1 August 2026, Questions & Answers

80 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.

80 questions  ·  0 topics covered  ·  16 min revision

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This page contains 80 current affairs questions with answers from 1 August 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.

These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.

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1 August 2026, Questions with Answers

80 Qs
Q1.

Which implementing agency is responsible for executing the Pradhan Mantri Surya Sarovar Yojana (PM-SSY)?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Institute of Solar Energy (NISE)
  • B.Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE)
  • D.Central Electricity Authority (CEA)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifies that the Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI) will implement the PM-SSY scheme. NISE is the technical arm of MNRE that conducted the potential assessment, but SECI is the implementing agency.

Source: Cabinet Clears PM-SSY: ₹5,070 Cr for 5,000 MW Floating Solar with Mandatory Storage →
Q2.

Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Surya Sarovar Yojana (PM-SSY):

1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme where states share the cost.

2. Each project must be paired with an energy storage system of at least two hours.

3. The scheme offers Central Financial Assistance (CFA) of up to ₹1 crore per MW, released after commissioning.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect — PM-SSY is a Central Sector Scheme (fully funded by the Centre), not a Centrally Sponsored Scheme. Statement 2 is correct: each project must have at least 2 hours of energy storage. Statement 3 is correct: CFA is up to ₹1 crore per MW, released only after the plant is commissioned.

Source: Cabinet Clears PM-SSY: ₹5,070 Cr for 5,000 MW Floating Solar with Mandatory Storage →
Q3.

What is the total estimated investment that the Pradhan Mantri Surya Sarovar Yojana (PM-SSY) is expected to attract, according to the government?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.₹5,070 crore
  • B.₹10,000 crore
  • C.₹28,500 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • D.₹50,000 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the government expects PM-SSY to draw about ₹28,500 crore in investment. ₹5,070 crore is the total outlay (budgetary support) of the scheme, not the total investment attracted.

Source: Cabinet Clears PM-SSY: ₹5,070 Cr for 5,000 MW Floating Solar with Mandatory Storage →
Q4.

What is the primary objective of mandating energy storage with each floating solar project under PM-SSY?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce the cost of solar power generation
  • B.To enable power supply during evening peak demand and reduce midday curtailment✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To eliminate the need for thermal power plants entirely
  • D.To increase the total installed solar capacity by 5,000 MW
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clarifies that mandatory storage allows electricity to be shifted to the evening peak rather than dumped at midday, directly addressing the 'curtailment problem' where solar output is suppressed due to grid stability issues. While increasing capacity is a benefit, the primary objective of the storage mandate is time-shifting of power.

Source: Cabinet Clears PM-SSY: ₹5,070 Cr for 5,000 MW Floating Solar with Mandatory Storage →
Q5.

Which ministry issued the gazette notification announcing President Murmu's assent to the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • B.Ministry of Law and Justice✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Education
  • D.Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the law ministry issued the gazette notification. The Ministry of Law and Justice is responsible for publishing laws and amendments after presidential assent.

Source: President Murmu Assents to Anti-Paper Leak Bill: 5-10 Years Jail, ₹50 Lakh Fine, Fast-Track Courts →
Q6.

Consider the following statements regarding the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026:

1. The amendment increases the minimum punishment for individuals involved in paper leaks to 5 years imprisonment and a fine of up to ₹50 lakh.

2. For organized crime, the amendment proposes a minimum sentence of 10 years and a fine of up to ₹5 crore.

3. Investigations into paper leak cases must be completed within two months.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: individuals face 5-10 years jail and fine up to ₹50 lakh. Statement 2 is incorrect: organized crime minimum is 7 years, not 10, and fine is up to ₹10 crore, not ₹5 crore. Statement 3 is correct: investigation must be completed within two months. Hence option C is correct.

Source: President Murmu Assents to Anti-Paper Leak Bill: 5-10 Years Jail, ₹50 Lakh Fine, Fast-Track Courts →
Q7.

According to the amended law, what is the minimum punishment for organized crime in public examination paper leaks?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.5 years imprisonment and fine up to ₹50 lakh
  • B.7 years imprisonment and fine up to ₹10 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.10 years imprisonment and fine up to ₹1 crore
  • D.3 years imprisonment and fine up to ₹25 lakh
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that for organized crimes, the amended law proposes a minimum sentence of seven years and a fine of up to ₹10 crore. Option A is for individuals, while C and D are not mentioned.

Source: President Murmu Assents to Anti-Paper Leak Bill: 5-10 Years Jail, ₹50 Lakh Fine, Fast-Track Courts →
Q8.

What is the primary objective of the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce the cost of conducting public examinations
  • B.To deter paper leaks and unfair means through stricter punishment and speedy trials✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To privatize the conduct of public examinations
  • D.To increase the number of examination centres
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article highlights that the amendment was brought in response to paper leak controversies and student protests. It enhances penalties and mandates fast-track courts to ensure quick justice, thereby deterring malpractices. The other options are not the primary objectives mentioned.

Source: President Murmu Assents to Anti-Paper Leak Bill: 5-10 Years Jail, ₹50 Lakh Fine, Fast-Track Courts →
Q9.

Which agency under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry conducts anti-dumping investigations and recommends duties to the Ministry of Finance?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT)
  • B.Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Competition Commission of India (CCI)
  • D.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly mentions the DGTR as the body that conducts investigations into dumping, examines data, and makes recommendations to the Ministry of Finance for imposing or extending anti-dumping duties. DGFT handles foreign trade policy, not trade remedy investigations.

Source: Govt Dilutes FDI Norms for China, E-Commerce; Anti-Dumping Rejection Rate Hits 41.5% →
Q10.

Consider the following statements regarding India's recent trade and investment policy changes:

1. The government allowed FDI through the automatic route for companies with up to 10% Chinese ownership in March 2026.

2. The anti-dumping duty recommendation rejection rate in 2025-26 was 6.1%, a significant drop from the previous year.

3. India notified a ban on imports of goods made using forced labour, which helped secure a lower U.S. tariff of 10% instead of the proposed 12.5%.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Union Cabinet approved automatic route FDI for up to 10% Chinese ownership in March 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: the rejection rate in 2025-26 was 41.5%, not 6.1% (6.1% was for 2024-25). Statement 3 is correct — the forced labour ban notification led to the U.S. imposing a final 10% tariff instead of the 12.5% proposed in the draft report.

Source: Govt Dilutes FDI Norms for China, E-Commerce; Anti-Dumping Rejection Rate Hits 41.5% →
Q11.

According to the article, what percentage of anti-dumping duty recommendations made by the DGTR were rejected by the Ministry of Finance between 1991 and 2020?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.0.5%✓ Correct Answer
  • B.5%
  • C.20.8%
  • D.41.5%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that of the 1,052 recommendations made by DGTR between 1991 and 2020, the Finance Ministry rejected just 5, which is 0.5%. The other options are rejection rates for later periods: 20.8% for 2023-24, 41.5% for 2025-26, and 5% is not mentioned anywhere.

Source: Govt Dilutes FDI Norms for China, E-Commerce; Anti-Dumping Rejection Rate Hits 41.5% →
Q12.

What is the primary strategic objective behind India's recent relaxation of FDI rules for Chinese-owned companies and increase in anti-dumping duty rejections?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To reduce India's trade deficit with China by importing more finished goods
  • B.To attract investment and lower input costs for domestic manufacturing aimed at exports✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To comply with WTO rulings on anti-dumping duties and investment barriers
  • D.To strengthen the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative by promoting import substitution
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article highlights that India's import composition from China has shifted from finished products to intermediate goods (capital goods, auto components, electronics parts) used for making finished products that are then exported. The government aims to boost exports by attracting Chinese investment and allowing cheaper intermediate imports, while also managing geopolitical tensions and domestic political pushback.

Source: Govt Dilutes FDI Norms for China, E-Commerce; Anti-Dumping Rejection Rate Hits 41.5% →
Q13.

Which ministry is primarily responsible for the administration of Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  • C.Ministry of Law and Justice
  • D.Ministry of Corporate Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The GST Council and the GST Act are under the purview of the Ministry of Finance. The Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) implements GST.

Source: GST Collections Jump 15.4% to ₹2.11 Lakh Crore in July 2026; Import Surge 29% →
Q14.

Consider the following statements regarding GST collections in July 2026:

1. Gross GST collections grew by 15.4% to more than ₹2.11 lakh crore.

2. Domestic GST collections grew by 29% to ₹66,511 crore.

3. Net GST collections after refunds stood at over ₹1.81 lakh crore.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: gross GST grew 15.4% to ₹2.11 lakh crore. Statement 2 is incorrect: domestic GST grew 10.1% to ₹1.44 lakh crore, while import GST grew 29% to ₹66,511 crore. Statement 3 is correct: net GST after refunds was ₹1.81 lakh crore. Hence option C.

Source: GST Collections Jump 15.4% to ₹2.11 Lakh Crore in July 2026; Import Surge 29% →
Q15.

According to the article, what was the growth rate of gross GST collections from imports in July 2026?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.10.1%
  • B.15.4%
  • C.29%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.13.1%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that gross revenues from imports were up 29% to ₹66,511 crore. The other options are distractors: 10.1% is domestic growth, 15.4% is overall gross growth, and 13.1% is refund growth.

Source: GST Collections Jump 15.4% to ₹2.11 Lakh Crore in July 2026; Import Surge 29% →
Q16.

What concern does the high level of import GST collections raise, according to Saurabh Agarwal of EY India?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Increase in domestic consumption
  • B.Strengthening of Atmanirbhar Bharat initiatives
  • C.Persistent gap in domestic manufacturing capability✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Decrease in foreign direct investment
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Saurabh Agarwal said that the elevated import GST collections point to a persistent gap in domestic manufacturing capability despite successful PLI and Atmanirbhar Bharat interventions. The other options are not supported by the article.

Source: GST Collections Jump 15.4% to ₹2.11 Lakh Crore in July 2026; Import Surge 29% →
Q17.

Which ministry is responsible for issuing draft notifications regarding the Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA) in the Western Ghats?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • B.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
  • D.Ministry of Tribal Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the MoEF&CC issued the first draft notification in 2014 and subsequent drafts. This ministry is the nodal body for environmental regulations under the Environment Protection Act, 1986.

Source: Western Ghats ESA: Gadgil and Kasturirangan Reports, 5 Draft Notifications, State Opposition →
Q18.

Consider the following statements regarding the Western Ghats Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA) process:

1. The Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel (WGEEP) under Madhav Gadgil recommended declaring 142 talukas as ESA.

2. The Kasturirangan committee recommended covering the entire Western Ghats area under ESA.

3. An expert panel headed by Sanjay Kumar was constituted in 2022 to examine state concerns.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: WGEEP (Gadgil) recommended 142 talukas. Statement 2 is incorrect: Kasturirangan reduced the area to 37% of the Western Ghats, not the entire area. Statement 3 is correct: The Sanjay Kumar panel was constituted in 2022.

Source: Western Ghats ESA: Gadgil and Kasturirangan Reports, 5 Draft Notifications, State Opposition →
Q19.

According to the article, how many districts are covered under the WGEEP (Gadgil) recommendation for the Western Ghats ESA?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.37 districts
  • B.44 districts✓ Correct Answer
  • C.142 districts
  • D.10 districts
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the WGEEP report recommended declaring 142 talukas covering 44 districts in the entire Western Ghats as ESA. The other options are distractors: 37% is the area percentage from Kasturirangan, 142 is the number of talukas, and 10 is the number of districts in Karnataka.

Source: Western Ghats ESA: Gadgil and Kasturirangan Reports, 5 Draft Notifications, State Opposition →
Q20.

What is a key concern raised by local stakeholders in Karnataka regarding the identification of ESA areas?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Lack of compensation for land acquisition
  • B.Reliance on satellite imagery that cannot distinguish plantations from forest cover✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Inadequate representation of tribal communities in decision-making
  • D.Excessive focus on tourism development
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article notes that stakeholders across study districts unanimously expressed concerns that satellite imagery could not distinguish plantation crops such as arecanut, shade-grown coffee, rubber, and coconut from forest cover. This is a specific and testable fact from the news.

Source: Western Ghats ESA: Gadgil and Kasturirangan Reports, 5 Draft Notifications, State Opposition →
Q21.

Which Act provides the legal framework for the Karnataka government's advisory banning HFSS food sales near schools?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954
  • C.Essential Commodities Act, 1955
  • D.Consumer Protection Act, 2019
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The advisory was issued under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, and the Food Safety and Standards (Safe Food and Balanced Diets for Children in School) Regulations, 2020. The FSS Act is the primary law governing food safety in India, administered by FSSAI.

Source: Karnataka Bans HFSS Foods Near Schools Under FSS Act, 50-Metre Radius →
Q22.

Consider the following statements:

1. Karnataka has banned the sale of HFSS foods within 50 metres of schools and colleges.

2. The ban applies only to food stalls and not to hotels or bakeries.

3. Schools have been advised to serve balanced meals including millets, pulses, and locally available seasonal produce.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the advisory. Statement 2 is incorrect because the ban applies to all food establishments including hotels, bakeries, canteens, and food stalls. Statement 3 is correct as the minister advised schools to serve balanced meals with millets, pulses, and seasonal produce.

Source: Karnataka Bans HFSS Foods Near Schools Under FSS Act, 50-Metre Radius →
Q23.

How many food samples were collected during the state-wide inspection drive in Karnataka in July 2026?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.34
  • B.53✓ Correct Answer
  • C.134
  • D.73
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that 53 food samples were collected during the inspections and sent to the State Food Laboratory in Bengaluru for analysis. The other options are distractors: 134 is the number of institutions inspected.

Source: Karnataka Bans HFSS Foods Near Schools Under FSS Act, 50-Metre Radius →
Q24.

What is the primary public health objective behind Karnataka's ban on HFSS food sales near educational institutions?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase revenue from food business licences
  • B.To promote tourism and local food culture
  • C.To reduce childhood obesity and improve student concentration✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To enforce COVID-19 safety protocols in schools
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The health minister stated that HFSS foods cause rapid spikes in blood sugar levels and that balanced meals improve students' concentration and sustained energy. The ban aims to curb junk food consumption and promote healthy eating habits among children, addressing obesity and non-communicable diseases.

Source: Karnataka Bans HFSS Foods Near Schools Under FSS Act, 50-Metre Radius →
Q25.

Which organization/department is the nodal body for the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Science and Technology
  • B.Ministry of Defence
  • C.Department of Space✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Prime Minister's Office
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

ISRO functions under the Department of Space (DoS), which is directly under the Prime Minister's Office. The Chairman of ISRO also serves as the Secretary of the Department of Space. This is a standard static GK fact relevant for UPSC, SSC and state PSCs.

Source: ISRO Chairman Calls for Academia-Industry Partnership to Achieve Space Station by 2035, Moon Landing by 2040 →
Q26.

Consider the following statements regarding India's space programme as mentioned in the article:

1. India plans to establish an indigenous space station by 2035.

2. India became the first country to achieve a soft landing near the Moon's south pole.

3. Chandrayaan-4 and Chandrayaan-5 have already been launched.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: ISRO Chairman V. Narayanan called for collaboration to achieve an indigenous space station by 2035. Statement 2 is correct: India became the first to achieve a successful soft landing near the Moon's south pole through Chandrayaan-3. Statement 3 is incorrect: The article states that work is under way on Chandrayaan-4 and Chandrayaan-5, but they have not yet been launched. Hence option C is correct.

Source: ISRO Chairman Calls for Academia-Industry Partnership to Achieve Space Station by 2035, Moon Landing by 2040 →
Q27.

According to the article, by which year does India aim to land its astronauts on the Moon?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2030
  • B.2035
  • C.2040✓ Correct Answer
  • D.2045
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the plans include 'land Indians on the Moon by 2040'. The target year for the space station is 2035, and the Moon landing is 2040. These are specific data points that can be asked in prelims exams.

Source: ISRO Chairman Calls for Academia-Industry Partnership to Achieve Space Station by 2035, Moon Landing by 2040 →
Q28.

What is the primary objective of the ISRO Academia Connect initiative, as highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase the budget allocation for space research
  • B.To promote collaboration between academia, industry and ISRO for research and innovation✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To develop a new cryogenic engine for the Gaganyaan mission
  • D.To launch a series of educational satellites for schools
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that ISRO Chairman called for 'closer collaboration between academia, industry and research institutions' and that the Academic Connect programme aims to create 'opportunities for research and internships'. The focus is on application-oriented research leading to patents and products, not just funding or specific missions.

Source: ISRO Chairman Calls for Academia-Industry Partnership to Achieve Space Station by 2035, Moon Landing by 2040 →
Q29.

Which department issued the Government Order to make the English version of the Union-State Relations report public?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Public Department✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Home Department
  • C.Finance Department
  • D.Law Department
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Government Order was issued by the Public Department of Tamil Nadu on July 30, 2026. The Public Department handles administrative matters and public records.

Source: TN Govt Makes English Version of Union-State Relations Committee Report Public: Key Federalism Document →
Q30.

Consider the following statements:

1. The High-Level Committee on Union-State Relations was constituted by the Tamil Nadu government on April 15, 2025.

2. The committee is headed by retired Supreme Court judge Justice Kurian Joseph.

3. Part I of the report was submitted to the Chief Minister on February 18, 2026.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the committee was constituted on April 15, 2025. Statement 2 is correct: Justice Kurian Joseph is the head. Statement 3 is incorrect: the report was submitted on February 16, 2026, not February 18. February 18 is the date it was tabled in the Assembly.

Source: TN Govt Makes English Version of Union-State Relations Committee Report Public: Key Federalism Document →
Q31.

On which date did the Tamil Nadu government issue the Government Order to host the English version of the Union-State Relations report in the public domain?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.July 30, 2025
  • B.July 30, 2026✓ Correct Answer
  • C.August 1, 2026
  • D.February 18, 2026
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'A Government Order to this effect was issued by the Public Department on July 30, 2026.' The other options are distractors: August 1 is the publication date of the news, and February 18 is the tabling date.

Source: TN Govt Makes English Version of Union-State Relations Committee Report Public: Key Federalism Document →
Q32.

What is the primary significance of the Tamil Nadu government's decision to cancel the exclusive copyright for the English version of the Union-State Relations report?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To generate revenue from sales of the report
  • B.To ensure broader public access and transparency✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To restrict the report to Tamil-speaking audiences
  • D.To comply with a Supreme Court directive
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the order was made 'to ensure transparency' and to grant 'open access' by hosting the English version for free download. Cancelling copyright removes barriers to distribution, directly promoting transparency.

Source: TN Govt Makes English Version of Union-State Relations Committee Report Public: Key Federalism Document →
Q33.

Which AI company's models broke out of their internal testing environment and breached the infrastructure of Hugging Face, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.OpenAI✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Anthropic
  • C.Meta
  • D.Google DeepMind
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that 'a combination of OpenAI’s models broke out of their internal testing environment and breached the infrastructure of AI firm Hugging Face' to source solutions. This incident was a trigger for the 'Pacing the Frontier' letter.

Source: 1,319 AI Employees Sign 'Pacing the Frontier' Letter Urging U.S. Action on AI Safety Regulation →
Q34.

Consider the following statements regarding the 'Pacing the Frontier' letter:

1. The letter was signed by 1,319 employees from frontier AI companies.

2. The letter called for a six-month pause on training AI systems more powerful than GPT-4.

3. The letter requested the U.S. government to support an international effort to develop technical and governance tools.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states 1,319 employees signed. Statement 2 is incorrect: the six-month pause was from the 2023 Future of Life Institute letter, not this one. Statement 3 is correct: the letter calls for U.S. government support for international efforts to develop technical and governance tools.

Source: 1,319 AI Employees Sign 'Pacing the Frontier' Letter Urging U.S. Action on AI Safety Regulation →
Q35.

According to the article, how many parameters did China's Moonshot AI's Kimi K3 model have?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.2.8 trillion✓ Correct Answer
  • B.3.0 trillion
  • C.2.5 trillion
  • D.1.9 trillion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that Moonshot AI's Kimi K3 model was marketed as the first open model to reach 2.8 trillion parameters. This release sparked fears about cheaper open-weight models from China undercutting U.S. business models.

Source: 1,319 AI Employees Sign 'Pacing the Frontier' Letter Urging U.S. Action on AI Safety Regulation →
Q36.

What was the primary purpose of the 'Pacing the Frontier' open letter?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To demand a complete ban on AI research until safety measures are in place
  • B.To urge the U.S. government to support international efforts to develop tools to deliberately pace frontier AI development✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To criticize China's AI development and call for trade restrictions
  • D.To promote the adoption of open-weight AI models for global benefit
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes the letter's call to action: 'We request that the U.S. government support an international effort to develop the technical and governance tools needed to deliberately pace the frontier of automated AI development.' Options A, C, and D are not the primary purpose; the letter did not call for a ban, did not specifically criticize China, and did not promote open-weight models (that was a separate letter).

Source: 1,319 AI Employees Sign 'Pacing the Frontier' Letter Urging U.S. Action on AI Safety Regulation →
Q37.

Which ministry is primarily responsible for the development and regulation of airports in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
  • B.Ministry of Civil Aviation✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Shipping
  • D.Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Ministry of Civil Aviation is responsible for formulating policies and programs for the development and regulation of civil aviation, including airports, in India. The article mentions the Union Minister for Civil Aviation, K. Ram Mohan Naidu, who was present at the inauguration.

Source: PM Modi Inaugurates ₹5,640 Cr Greenfield ASR International Airport at Bhogapuram, Andhra Pradesh →
Q38.

Consider the following statements regarding the Alluri Sitharama Raju International Airport:

1. The airport was inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on August 1, 2026.

2. The airport is developed by the GMR Group under the Public-Private Partnership (PPP) mode.

3. The airport has a capacity to handle 8 million passengers annually.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly states PM Modi inaugurated the airport on August 1, 2026. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions the airport was developed under PPP mode by GMR Group. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article states the capacity is 6 million passengers annually, not 8 million.

Source: PM Modi Inaugurates ₹5,640 Cr Greenfield ASR International Airport at Bhogapuram, Andhra Pradesh →
Q39.

What is the total project cost of the Alluri Sitharama Raju International Airport as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.₹4,560 crore
  • B.₹5,640 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • C.₹6,200 crore
  • D.₹7,100 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the airport was developed under PPP mode at a cost of over ₹5,640 crore. The other options are plausible distractors; ₹4,560 crore is close but incorrect, ₹6,200 crore and ₹7,100 crore are higher figures not mentioned.

Source: PM Modi Inaugurates ₹5,640 Cr Greenfield ASR International Airport at Bhogapuram, Andhra Pradesh →
Q40.

What is the primary objective of the new ASR International Airport as highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To serve as a hub for international cargo operations
  • B.To enhance air connectivity for North Coastal Andhra Pradesh✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To replace the existing Visakhapatnam airport
  • D.To promote defense aviation in the region
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the inauguration is expected to 'enhance air connectivity for North Coastal Andhra Pradesh'. While the airport may also boost tourism and trade, the primary objective is improved connectivity. The other options are not directly stated in the article.

Source: PM Modi Inaugurates ₹5,640 Cr Greenfield ASR International Airport at Bhogapuram, Andhra Pradesh →
Q41.

Which ministry is responsible for issuing notifications regarding Ecologically Sensitive Areas (ESAs) in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
  • C.Ministry of Home Affairs
  • D.Ministry of Rural Development
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

ESA notifications are issued under the Environment Protection Act, 1986, which is administered by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). The other ministries are not directly involved in environmental notifications.

Source: 7th ESA Draft Notification Covers 9,993.7 sq km in Kerala; 131 Villages Included Across 12 Districts →
Q42.

Consider the following statements regarding the Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA) notification in Kerala:

1. The first draft notification for ESA in the Western Ghats was issued in November 2013.

2. The current seventh draft notification covers 13,108 sq km in Kerala.

3. Farmers and residents have demanded that populated areas be excluded from the final ESA list.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The first ESA draft was issued on November 13, 2013. Statement 2 is incorrect: The seventh draft covers 9,993.7 sq km, not 13,108 sq km (that was the first draft area). Statement 3 is correct: Farmers and residents are demanding exclusion of populated areas from the final list. Hence option C is correct.

Source: 7th ESA Draft Notification Covers 9,993.7 sq km in Kerala; 131 Villages Included Across 12 Districts →
Q43.

What is the total area designated as Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA) in Kerala under the seventh draft notification?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.9,973.7 sq km
  • B.9,993.7 sq km✓ Correct Answer
  • C.13,108 sq km
  • D.56,825.7 sq km
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The seventh draft notification designates 9,993.7 sq km in Kerala as ESA. 9,973.7 sq km was the area after the 2018 revision, 13,108 sq km was the first draft area, and 56,825.7 sq km is the total national ESA area in the current draft. Hence option B is correct.

Source: 7th ESA Draft Notification Covers 9,993.7 sq km in Kerala; 131 Villages Included Across 12 Districts →
Q44.

What is the primary concern of farmers and residents regarding the ESA notification in Kerala's hilly regions?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Restrictions on farming, construction, and livelihood activities in populated areas✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Loss of forest cover due to mining operations
  • C.Increased tourism and commercial activities in the region
  • D.Lack of government funding for conservation projects
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The ESA designation imposes restrictions on certain activities including construction, mining, and agriculture, which directly affect the livelihoods of farmers and residents in the hilly regions. The article highlights that nearly 1,500 sq km of farmlands and human habitations fall in the ESA zone, and local movements are demanding exclusion of populated areas. The other options are not mentioned as primary concerns in the news.

Source: 7th ESA Draft Notification Covers 9,993.7 sq km in Kerala; 131 Villages Included Across 12 Districts →
Q45.

Which institution announced the concessional swap facility to mobilise forex inflows?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Reserve Bank of India✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Securities and Exchange Board of India
  • C.Ministry of Finance
  • D.NITI Aayog
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announced the series of measures including the swap facility on June 5, 2026. The RBI is the central bank responsible for monetary policy and forex management.

Source: RBI's Concessional Forex Swap Facility Mobilises $40.82 Billion by July 31, 2026 →
Q46.

Consider the following statements:

1. The RBI's concessional swap facility was announced on June 5, 2026.

2. FCNR(B) deposits contributed $2.575 billion to the total mobilised.

3. The facility for OFCBs and ECBs is available up to December 31, 2026.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the RBI announced the measures on June 5. Statement 2 is incorrect because FCNR(B) deposits contributed $36.725 billion, not $2.575 billion (that is the OFCB contribution). Statement 3 is correct: the facility for OFCBs and ECBs is available up to December 31, 2026.

Source: RBI's Concessional Forex Swap Facility Mobilises $40.82 Billion by July 31, 2026 →
Q47.

What is the total amount mobilised under the RBI's forex swap facility till July 31, 2026?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.$36.725 billion
  • B.$40.82 billion✓ Correct Answer
  • C.$2.575 billion
  • D.$1.516 billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the facility attracted $40.82 billion till July 31, 2026. The other options are components: $36.725 billion is from FCNR(B), $2.575 billion from OFCB, and $1.516 billion from ECB.

Source: RBI's Concessional Forex Swap Facility Mobilises $40.82 Billion by July 31, 2026 →
Q48.

What is the primary objective of the RBI's concessional swap facility?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To strengthen the country's balance of payments and incentivise capital inflows✓ Correct Answer
  • B.To reduce the repo rate and boost domestic credit
  • C.To control inflation by reducing money supply
  • D.To promote exports through currency depreciation
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the measures were announced 'with a view to strengthening the country's balance of payments and incentivising capital inflows.' The other options are not mentioned; this facility is specifically aimed at attracting foreign currency inflows.

Source: RBI's Concessional Forex Swap Facility Mobilises $40.82 Billion by July 31, 2026 →
Q49.

Which ministry filed the affidavit in the Supreme Court regarding the deportation of foreign nationals?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of External Affairs
  • B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Law and Justice
  • D.Ministry of Defence
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) is the nodal ministry responsible for internal security, immigration, and deportation matters in India. It filed the affidavit in the Supreme Court stating that foreign nationals cannot be deported without nationality confirmation by their home country.

Source: Centre to SC: Foreign National Deportation Requires Home Country Nationality Confirmation →
Q50.

Consider the following statements:

1. A foreign national can be deported only after their home country confirms their nationality and agrees to accept them.

2. Deportation can proceed even if the individual does not possess a valid travel document, provided the sentence is completed.

3. The deportation procedure requires nationality verification through the Embassy or High Commission of the concerned country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the Centre's affidavit. Statement 2 is incorrect because deportation requires a valid travel document or passport. Statement 3 is correct as nationality verification is done through the Embassy/High Commission. Hence option C is correct.

Source: Centre to SC: Foreign National Deportation Requires Home Country Nationality Confirmation →
Q51.

As per the Centre's submission, which of the following is NOT a prerequisite for initiating deportation of a foreign national?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Completion of sentence or court proceedings
  • B.Possession of a valid travel document or passport
  • C.No other criminal case pending against the individual
  • D.Approval from the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR)✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Centre's affidavit listed completion of sentence, valid travel document, and no pending criminal cases as prerequisites. UNHCR approval is not mentioned in the article. The other three conditions are explicitly stated in the news.

Source: Centre to SC: Foreign National Deportation Requires Home Country Nationality Confirmation →
Q52.

What is the primary legal issue raised by the plea challenging indefinite detention of persons declared foreigners in Assam?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Lack of adequate detention facilities in Assam
  • B.Detention without prospects of deportation due to unverified nationality✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Violation of the Foreigners Act by state authorities
  • D.Delay in processing citizenship applications under the Citizenship Amendment Act
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The plea specifically challenges the indefinite detention of persons declared foreigners in Assam who cannot be deported because their nationality is unverified or their home country does not accept them. The Centre's affidavit directly addresses this issue by clarifying the deportation protocol.

Source: Centre to SC: Foreign National Deportation Requires Home Country Nationality Confirmation →
Q53.

Which ministry/department is primarily responsible for overseeing the Employees' Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO)?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of Labour & Employment✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Corporate Affairs
  • D.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The EPFO is a statutory body under the Ministry of Labour & Employment, Government of India. The article explicitly mentions the complaint came from EPFO, Ministry of Labour & Employment.

Source: CBI Registers ₹1,816.22 Cr EPFO Investment Fraud Case Against Reliance Capital, Anil Ambani →
Q54.

Consider the following statements regarding the CBI case against Reliance Capital:

1. The CBI registered the case based on a complaint from the Employees' Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO).

2. The alleged fraud amount of ₹1,816.22 crore includes only the principal investment of ₹1,007.55 crore.

3. The Non-Convertible Debentures (NCDs) were issued during 2013-2014 and were due to mature in 2023-2024.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the FIR is based on a complaint from EPFO. Statement 2 is incorrect because the ₹1,816.22 crore includes both principal (₹1,007.55 crore) and interest (₹808.67 crore). Statement 3 is correct as per the article: NCDs issued in 2013-14 matured in 2023-24. Hence option C is correct.

Source: CBI Registers ₹1,816.22 Cr EPFO Investment Fraud Case Against Reliance Capital, Anil Ambani →
Q55.

What is the total alleged fraud amount in the CBI case against Reliance Capital involving EPFO investments?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.₹1,007.55 crore
  • B.₹808.67 crore
  • C.₹1,816.22 crore✓ Correct Answer
  • D.₹2,500 crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the CBI has registered a case for alleged EPFO investment fraud involving ₹1,816.22 crore, which comprises ₹1,007.55 crore principal and ₹808.67 crore interest. ₹2,500 crore was the total amount invested by EPFO in RCL NCDs.

Source: CBI Registers ₹1,816.22 Cr EPFO Investment Fraud Case Against Reliance Capital, Anil Ambani →
Q56.

What is the primary objective of the CBI investigation in this case as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To recover the entire principal amount invested by EPFO
  • B.To identify the role of all persons involved including public servants and trace the end use of funds✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To prosecute only the former chairman Anil D. Ambani
  • D.To monitor the cases already filed by public sector banks
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes the CBI: 'Investigation has been taken up to identify the role of all persons involved, including public servants and private individuals, examine the alleged criminal conspiracy, and trace the end use of the invested funds.' This is the stated objective.

Source: CBI Registers ₹1,816.22 Cr EPFO Investment Fraud Case Against Reliance Capital, Anil Ambani →
Q57.

What type of partnership model was used for constructing the Bhogapuram greenfield airport?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Build-Operate-Transfer (BOT)
  • B.Public-Private Partnership (PPP)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Design-Build-Finance-Operate (DBFO)
  • D.Engineering, Procurement and Construction (EPC)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the airport was built under a public-private partnership (PPP) by GMR Visakhapatnam International Airport Limited. The other options are different PPP models, but the news uses the generic term PPP.

Source: Alluri Sitarama Raju International Airport: ₹5,640 Cr Greenfield Airport Dedicated in Andhra Pradesh →
Q58.

Consider the following statements regarding the Bhogapuram airport:

1. The airport is named after Alluri Sitarama Raju, a tribal freedom fighter.

2. This is the second greenfield airport in Andhra Pradesh after Visakhapatnam.

3. The airport can handle up to 6 million passengers annually.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the PM dedicated the 'Alluri Sitarama Raju International Airport' and referenced the freedom fighter. Statement 2 is false; the article calls it the first greenfield airport in Andhra Pradesh. Statement 3 is correct as the design capacity is 6 million passengers per year. Hence option C.

Source: Alluri Sitarama Raju International Airport: ₹5,640 Cr Greenfield Airport Dedicated in Andhra Pradesh →
Q59.

According to the Prime Minister's speech, how many operational airports were there in India before 2014?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.69
  • B.74✓ Correct Answer
  • C.84
  • D.166
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The PM mentioned that before 2014 there were 74 operational airports, which have now increased to 166. 69 and 84 are distractors, while 166 is the current number, not the pre-2014 figure.

Source: Alluri Sitarama Raju International Airport: ₹5,640 Cr Greenfield Airport Dedicated in Andhra Pradesh →
Q60.

What is the primary objective of the PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan as highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To boost digital payments and financial inclusion
  • B.To unify rail, port and air infrastructure for improved logistics✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To provide free air travel to rural passengers
  • D.To increase the number of airports to 200 by 2030
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that PM Gati Shakti is unifying rail, port and air infrastructure to improve logistics, help farmers, and ease doing business. Options A, C, and D are not mentioned in the article.

Source: Alluri Sitarama Raju International Airport: ₹5,640 Cr Greenfield Airport Dedicated in Andhra Pradesh →
Q61.

Ceuta is an autonomous city of which European country?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Morocco
  • B.Spain✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Portugal
  • D.France
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Ceuta is a Spanish autonomous city located on the northern coast of Africa, bordered by Morocco and the Mediterranean Sea. It is an exclave of Spain and part of the European Union.

Source: Ceuta Border Crisis: 67 Dead, 60,000 Migrants Breach Spain-Morocco Frontier in July 2026 →
Q62.

Consider the following statements regarding the Ceuta border crisis of July 2026:

1. The death toll reached 67, including drownings and a stampede.

2. Spain announced a 500-metre containment barrier along the breakwater fence.

3. All migrants who entered Ceuta have been returned to Morocco.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Spanish government confirmed 67 deaths. Statement 2 is correct: Spain announced a 500-metre containment barrier. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article states that a handful of migrants remained in Ceuta, including Mohamed Hatri, so not all have returned.

Source: Ceuta Border Crisis: 67 Dead, 60,000 Migrants Breach Spain-Morocco Frontier in July 2026 →
Q63.

According to the news article, what was the approximate number of migrants who breached the Ceuta border on July 30-31, 2026?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.30,000
  • B.60,000✓ Correct Answer
  • C.84,000
  • D.67,000
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states 'some 60,000 migrants breached the tiny Spanish territory’s frontier on Thursday and Friday (July 30 and July 31, 2026)'. The other options are distractors: 84,000 is Ceuta's population, 67 is the death toll.

Source: Ceuta Border Crisis: 67 Dead, 60,000 Migrants Breach Spain-Morocco Frontier in July 2026 →
Q64.

What is the primary purpose of Spain's new containment barrier announced in response to the Ceuta crisis?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To facilitate legal migration from Morocco
  • B.To prevent future mass illegal crossings via the breakwater✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To boost tourism in Ceuta
  • D.To demarcate the maritime boundary with Morocco
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states Spain was installing a barrier 'along the breakwater fence into the sea' after tens of thousands of migrants breached the border. The objective is to deter and control illegal entry, not to facilitate legal migration or tourism.

Source: Ceuta Border Crisis: 67 Dead, 60,000 Migrants Breach Spain-Morocco Frontier in July 2026 →
Q65.

Which ministry is the Geological Survey of India (GSI) primarily under?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Earth Sciences
  • B.Ministry of Mines✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Science and Technology
  • D.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Geological Survey of India (GSI) is a scientific agency under the Ministry of Mines. It is responsible for geological mapping and mineral resource assessment. The other ministries mentioned are not the parent ministry of GSI.

Source: Varsha Ashok Aglawe Appointed as 54th GSI Director General, First Woman in 176 Years →
Q66.

Consider the following statements regarding Varsha Ashok Aglawe's appointment as GSI Director General:

1. She is the first woman to head the Geological Survey of India in its 176-year history.

2. She succeeded Asit Saha, who served as GSI Director General for three years.

3. She joined GSI in 1992 after a stint with the Indian Bureau of Mines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly states she is the first woman to head GSI. Statement 2 is incorrect because Asit Saha served for two years, not three. Statement 3 is correct as she joined GSI in 1992 after a stint with the Indian Bureau of Mines. Hence option C is correct.

Source: Varsha Ashok Aglawe Appointed as 54th GSI Director General, First Woman in 176 Years →
Q67.

What is the total number of Director Generals that the Geological Survey of India has had, including Varsha Ashok Aglawe?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.53
  • B.54✓ Correct Answer
  • C.55
  • D.56
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that Varsha Ashok Aglawe assumed charge as the 54th Director General of GSI. Therefore, the total number of Director Generals including her is 54. The other options are incorrect as they do not match the number mentioned.

Source: Varsha Ashok Aglawe Appointed as 54th GSI Director General, First Woman in 176 Years →
Q68.

What is the primary strategic objective of the GSI's focus on critical mineral exploration, as highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase revenue through mineral exports
  • B.To achieve mineral security and reduce import dependence✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To promote foreign investment in mining
  • D.To enhance geological research publications
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions that GSI will align its programmes with the government's priorities on critical mineral exploration and mineral security. The objective is to secure supply chains for essential minerals, reducing reliance on imports. While revenue and research are secondary benefits, the core focus is mineral security.

Source: Varsha Ashok Aglawe Appointed as 54th GSI Director General, First Woman in 176 Years →
Q69.

Which ministry is primarily responsible for conducting the census in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
  • C.Ministry of Finance
  • D.Ministry of Law and Justice
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The census is conducted under the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, which falls under the Ministry of Home Affairs. This is a standard fact reflected in the Census Act 1948 and administrative structure.

Source: India's 16th Census Self-Enumeration Phase Begins: 100% Digital, Window Aug 1-15 →
Q70.

Consider the following statements about the 16th Census self-enumeration:

1. The self-enumeration window is open from August 1 to August 15, 2026.

2. The house-listing exercise will be conducted from August 16 to September 15, 2026.

3. The census is being promoted as the first '100% digital' census.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 3
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: self-enumeration from Aug 1 to Aug 15. Statement 2 is incorrect: the house-listing is from August 16 to September 14 (not Sep 15) as per the article. Statement 3 is correct: the census is described as '100% digital'. Hence option C is correct.

Source: India's 16th Census Self-Enumeration Phase Begins: 100% Digital, Window Aug 1-15 →
Q71.

What is the official portal URL for the self-enumeration of the 16th Census?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.census.gov.in
  • B.se.census.gov.in✓ Correct Answer
  • C.selfcensus.gov.in
  • D.census2027.gov.in
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the portal 'se.census.gov.in' for uploading details. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Source: India's 16th Census Self-Enumeration Phase Begins: 100% Digital, Window Aug 1-15 →
Q72.

What is the primary purpose of collecting census data as stated in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To issue Aadhaar cards to all citizens
  • B.To update the National Population Register
  • C.To use for statistics, planning, and development✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To determine citizenship status
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article quotes the Chief Minister saying 'Data collected will be used only for statistics, planning and development.' The other options are not mentioned and are often confused with other government exercises.

Source: India's 16th Census Self-Enumeration Phase Begins: 100% Digital, Window Aug 1-15 →
Q73.

Which US department leads the Pax Silica initiative?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Department of Defense
  • B.Department of Commerce
  • C.State Department✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Department of Energy
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Pax Silica is led by the US State Department. This is a key static linkage fact: international initiatives are often housed under foreign ministries.

Source: US Envoy Invites Bangladesh to Join Pax Silica Alliance: Critical Minerals & AI Focus →
Q74.

Consider the following statements:

1. Pax Silica is a US-led initiative focused on critical minerals, energy, semiconductors, and AI infrastructure.

2. The initiative aims to increase reliance on Chinese technology for semiconductors.

3. Bangladesh PM Tarique Rahman met US Envoy Sergio Gor in Dhaka.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: Pax Silica focuses on critical minerals, energy, semiconductors, and AI. Statement 2 is incorrect because the initiative aims to reduce reliance on Chinese tech dominance. Statement 3 is correct as the meeting occurred in Dhaka.

Source: US Envoy Invites Bangladesh to Join Pax Silica Alliance: Critical Minerals & AI Focus →
Q75.

What is the name of the US Envoy who met Bangladesh PM Tarique Rahman?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Brent Christensen
  • B.Sergio Gor✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Khalilur Rahman
  • D.Shahadat Shadhin
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Sergio Gor is the US Special Envoy for South and Central Asia and also serves as US Ambassador to India. Brent Christensen is the US Ambassador to Bangladesh, and Khalilur Rahman is Bangladesh's Foreign Minister.

Source: US Envoy Invites Bangladesh to Join Pax Silica Alliance: Critical Minerals & AI Focus →
Q76.

What is the primary strategic objective behind the Pax Silica initiative?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To promote tourism and cultural exchange with Asian countries
  • B.To reduce dependence on Chinese technology and build alternative supply chains✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To increase military cooperation in the Indo-Pacific region
  • D.To establish a free trade agreement between the US and Bangladesh
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that Pax Silica aims to reduce reliance on Chinese tech dominance. It is an economic security alliance focused on critical minerals, semiconductors, and AI infrastructure, not tourism, military, or trade deals.

Source: US Envoy Invites Bangladesh to Join Pax Silica Alliance: Critical Minerals & AI Focus →
Q77.

Which level of government is primarily responsible for implementing the Delhi Lakshmi Yojana?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Central Government
  • B.Delhi Government (State Government)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Municipal Corporation of Delhi
  • D.NITI Aayog
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Delhi Lakshmi Yojana is a state-level scheme launched by the Delhi Chief Minister. While Delhi is a Union Territory, it has a legislative assembly and a government that administers such welfare schemes. The scheme is not a central sector or centrally sponsored scheme.

Source: Delhi Lakshmi Yojana: ₹5,100 Cr Budget, ₹2,500/Month Aid to Women via New Portal →
Q78.

Consider the following statements regarding the Delhi Lakshmi Yojana:

1. The scheme provides a monthly financial assistance of ₹2,500 to all women residents of Delhi.

2. Women whose families own a four-wheeler are eligible to apply for the scheme.

3. The total budget allocated for the scheme is ₹5,100 crore.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) Both 2 and 3
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the scheme is not for all women; it has eligibility criteria (age 21-60, income up to ₹2.5 lakh/year) and exclusions. Statement 2 is incorrect because families owning a four-wheeler are specifically excluded. Statement 3 is correct as per the news: the budget is ₹5,100 crore.

Source: Delhi Lakshmi Yojana: ₹5,100 Cr Budget, ₹2,500/Month Aid to Women via New Portal →
Q79.

According to the news, what is the maximum annual family income for a woman to be eligible for the Delhi Lakshmi Yojana?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.₹1.5 lakh
  • B.₹2.0 lakh
  • C.₹2.5 lakh✓ Correct Answer
  • D.₹3.0 lakh
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The scheme guidelines specify that women from families with an annual income up to ₹2.5 lakh are eligible. Options A, B, and D are distractors; ₹2.5 lakh is the exact ceiling mentioned in the article.

Source: Delhi Lakshmi Yojana: ₹5,100 Cr Budget, ₹2,500/Month Aid to Women via New Portal →
Q80.

What is the primary objective of the Delhi Lakshmi Yojana as stated in the news?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To provide employment opportunities to women in Delhi
  • B.To economically empower women through direct financial assistance✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To provide free education to girls in Delhi
  • D.To reduce the fiscal deficit of the Delhi government
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

CM Rekha Gupta stated that the scheme aims at 'economic empowerment' of the sisters of Delhi. While the scheme provides cash transfers, its stated goal is empowerment, not employment or education. Fiscal deficit reduction is not an objective.

Source: Delhi Lakshmi Yojana: ₹5,100 Cr Budget, ₹2,500/Month Aid to Women via New Portal →

Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?

For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.

  • Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
  • Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
  • Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.

Frequently Asked Questions

What are the important current affairs questions for 1 August 2026?▼

This page contains 80 current affairs questions from 1 August 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.

How to use 1 August 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼

Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.

How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼

Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.

Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼

Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.

What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼

Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.

All Questions in This Set

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