oil buyer from the Gulf and reportedly Iran's biggest trading partner. This economic leverage, combined with frustration over US limitations, drives the Gulf states' approach to Beijing.

Explanation

The article states that ISRO is building the lander module for Chandrayaan-5, while JAXA is developing the rover. NASA and ESA are contributing payloads but not building the lander.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Chandrayaan-5 is also known as LUPEX. Statement 2 is incorrect because the mission will launch on a Japanese H3 rocket, not an Indian rocket. Statement 3 is correct as per the article. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the mission 'is planned to carry seven scientific instruments for carrying out different kinds of experiments.' The other options are close distractors not mentioned in the text.

Explanation

The article states that 'This mission aims to study water and water-ice both on the lunar surface and the subsurface.' While other options are valid space objectives, this is the specific goal mentioned for Chandrayaan-5. The 100-day duration supports extensive data collection for this purpose.

Explanation

The CCS is the top body for national security matters, headed by the PM. The other committees, such as CCEA, deal with economic issues. This question tests the composition of the CCS as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct from the article: '4th special CCS meeting on the issue'. Statement 2 is correct: 'sources for procurement of LPG have already been diversified and the overall stock and supply positions... remain adequate'. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article mentions 'Rabi season', not Kharif. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states 'This was the 4th special CCS meeting on the issue'. Therefore, before this meeting, three special meetings had already taken place. Options A (Two) and C (Four) are distractors, and D (Five) is incorrect.

Explanation

The article states the PM reviewed measures to keep supply chains uninterrupted and ministers gave presentations on ensuring uninterrupted import of all goods including petroleum, natural gas, and fertilisers. Options A, C, and D are specific measures discussed, but the primary objective is broader supply chain security.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the operation was carried out by US Central Command (CENTCOM), which is responsible for military operations in the Middle East and Central Asia. CENTCOM issued the official statement detailing the strikes on IRGC facilities.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Qeshm is Iran’s largest island located in the Strait of Hormuz. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Strait of Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea, not the Red Sea. Statement 3 is correct: the article states roughly one-fifth of the world’s oil passes through this chokepoint.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that roughly one-fifth (20%) of the world’s oil and liquefied natural gas shipments pass through the Strait of Hormuz. The other options are close distractors but only 20% matches the figure cited.

Explanation

The article states the strikes targeted IRGC command centers, drone facilities, coastal surveillance, and maritime assets on Qeshm Island, which is described as the IRGC’s “primary denial hub” on the strait. The goal is to reduce threats to American forces and commercial shipping by degrading Iran’s ability to project power over this critical chokepoint.

Explanation

The article states that the Bill was moved by the Minister of State for Home, Nityanand Rai. The Ministry of Home Affairs is the nodal ministry for matters related to national symbols and internal security, including the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Bill was passed during the Monsoon Session, not the Budget Session. Statement 2 is correct as the Bill's core purpose is to criminalise insult to Vande Mataram. Statement 3 is correct as per the article: 'The DMK was the only Opposition party to participate in the discussion.'

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The Bill was cleared in about 15 minutes during the post-lunch sitting...' This is a key factual detail that could be asked in a data-centric MCQ.

Explanation

The core objective of the Bill is to extend the legal protection under the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act to the National Song, Vande Mataram. The government argued it was about ensuring the National Song received the same respect as the National Anthem.

Explanation

The Bill was introduced by Minister of State for Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions Jitendra Singh, indicating that the Act falls under the purview of this ministry. The Ministry of Education is not directly responsible for this Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Bill increases imprisonment from 3-5 years to 5-10 years. Statement 2 is incorrect; the timeline is five months, not three. Statement 3 is correct as the Bill allows the Central government to set up a Special Task Force.

Explanation

The Bill enhances the fine for service providers from ₹1 crore to ₹5 crore. ₹10 crore is the fine for organised crime, and ₹50 lakh is the fine for individuals.

Explanation

The Bill mandates a five-month timeline for investigation and trial by fast-track courts, specifically to ensure time-bound justice in cases of paper leaks and other malpractices. This directly addresses the need for speedy resolution, as highlighted in the statement of objects and reasons.

Explanation

Article 324(2) of the Constitution originally provided that the CEC and ECs shall be appointed by the President, subject to any law made by Parliament. The 2023 Act now specifies the selection committee procedure, but the formal appointment is still made by the President.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Act provides for a selection committee of PM, a Union Minister, and the LoP. Statement 2 is correct because the Act changed the earlier executive-dominated process. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Supreme Court has not upheld the Act and is currently hearing petitions challenging it.

Explanation

The Centre cited the Manoj Narula case, which established the 'constitutional trust' doctrine, arguing that the PM's office should be trusted to make impartial appointments. The other options are landmark cases but on different issues (federalism, basic structure, and reservations respectively).

Explanation

The SC observed that with the PM and Union Minister on one side and the LoP on the other, the committee has a 2:1 government majority, which may not demonstrate the required 'show of fairness' for an independent election body. The court emphasized that justice must not only be done but be seen to be done.

Explanation

The article states that the Ministry of External Affairs told the panel that the extradition request is being examined by the competent authorities of India. The MEA handles diplomatic and legal matters related to extradition requests from foreign countries.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the government told the panel that Sheikh Hasina is NOT permitted to conduct political activities from India. Statement 2 is correct as the panel urged early initiation of renewal discussions for the 1996 treaty. Statement 3 is correct as tourist visa services resumed on June 28, 2026.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India resumed tourist visa services for Bangladeshi nationals on June 28, 2026, ending a two-year suspension that began in July 2024. The other options are close distractors based on similar dates.

Explanation

The panel noted that India's approach is guided by its 'civilisational ethos and humanitarian tradition of offering refuge to individuals facing circumstances of grave distress or existential threat'. This reflects India's long-standing cultural and humanitarian principles, not just political or economic considerations.

Explanation

The committee's mandate, as per the article, is to improve tax administration, plug leakages, identify new tax and non-tax revenues, and recommend reforms across departments including excise, registration, mining, and commercial taxes. It is not merely about increasing rates but about structural reforms.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the decline from 5.93% to 5.45%. Statement 2 is incorrect because the White Paper characterizes the deterioration as 'structural rather than cyclical'. Statement 3 is correct as the article notes that committed expenditure has steadily consumed a larger share of revenue receipts. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that the own-tax revenue as a share of GSDP declined to 5.45% in 2025-26 (pre-actuals), which was the lowest level in the review period. 5.93% was the figure for 2021-22, making it a close distractor.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'an inefficiently spent rupee has the same fiscal consequence as a rupee that was never collected.' This broadens the committee's challenge beyond tax departments to include procurement, project implementation, subsidies, and delivery mechanisms as part of fiscal sustainability.

Explanation

The article states that CERC proposed in July 2025 and January 2026 that Grid-India become the Market Coupling Operator. CERC is the statutory regulator under the Electricity Act, 2003 for inter-state electricity matters.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article mentions a 0.3% welfare improvement over four months. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article explicitly says there is no documented allegation of excessive fees, discriminatory access, predatory pricing, or manipulation against IEX. Statement 3 is correct: Grid-India in its June 8 submission asked CERC to reconsider and proposed a round-robin system with ring-fencing.

Explanation

The article states: 'CERC's own shadow pilot recorded a welfare improvement of just 0.3 per cent over four months; a longer dataset puts the gain at only 0.013 per cent.' The question specifically asks for the four-month figure, which is 0.3%.

Explanation

The article argues that under full coupling, every new trading product would require rewriting an algorithm controlled by Grid-India, slowing innovation. It cites the discontinuation of user-defined hourly contracts as evidence. The other options are not supported by the article; no tariff increase or legal violation is mentioned, and competition among generators is not discussed.

Explanation

Coal India Limited (CIL) is a Maharatna public sector undertaking under the administrative control of the Ministry of Coal. The article specifically mentions Coal India's washery capacity and output.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the committee said high-ash coal is a 'major challenge'. Statement 2 is incorrect: the actual utilisation is only about 19.6% (3.59 MT output vs 18.35 MT capacity). Statement 3 is correct: the committee called for pithead beneficiation. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

The report states that Coal India holds a capacity of 18.35 MT per annum for coking coal washing, but produced only 3.59 MT. Option A is the actual output, not capacity. Option C and D are fabricated distractors.

Explanation

The committee noted that pithead beneficiation enables removal of ash and impurities closer to the source, thereby improving transport efficiency, lowering emissions, and enhancing overall economics. Options A and D are exaggerated; option C is unrealistic as imports will still be needed partially.

Explanation

The article mentions that Union Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan resigned following the NEET paper leak, and the bill was brought in by the government to tighten the existing law, indicating the Ministry of Education is the nodal ministry for this legislation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the bill was passed by voice vote in Lok Sabha. Statement 2 is incorrect because the protests were over the NEET examination paper leak, not UPSC. Statement 3 is correct as the bill sets up fast-track courts with defined timelines. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the bill is the 'Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill 2026' and was passed by voice vote in the Lok Sabha on Wednesday, with the article published on July 30, 2026. Hence the year is 2026.

Explanation

The editorial states that the students' uprising 'rang with accumulated anger and resentment at the failure or inability of institutions... to address the crises that weigh down the education system or to assuage their apprehensions about dwindling opportunities for employment.' This is the core systemic concern beyond the immediate bill.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the National Medical Commission (NMC) issued the revised guidelines. The Medical Council of India was replaced by NMC in 2020.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article says eligibility will be based on functional assessment. Statement 2 is correct because petitioners argued the earlier guidelines violated the RPwD Act. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the SC direction that every medical board include doctors with disabilities. Hence all three are correct.

Explanation

The article states that the new benchmark stipulates eligibility based on functional assessment rather than a certificate recording the disability, and designated medical boards will carry out evaluations.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that disability should not be treated as a disqualification; what matters is whether an aspiring doctor can acquire necessary competencies with appropriate support. The guidelines aim to judge candidates on their abilities, not their disabilities.

Explanation

The article mentions the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas as the nodal ministry that oversees the ethanol blending programme. This ministry is responsible for fuel policy and oil marketing companies.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states that the joint study found no need for engine modifications for cars or two-wheelers. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article explains that E20 is not cheaper due to remunerative ethanol prices. Statement 3 is correct: Vehicles from 2023 onwards are certified E20-compatible.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that maize-based ethanol is procured at around ₹71.86 per litre, before adding GST, transportation, storage, and handling costs.

Explanation

The article lists four objectives: improving energy security, reducing crude oil imports, cutting emissions, and boosting farmers' incomes. The overarching aim is to insulate India from global oil price volatility and supply disruptions, i.e., reducing import dependence.

Explanation

The judgment was delivered by Justice Jobin Sebastian of the Kerala High Court on July 15, 2026. The court ruled that non-payment of maintenance itself is economic abuse and domestic violence under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the court held non-payment of maintenance as economic abuse. Statement 2 is incorrect: the court rejected the husband's plea to reduce maintenance and upheld the amount. Statement 3 is correct: the court noted the wife's brief stint (8 months, ₹10,000 salary) did not affect her right to maintenance. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The Kerala High Court upheld the monthly maintenance of ₹20,000 awarded by the lower courts. Additionally, it confirmed ₹2 lakh as compensation for emotional distress. The other options are common distractors used in exam questions.

Explanation

The court held that non-payment of maintenance itself constitutes economic abuse and domestic violence, meaning no separate proof of other abuse is required. This broadens the scope of the DV Act and strengthens women's claims for maintenance. Options B, C, and D are contrary to the judgment.

Explanation

The PM CARES Fund is registered as a public charitable trust under the Registration Act, 1908. The Trust deed was registered in New Delhi on March 27, 2020. It is not registered under the Indian Trusts Act, 1882, nor under the Societies Act or Companies Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the PM is the ex officio Chairperson, and the Union Ministers of Defence, Home Affairs, and Finance are ex officio trustees. Statement 2 is correct: donations get 100% deduction under Section 80G of the IT Act and qualify as CSR expenditure. Statement 3 is incorrect: the fund is audited by a private auditor, M/s SARC & Associates, not by the CAG.

Explanation

The audited financial statement for FY 2022-23 shows a closing balance of ₹6,283.68 crore as on March 31, 2023. ₹5,415.65 crore was the opening balance, ₹6,723.07 crore was total receipts, and ₹7,900 crore is the approximate total spend by the fund since inception.

Explanation

RTI activists argue that PM CARES Fund, though receiving contributions from PSUs (public money) and government employees, is kept outside the RTI Act, CAG audit, and parliamentary oversight. This lack of transparency raises concerns about accountability and potential quid pro quo, similar to the electoral bonds case.

Explanation

The Supreme Court in Dr. Jaya Thakur vs Union of India (2026) held that menstrual health is an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21. Article 14 deals with equality, Article 15 prohibits discrimination, and Article 19 covers freedom of speech, etc.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Bihar introduced menstrual leave first. Statement 2 is incorrect: Karnataka provides 1 day per month, not 2. Statement 3 is correct: Kerala reduces attendance from 75% to 73% for students, effectively allowing up to 3 days of leave. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that only five states have introduced menstrual leave policies: Bihar, Odisha, Karnataka, Kerala, and Sikkim. The other options are distractors: 4 would miss one state, 6 is not mentioned.

Explanation

The Kerala High Court observed that a limited provision for menstrual leave could promote employee welfare, reduce presenteeism, improve productivity, and foster a more inclusive workplace. Option A is a broader goal not directly cited, C is about pay equity, D is the opposite of the policy (it reduces attendance requirements).

Explanation

The article states that IHMCL is NHAI's tolling implementation agency and has awarded the MLFF contract for 12 fee plazas. NHAI is the parent body, but the implementing agency is IHMCL.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as MLFF uses RFID and ANPR to read FASTag and vehicle registration number. Statement 2 is incorrect because MLFF is barrier-less and does not require stopping. Statement 3 is correct as per the Economic Survey 2025-26 target. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the 270-km section on NH-48 is one of the busiest. 2807 km is the total length of NH-48 from Delhi to Chennai. 104 km refers to the number of additional fee plazas for which bids have been invited.

Explanation

The article lists these benefits explicitly: reduce travel time, decongest highways (especially near toll plazas), improve fuel efficiency, and lower vehicular emission. While revenue and data collection may be secondary, the stated objective is operational efficiency and environmental benefit.

Explanation

The article states that the Government of Kerala owns a majority 61.5% stake in the port, while Adani Ports holds 28.9% and the Union government holds 9.6%. This is a key static fact about the port's ownership structure.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article calls it India's first full-fledged deepwater container transshipment port. Statement 2 is correct: the port was notified as a customs port. Statement 3 is incorrect: the port is on the Kerala coast in the Arabian Sea, not the Bay of Bengal.

Explanation

The article mentions that the port is currently equipped to handle 1 million containers per annum, with plans to expand by an additional 6.4 million over two more phases. 2 million TEUs is the total handled in 18 months, not annual capacity.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that India previously relied on foreign hubs for 75% of its transshipment cargo, costing $80-100 per container. Vizhinjam's deepwater capacity and strategic location near the East-West shipping lane aims to reduce this dependence and retain revenue.

Explanation

The Ministry of Railways is the nodal ministry responsible for all railway infrastructure projects in India, including the upgradation of coaching yards and stations. The project was sanctioned by the Ministry of Railways as per the news article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the project cost is Rs 299 crore. Statement 2 is a trap: Visakhapatnam station falls under the South Coast Railway (SCoR) zone, not ECoR. Statement 3 is correct as Electronic Interlocking installation is a key part of the project. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the 'Construction of six additional platforms equipped with modern passenger amenities' as part of the project. The existing 6 platforms are being widened, and 6 new ones are being added.

Explanation

Electronic Interlocking (EI) is a modern signaling system that replaces older mechanical systems. Its primary objectives are to enhance safety by preventing conflicting train movements and to improve operational efficiency by reducing detention time at signals, as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

ISRO is the agency that develops and operates the NavIC system. While the Department of Space oversees space activities, ISRO is the implementing body. The question specifically asks for the nodal body responsible for the system, which is ISRO.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct – NavIC covers India and 1500 km around it. Statement 2 is incorrect – the constellation has only 3 operational satellites, not 4. Statement 3 is correct – the government stated that timing service is functional. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The government stated that the NavIC constellation has three satellites for providing PNT services: IRNSS-1B, IRNSS-1I, and NVS-01. The minimum required for standalone positioning is 4, so the system cannot provide independent navigation. Options 4 and 7 are distractors – 4 is the minimum needed, 7 is the original planned constellation size.

Explanation

The article states that most use-cases involve multi-constellation GNSS receivers, so users continue to get positioning data from other constellations. This means India's dependence on foreign systems increases for positioning, though timing and emergency messaging remain indigenous. Options A and C are incorrect because navigation continues via other systems and emergency messaging is still functional. Option D is wrong because armed forces use NavIC as part of multi-constellation GNSS.

Explanation

The article states that the Ministry of Earth Science works on polar science and highlighted the need for India to work in the Russian Arctic. While the Parliamentary Committee on External Affairs made the recommendations, the actual scientific work falls under the Ministry of Earth Science.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because India is an observer country, not a full member. Statement 2 is correct as the Arctic Council comprises 8 nations with landmass in the region. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article explicitly states that observer countries cannot make financial contributions or undertake research directly in the Arctic.

Explanation

The article states that India is one of the 13 observer countries of the Arctic Council. The other options are distractors - 8 is the number of member nations, not observers.

Explanation

The article clearly states that observer countries do not have decision-making powers and cannot make financial contributions or undertake research directly. The committee recommended full membership so that India can engage in Arctic Council activities more effectively, including having a say in decisions and conducting direct research.

Explanation

The judgment was delivered by Justice Bechu Kurian Thomas of the Kerala High Court. The court specifically addressed the inclusion of private sector salary in the creamy layer assessment for OBC reservation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court held private sector salary cannot be excluded. Statement 2 is incorrect because the income limit is ₹8 lakh, not ₹12 lakh. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions one petitioner's father earned ₹1.12 crore annually and owned flats, land, Audi, and Honda City. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states the income limit prescribed for assessing the creamy layer category is ₹8 lakh. This is the threshold set by the central government for identifying the creamy layer among OBCs. Options ₹6 lakh and ₹10 lakh are common distractors, while ₹12 lakh is the limit for some state-specific schemes but not for central OBC reservation.

Explanation

The court ruled that salary from private sector must be included in gross annual income. Therefore, individuals with high private sector salaries (like ₹1.12 crore or ₹33 lakh) will be considered creamy layer and cannot get non-creamy layer certificates. This ensures that only genuinely backward OBCs get reservation benefits. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The MSP procurement scheme, including the Price Support Scheme, is implemented by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare through agencies like NAFED. The Ministry of Finance handles budget allocation but not direct implementation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: MP govt hiked cap to 60%. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Union government only intended to ensure 100% procurement of tur, masoor, and urad, but it is not yet implemented. Statement 3 is correct: Farmers under SKM demand 100% procurement of moong at MSP.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the MSP for moong is ₹8,780 per quintal for the 2026-27 marketing season. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

Farmers are demanding 100% procurement at MSP because the earlier 25% cap meant they had to sell 75% of their produce in the open market at ₹4,000-5,000/quintal, far below MSP. The hike to 60% still leaves a gap, so protests continue.

Explanation

The Delhi Jal Board (DJB) is the statutory body responsible for water supply and sewage treatment in Delhi. It approved the projects under the leadership of Water Minister Parvesh Sahib Singh.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the approved plants are decentralised STPs (DSTPs), not centralized ones. Statement 3 is correct – 250 water ATMs at ₹58 crore were approved.

Explanation

The article states that when the present government assumed office, the sewage treatment capacity stood at 749 MGD. The target is to increase it to 1,041 MGD, while the Union Home Minister has directed to reach 1,500 MGD by 2028.

Explanation

DSTPs are built on smaller land parcels near clusters of unauthorised colonies, treating sewage close to the source of generation. This eliminates the need for long-distance transportation through extensive pipelines, which is a key advantage over conventional STPs.

Explanation

The article states that the payload received approvals from both Skyroot Aerospace and IN-SPACe, the Government of India’s agency enabling space activities. IN-SPACe is the nodal body for authorizing private sector space missions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly calls it the world’s first lab-grown diamond jewel in space. Statement 2 is incorrect because Vikram-1 is developed by Skyroot Aerospace, a private company, not ISRO. Statement 3 is correct as the article lists six payloads including SOLARAS.

Explanation

The article clearly mentions the jewel is set with 16.9 carats of lab-grown diamonds. The other options are close distractors to test precise recall.

Explanation

Vikram-1 is India’s first privately built orbital launch vehicle, demonstrating that private players can develop and operate orbital-class rockets. This marks a major step in India’s space sector reforms and public-private partnership.

Explanation

The European Commission, which is the executive branch of the EU, announced the €10 billion plan for AI gigafactories. The other options are different EU institutions with distinct roles.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states €10 billion for seven gigafactories. Statement 2 is incorrect because the number was increased from five to seven, not reduced. Statement 3 is incorrect because the companies signed letters of intent (non-binding), not binding contracts.

Explanation

The European Commission aims to attract at least €20 billion in private investments for the projects. The €10 billion figure is the public funding from the EU, while the private investment target is double that amount.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the EU is stepping up efforts to close the technology gap with the U.S. and China. While other options may be secondary benefits, the core strategic driver is competitive parity in AI development.

Explanation

PARAKH (Performance Assessment, Review, and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic Development) is the national assessment regulator under the Ministry of Education. NCERT is a curriculum and research body, NITI Aayog is a policy think tank, and UGC oversees higher education.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as NEP 2020 emphasises experiential, competency-based learning. Statement 2 is incorrect because NEP 2020 is a policy framework, not a constitutional amendment. Statement 3 is correct as PARAKH is the national assessment regulator mentioned in the article.

Explanation

UDISE+ 2025-26 reports total school enrolment at 24.7 crore students, down from 24.8 crore in 2023-24 (a decline of 8.3 lakh students). The other options are close distractors based on previous years' data.

Explanation

The article identifies the 'missing link' as the gap between intent and everyday classroom execution. It argues that reforms are often introduced in isolation rather than as an integrated system, and that teachers need continuous professional development to shift from lecture-based to facilitative teaching.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the prototype rake was developed by the Chennai-based Integral Coach Factory (ICF). RDSO is conducting the trials, not building the train. WCR is the railway zone hosting the trials.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the 16-coach rake built by ICF Chennai. Statement 2 is incorrect because trials are on the Kota-Nagda-Sawai Madhopur section of West Central Railway, not the Delhi-Mumbai mainline. Statement 3 is correct as the train hit 145 kmph on the first day (July 29, 2026). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states the train offers a total payload capacity of 397.02 tonnes. Option D (20.32 tonnes) is the axle load capacity, not total payload. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the train aims to bring faster, time-bound and modern parcel and logistics services. Option A is incorrect as it's not about replacing all freight trains. Option C contradicts the goal of improving logistics. Option D is not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Andaman and Nicobar Islands fall under the Calcutta High Court's jurisdiction. This is a static GK fact about the territorial jurisdiction of Indian High Courts.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions 3 courts in Kolkata and 2 in Port Blair. Statement 2 is incorrect because the time limit is three months, not six. Statement 3 is correct as per the high court notification specifying that appeals go to corresponding fast-track sessions courts.

Explanation

The article clearly states that 5 fast-track courts were designated: 3 in Kolkata and 2 in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands (Port Blair). This is a direct factual recall from the news.

Explanation

The article links the move to the NEET paper leak controversy and student protests, with PM Modi announcing fast-track courts to tackle exam malpractices. The 3-month trial deadline underscores the aim of speedy justice and deterrence.

Explanation

The World Heritage Convention was adopted by UNESCO in 1972 and provides the legal framework for identifying and protecting sites of Outstanding Universal Value. India ratified it in 1977.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Sarnath was inscribed as the 45th site in 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: the first batch in 1983 included Ajanta Caves, Ellora Caves, and Agra Fort, not the Taj Mahal (inscribed in 1984). Statement 3 is correct: the World Heritage Committee consists of 21 member states and meets annually.

Explanation

According to the article, India has 37 cultural, 7 natural, and 1 mixed site, totaling 45. The cultural category includes monuments, historic cities, and cultural landscapes.

Explanation

The article states that inscription 'raises a site's global profile, often attracting greater tourism and creating economic opportunities... while conferring international recognition that often strengthens conservation efforts.' It also notes that inscription does not guarantee automatic protection.

Explanation

The University Grants Commission (UGC) is the statutory body responsible for coordination and maintenance of standards in higher education. It issued the circular allowing one-year PG programmes in ODL/online mode.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the UGC approved ODL and online mode. Statement 2 is incorrect because eligibility is restricted to students with a four-year bachelor's degree with honours, not any three-year degree. Statement 3 is correct as per the article, professional programmes remain under respective regulatory bodies.

Explanation

The UGC clarified that admission is restricted to students who have completed a four-year bachelor's degree with honours. This aligns with the NEP 2020 framework for a one-year PG after a four-year undergraduate programme.

Explanation

The article states that the move is aimed at implementing the one-year postgraduate pathway envisaged under NEP 2020. While it may have secondary benefits, the core objective is to operationalize NEP's flexible education structure.

Explanation

The news article specifically mentions RAF (Rapid Action Force) personnel deployed at Jantar Mantar during the protests. RAF is a specialized wing of CRPF for riot control and crowd management.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as SC directed preservation of ammunition logs. Statement 2 is incorrect because petitioners argued pellet guns cause fatal/severe injuries, not that they cause no harm. Statement 3 is correct as the UN Guidelines caution against using such weapons on crowds.

Explanation

The article states that Sahil Lochab, aged 19, suffered an injured eye in the 20 July firing, cited as evidence of the weapon's brutal impact.

Explanation

The UN Guidelines on Less Lethal Weapons state that deploying pellet guns for crowd dispersal fails the constitutional tests of 'necessity, proportionality, and reasonableness'. These tests are used to evaluate the legality of state action that may infringe on fundamental rights.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Cauvery Water Regulation Committee (CWRC) met and directed Karnataka to release water. The CWMA is a separate appellate body, and the CWDT gave the final award. The Supreme Court is not directly mentioned in this decision.

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect because the shortfall is 60%, not 30%. This is a typical examiner trap where the percentage is distorted.

Explanation

The article states that 3,500 cusecs for 15 days equals about 4.5 thousand million cubic feet (tmc ft). Option A (3.5) is the release rate in cusecs, not the total volume. Options C and D are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article quotes CWRC chief Vineet Gupta stating that there is a 60% shortfall in the reservoirs compared to 30-year data. This data-driven rationale is the basis. The other options are not mentioned in the article.