3 August 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The judgment explicitly invokes Article 142, which empowers the Supreme Court to pass any decree necessary for complete justice, to make its directions legally binding on all authorities.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the judgment prohibits forced rescue of consenting adults. Statement 2 is false because the article notes that the judgment does not acknowledge sex workers or their collectives. Statement 3 is correct as the court recognizes that agency and vulnerability can coexist.

Explanation

The article states the judgment was delivered on May 29, 2026. August 3, 2026 is the publication date of the analysis article, not the judgment date.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that caste structures every institution responsible for implementation, and that bureaucracy is not neutral for Dalit and Adivasi women. This is identified as a major challenge, while funding and constitutional backing are less emphasized, and sex worker unions are not opposing the judgment.

Explanation

The CAG is the constitutional authority under Article 148 responsible for auditing government schemes and accounts. The report specifically mentions 'performance audit report by the CAG'.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: 53% of parents cited financial distress. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article says 13% migration, not 14%. Statement 3 is correct: 520 schools had no teachers affecting 8,596 students.

Explanation

The CAG observed that scheme fund utilisation ranged between a low 46% and 65% over the five-year period. The other options are close distractors but the correct range is 46-65% as per the article.

Explanation

The CAG recommended 'initiate community awareness drives, counselling sessions, and periodic surveys to identify out-of-school children and bring them back into formal schooling'. Option B captures this objective.

Explanation

The Bill is introduced by the Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, who heads the Ministry of Finance. The Ministry of Finance handles all taxation-related legislation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Bill eases conditions for offshore funds. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Bill removes the ₹100 crore corpus requirement. Statement 3 is correct as the Bill replaces the June 5 Ordinance. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Bill removes the condition of minimum monthly average corpus requirement of ₹100 crore. Other amounts are distractors.

Explanation

The article states that the proposed changes are expected to enhance the attractiveness of India's onshore fund management ecosystem and facilitate relocation of offshore fund management activities to India. Options A, C, and D are opposite to the stated objective.

Explanation

Article 341 of the Constitution empowers the President to specify castes, races, or tribes as Scheduled Castes. Article 340 relates to the appointment of a Backward Classes Commission, Article 342 deals with Scheduled Tribes, and Article 343 concerns the official language of the Union.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Bombay HC upheld the 1950 Order. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Court did not rule that the Order violates Articles 14 and 25; rather, the petitioner made this argument and the Court rejected it. Statement 3 is correct as the Court followed the Soosai vs. Union of India precedent. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

Paragraph 3 of the 1950 Order states that no person who professes a religion different from Hindu, Sikh, or Buddhist shall be deemed a member of a Scheduled Caste. This excludes Christians and Muslims from SC status under the current law.

Explanation

The Bombay HC emphasized that under Article 141, the law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all courts in India. The Court held that mere pendency of a constitutional challenge does not suspend the binding effect of existing law, and unless the Supreme Court overrules or stays its earlier decision, every court must apply it.

Explanation

The 2009 US-UAE Nuclear Deal is referenced in the article as the gold standard, as it bound the UAE to forswear enrichment and reprocessing and accept the IAEA Additional Protocol. The US-Saudi 123 Agreement departs from this template by allowing enrichment.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Saudi agreement does NOT contain renunciation of enrichment and reprocessing; it leaves open a black box enrichment facility. Statement 2 is correct as the deal uses a bilateral inspection framework. Statement 3 is correct because President Trump announced the deal hinges on Saudi accession to the Abraham Accords. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Congress has 90 working days to review the deal and would need a veto-proof majority to block it. The other options are common distractors used in exam contexts.

Explanation

The article argues that by allowing enrichment for a state that has conditioned its ambitions on Iran's nuclear progress, the deal weakens nonproliferation norms and risks both Saudi Arabia and Iran edging toward weapons capability, eroding Israel's nuclear monopoly and increasing the chance of preventive strikes.

Explanation

EPR is a policy approach that shifts the responsibility for end-of-life product management from municipalities to producers. The article mentions EPR under the Battery Waste Management Rules, 2022, E-Waste Rules, 2022, C&D Waste Rules, 2025, and End-of-Life Vehicles Rules, 2025.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct — urban mining recovers materials from city waste. Statement 2 is incorrect — urban mining includes e-waste, construction & demolition (C&D) waste, and end-of-life vehicles (ELVs), not just e-waste. Statement 3 is correct — the article states secondary production consumes far less energy than primary production.

Explanation

The Battery Waste Management Rules, 2022 require new batteries to contain 5% domestically recycled material from 2027-28, rising to 20% by 2030-31. The 2% is a distractor, 10% is not mentioned, and 20% is the target for 2030-31, not 2027-28.

Explanation

The Union Cabinet approved the incentive scheme in September 2025 specifically to build domestic capacity for separating and producing critical minerals from secondary sources (urban mining). This aims to reduce India's dependence on imported critical minerals and strengthen resource security.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that NOTTO launched the portal. NITI Aayog is not involved. CDAC developed the portal but did not launch it. The Ministry of Health oversees NOTTO but the launch was by NOTTO itself.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the portal generates a country-wide waiting list and updates status in real time. Statement 2 is incorrect: only hospitals, state health departments, and NOTTO can access the portal; patients cannot register directly. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions pledges are Aadhaar-linked to ensure clarity on the donor's wish.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Tamil Nadu conducts the highest number of deceased donor transplants (266). Delhi leads in total transplants (4,564) but not specifically in deceased donor transplants. The other options are not mentioned with specific numbers.

Explanation

The article discusses that states like Telangana, Maharashtra, Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, etc., have their own scoring methods or priority rules. NOTTO cannot force states to change, and consultation is ongoing to bring them on the same page. While organ shortage and technology are challenges, the specific hurdle highlighted for uniform allocation is the differing state criteria.

Explanation

The Bill deals with tax amendments and is introduced by the Ministry of Finance, as tax policy falls under its purview. The article mentions Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman's statements, confirming the ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Bill removes 8 of 13 conditions. Statement 2 is correct: the exemption is extended by 10 years to 2040-41. Statement 3 is incorrect: the tax holiday is for 15 years (till March 31, 2041), not 10 years. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the government proposes to extend the five-year tax exemption given till 2030-31 in the Budget by 10 years, making it available till 2040-41. Options A is the previous deadline, B and D are distractors.

Explanation

Experts quoted in the article say the changes will bring India in line with global fund structures and enhance competitiveness as a fund management destination. The objective is to attract foreign capital, not increase tax revenue or discourage investment. Option D is not the primary objective.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Japan's Finance Ministry confirmed the yen-buying intervention and issued statements about further action. The Ministry of Finance is the nodal body for currency intervention in Japan, working in coordination with the Bank of Japan.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article mentions the 2011 coordinated action to weaken the yen. Statement 2 is correct: U.S. Treasury Secretary Bessent said Washington 'will not hesitate to participate in further joint intervention'. Statement 3 is incorrect: the dollar FELL 0.6% against the yen, not rose.

Explanation

The article states: 'Japan may have sold as much as $58.97 billion to buy yen when it intervened in New York markets on Thursday'. This is based on BOJ data estimates. The other options are close distractors but incorrect.

Explanation

The article explains that the Fed facility, introduced in 2020, allows Japan to raise dollar liquidity without outright sales of U.S. Treasuries, easing funding pressures on Tokyo for intervention. This is a liquidity support tool, not a direct exchange rate or interest rate tool.

Explanation

The article repeatedly refers to the RFCTLARR Act, 2013, as the legal basis for farmers' demand for market-rate compensation. The earlier Land Acquisition Act, 1894 has been replaced. The MRTP Act is a state law for town planning, and SEZ Act is for special economic zones.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the project is called Karnala-Sai-Chirner Navanagar. Statement 2 is correct: 124 villages are earmarked. Statement 3 is false; the government offered ready-reckoner rate, not market rate.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that MMRDA forwarded only 42 objections to the UDD in September 2024, out of 17,171 submitted by farmers. This is a key data point showing the trust deficit.

Explanation

The article details how farmers have suffered from decades-long legal battles and unpaid compensation from CIDCO's Navi Mumbai project and the scrapped SEZ. This history has created a deep trust deficit, as seen in Jitendra Patil and Pramod Thakur's stories.

Explanation

The Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal (CWDT) was constituted in 1990 under the Inter-State Water Disputes Act, 1956. Its final award was later modified by the Supreme Court. The other options are either oversight bodies (CWMA, CWRC) or a generic name not specific to this dispute.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: CWMA endorsed the CWRC recommendation for 3,500 cusecs for 15 days from KRS and Kabini. Statement 2 is incorrect: the 4.536 TMC is the volume for 15 days at 3,500 cusecs, not the pro-rata shortfall; the shortfall claimed was 26.954 TMC. Statement 3 is correct: the article states flows were only 158-530 cusecs during that period. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the total gross storage was 77.537 TMC, breaking down as KRS (23.078 TMC), Kabini (18.610 TMC), Harangi (7.827 TMC), and Hemavathy (28.022 TMC). The other options are individual reservoir storage (23.078 TMC, 18.610 TMC) or the shortfall amount (26.954 TMC).

Explanation

The petition specifically seeks a direction to Karnataka to implement the CWMA order of July 30 for 3,500 cusecs for 15 days, and also to make good the pro-rata shortfall of 26.954 TMC from June 1 to August 12. It does not seek a ban, challenge the tribunal, or demand a new tribunal. The core objective is compliance and enforcement of existing institutional decisions.

Explanation

The article refers to Suresh Gopi as Minister of State in the Union Petroleum Ministry. Hence, the correct nodal ministry is the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because 50% of the 1.75 MMT Mangaluru facility will be reserved as strategic storage. Statement 2 is incorrect because the remaining capacity will be available to ONGC for commercial operations, not to other oil marketing companies. Statement 3 is correct as stated by MoS Petroleum in Parliament.

Explanation

The article states that the estimated project cost for Chandikhol is about ₹9,000 crores. The other options are distractors based on the 6.5 MMT planned capacity, 4 MMT combined capacity, and 1.75 MMT Mangaluru capacity.

Explanation

A strategic petroleum reserve is maintained to meet crude oil supply disruptions and emergencies, protecting the economy from sudden import shocks. It is not meant for earning export revenue or directly reducing retail fuel prices, though it stabilises the market indirectly.

Explanation

The RBI is the central bank of India and is responsible for managing the country's foreign exchange reserves and intervening in the forex market to maintain orderly conditions. The Ministry of Finance oversees fiscal policy, while SEBI regulates securities markets and NABARD focuses on rural development.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the RBI's net sale was $14.9 billion. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article explicitly says the value of the rupee is market-determined with no target or band. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the concessional swap facility for FCNR(B) deposits announced on June 5, 2026.

Explanation

The article clearly mentions the RBI's foreign exchange intervention during January-May 2026 amounted to a net sale of $14.9 billion. The other options are incorrect as they either use wrong units or wrong magnitudes.

Explanation

The concessional swap facility is designed to incentivize banks to bring in FCNR(B) deposits, which are foreign currency deposits from NRIs. This helps increase forex reserves and stabilize the rupee. It is not aimed at directly appreciating the rupee or reducing domestic loan rates.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that MoSPI released the draft Bill for feedback and is the nodal ministry for ISI. This is a standard static GK linkage for exam questions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Bill proposes the President of India as the Visitor, not the Prime Minister. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the 33-member council. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that ISI was declared an institute of national importance through an Act of Parliament in 1959. 1931 is the founding year, 1961 is the year of the West Bengal Societies Registration Act, and 2026 is the year of the new Bill.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the primary concern is the Centre's enhanced control and potential loss of autonomy, with the proposed Board of Governance dominated by central nominees and the director becoming a central appointee. The other options are not mentioned as primary concerns.

Explanation

The article clearly states that IIT Hyderabad (IITH) launched ANUGYAN in collaboration with Crimson Energy Experts Private Limited. This is a static fact about the institute involved.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article calls it India's first industry-academia programme in nuclear technology. Statement 2 is incorrect because the programme duration is 3 months, not one year. Statement 3 is correct as the curriculum includes simulator-based training and AERB regulatory compliance. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that India's current nuclear power generation capacity is around 8.8 GWe and the target is to increase it to 100 GWe by 2047. 100 GWe is the future target, not the current capacity.

Explanation

The article clearly states that ANUGYAN aims to cater to the growing demand for trained professionals as India plans to increase its nuclear power generation capacity to 100 GWe by 2047. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The Supreme Court bench led by CJI Surya Kant issued the clarification. The High Court, MHA, and Parliament are not mentioned in this context.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the court excluded those with criminal antecedents. Statement 2 is correct as per the definition. Statement 3 is correct as per the Solicitor General's submission. Hence option D.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that police found 2,738 people with cases of murder, rape and child abuse visited the protest site. Other numbers are distractors.

Explanation

The court balanced the right to protest by allowing withdrawal of cases for peaceful students, but excluded those with grave criminal antecedents. Options A, C, and D are not the primary objective as per the article.

Explanation

The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT), under the Ministry of Finance, is the apex body for direct tax administration in India. It oversees the Income Tax Department and policies related to direct taxes.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the campaign uses data analytics from SFT, TDS/TCS, GST, and property transactions. Statement 2 is incorrect: In SAKSHAM NUDGE, 'S' stands for 'Sankalan' (systematic compilation of data), not 'Sampark'. Statement 3 is incorrect: the total revenue impact was ₹12,121.91 crore, while the additional tax collected was ₹9,493.66 crore.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that additional tax collected from 1.25 crore updated ITRs was ₹9,493.66 crore. The ₹12,121.91 crore figure is the total revenue impact of the NUDGE campaign, which includes other benefits.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that NUDGE campaigns use data analytics and digital communication to nudge taxpayers towards compliance, moving away from reactive enforcement. This aligns with the government's 'trust-based governance' approach.

Explanation

The news specifically mentions Railway Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw and discusses railway projects, surveys, and doubling works, all of which fall under the purview of the Ministry of Railways.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Kerala government decided not to proceed with the SilverLine project. Statement 2 is correct: Dr E Sreedharan's interim report proposed a standard-gauge high-speed rail corridor between Thiruvananthapuram and Kannur (not Kasaragod). Statement 3 is incorrect: The expert committee concluded the proposal cannot be taken forward in its present form.

Explanation

The article states that the total sanctioned cost for 7 ongoing railway projects covering 267 km is ₹11,271 crore. The other options are individual project costs: ₹2,976 Cr is for doubling works, ₹4,494 Cr for Trivandrum-Kanyakumari doubling, and ₹3,801 Cr for Angamali-Sabarimala new line.

Explanation

The Railway Minister stated that surveys and railway projects covering 873 km have been taken up to improve capacity and strengthen North-South rail connectivity across Kerala. The focus is on capacity augmentation through additional lines and doubling works, not on high-speed rail or connecting all districts.

Explanation

The news article is about railway infrastructure projects taken up by Indian Railways. The Ministry of Railways is the nodal ministry for all railway-related projects, including new lines, doubling, and surveys. Other ministries deal with ports, roads, or commerce, which are not directly responsible for railway project execution.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 18 projects covering 2,455 km, with 8 sanctioned. Statement 2 is correct: Sonnagar-Andal 3rd & 4th Line (375 km) has a sanctioned cost of ₹13,606 Cr. Statement 3 is incorrect because only 8 projects are sanctioned and under execution; 8 have DPR prepared (awaiting sanction) and 2 are under survey. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the total sanctioned cost for the 8 sanctioned projects is ₹25,106 Cr. ₹13,606 Cr is the cost of the Sonnagar-Andal line alone (a distractor). ₹36,850 Cr is the total sanctioned cost for all ongoing projects in West Bengal (21 projects), not just the Haldia connectivity projects. ₹11,973 Cr is the cost of the Sivok-Rangpo New Line.

Explanation

The article mentions that the projects are aimed at improving connectivity to Haldia Port for enhanced freight movement and logistics efficiency. 3rd and 4th lines are typically built on existing high-density routes to increase capacity and reduce congestion, especially for freight trains carrying coal, containers, and other goods. The other options are not supported by the article's focus on port connectivity and freight evacuation.

Explanation

AICTE is the statutory body under the Ministry of Education responsible for approving technical institutions offering diploma, undergraduate, and postgraduate programmes. UGC oversees higher education broadly, while NBA is an accreditation body.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the data tabled in Lok Sabha. Statement 2 is incorrect: in 2024-25, Madhya Pradesh had the highest closures (22), not Maharashtra. Statement 3 is incorrect: enrolment actually increased from 22.11 lakh (2023-24) to 29.58 lakh (2025-26). Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Explanation

According to the data shared in Lok Sabha, enrolment in AICTE-approved institutions grew from 22,11,504 in 2023-24 to 27,25,980 in 2024-25, and further to 29,58,870 in 2025-26. Option A is 2023-24 figure, B is 2024-25 figure.

Explanation

The Ministry outlined measures including reducing intake/discontinuing non-performing programmes, promoting industry collaboration, internships, skill development, and revising the APH. There is no mention of mandating only online courses. This option is a distractor.

Explanation

The order was passed by MahaRERA Member-II Ravindra Deshpande. RERA is a state-level authority; each state has its own RERA. MahaRERA is the regulator for Maharashtra.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Clause 7(G) was struck down as illegal. Statement 2 is incorrect: interest was ordered from October 1, 2023 (after possession deadline), not from booking date. Statement 3 is correct: the buyer paid ₹42.65 lakh out of ₹44.90 lakh total consideration.

Explanation

The article states the buyer paid around ₹42.65 lakh against the total consideration of ₹44.90 lakh. The total consideration is the full agreed price of the flat.

Explanation

The ruling struck down a clause that allowed unilateral cancellation by the builder, bypassing statutory safeguards. This directly reinforces the RERA Act's core objective of protecting homebuyers and ensuring fair practices in the real estate sector.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that OPEC+ approved the production increase. OPEC+ includes OPEC members and allies like Russia, while the IEA is a consumer group and G7 is a group of advanced economies.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Trump said negotiations would begin Monday afternoon. Statement 2 is incorrect: Iran said the strait will NOT return to pre-war status. Statement 3 is correct: Oil prices fell by about $4 a barrel. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that Brent crude slid more than 4.6% to $83.85. The distractor $80.66 is the US crude price. The other options are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article explicitly says Trump's decision was heavily shaped by a call with Saudi Crown Prince MBS, who believed a deal was close and that strikes would be disastrous for Saudi Arabia. The other options were not cited as the key factor.

Explanation

ICRIER stands for Indian Council for Research on International Economic Relations. It is a premier independent think tank based in New Delhi, not a government body or university. The article mentions ICRIER pilots in Rajasthan, Odisha, and Madhya Pradesh.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Farmers contribute land and hold equity in the SPV (borrowed from banks) while retaining land title. Statement 2 is correct: Panels are mounted at 10-12 feet for seamless cultivation. Statement 3 is incorrect: The article mentions a blended stack including zero-interest debt from Google and commercial capital with credit guarantees, not just capital subsidy.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'It is now for Sundar Pichai and Naidu to work with farmer-producer companies... to set up at least 5,000 agri-photovoltaic systems of 1 MW each across the state.' The total investment is estimated at Rs 20,000 crore (about $2.2 billion).

Explanation

The article repeatedly warns that diverting power from agriculture would 'provoke social tensions' and that the model 'could pre-empt a conflict'. The model aims to turn farmers into co-owners of the energy supply, securing social licence for the investment. Cost reduction and tax revenue are secondary benefits.

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, Section 8 of the PC Act penalises the bribe-giver, thus making private persons liable to be charged under the Act. Section 7 deals with public servants taking bribes, Section 13 covers criminal misconduct, and Section 19 relates to sanction for prosecution.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Parvez was charged with criminal conspiracy and waging war under IPC, UAPA offences, and PC Act. Statement 2 is correct: Negi was charged under Official Secrets Act for passing information to an LeT operative. Statement 3 is correct: Muneer Kataria was granted pardon and made an approver by the trial court in July 2025. Hence all statements are correct.

Explanation

The article states that on July 31, Additional Sessions Judge Prashant Sharma charged Parvez and others. The other options are distractors: August 3, 2026 is the publication date of the article, February 18, 2022 is Negi's arrest date, and July 2025 is when Kataria was made an approver.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that Section 8 of the PC Act penalises the bribe-giver, thus making private persons liable to be charged under the same. This is significant because traditionally the Act focused on public servants taking bribes. Option A is incorrect as UAPA has stringent bail provisions. Option C is incorrect because sanction is required for public servants, not private persons. Option D is not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The Strait of Hormuz is a narrow waterway between Iran and Oman. It is a major transit point for energy flows, usually accounting for a fifth of global oil and LNG shipments, as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: LNG imports rose 15.4% YoY to 7.08 MT in May-July 2026. Statement 2 is correct: The US was the top source with 2.19 MT, a 252.8% increase. Statement 3 is incorrect: Imports from Qatar actually plummeted 91.3% YoY to 0.23 MT.

Explanation

The article states that LNG imports from Oman were higher by 340.9% year-on-year. The other options are also from the article: 123.8% (Nigeria), 252.8% (US), and 71.3% (Angola).

Explanation

The article notes that high and largely inelastic demand from critical sectors like CGD and fertilisers ensured that LNG imports remain strong. These sectors cannot easily switch to alternatives, making them less price-sensitive. Options A, C, and D are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The Strait of Hormuz is a narrow waterway that connects the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman. It is a critically important chokepoint for global oil shipments, as a significant portion of the world's crude oil passes through it.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as Trump stated he called off strikes at the request of Gulf allies. Statement 2 is incorrect because Iran's Mehr news agency rebutted the claim, calling it 'a new lie'. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the Strait of Hormuz is a chokepoint for roughly 1/5th of global oil trade.

Explanation

The article specifically states that India meets 'more than 85% of its crude oil requirement through imports'. The other options are close distractors; 75% and 80% are lower than the actual figure, while 90% is an overestimate.

Explanation

The article explains that expensive oil widens the import bill, puts pressure on the rupee, increases the current account deficit, and complicates fiscal management for oil-importing countries like India. Options A and B describe opposite effects, while D is incorrect as rising oil prices typically increase costs.

Explanation

The Strait of Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and is a key chokepoint for ~20% of global oil. The article specifically mentions traffic slowing there due to tanker attacks.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as Brent fell 4.64% on Aug 3. Statement 2 is incorrect because the quota increase is from September, not immediate. Statement 3 is correct as per shipping data. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states WTI was at $80.66 a barrel, down $4.01 (4.74%). Options A is the Brent price, while C and D are distractors.

Explanation

The primary driver was Trump's decision to pursue a nuclear deal with Iran, lowering the risk of Strait of Hormuz closure. The OPEC+ increase was modest and backward-dated (September), so the geopolitical de-escalation had a larger immediate effect.

Explanation

FSSAI is the statutory body under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, responsible for regulating and supervising food safety. FCI deals with food grains, BIS sets standards, and APEDA promotes exports, not food safety enforcement.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because FSSAI clarified that there is no prohibition on the use of flavouring substances; only adding the flavour of the standardised beverage itself is disallowed. Statement 2 is correct as mentioned in the article. Statement 3 is correct as FSSAI named USL, Inbrew, and specific plants in its clarification.

Explanation

The article states that on July 10, FSSAI said it had issued notices. The clarification was issued on August 2, 2026, and the article was published on August 3, 2026.

Explanation

FSSAI's action is based on regulations stating that products must exclusively possess their true, natural characteristic taste and aroma. Adding flavours that mimic the product itself violates this standard, undermining consumer trust and product authenticity.