11 August 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Taxation and Other Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2026 proposes changes to the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007 to create pathways for fees on UPI and RuPay debit card payments.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the zero MDR policy was introduced in 2020. Statement 2 is incorrect: the incentive covered only 11% of industry costs, not 14% (14% refers to potential MDR collected). Statement 3 is correct: PhonePe and Google Pay account for roughly 80% of transactions.

Explanation

The article specifically states: 'in July, 23.6 billion transactions were processed through the UPI platform.' This is a key data point for prelims.

Explanation

The article highlights that the zero MDR policy made the UPI ecosystem 'financially unsustainable' and that a 'clear source of revenue could also bring in more players, ushering in competition' and support infrastructure for handling more transactions.

Explanation

The Bill amends Section 10A of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, which previously kept MDR at zero for UPI and RuPay. The amendment allows the central government to decide by notification which modes stay free and which may attract charges.

Explanation

Statement 1 is false because the Bill was passed on a voice vote amid opposition protests and without a floor debate. Statements 2 and 3 are correct as per the article: the Bill extends a 15-year tax exemption till 2041 for electronics storage, and cuts fund manager conditions from 13 to 5.

Explanation

The article states that UPI had 55.49 crore users onboarded as of June 2026. 24.16 crore refers to the number of transactions (in FY26), 314.23 lakh crore is the transaction value, and 3,631 crore is the subsidy outlay in 2023-24.

Explanation

The article explains that while MDR applies to merchants, merchant costs are rarely absorbed silently. They tend to surface as price adjustments, minimum-transaction thresholds, or a preference for cash, especially among small retailers with thin margins. This could affect consumers indirectly.

Explanation

The RBI, in its Financial Stability Report, flagged the risks in unsecured retail lending and noted the need for close monitoring due to rising GNPA and over-leveraging among younger borrowers. The other options are financial regulators but do not oversee bank lending norms directly in this context.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: non-housing retail loans were 58.4% of household debt in March 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect because the over-leveraged share rose to 18% in FY24 but then eased to 15% in FY26; it did not steadily increase. Statement 3 is correct: fintechs hold 56.8% market share in small-ticket personal loans (<₹50,000).

Explanation

The article states that the GNPA ratio for unsecured retail loans stood at 1.8% as of March 2026, up from 1.2% in March 2025. 0.7% is the GNPA for secured retail loans, 1.2% is the previous year's figure for unsecured loans, and 6.4% is the delinquency rate for small-ticket fintech loans.

Explanation

Unsecured loans, especially for consumption, create higher default risk as there is no collateral. Younger borrowers with lower income stability and higher leverage are more vulnerable to economic shocks, leading to potential rise in NPAs and household financial stress. The article highlights this as a key concern for the RBI.

Explanation

The Bill amends the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act to include the national song 'Vande Mataram' within its ambit, giving it the same legal protection as the national anthem.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Lok Sabha passed the Bill on July 30. Statement 2 is incorrect: the minimum punishment for a subsequent conviction is one year, not three years. Statement 3 is correct: President gave assent on August 11, 2026. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The amended Act provides for up to three years of imprisonment, a fine, or both for the first offence of intentionally preventing the singing of the national song or anthem. The other options are distractors.

Explanation

The Bill's core purpose is to extend legal protection to the national song 'Vande Mataram' against intentional disruption, bringing it at par with the national anthem. The Home Ministry's earlier order already mandates community singing in schools, but the Bill focuses on penalising disruption.

Explanation

The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) as a nodal agency for cybercrime coordination. The article explicitly states that I4C submitted its status report to the MHA and the Supreme Court.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: RBI was directed to adopt and circulate an SOP. Statement 2 is incorrect because the deadline given was four weeks, not eight weeks. Statement 3 is correct: the Court asked CBI to examine lowering the ₹10-crore threshold. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that restoration had been completed in 36,290 cases involving about ₹18.05 crore. The other options are distractors: 1,23,590 refers to bank branches, 67 refers to first-layer bank accounts in one CBI case, and 238 refers to victims in that same case.

Explanation

The article mentions that the Court directed MeitY, DoT, and I4C to examine the feasibility of a time-based 'kill switch' for audio and video calls used in digital-arrest scams. The objective is to cut off calls that are part of the scam modus operandi, thereby preventing fraud.

Explanation

The article refers to the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare as the respondent in the PIL. This ministry is the nodal central authority for health policy, including the National Cancer Registry Programme.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the court directed the 19 remaining states/UTs. Statement 2 is correct: the ASG argued health is a state subject, but the court asked for mandatory guidelines. Statement 3 is incorrect: the NCRP covers only 10% of the population, not 25%.

Explanation

The article states that 17 of the 36 States and UTs have notified cancer as a notifiable disease, leaving 19 remaining. This is a key data point for prelims.

Explanation

The Supreme Court's direction aims to address the fragmented data and poor surveillance that delay diagnosis and treatment. Uniform notification enables early detection and better patient outcomes, as highlighted in the PIL. While the plea also mentions alternative treatments, the core objective is notification for surveillance and care.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions RBI Governor Sanjay Malhotra announcing the push, so the Reserve Bank of India is the nodal body leading the effort.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is false because the article mentions a BRICS task force on payments. Statement 3 is correct as the governor listed geopolitical uncertainty and cyber risk as major risks.

Explanation

The article states 'GNPA is less than 2%'. Net NPA is less than 0.5%, but that is a different metric. Option A is the correct GNPA figure.

Explanation

The article mentions 'wider use of the rupee in trade could also reduce dependence on currencies such as the US dollar'. Other options are not the primary objective stated.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that GOBARdhan is implemented by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. The other ministries are not responsible for this scheme.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the scheme aims to increase CBG production by nearly 10-fold. Statement 2 is correct: blending obligation is 5% from 2028-29 onwards. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article explicitly states that brownfield projects expanding capacity are also eligible for capital assistance.

Explanation

The article clearly states that GOBARdhan introduces a stable administered CBG price of ₹2,110 per Metric Million British Thermal Unit (MMBTU). Other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article highlights that CBG can reduce imports of natural gas (which India depends on for half its requirement) and strengthen energy security. It also aims to convert organic waste into clean fuel, manure, and rural income, embodying circular economy principles. Options A, C, D are not mentioned or are incorrect.

Explanation

The courts consistently held that the right to personal liberty under Article 21 includes the right to make autonomous decisions about one's body, marriage, and residence. This was the core constitutional basis for the rulings in the Uttarakhand and Madhya Pradesh High Courts.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The SC held that chastity cannot be viewed purely through a moral perspective, but must also be understood through dignity and autonomy. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Kerala HC directed the government to consider paid menstrual leave for KSRTC women conductors, not all women employees. Statement 3 is correct as per the Calcutta HC ruling.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Kerala High Court's order was issued on July 23, 2026. May 22 was when the Supreme Court heard the chastity case, June 9 was the Calcutta HC's homemaker ruling, and July 15 was the Uttarakhand HC's choice of partner ruling.

Explanation

The court held that a homemaker's contribution cannot be measured by a notional salary alone and that the loss suffered by dependents includes personal care and attention. This is a landmark step in valuing unpaid work, which has implications for tort law and dependency calculations, but it did not set a fixed monetary value or mandate new insurance policies.

Explanation

Article 25 of the Indian Constitution guarantees freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and propagate religion, subject to public order, morality, health, and other fundamental rights. This is the key constitutional provision relevant to anti-conversion laws.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as Section 3 prohibits conversion through coercion, fraud, allurement, etc. Statement 2 is incorrect because the burden of proof is placed on the person conducting the conversion, not the person converted. Statement 3 is correct as the Act provides enhanced punishment for minors, women, SC/ST, and persons of unsound mind.

Explanation

Section 9(2) of the Act provides for imprisonment of up to seven years and a fine of up to Rs 5 lakh where the offence under Section 3 involves a minor. The other options are distractors - 5 years is a common punishment under other state laws, 10 years is for more serious offences, and 3 years is for basic offences without aggravating factors.

Explanation

In standard criminal law, the prosecution bears the burden of proving guilt beyond reasonable doubt. By placing the burden on the person conducting the conversion to prove it was voluntary, the Act reverses this principle. This is a significant legal feature that has been challenged in other states' anti-conversion laws as potentially violative of fundamental rights.

Explanation

The article mentions Minister of State for Law and Justice Arjun Ram Meghwal moved the Bill in Rajya Sabha, indicating the Ministry of Law and Justice is the nodal ministry for this legislation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the minister's statement. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article explicitly says the Bill will not change the jurisdiction of any tribunal. Statement 3 is correct as the minister mentioned rationalization from 26 to 19 to 16 tribunals. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the number of tribunals had been rationalised from 26 to 19 to now 16. The final number after the Bill is 16. Options 26 and 19 are intermediate stages, and 10 is not mentioned.

Explanation

The minister stated the NTC is meant to ensure a transparent system for timely and fair resolution and that capital investment does not remain locked. Option A is opposite, C and D are not mentioned. Hence B is correct.

Explanation

NASA (National Aeronautics and Space Administration) is the US space agency leading the Artemis Accords and the Moon Base programme. ISRO is India's space agency invited to join the programme. ESA is the European Space Agency, and Roscosmos is the Russian space agency.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India signed the Artemis Accords in 2023 as the 27th signatory. Statement 2 is correct: NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar) was launched in 2025. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Artemis Accords are a non-binding set of principles, not a legally binding treaty under the UN framework.

Explanation

The article states that a total of 70 countries are now part of the Artemis Accords. India joined in 2023 as the 27th signatory. The other options are distractors: 27 was India's joining number, 45 and 60 are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article states that NASA's Artemis programme aims to 'take humans back to the Moon with the larger objective of setting up a permanent settlement there.' Option A (Mars) is not mentioned; option C refers to Shubhanshu Shukla's ISS flight under a different arrangement; option D refers to NISAR, which is a separate joint mission.

Explanation

The article discusses delimitation as a revision of the representative system, which involves redrawing Lok Sabha and assembly constituency boundaries based on population changes. This is a standard constitutional process under Article 82.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the article says the government has been 'opaque' and 'secretive' about its proposals. Statement 2 is incorrect because 1976 was under a Congress government, not BJP. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions that an all-party meeting has been demanded by the opposition and is recommended.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that in 1976 (under Congress) and 2001 (under BJP), decisions regarding delimitation were taken unanimously. These are the only two years mentioned in the article, making A the correct choice.

Explanation

The article repeatedly criticizes the government for being secretive about its delimitation proposals and for failing to build consensus through parliamentary debate. It argues that the government views Parliament as an obstacle and that good-faith conversations are necessary for democracy.

Explanation

The article mentions an amendment to Section 10A of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007 via the Taxation and Other Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2026. This is the primary legislation governing payment systems in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the MDR applies only to transactions above ₹2,000. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the official stand is that this threshold touches only about 5% of transactions by volume.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the threshold would cover roughly 65% of transaction value, though only 5% by volume. This is a key data point for prelims.

Explanation

The article argues that if the MDR is absorbed by intermediaries (banks and PSPs), it erodes their incentive to invest in reliability, fraud prevention, and expansion into underserved segments. This could degrade service and slow innovation, undermining UPI's growth.

Explanation

The Indian Nursing Council (INC) is a statutory body constituted under the Indian Nursing Council Act, 1947. It regulates nursing education and practice in India and oversees the Nurses Registration and Tracking System. The other options are regulatory bodies for other healthcare professions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the system was created over seven years ago. Statement 2 is correct: only 14.24 lakh out of 46.02 lakh (about 31%) are enrolled. Statement 3 is incorrect: southern states (Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh) are among the laggards, while Bihar, Jharkhand, and Odisha show 80-99% enrolment.

Explanation

The article states that there are 46.02 lakh registered nursing personnel in India. Of these, 14.24 lakh are enrolled in the tracking system, and 31.78 lakh remain outside the system. Option A is the enrolled number, and option B is the unenrolled number.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that poor nurse registration leads to delays in sanctioning inter-state transfer requests and credential verification for overseas employment. It also allows fraudulent practitioners to operate, compromising patient safety, but the primary operational risk mentioned is the delay in mobility and verification.

Explanation

The article states that Andhra Pradesh's discoms entered into an agreement with SECI in December 2021 to purchase 7,000 MW of solar power, making it the biggest buyer. Over 85% of alleged bribes were offered to a high-ranking Andhra Pradesh official.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the indictment included conspiracy to violate the FCPA. Statement 2 is incorrect: Judge Nicholas Garaufis said there were 'concerning' irregularities in the process. Statement 3 is correct: the Adani Group consistently denied wrongdoing. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that US prosecutors accused the defendants of participating in a scheme involving alleged bribes of roughly $265 million. The other options are distractors: $250 million is close but not exact, $1,750 crore is the rupee equivalent of over 85% of the bribes, and $2 billion is the projected post-tax profits from the contracts.

Explanation

The article states that the DoJ argued that continuing the prosecution was not in the US public interest, citing the predominantly foreign nature of the alleged conduct, difficulties in securing evidence and witnesses abroad, and its current enforcement priorities. While Adani's $10 billion investment pledge was examined by the judge, it was not the reason for dismissal.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Delhi High Court, presided by Justice Chandrasekharan Sudha, heard the state appeal and overturned the trial court's acquittal. The trial court had acquitted the accused, and the High Court convicted him under IPC Section 354A.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the court convicted the accused under IPC Section 354A(1)(i). Statement 2 is incorrect: the POCSO charge was not sustained because the prosecution failed to establish the complainant's age. Statement 3 is incorrect: the court rejected the suggestion that clothing affects reliability, stating it is a matter of personal choice.

Explanation

The article mentions that the incident occurred on July 17, 2013, when the complainant was allegedly 17 years old. The trial court judgment was on August 22, 2014, and the High Court's judgment was on August 10, 2026.

Explanation

The court explicitly stated that cross-examination is not an unrestricted licence to 'insult, shame, intimidate or harass a witness'. Judges must stop irrelevant, indecent, or humiliating questions. This upholds the dignity of witnesses, especially vulnerable victims of sexual offences.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that NASA invited ISRO to join the Moon Base programme. ISRO is India's primary space agency under the Department of Space.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the invitation was made at the 9th CSJWG meeting. Statement 2 is incorrect because the programme will be executed in three phases, not two. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions building on the partnership under the Artemis Accords.

Explanation

The article states that the Moon Base programme was announced during NASA's 'Ignition' event on March 24, 2026. The other dates are distractors; August 11, 2026 is the publication date of this news article.

Explanation

The lunar South Pole contains water ice, which can be used for drinking, oxygen, and rocket fuel, making it a key location for a sustainable human outpost. The article mentions the outpost will be near the South Pole, aligning with this scientific rationale.

Explanation

The Parliamentary Standing Committee on Health and Family Welfare, headed by Prof. Ram Gopal Yadav, submitted the 177th report on CKD in India. This committee oversees health-related policies and programs.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the committee recommended automatic eGFR calculation with serum creatinine. Statement 2 is incorrect because the recommendation is for annual screening of high-risk individuals only, not universal screening. Statement 3 is correct as the report flagged CKD of unknown etiology among agricultural workers and outdoor labourers.

Explanation

The report cited a pooled CKD prevalence of about 13.24% in India, with considerable regional variation. This data point is crucial for prelims as it represents the national burden estimate.

Explanation

The committee noted that CKD often remains asymptomatic until significant kidney function is lost, and serum creatinine alone can remain normal. Automatic eGFR calculation helps detect early kidney impairment, enabling timely intervention and prevention of progression.

Explanation

The article states that the Standing Committee on Rural Development, headed by Congress Lok Sabha MP Saptagiri Ulaka, tabled the report in Parliament. This committee oversees the Ministry of Rural Development which implements DDU-GKY.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: 18.38 lakh trained. Statement 2 is correct: 37 sectors and 816 trades. Statement 3 is incorrect: women placed are 6.03 lakh, not 9.65 lakh (9.65 lakh is the number of women trained). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article mentions that the scheme had an approved budget of ₹10,114.53 crore between 2021 and 2026. The revised estimate was ₹1,161.99 crore, actual expenditure ₹977.74 crore, and unspent amount ₹184.25 crore.

Explanation

The committee directed the government to ensure near 100% placement tracking with mandatory industry linkages, localised placement drives, regular post-training follow-ups, mentorship and credit facilitation. This addresses the core issue of employment gap.

Explanation

The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) handles India's foreign policy, diplomatic relations, and border negotiations. In the article, MEA spokesperson Randhir Jaiswal represented India's official stance on the Arunachal Pradesh naming issue.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as WMCC is an established mechanism for India-China border consultations. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Galwan Valley clashes occurred in 2020, not 2022. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that India assigned standard names to 27 places and features in Arunachal Pradesh. The other options are close distractors but the correct figure is 27 as stated in the MEA's response.

Explanation

The article states that the WMCC was used for 'frank discussions' on border issues and that both sides agreed to 'prevent misunderstanding and miscalculation along the LAC'. While trade and cultural exchanges exist, the WMCC is specifically a border management mechanism, as highlighted in the news.

Explanation

The article states that the Registrar General of India is in charge of conducting the census. This is a basic institutional fact often asked in polity and governance sections.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the 2011 caste enumeration was done through a separate SECC survey. Statement 2 is wrong: caste was recorded through an open-ended question, not a drop-down menu. Statement 3 is correct: the exercise produced 4.7 million caste names.

Explanation

The article says the SECC exercise resulted in 4.7 million caste names, which became a reason for delaying and finally burying the publication of caste data. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article recommends starting with SC/ST/OBC/General category and then asking respondents to choose from official caste lists, with an 'others' option. This method has been used in Bihar and Telangana.

Explanation

The GI Act of 1999 is the specific legislation that provides for the registration, protection, and enforcement of geographical indications in India. The other Acts deal with copyright, patents, and trademarks respectively.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 42% of GIs have authorised users, so 58% lack them. Statement 2 is correct: IPAB was abolished in 2021, forcing GI disputes to civil courts. Statement 3 is incorrect: EU farmers receive 50-60% of the premium, while Indian farmers get only 10-15%.

Explanation

The article states 'around 78 per cent of certificate holders do not know how to leverage it to secure better pricing'. The other options are distractors: 42% is the proportion of GIs with authorised users, 58% without authorised users, and 46% is the application pass rate.

Explanation

The article explicitly says 'Around 80 per cent of Indian farmers fall prey to intermediaries, trading hubs, and exporters' and that only 10-15% of the premium trickles down to producers. The other options are not directly given as primary reasons; counterfeit goods are a separate enforcement issue.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the US Department of Homeland Security (DHS) proposed the rule change. DHS oversees immigration enforcement and USCIS, making it the nodal agency for such visa policy changes.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: DHS proposed scrapping the grace period, not extending it. Statement 2 is correct: 71% of H-1B applications in FY 2024 were from Indian nationals. Statement 3 is correct: Bhutoria called the proposal 'inhumane and unworkable.' Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article specifically states that Indian nationals make up the largest share of H-1B visa holders, accounting for 71 per cent of all successful applications in the 2024 financial year. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

Experts, including Ajay Jain Bhutoria, argue that eliminating the grace period entirely is inhumane as it provides no time for workers to sort out their affairs, find a new sponsor, or change their visa status, leading to stress, financial trouble, and disruption to families and children's schooling.

Explanation

The Delhi High Court held that the SRB's arbitrary rejection violated the convicts' right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution. Article 14 deals with equality, Article 19 with freedoms, and Article 22 with protection against arrest and detention.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Court held that gravity of the original offence is a 'static historical fact' and not a relevant consideration for early release. Statement 2 is correct as the SRB's decision was termed 'arbitrary' due to lack of objective assessment. Statement 3 is correct as the Court quoted Chekhov's 'The Bet'.

Explanation

The article states that the convict from the 1992 case had undergone over 31 years of imprisonment, excluding remission, as on January 3, 2026. Including remission, his custody would extend beyond 40 years. Option A (19+ years) refers to the second convict (1997 case).

Explanation

The Court emphasized that focus must be on post-conviction conduct, propensity to re-offend, and socio-economic condition of the convict's family. The gravity of the original offence is a static historical fact and cannot be the sole basis for denial. Option A is contrary to the ruling, C is not stated, and D is incorrect as the HC can review SRB decisions.

Explanation

The Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) regulates corporate entities in India under the Companies Act, 2013. It maintains data on directors and officers of companies and presents it in Parliament when queried. The data in the news was tabled by MCA in Lok Sabha.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Companies Act, 2013 mandates at least one woman director for listed companies. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article states there are 22 women CFOs, not 67. Statement 3 is correct: 50 adjudication orders were passed in the last five years (2021-22 to 2025-26). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The MCA data tabled in Lok Sabha specifically states there are 25 women managing directors (MDs) in the top 500 listed companies. The other options are distractors: 9 is the number of women CEOs, 22 is the number of women CFOs, and 67 is the number of women executive directors.

Explanation

The mandatory appointment of at least one woman director aims to improve gender diversity at the board level, which research suggests leads to better decision-making, governance, and risk management. It does not mandate a quota for all board seats nor provide tax benefits. The provision is a minimum requirement, not a reservation.

Explanation

NHAI, under the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, is the nodal agency for development and maintenance of National Highways. The article mentions NHAI's role in granting clearances and conducting drone-based surveys.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the SC gave 60 days for removal of unauthorised structures, not 30 days (30 days is for review of existing licences). Statement 2 is correct: BLS ambulances and recovery cranes every 75 km were ordered. Statement 3 is correct: only three states/UTs had filed compliance by July 13.

Explanation

The Supreme Court observed that National Highways constitute approximately 2% of India's total road length but account for nearly 30% of all road fatalities. This data point is critical for prelims questions on road safety.

Explanation

The SC flagged that unauthorised dhabas and eateries within ROW force vehicles to stop on carriageways and paved shoulders, leading to accidents. The direction aims to ensure safe passage and prevent highways from becoming 'corridors of peril'.

Explanation

ONGC, OIL, and the strategic petroleum reserves fall under the administrative control of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. The Ministry of Finance handles fiscal policy, not energy PSUs directly.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: ONGC holds about one-eighth of Petronet LNG and one-seventh of IOC. Statement 2 is correct: the article states ethanol blending has reached 20% ahead of the 2030 target. Statement 3 is false: the article argues against privatising ONGC and OIL, advocating for a continued strong PSU presence.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that ethanol blending has saved over Rs 1.90 lakh crore in foreign exchange. The other options are distractors: ₹1.60 lakh crore is the amount transferred to farmers, and ₹2.10/2.50 are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article stresses that PSUs give the government strategic room to act during crises (e.g., maintaining output despite weak prices, redirecting supplies). Privatisation would weaken the government's influence over roughly 40 MMtoe of domestic production. The other options are not aligned with the article's core argument.

Explanation

As per the article, the Ministry of Education declared NCERT a deemed university under Section 3 of the UGC Act, 1956. The Ministry of Education is the nodal ministry for higher education policy in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The UGC expert committee examined the application under the 2023 Regulations. Statement 2 is correct: The declaration covers NCERT and its six constituent units including the RIEs. Statement 3 is incorrect: The new status enables NCERT to develop academic programmes including doctoral and innovative courses, expanding its role beyond school education.

Explanation

The article states that a Letter of Intent was issued in August 2023. The compliance report was submitted in November 2025, and the UGC meeting approving the proposal was in January 2026. The final notification was in March 2026.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that experts, including an assistant professor, cautioned that the deemed university status could affect NCERT's academic autonomy and increase its dependence on UGC regulations. This is the core concern highlighted in the news.

Explanation

The article quotes the Minister of Petroleum and Natural Gas, Mr. Hardeep Singh Puri, announcing the LPG import figures. This ministry oversees all matters related to petroleum, natural gas, and LPG in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 67% of LPG came from the US. Statement 2 is incorrect: imports from West Asia fell almost 85%, not increased. Statement 3 is correct: the diversification is to reduce reliance on the Strait of Hormuz. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that 67% of India's LPG came from the US. 10% was the earlier target, and 85% is the decline in West Asia imports. 90% is not mentioned.

Explanation

The article explicitly links the shift to the crisis in the Strait of Hormuz, stating that India's LPG security cannot be anchored to a single geography. While cost and trade may be factors, the primary driver mentioned is geopolitical risk diversification.

Explanation

The Dirac Medal is awarded by the International Centre for Theoretical Physics (ICTP) in Trieste, Italy. The ICTP was founded by Abdus Salam, a Pakistani Nobel laureate, along with the Italian government and IAEA.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: Ashoke Sen was the first Indian to win the Dirac Medal in 2012. Statement 2 is correct: Dhar's Abelian sandpile model is a mathematical version that allows exact calculations. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Dirac Medal is explicitly not given to Nobel laureates.

Explanation

The article states that Deepak Dhar was born in 1951 in Pratapgarh, Uttar Pradesh. This is a factual data point that can be tested in prelims.

Explanation

The 'Abelian' property means that no matter in which sequence grains topple and cascade, the pile always settles into the same final shape. This allows physicists to calculate exact answers and predict the final shape.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Mecca Joint Defence Agreement was signed between Saudi Arabia, Pakistan, and Turkey. Iran and Israel have complex relationships with these countries but are not signatories.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the pact proclaims a NATO-like principle of collective defence. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article states the pact 'lacks a shared threat' due to divergent relationships with Iran and Israel. Statement 3 is correct: the agreement is 'better understood as a hedge against a changing regional order'.

Explanation

The article clearly states the pact is between three countries: Saudi Arabia, Pakistan, and Turkey. Options 2, 4, and 5 are distractors; the number is explicitly three.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that the pact 'lacks the one thing that makes collective defence alliances work: A shared threat.' Saudi Arabia's security cooperation with Israel and the complicated relationships with Iran among Pakistan and Turkey prevent a unified threat perception, making the pact a hedge rather than a full alliance.

Explanation

The article states that the 1969 arson attack on Al-Aqsa Mosque triggered the hurried formation of the OIC. The OIC is the second-largest intergovernmental organization after the UN, focused on safeguarding Muslim world interests.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly calls it a 'Turkey-Pakistan-Saudi Arabia defence pact'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the pact was triggered by Israel's war on Gaza and the Iran conflict, not specifically Iran's nuclear ambitions. Statement 3 is correct as the article notes Saudi Arabia's security outlook has seen a 'major departure' from its US-centric approach.

Explanation

The article specifically states that Israel's brutal campaign has killed 'over 70,000 Palestinians to date'. This is a key data point that could be tested in prelims.

Explanation

The article states that 'waning US interest in having a large presence in the region has led it to attempt to diversify its security ties.' This reflects a major shift in Saudi foreign policy, moving away from its traditional reliance on the US security umbrella.