12 August 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The article states that the final straw was the Supreme Court's judgment in Madras Bar Association (2025), which struck down objectionable provisions and gave the government four months to establish the NTC. This judgment directly led to the Tribunal Reforms Bill 2026.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the article mentions the Bill was passed with no discussion in the Lok Sabha (August 10) and Rajya Sabha (August 11). Statement 2 is correct as the article highlights that the Bill does not give the NTC full autonomy and the executive retains influence. Statement 3 is correct as the Bill restores five-year terms and introduces uniform service conditions.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Lok Sabha passed the Bill on August 10 and the Rajya Sabha on August 11, 2026. August 12 is the date of the article's publication, and August 9 is not mentioned.

Explanation

The article repeatedly emphasizes that the Bill still allows the executive to appoint NTC members, control its finances, and define key conditions via rules, which undermines the NTC's independence. Options A, C, and D are factually incorrect based on the article's content.

Explanation

The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 inserted Part XIV-A containing Articles 323A and 323B, which provide for the establishment of tribunals. The other amendments are related to other subjects (44th - Right to Property, 73rd - Panchayats, 74th - Municipalities).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Part XIV-A was inserted by the 42nd Amendment. Statement 2 is incorrect: Tribunals were not part of the original Constitution. Statement 3 is correct: The Supreme Court in L Chandra Kumar (1997) declared that judicial review by High Courts is part of the basic structure. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the NTC will bring 16 tribunals under its umbrella, creating a common framework for governance. Previously, the number was reduced from 26 to 19 by the Finance Act 2017, and further to 16 by the Tribunals Reforms Act 2021. The Bill 2026 retains the 16 tribunals.

Explanation

The article defines tribunals as quasi-judicial bodies set up to provide speedy and specialized resolution of disputes in areas like taxation, corporate law, and administrative matters, thereby reducing the caseload on other courts. They complement the judicial system, not replace it.

Explanation

The Mecca Pact was signed by Saudi Arabia, Türkiye, and Pakistan. Iran is not a signatory and the article notes that the signatories have strong reasons to avoid confrontation with Tehran.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly states the provision. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article says the pact 'does not terminate that dependence' on the US. Statement 3 is correct; the article states Pakistan's 'most important strategic attribute is its nuclear weapons'.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the pact was signed on August 7, 2026 in Mecca. August 12 is the date of the article's publication, and the other dates are distractors.

Explanation

The article describes the pact as 'strategic hedging' where regional powers supplement, not replace, US security guarantees. It does not create an explicit anti-Israeli or anti-Iran alliance, though it alters strategic calculations.

Explanation

The Supreme Court explicitly linked the right to shelter, dignity, and livelihood to Article 21 of the Constitution. Article 14 deals with equality, Article 19 with freedoms, and Article 32 with the right to constitutional remedies.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the CJI explicitly used the phrase 'twin responsibilities'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the court did not constitute an expert committee; it only directed governments to consider the issues. Statement 3 is correct as the court acknowledged the concept of implied regularisation through prolonged acceptance of taxes and utilities. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states 'August 12, 2026' as the publication date of the judgment. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The petition specifically sought a uniform policy for demolition of unauthorised constructions and simultaneous rehabilitation of affected families. The court disposed the petition with a direction to consider this. Options A and D are opposite to the petition's aim, and option B is narrower than the petition's scope.

Explanation

The Bill was introduced by Minister of Coal and Mines G Kishan Reddy in the Lok Sabha. The Ministry of Coal and Mines is the nodal ministry for the MMDR Act and mineral policy in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Bill states that no tax, cess, or levy shall be imposed by states on mineral rights. Statement 2 is incorrect: already deposited or recovered taxes will NOT be refunded. Statement 3 is correct: the Bill's objective is to provide certainty, stability, and predictability in the fiscal regime.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Lok Sabha passed the Bill on Wednesday, August 12, 2026. The other dates are close distractors but do not match the published date.

Explanation

The Bill aims to centralize regulation to prevent regional disparities in fiscal impositions on minerals. It seeks to provide a predictable fiscal regime to boost investment and avoid cost escalation that could lead to increased imports. Option A is incorrect as it reduces state revenue. Option C is incorrect as central levies may still exist. Option D is not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The CWDT was constituted under the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956, which allows the central government to refer inter-state river water disputes to a tribunal. The River Boards Act, 1956 provides for the establishment of river boards for regulation and development of inter-state rivers, but the tribunal itself is constituted under the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: CWMA was constituted in June 2018. Statement 2 is incorrect: as per the article, the only recourse against a CWMA decision is to approach the Supreme Court, not the High Court. Statement 3 is correct: the CWMA chief proposed a river board modelled on BBMB. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'in the case of the Cauvery, in a normal year, the yield had been assessed as 740 thousand million cubic feet (tmc ft) at 50% dependability.' The other options are close distractors. This data point is crucial for prelims as it quantifies the water availability in the basin.

Explanation

The article states that the proposed river board should 'own, operate, manage, and regulate' reservoirs in the entire Cauvery basin, similar to BBMB which takes joint decisions on water scheduling and synchronises irrigation with power generation. The objective is coordinated basin management, not increasing storage, replacing the court, or privatisation.

Explanation

The Indian Railways operates under the Ministry of Railways, which is responsible for its policy, operations, and decarbonisation initiatives including electrification and renewable energy integration.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states 99.6% broad gauge electrification by March 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect because the shift is FROM EoG TO HoG (not vice versa) - HoG draws power from overhead lines, eliminating diesel generator cars. Statement 3 is correct as NRP 2030 targets increasing rail's modal freight share from ~27% to 45%.

Explanation

The article states that the projected energy demand of Indian Railways in 2029-30 is expected to be about 8,200 MW. Option B (30,000 MW) is the target for renewable energy procurement by 2030, not the energy demand. Options C and D are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article highlights that while electrification eliminates tailpipe emissions, the net carbon reduction remains tied to the national energy mix, which is largely coal-based. Electrification transfers emissions upstream to thermal power plants, so true decarbonisation requires grid decarbonisation. Other options are not identified as primary challenges in the article.

Explanation

The Supreme Court transferred the probe to the CBI citing state police delay in filing the FIR and to ensure impartial investigation. The CBI is the premier investigating agency under the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the man died on January 21, 2024, three days after being taken into custody. Statement 2 is incorrect: the FIR was filed on July 30, 2026 – over two years later. Statement 3 is correct: the SC ordered ₹25 lakh interim compensation. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The Supreme Court directed the authorities to pay ₹25 lakh as interim compensation to the family. This amount is higher than the ₹1 lakh granted earlier by the High Court. The final compensation will be determined later.

Explanation

The SC noted that the state police had registered the case more than two years after the death, indicating a failure to take timely action. The court held that the ends of justice required an independent probe by the CBI.

Explanation

The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 lays down the procedure for investigating charges of misbehaviour or incapacity against a Supreme Court or High Court judge. It is the statutory mechanism for initiating the removal process under Article 124(4) of the Constitution.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The committee was headed by Justice Aravind Kumar of the Supreme Court. Statement 2 is incorrect: Justice Varma was a judge of the Delhi High Court at the time of the incident, not Allahabad High Court. Statement 3 is correct: The committee noted that he did not testify on oath, so an adverse inference was drawn. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the fire occurred on the intervening night of March 14 and 15, 2025. The report was tabled in Parliament on August 12, 2026, but the incident itself took place in March 2025.

Explanation

The Lok Sabha Speaker set up the parliamentary inquiry committee under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 after impeachment motions were introduced in both Houses. Its purpose was to investigate the grounds for removal, specifically the unexplained cash. The transfer recommendation was made earlier by the Collegium, not by this committee.

Explanation

The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment is the nodal ministry for the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act. It formulates rules and oversees implementation, as seen in the task force headed by its Secretary.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the task force recommended raising relief amounts for inflation. Statement 2 is incorrect: it suggested amendments to the Rules, not the Act. Statement 3 is correct: the 24-hour FIR/chargesheet submission was part of the recommendations.

Explanation

The current relief range is ₹85,000 to ₹8.25 lakh, depending on the severity of the atrocity and injury. The maximum of ₹8.25 lakh is the highest slab set in 2016.

Explanation

The NCST suggestion aims to protect the livelihoods of ST communities who lose access to their land while fighting prolonged court cases. The local official (DM) would be empowered to allow continued use of the land for sustenance during the dispute.

Explanation

The article states that the ICC has issued an arrest warrant for Mr. Netanyahu. The ICJ deals with state disputes, not individual criminal prosecution. The PCA and UNSC are not directly mentioned in this context.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the plan was proposed by the Trump-led 'Board of Peace'. Statement 2 is incorrect: Israel rejected the plan, not accepted it. Statement 3 is correct: Hamas agreed to decommission and store heavy weapons in phases. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'Israel's strikes have killed nearly 1,300 Palestinians' since the ceasefire. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states that Netanyahu has been trying to stay in power by retaining support of the jingoistic right wing, and any concession on withdrawal would invite political repercussions for his coalition ahead of elections in October. The other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

As per the article, all four bills passed by the Delhi Assembly will be sent to Lieutenant-Governor Taranjit Singh Sandhu for approval. The Lieutenant-Governor is the constitutional head of the National Capital Territory of Delhi.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the draft policy was placed in the public domain on May 26. Statement 2 is correct: the new policy proposes deemed approval within 7 working days, down from 30 days. Statement 3 is correct: the amendment revises the cut-off date from January 1, 2006 to January 1, 2026.

Explanation

The article states that the new policy proposes 'deemed approval' within seven working days, down from 30 days under the 2007 law. Hence the correct answer is 30 days.

Explanation

The article highlights that the new policy aims to cut registration time from 30 days to 7 days through self-certification and self-renewal. This directly reduces bureaucratic delays and simplifies the process. While tourism promotion is a secondary benefit, the core objective is administrative ease.

Explanation

The 131st Amendment Bill proposed increasing Lok Sabha seats to 850 and providing the constitutional basis for delimitation and women's reservation. The 128th Amendment was the standalone women's reservation bill passed in 2023.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the bill proposed increase to 850 seats. Statement 2 is incorrect: DMK demanded freeze based on the 1971 Census, not 2001. Statement 3 is incorrect: constitutional amendments require a two-thirds majority of members present and voting, plus absolute majority of total membership.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the bill sought to increase the strength of the Lok Sabha from 543 to 850. 543 is the current number, 750 and 1000 are distractors.

Explanation

The article mentions that the bill failed to secure the two-thirds majority needed for a constitutional amendment, and that unity among anti-BJP forces was perceptible. Southern states like Tamil Nadu opposed it fearing loss of parliamentary representation.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions 'Environment Protection (End of Life Vehicles) Rules, 2025'. Under the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, matters relating to environmental protection and pollution control fall under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: '4.3 lakh vehicles had been processed through them'. Statement 2 is correct: '129 Registered Vehicle Scrapping Facilities were operational across 21 States and Union Territories'. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article argues the opposite — that retrofitment is the more circular option for structurally sound vehicles, and scrappage should apply only when structural integrity is compromised.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'As of January 2026, 129 Registered Vehicle Scrapping Facilities were operational across 21 States and Union Territories'. Option A (43) is close but incorrect; options C and D are numerical manipulations of the 4.3 lakh figure.

Explanation

The authors propose a three-pathway national vehicle hierarchy: 1) Continue operating with routine maintenance for safe/compliant vehicles, 2) Retrofit for structurally sound but polluting vehicles, and 3) Scrap only for vehicles with compromised safety. This condition-based approach is the article's core recommendation, contrasting with age-based policies.

Explanation

The article states that a copy of the AMD must be given to the guardian/close relative, family physician, and the Joint Director of Health Services or any other officer notified by the government, who will act as custodian. This links directly to the administrative health structure in the State.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because an AMD takes effect only when the executor becomes incapable of making or communicating informed decisions regarding medical treatment. Statement 2 is correct as per the Tamil Nadu guidelines. Statement 3 is correct because if the Secondary Medical Board refuses permission, the persons named in the AMD, the treating physician, or the treating institution can approach the High Court. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The guidelines specify that the Primary Medical Board should consist of the treating physician and two experts from the institution with at least five years' experience. The other options are plausible distractors but do not match the exact requirement mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states that the guidelines are a significant step to strengthen patients' autonomy in end-of-life medical care by allowing adults to formally record their wishes on withholding or withdrawing medical treatment when they become incapable of communicating or making healthcare decisions.

Explanation

As per the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, the Election Commission of India (ECI) is the sole authority to recognise parties as national or state parties based on their electoral performance and vote share in states. The article's analysis of national vs regional party categories relies on this ECI classification.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: regional parties polled 31.22%, 35.86%, and 33.52% in 2009, 2014, and 2024 respectively, consistently around one-third. Statement 2 is correct: national parties' combined vote share was 60.04% in 2014, the lowest among the four elections. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article states this is the 'lowest number of states independently governed by regional parties in nearly two and a half decades' — not the highest.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that regional parties polled 28.1% in the 2019 Lok Sabha election, the only exception to their consistent ~33% range. This was attributed to the Balakot air strikes effect. The other years were 31.22% (2009), 35.86% (2014), and 33.52% (2024), all higher than 28.1%.

Explanation

The article explains that the FPTP system often 'magnifies electoral victories and defeats', meaning a small decline in vote share can lead to a large loss in seats and governments. Therefore, the drop in the number of states governed by regional parties does not reflect a proportionate decline in their underlying voter support, which has remained stable at ~33%.

Explanation

I4C is a nodal agency under the Ministry of Home Affairs, established to coordinate cyber crime response. The article mentions Minister of State for Home Affairs Bandi Sanjay Kumar, confirming this linkage.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is also correct. Statement 3 is incorrect because the blocking was done under Sections 69(A) and 79(3)(b), not Sections 66A (which deals with offensive messages and was struck down by the Supreme Court) or 67 (publishing obscene material). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 3,718 mobile apps were blocked. The other options are distractors: 15.75 lakh SIM cards, 5.77 lakh IMEIs, and 32.8 lakh complaints filed on CFCFRMS.

Explanation

CFCFRMS was launched in 2021 for immediate reporting of financial frauds. The article highlights that it saved over ₹11,158 crore by enabling quick action. Blocking apps and IMEIs are separate actions by I4C, not the primary function of CFCFRMS.

Explanation

The article states that MPD-2041 was sent to MoHUA for notification in 2023. The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs is the nodal ministry for urban planning and housing in India. Option D is a former name, not current. MoEFCC deals with environment, MHA with internal security.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article says the first Master Plan was announced in 1962 under the Delhi Development Act, 1957. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Delhi High Court ruled that residential colonies in the Yamuna O-Zone are 'completely impermissible', not permissible. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions the new TOD policy was notified by MoHUA in April.

Explanation

The article title and text clearly mention 'Master Plan for Delhi (MPD) 2047'. The earlier plan was MPD-2041, but the horizon year was changed to 2047. Option A (2041) is the previous plan, C (2050) is not mentioned, D (2021) is a past plan notified in 2007.

Explanation

The article states that the TOD policy 'is expected to open up large swathes of land near Metro corridors to high density development'. Option A is not mentioned; roads are not the focus. Option C is a separate policy (regularisation of colonies). Option D is slum rehabilitation policy, not TOD.

Explanation

The CAG is the constitutional auditor under Article 148 of the Constitution. It audits the accounts of the Union, states, and public sector undertakings like BMRCL. The report was tabled in Parliament, confirming CAG's role.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the report covers BMRCL from inception through March 2021, financials updated to March 2023. Statement 2 is incorrect: actual ridership was 6,429-8,852, well below the 15,000 threshold. Statement 3 is correct: BMRCL has posted continuous cash losses since 2013-14. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The CAG report specifically mentioned that poor assessment of land requirements and acquisition delays inflated costs by Rs 6,603.39 crore across both phases. The other options are related to excess compensation (Rs 294.72 crore) and interest payouts (Rs 186.86 crore) – common distractors.

Explanation

The CAG report highlighted that weak land assessment and delays pushed up expenses by over Rs 6,600 crore. While ridership and revenue issues are separate findings, the primary cause of cost overrun was land-related mismanagement. Option B directly matches the report's conclusion.

Explanation

The Jal Shakti Ministry issued the notification on August 7, 2026, amending the River Ganga Authorities Order, 2016. The Ministry of Jal Shakti is responsible for water resources and river management.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the active floodplain is now defined as 1-in-5-year flood area. Statement 2 is incorrect: the construction prohibition remains for the active floodplain, but its spatial extent is reduced. Statement 3 is correct: the amendment introduces regulatory (1-in-5 to 1-in-25 year) and warning (1-in-25 to 1-in-100 year) zones.

Explanation

The warning zone covers areas inundated between 1-in-25-year and 1-in-100-year floods. Hence the upper limit is 1-in-100 years. The options 1-in-5 and 1-in-25 correspond to other zones.

Explanation

Under the 2016 order, construction was prohibited in the entire floodplain (1-in-100-year area). The 2026 amendment defines the active floodplain as a smaller area (1-in-5-year), so the construction prohibition now applies only to this smaller zone. This reduces the area where construction is banned.

Explanation

The article states that the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology informed the Lok Sabha about the amendments. This ministry oversees IT governance, including intermediary guidelines.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says directions must specify the legal basis, statutory provision, nature of unlawful act, and specific URL. Statement 2 is incorrect: the required rank is Joint Secretary or equivalent, not Director. Statement 3 is correct: a monthly review by a Secretary ensures actions are proportionate and per the law.

Explanation

The article specifies that 'any intimation to intermediaries for removal of unlawful information can only be issued by a senior officer not below the rank of Joint Secretary, or equivalent'. Option B is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the amendments bring about 'more safeguards so as to bring about greater transparency'. The requirement for senior officer rank, legal basis specification, and monthly review all aim to ensure accountability and proportionate actions, not just banning content or revenue generation.

Explanation

The article mentions the Standing Committee of the National Board for Wild Life, which is under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). This ministry grants environmental and forest clearances.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per article: 'dam is however owned and operated by Tamil Nadu'. Statement 2 is correct: 'length of the main dam is 1,200 feet and the top of the dam is 155 feet'. Statement 3 is false; the 2014 judgment allowed 142 feet, while 152 feet was from the 2006 judgment.

Explanation

The article states explicitly: 'The length of the main dam is 1,200 feet'. Options 136 and 142 are water levels, and 155 is the top height of the dam.

Explanation

The article's core is that TN flagged Kerala's 'obstructionist attitude' delaying strengthening of baby dam, earth dam, and grouting, as well as tree felling permissions. This non-cooperation is stalling implementation of the SC order.

Explanation

The FCRA is administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). The bill was moved by the Minister of State for Home, indicating MHA's role.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the bill was introduced on March 25, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: the JPC has 21 members from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha, not the other way around. Statement 3 is correct: the report deadline is the last day of the first week of the Winter Session 2026. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The JPC comprises 21 members from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha, totalling 31 members. The other options are distractors: 20 and 25 are too low, 41 is too high.

Explanation

The bill explicitly proposes to create a designated authority to manage and dispose of assets if an organisation loses its FCRA licence. Options A, C, and D are not mentioned in the article; the government has denied targeting minorities.

Explanation

The MoEFCC is the nodal ministry for environmental regulations, including the formulation of ESZ guidelines under the Environment Protection Act, 1986. The National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) is a statutory body under this ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The June 2022 order mandated a minimum 1 km ESZ. Statement 2 is correct: The order also prohibited mining within ESZs. Statement 3 is incorrect: The April 2023 modification retained the 1 km clause, it did not remove it. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The Supreme Court in June 2022 mandated that every national park and wildlife sanctuary must have a minimum ESZ of 1 km from its demarcated boundary. The default guideline of up to 10 km remains until the Centre notifies a site-specific ESZ.

Explanation

The Assam Chief Minister stated that retaining a 10 km ESZ would affect thousands of people living in Bokakhat, Kaliabor, and other peripheral towns. The 1 km ESZ aligns with the Supreme Court's minimum requirement and balances conservation with livelihood concerns.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the CPI data was released by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. This is a standard static GK fact for exams.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions a 19-month high of 4.45%. Statement 2 is correct: food inflation at 5.2% with spikes in onion, garlic, ginger. Statement 3 is correct: new base year 2024 and sector-wise data from January 2026. Hence all three are correct.

Explanation

The article states that inflation in this category 'remained in double digits at 14.8% in July 2026, it was the lowest level recorded so far this year.'

Explanation

The article quotes Madan Sabnavis: 'The war impact on prices can be seen from higher inflation for restaurants and food services where higher fuel prices have made units increase prices.'

Explanation

The news explicitly states that scientists at CSIR-IICT developed the plant-based drug candidate. IIT Madras, NIPER, and ICMR are other prominent research bodies but were not involved in this specific development.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the drug is derived from Gymnema sylvestre. Statement 2 is incorrect because the technology was transferred to Mumbai-based Viridis Biopharma, not a Hyderabad-based company. Statement 3 is correct as the mission is explicitly named 'CSIR Phytopharmaceutical Mission Phase III'. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the research was supported under the 'CSIR Phytopharmaceutical Mission Phase III'. The other options are close distractors with incorrect phase numbers or mission names.

Explanation

The core achievement is the creation of a standardized, evidence-based botanical drug that has completed preclinical studies and is ready for human trials. This addresses an unmet medical need for diabetic foot ulcers, which can lead to amputations. The other options are incorrect: it does not necessarily reduce synthetic drug costs, it still requires clinical trials, and it is not claimed to replace all existing products.

Explanation

The article mentions the department-related Parliamentary Standing Committee on Transport, Tourism and Culture tabled the report in Rajya Sabha. This committee oversees the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, Tourism, and Culture.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the committee recommended a National Bus Terminals Authority on the lines of AAI. Statement 2 is correct: the All India Passenger Permit is to streamline regulatory hurdles, effectively replacing state-level permits. Statement 3 is incorrect: the committee recommended separation of ownership of buses and management of terminals, like the aviation sector where airlines do not build airports.

Explanation

The article states that of the total 4.4 lakh buses, around 1.1 lakh are government-owned and 3.3 lakh are privately owned, which is three out of every four buses.

Explanation

The article recommends a National Bus Digital Grid for live tracking and booking like trains, publishing operator safety ratings, and a citizen vigilance channel. The objective is to modernise bus transport and improve passenger experience and safety.

Explanation

As per the article, UPI was developed by the RBI-regulated National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) and the Indian Banks' Association (IBA). The NPCI is the umbrella organization for retail payments under RBI, and it regulates UPI operations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says UPI was launched as a pilot in April 2016 and became fully operational in August 2016. Statement 2 is incorrect: the government introduced an 'Incentive scheme' in 2020 to subsidise MDR on UPI transactions up to ₹2,000, so MDR was not always zero. Statement 3 is correct: the article states that PhonePe and Google Pay together handled 80% of all UPI transactions in July 2026.

Explanation

The article states: 'in 2025-26, the number of digital transactions was an astonishing 28,174 crore'. 1,200 crore was the RBI's vision for annual transactions (from 2012 document). 70 crore is the number of credit and debit card transactions in May 2026. 2,000 crore is not mentioned.

Explanation

The article mentions that the infrastructure costs amount to about ₹20,000 crore annually, and the zero-MDR model has led to unrecovered costs for banks and payment service providers. The payments industry advocates for a calibrated MDR on larger transactions to fund these costs and sustain the ecosystem.

Explanation

The article states that the Kerala Administrative Tribunal directed the authorities on August 2, 2022 to consider the employee's claim under the 4% reservation for persons with disabilities. The High Court later confirmed this direction while setting aside only the 2024 interim contempt order.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because the High Court confirmed the KAT's 2022 promotion direction. Statement 2 is incorrect because the High Court set aside the 2024 interim contempt order. Statement 3 is correct as the article cites Siddaraju v State of Karnataka for the right of persons with disabilities to reservation in promotions.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the employee suffers from a 40 per cent benchmark disability. This precise data point is important for prelims and is directly testable.

Explanation

The High Court set aside the interim order passed in the contempt proceedings but did not dismiss the contempt petition. It clarified that the employee is free to pursue it and the tribunal should deal with it in accordance with law. This shows the distinction between setting aside an interim order and terminating the main contempt case.

Explanation

The article mentions that Parliament passed the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam in 2023, which is the Women's Reservation Act. The 106th Amendment Act (2003) is related to reservation of seats for SC/ST in Lok Sabha, not women. The 73rd Amendment deals with Panchayati Raj, and the 86th Amendment deals with Right to Education. Therefore, option A is correct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the resolution demands permanent freeze of Lok Sabha at 543 seats. Statement 2 is incorrect: the resolution demands implementation of women's reservation without waiting for delimitation, i.e., delinking it. Statement 3 is incorrect: AIADMK supported only the women's quota provision, not the entire resolution, and PMK opposed it. Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2026 proposed increasing the strength of the House to 850 seats. Option A (543) is the current strength. Options B and D are not mentioned. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article mentions that southern states, having successfully implemented population control, fear that fresh delimitation based on the 2026 census would reduce their relative influence in Parliament. While women's reservation is linked, the core concern is the loss of political representation. Option B correctly captures this. Option A is not mentioned. Option C is not the primary concern. Option D is a related issue but not the primary concern of the resolution.

Explanation

The UGC, established under the UGC Act, 1956, is the apex body for coordination and maintenance of standards in higher education. The UGC (Open and Distance Learning Programmes and Online Programmes) Regulations, 2020 specifically govern online and distance education. AICTE regulates technical education, NCTE handles teacher education, and DEB is a bureau of UGC, not a separate statutory body.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Bills establish three private digital open universities for fully online education. Statement 2 is incorrect: The UGC regulations restrict fully online delivery for engineering, medical, paramedical, and PhD courses – this is a key point of controversy. Statement 3 is correct: The Bills require a minimum corpus of ₹20 crore for each university.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that sponsors must maintain a minimum corpus fund of ₹20 crore to be used only for university development. The other options are distractors; ₹10 crore and ₹15 crore are lower amounts, while ₹25 crore is the maximum penalty for violations, not the corpus requirement.

Explanation

The policy aims to expand access to higher education by allowing students to complete entire programmes from home without physical classes, and to attract reputed private and edtech players. It does not target converting government universities (option A) or full privatisation (option C), nor does it replace UGC regulations (option D) – the Bills claim to ensure adherence to UGC norms.

Explanation

The article states that the Master Plan for Delhi is drafted under the Delhi Development Act, 1957. The other years given as options are Master Plan years, not the year of the Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because the first Master Plan for Delhi was announced in 1962. Statement 2 is incorrect as the Delhi High Court ruled that residential colonies in the O-Zone cannot legally exist. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states that the share of affordable newly launched homes priced below ₹40 lakh fell from 62% in 2020 to 11% last year. 13% was luxury housing's share in 2019, while 70% was luxury housing's share in 2024.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the land pooling policy is meant to unlock large tracts of Outer Delhi for planned development. Option B refers to a separate regularisation decision, Option C is the TOD policy, and Option D is a market trend.

Explanation

The article clearly states that AICTE granted Letters of Approval to 5,099 new institutions in 2024-25. AICTE is the statutory body regulating technical education in India, while UGC oversees higher education, NCTE handles teacher education, and NBA is an accreditation body.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Computer Applications had 3,959 approved institutions. Statement 2 is incorrect: Management had 3,500 institutions, not equal to Computer Applications. Statement 3 is correct: Total approved intake was 7,49,872 seats. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the total approved intake of the 5,099 new institutions was 7,49,872 seats. 7,05,408 is the undergraduate component, 3,65,848 is Computer Applications intake, and 34,045 is Engineering intake. So the correct total is 7,49,872.

Explanation

The article highlights that Computer Applications and Management together account for over 7.1 lakh seats, while Engineering has only 34,045 seats. This indicates a clear market-driven shift towards information technology and management education, reflecting student and employer preferences.

Explanation

Since 2019, NTA has been conducting NEET UG. Earlier, CBSE conducted the exam. The article mentions NTA as the agency responsible for the exam and the subject expert selection process under scrutiny.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: chargesheet filed on July 28, 2026, with 13 accused and 360 witnesses. Statement 2 is incorrect – the expert stated there were NO prescribed criteria. Statement 3 is correct: the Chemistry expert from Pune colleges brought in 40-50 teachers. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'the chargesheet that names 13 accused' was filed before a Delhi fast-track court. 360 is the number of witnesses, not accused. Options 10 and 20 are distractors.

Explanation

The Physics expert stated that there were 'no formally prescribed eligibility criteria or written conditions' and 'no written appointment letters' for experts. This allowed personal recommendations to dominate, increasing leak risks. Other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the '1996 Ganges Water Treaty'. It is the treaty governing water sharing at Farakka between India and Bangladesh.

Explanation

Statement 1 is false: the Farakka Barrage traps sediment upstream, causing downstream sediment depletion. Statement 2 is true: the BNP announcement is mentioned in the article. Statement 3 is false: the SOS concept was defined by a study led by Bangladesh University of Professionals, not IPCC.

Explanation

The article mentions declining fish populations, particularly Hilsa, as a consequence of reduced flow. The other options are explicitly listed as consequences: rising salinity, pressure on agriculture, and degradation of aquatic ecosystems.

Explanation

The article states that the SOS study aims to define a safe operating space for major rivers and informs science and policy for transboundary water. It is about ecological integrity, not just allocation or infrastructure.

Explanation

The NCDC falls under the Ministry of Cooperation, as per the article which states the bill was introduced by the Minister of State for Cooperation on behalf of the Union Minister of Cooperation, Amit Shah.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the bill expressly allows NCDC to give loans/grants directly. Statement 2 is incorrect because the definition includes processed food *and any other food items notified by the Centre*, not only processed food. Statement 3 is correct: the bill was passed in Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha by voice vote.

Explanation

The article mentions the bill amends the National Cooperative Development Corporation Act, 1962, so the original Act was enacted in 1962. Option D (2011) is the year of the 97th Constitutional Amendment related to cooperatives, a common distractor.

Explanation

The article states the Bill expands the role of NCDC to giving loans and grants directly to cooperative societies. While federalism concerns were raised, the stated objective is direct lending, not reduction of state role per se. Options A and C are potential implications but not the primary objective.

Explanation

The draft MPD-2047, approved by DDA, will be sent to the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) for final approval and notification. MoHUA is the nodal ministry for urban development and housing policies in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: minimum plot size for redevelopment reduced from 4 hectares to 3,000 sq m. Statement 2 is incorrect: the requirement was 70% of landowners (not 60%). Statement 3 is correct: TOD policy is extended near expressways.

Explanation

Bhupender Bazad, chairman of the Delhi Master Plan Committee of the rural group Delhi Dehat Vikas Manch, estimated that the implementation of MPD-2047 and the land pooling policy will attract global investment of ₹25 lakh crore to ₹30 lakh crore to Delhi.

Explanation

The changes—removing the need for a landowner consortium and automating land-use changes—aim to overcome difficulties that previously stalled development. This is intended to bring more housing and commercial space into the market, addressing Delhi's rising demand and limited developable space.

Explanation

The Calcutta High Court, specifically a division bench of Justices Rajasekhar Mantha and Anuj Singh, issued the order cancelling OBC certificates issued under the revised rules by the TMC government in West Bengal.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court cancelled OBC certificates under OBC-A/B categories. Statement 2 is incorrect because the issuance period was from May 8 to June 12, 2025, not January to March. Statement 3 is correct as the bench noted the classification ceased to exist after abolition by the BJP government.

Explanation

According to the article, the OBC certificates under the revised TMC government rules were issued from May 8 to June 12, 2025. The other dates are distractors not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The court explicitly stated that since the OBC-A/B classification no longer exists, the certificate holders under these categories would now be considered as general category. This means they lose reservation benefits that were attached to those specific OBC sub-categories.

Explanation

According to the article, the US Senate passed the Bill authorising the US President to impose 100% tariffs on the top five purchasers of Russian oil. The House of Representatives is the lower chamber, but the article specifically mentions the Senate.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per Peter Navarro's statement that India was not involved before the war. Statement 2 is correct as India refined and sold Russian oil products. Statement 3 is incorrect because Navarro said 'maybe' he had a role and claimed the issue had been 'resolved', not that he took full credit for completely weaning India off.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the US Senate passed a Bill authorising the US President to impose 100% tariffs on the top five purchasers of Russian oil. The other options are close distractors but 100% is the correct figure mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The article states the Bill contends that the oil trade with Russia 'directly financed the Ukraine war'. The objective is to reduce Russia's war funding by penalising countries that continue to buy its oil, not to influence global prices or OPEC policies.

Explanation

Article 3 empowers Parliament to change state names, boundaries, etc. Article 1 defines India as Union of States, Article 2 deals with admission of new states, Article 4 with laws under Articles 2 and 3.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct (passed by voice vote). Statement 2 is false: state views are not binding. Statement 3 is false: there were two resolutions (2023 and 2024). Hence option A is correct.

Explanation

Kerala was formed on November 1, 1956, following the States Reorganisation Commission recommendations. Other dates are significant for India's independence, Republic Day, and other state formations.

Explanation

Article 3 requires the President's recommendation before the Bill is introduced in Parliament. State legislature views are sought but not required for introduction. Parliamentary majority is needed for passage, not introduction.