13 August 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

Article 194 specifically grants powers, privileges, and immunities to state legislatures and their members. Article 105 is the corresponding provision for Parliament. Article 19(1)(a) deals with free speech, and Article 21 with right to life.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the editorial was published in April 2003. Statement 2 is incorrect because the case was referred to a five-judge bench in 2004, not finally decided. Statement 3 is correct as per the article: the seven-judge bench will start hearing on October 6, 2026.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the seven-judge bench would commence hearing from October 6. August 13 is the publication date of the article. December 8, 2003 is when the case was referred to a five-judge bench. October 12, 2023 is when the Union government was impleaded.

Explanation

The core issue is the conflict between legislative privilege (Article 194) and freedom of speech (Article 19(1)(a)). The other options are sub-questions or procedural matters, not the overarching constitutional question.

Explanation

The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 is under the purview of the Ministry of Mines, Government of India. This ministry handles all matters related to mining, mineral development, and the metallurgical industries.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Bill was passed by Lok Sabha on August 12 and Rajya Sabha on August 13, 2026 during the Monsoon Session. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Bill actually restricts states' powers to levy taxes on mineral rights. Statement 3 is correct: After parliamentary approval, the Bill requires the President's assent to become law.

Explanation

The Rajya Sabha passed the Bill on Thursday, August 13, 2026. The Lok Sabha had passed it a day earlier on August 12, 2026.

Explanation

The Bill primarily aims to restrict states from levying additional taxes on mineral rights and mineral-bearing lands. This is intended to create a uniform tax regime but has raised concerns about federalism and state autonomy.

Explanation

FCRA is administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). This ministry issues registration certificates, monitors foreign fund usage, and takes enforcement actions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Bill mandates automatic takeover of assets on lapse or non-renewal. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Bill does not allow an appeal against refusal to renew; appeal is only against the authority's subsequent actions. Statement 3 is correct: the Bill was referred to a JPC after protests from religious institutions and state governments.

Explanation

The 2020 FCRA amendments reduced the permissible administrative expenditure from 50% to 20%. The other options are distractors: 50% was the pre-amendment cap, 40% and 25% are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Religious institutions (especially Christian organisations) are alarmed because they run schools, colleges, and hospitals built with foreign church funds. The Bill's provision for automatic takeover of assets on lapse or refusal of renewal, without any right to be heard or appeal, threatens their properties. Options A, C, and D are not part of the Bill as described in the article.

Explanation

NEET-UG is conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA) under the administrative control of the Ministry of Education. The article mentions the Union Education Minister's resignation following the NEET-UG 2026 leak, confirming this linkage.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'Union Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan resigned on July 24 after five weeks of protest over a leaked NEET-UG paper'. Statement 2 is correct: 'the state CID has made 14 arrests'. Statement 3 is correct: the article proposes that 'labour force surveys should include a distinct category for candidates awaiting results beyond a stipulated timeline'. Hence all three are correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The 2025 annual report of the Periodic Labour Force Survey recorded youth unemployment among those aged 15 to 29 at 9.9%, more than three times the national rate.' The other options are plausible distractors but only 9.9% matches the data.

Explanation

The article states that aspirants are demanding 'a CBI probe into alleged irregularities spanning seven years across JPSC and Jharkhand Staff Selection Commission examinations.' They have rejected the state CID probe as inadequate. Option A is not mentioned; Option C is partially correct (they demand cancellation of the 14th JPSC prelim exam, not all exams); Option D is not their primary demand.

Explanation

The RBI is India's central bank and the ultimate regulator of the payment systems, including UPI. While NPCI oversees the day-to-day operations of UPI, the RBI provides the overarching regulatory framework. This is a standard static GK fact linked to the article's mention of RBI Governor Sanjay Malhotra.

Explanation

Statement 1 and 2 are directly from the article: the government spent ₹2,000 crore on UPI and saved ₹1,500 crore on currency printing. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 25% tariff was imposed on Brazil (for its Pix system), not on India.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'If the government spent ₹2,000 crore on UPI last year, it also saved nearly ₹1,500 crore over the same time in reduced expenditure on printing currency notes.' The correct answer is ₹1,500 crore.

Explanation

The article argues that the real reason for allowing surcharges is U.S. pressure, as America imposed tariffs on Brazil for its free Pix system. India's trade deal with the U.S. is cited as the reason for bending, specifically to ensure Visa and Mastercard are not disadvantaged by free UPI.

Explanation

The article states that the RBI has proposed the new framework and issued the draft Directions. Financial Benchmarks India Pvt Ltd publishes external benchmarks, while cooperative banks and HFCs are covered entities, not issuers of the Directions. Hence option A is correct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is directly supported by the article: the draft will come into effect from April 1, 2027 if finalised. Statement 2 is incorrect because the RBI has said lenders 'will not be allowed to price a loan below the applicable benchmark'. Statement 3 is correct as the reset period cannot exceed three months for most lenders. Therefore option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that for most lenders, 'the benchmark reset period cannot exceed three months'. Agricultural loans are the exception with a maximum reset period of 12 months linked to crop season. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

The article highlights 'greater transparency in pricing and safeguards for borrowers'. Mandating external benchmarks and capping reset periods helps policy rate changes transmit to borrowers. The RBI does not eliminate benchmarks or fix all rates at repo rate; spreads can vary but are regulated. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the signatories to the Mecca Joint Defence Agreement are Saudi Arabia, Turkey, and Pakistan. Iran is mentioned as a target of the alliance, not a member. This question tests basic recall of the key participants in the newly formed pact.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the pact 'borrows elements of Article 5 of the NATO charter'. Statement 2 is correct as the article discusses the potential conflict of interest for Turkey, a NATO member, under the Mecca Pact. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article explicitly states it is 'unclear whether Islamabad has offered a nuclear umbrella'.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'Last May, Pakistan deployed some 8,000 troops... to Saudi Arabia'. This is a direct data point from the text. The other options are close but incorrect figures.

Explanation

The article highlights that Pakistan's history of using alliances (like SEATO) to gain advantage against India is being repeated. The Mecca Pact provides Pakistan a platform to 'challenge India’s ambition to lead the Global South'. While border security is relevant, the core concern is about Pakistan's enhanced geopolitical leverage, not a direct military threat.

Explanation

The BNSS (Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita) was enacted in 2023 to replace the CrPC, 1973. It governs criminal procedure. The other options are related but different: Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita replaced IPC, and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam replaced Evidence Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per Section 187(2) BNSS interpreted by the SC. Statement 2 is incorrect because the SC held that Section 38 BNSS does not contemplate continuous physical presence of a lawyer throughout interrogation. Statement 3 is correct - the case is State of Andhra Pradesh vs Suda Suresh Veera Venkata Naga Raju.

Explanation

Section 187(2) BNSS allows police custody not exceeding 15 days in the whole, albeit in parts, during the initial 40 or 60 days of detention. This is a key change from the old CrPC where police custody was limited to the first 15 days.

Explanation

The Supreme Court noted that the legislative change was intended to meet situations where fresh facts, discoveries or leads may emerge during the course of investigation. This flexibility aids the investigating agency in conducting thorough probes without being restricted by the old 15-day limit.

Explanation

The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) is the nodal ministry for all matters related to renewable energy in India, including setting targets and monitoring capacity additions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India achieved 300.50 GW non-fossil capacity as of July 31, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: the 2035 target is 60%, not 50%. Statement 3 is correct: the carbon sink target is 3.5 to 4 billion tonnes CO2-equivalent.

Explanation

The article states that India's installed solar capacity rose to 164.59 GW as of July 31, 2026, making it the largest component of non-fossil power capacity. 58.14 GW is the wind capacity, 57.24 GW is hydropower, and 300.50 GW is the total non-fossil capacity.

Explanation

The article highlights that as renewable capacity scales up, electricity supply is abundant in some hours but insufficient in others. This mismatch between when electricity is generated and when it is needed presents a big challenge, requiring energy storage systems like pumped hydro and batteries.

Explanation

Sir Cyril Radcliffe, a British barrister, was appointed to chair both the Punjab and Bengal Boundary Commissions. Lord Mountbatten was the Viceroy who oversaw the process but did not chair the commissions. Nehru and Jinnah were nationalist leaders, not commissioners.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: Radcliffe had never visited India before 1947. Statement 2 is correct: the award was announced on August 17, 1947, not August 15. Statement 3 is correct: Chester notes that Radcliffe destroyed almost all papers relating to his private deliberations.

Explanation

Radcliffe arrived in India on July 8, 1947, and the award was ready by August 9, 1947—a period of approximately 6 weeks. This short timeframe underscores the rushed nature of the process.

Explanation

Historian Ramachandra Guha notes Mountbatten's explanation: 'Without question, the earlier it was published, the more the British would have to bear responsibility for the disturbances which would undoubtedly result.' Lucy Chester argues Mountbatten's main goal was to ensure violence happened after the official transfer of power, making it no longer a British responsibility.

Explanation

The article clearly states that NASA, through the 9th India-U.S. Civil Space Joint Working Group, offered a formal invitation to ISRO. ESA, Roscosmos, and CNSA are other major space agencies but not involved in this invitation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the 9th meeting. Statement 2 is incorrect because the meeting was held in Bengaluru, not New Delhi. Statement 3 is correct as NASA offered a formal invitation to ISRO to be part of the Moon Base programme. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Moon Base will make the Moon's south pole a home. The south pole is of scientific interest due to water ice in permanently shadowed craters. The other options are not mentioned in the article as targets.

Explanation

The article states that astronauts will make the Moon's south pole a home from where they will live, work and conduct scientific activities over the next decade. While resource mining and technology testing may be secondary, the primary objective as described is a sustainable human outpost. Options A, C, and D are not the stated primary goal.

Explanation

The MTP Act, 1971 (amended in 2021) provides the legal basis for termination of pregnancy, including for rape survivors up to 24 weeks. The MP HC ruling specifically cited this Act to state that no court approval is required under it.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the ruling. Statement 2 is incorrect – the ruling applies to all survivors of sexual assault, rape, or incest, not limited to minors. Statement 3 is correct – the Indore Bench directed the Health Commissioner to communicate the Division Bench’s order to all concerned hospitals.

Explanation

The MP HC explicitly stated that survivors of sexual assault, rape, or incest with pregnancies up to 24 weeks do not require judicial proceedings under Article 226. The other options are distractor values: 20 weeks was the original MTP limit, 18 weeks was the survivor’s actual pregnancy in the case, and 26 weeks has no basis in the article.

Explanation

The court held that the matter did not require court intervention because the MTP Act, 1971 (as clarified by the Division Bench in February 2025) already permits termination up to 24 weeks for rape survivors without needing approval under Article 226. Hence the petition was dismissed as unnecessary.

Explanation

The article states that the plan will be sent to the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) for final approval and notification. The DDA is the approving body, but MoHUA has the final say at the central level.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the horizon was extended to align with the national vision. Statement 2 is incorrect because the plan was approved by the DDA, not MoHUA (MoHUA will give final notification). Statement 3 is correct as the article states the plan will address long-standing challenges including the Yamuna O-Zone.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the government has decided to regularise 1,511 unauthorised colonies on an 'as-is-where-is' basis. The other options are plausible distractors but incorrect.

Explanation

The article states that the amendments aim to reduce the number of prior clearances required for building permits, by eliminating the need for separate NOCs from multiple agencies, thereby simplifying the approval process and improving 'ease of doing business'.

Explanation

The article states that vehicles built after April 2023, when the Bharat Stage 6 Phase 2 (Real Driving Emissions) mandate took effect, were factory-engineered for E20 with ethanol-resistant components. Earlier norms did not require such compatibility.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the government's August 2026 Lok Sabha statement. Statement 2 is incorrect because direct ethanol import for petroleum blending is banned. Statement 3 is correct as IIT Kanpur's Engine Research Laboratory stated no notable damage and efficiency loss under 5%.

Explanation

The article states that about 70 million vehicles (post-2023) are E20-compatible, which is roughly 23% of India's active petrol fleet. The remaining 77% (240 million) are legacy vehicles designed for E5 or E10.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that in the event of monsoon failure and crop losses, the diversion of FCI rice, sugarcane juice, and B-heavy molasses to ethanol production will come under stress, raising the possibility of corn imports. This directly threatens food grain availability.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the physical labour required to dig compost pits can be funded using MGNREGS budgets, which come from the Ministry of Rural Development. The Ministry of Jal Shakti sets the technical blueprint and targets under the Swachh Bharat Mission-Grameen.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article mentions the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2026 have reinforced these requirements. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article states that despite being distributed across 16 ministries, 'accountability for the complete chain remains obscure' due to fragmentation. Statement 3 is correct: the CEEW report estimates 26 lakh direct jobs from improved urban organic waste management.

Explanation

The article states that 'CEEW (2026) estimates that improved management of urban organic waste could unlock a market opportunity of nearly $51 billion by 2047.' The $24 billion figure refers to the potential investments that could be attracted, not the market opportunity.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'India already has laws, schemes, technologies and institutions. What it lacks is a unified view of the resource and a clear line of accountability from generation to productive use.' While other factors like technology and awareness are mentioned, the core structural issue is the fragmented mandate across 16 ministries.

Explanation

The article states that NASA has asked ISRO to join its Moon Base programme. ISRO is the Indian Space Research Organisation, the national space agency of India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Artemis programme aims to land humans on the Moon before 2028. Statement 2 is correct: India has signed the Artemis Accords. Statement 3 is incorrect: China and Russia are not part of the Artemis Accords, as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that ISRO has its own plans to land human beings on the Moon by 2040. The other options are distractors: 2028 is NASA's target, 2030 and 2050 are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article warns that ISRO must not get locked into NASA's technology ecosystem to avoid vulnerability to technology denial. This is the primary risk highlighted, not loss of sovereignty or funding cuts.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that Guidance is the nodal agency instrumental in clinching these deals, with its Managing Director and CEO Deepak Jacob present at the event. Invest India is the national investment promotion agency, while DIPP and TIDCO are different entities.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Hinduja Group investing ₹2,500 crore in renewable energy, electric mobility, automotive, etc. Statement 2 is correct: Daimler India investing ₹4,000 crore to expand its 400-acre Oragadam facility. Statement 3 is correct: Ramanathapuram gets its first big investment of ₹1,000 crore from Phoenix Kothari Group.

Explanation

The article clearly states that 97 MoUs worth over ₹67,542 crore were signed. Option D (₹1,00,000 crore) is the cumulative 100-day target, not the conclave total. Options B and C are close distractors.

Explanation

The Minister for Industries, S. Keerthana, explicitly stated that the Chief Minister has set an ambitious target of a $1.5 trillion economy by 2036. The conclave is a step towards that goal by generating jobs and economic growth. Other options are not mentioned or are too narrow.

Explanation

The news explicitly mentions that the conversion aligns with the guidelines of the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE). NCTE is the statutory body for teacher education in India, established under the NCTE Act, 1993. UGC oversees higher education, AICTE oversees technical education, and NAAC handles accreditation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the conversion aligns with NEP 2020 and NCTE guidelines. Statement 2 is incorrect because the ₹950 crore was approved for the Student Credit Card scheme, not the Kushal Yuva Programme (which had ₹430.08 crore approved). Statement 3 is correct: CBG plants were approved in Gaya, Muzaffarpur, Bhagalpur, and Biharsharif with 10 acres of land for 25 years to IOCL, HPCL, BPCL, and GAIL.

Explanation

The news explicitly states that the cabinet approved an estimated expenditure of ₹1,000 crore for a period of one year under the 'Pradhan Mantri Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana'. The other options are from different schemes: ₹430.08 crore for Kushal Yuva Programme and ₹950 crore for the Student Credit Card scheme.

Explanation

The news explicitly states that the initiative will 'provide students with greater opportunities for higher education within their own district or nearby areas, strengthen access to higher education, and contribute to increasing the state's Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER)'. It is not about reducing colleges, centralizing, or phasing out B.Ed.

Explanation

The article mentions that under Swachh Bharat Mission-Grameen, the Ministry of Jal Shakti sets technical blueprints and targets for community compost pits. The Ministry of Rural Development funds labour through MGNREGS, but the nodal ministry for SBM-G is Jal Shakti.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states that the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2026 have reinforced requirements. Statement 2 is correct: CEEW (2026) estimates a $51 billion market opportunity. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article highlights that responsibility is distributed across 16 ministries, not concentrated under one.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions 'create nearly 26 lakh direct jobs'. Option B (16 lakh) refers to the number of ministries involved, not jobs. Option C (51 lakh) is the market value in billions. Option D (24 lakh) is the investment figure in billions. So the correct answer is 26 lakh.

Explanation

The article proposes three reforms: (1) an organic-resource inventory, (2) combining scheme benefits under a clear resource recovery objective, and (3) developing a dependable market for recovered products. The overarching goal is integrated resource recovery, not simply more plants, bans, or privatization.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the draft notification is based on the recommendations of the Kasturirangan Committee. The Gadgil Committee was an earlier panel, but the current draft follows the Kasturirangan Committee's report.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article mentions that 1,500 sq km of settlements and cultivated land are included. Statement 3 is correct as the draft was issued on July 27, 2026. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the draft proposes 9,993.7 sq km as ESA in Kerala. The other options are distractors: 56,825.7 sq km is the total across Western Ghats, 1,500 sq km is the settlement/cultivated land area, and 131 is the number of villages.

Explanation

The article states that farmers fear ESA designation could impose restrictions on land use and development, affecting the value and future use of their properties. There is no mention of subsidy loss, tax increase, or forced relocation.

Explanation

The NCERT is the autonomous organisation under the Ministry of Education responsible for developing and publishing school textbooks and curricula. CBSE aligns its examination patterns with NCERT curricula, but the textbook development itself is NCERT's mandate.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the report states CBSE has aligned its curriculum with NEP 2020 and NCF 2023. Statement 2 is incorrect because the panel actually recommended reviewing teacher-training fees so that teachers from financially constrained private schools can participate, not increasing them. Statement 3 is correct as the committee recommended a mandatory annual baseline increase of 10% to bridge the GDP gap.

Explanation

The report noted that combined spending by the Centre and states currently stands at 4.1% of GDP, against the NEP 2020 target of 6%. Option C (8.27%) is the year-on-year increase in the Union Budget allocation, and option D (1.52%) is the budget share of the Department of School Education and Literacy in 2024-25.

Explanation

The committee specifically recommended a non-lapsable education fund to support long-term infrastructure development, digital expansion, and inclusive education across financial years. This mechanism ensures that unspent funds are not surrendered at the end of the fiscal year, enabling sustained multi-year projects.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions the 'Committee on Estimates (Eighteenth Lok Sabha)' as the body that presented the Tenth Report (2026-27) on education. The Public Accounts Committee examines audit reports, while the Committee on Estimates examines budget estimates and administrative efficiency.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: 1,596 vacancies out of 2,844 sanctioned posts. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article explicitly states CBSE is a self-funded autonomous body and does NOT receive grant-in-aid from the Ministry. Statement 3 is correct: the largest vacancy category at NCERT is ministerial (916 posts). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that 933 of the 2,117 sanctioned positions at CBSE were vacant, which equals 44%. Option A (56%) is the vacancy percentage for NCERT, a common distractor. Options C and D are not mentioned in the report.

Explanation

The committee specifically stated that reliance on temporary contractual workers for sensitive examination-related work could compromise exam integrity. Option A relates to NCERT's role, not CBSE. Option C is factually opposite (schools are increasing). Option D is incorrect as CBSE is self-funded.

Explanation

The article states that Tata Trusts collectively own about 66% of Tata Sons. Tata Trusts are philanthropic trusts that exercise enormous influence over the group, including nominating Directors and finding a successor. The other options are operating companies within the Tata Group, not the majority owner.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the February 24 board meeting deferred the decision on extending Chandrasekaran's tenure, and it was not extended. Statement 2 is correct: the article mentions that losses of unlisted companies (₹33,538 crore) were a major point of contention, with Air India losing ₹22,238 crore. Statement 3 is correct: Noel Tata became chairman of Tata Trusts after Ratan Tata's death with the support of all trustees.

Explanation

The article explicitly states, 'The losses of eight unlisted Tata companies stood at ₹33,538 crore in FY26.' Option A (₹22,238 crore) is the loss of Air India alone, option C (₹4,974 crore) is Tata Digital's loss, and option D (₹55,110 crore) is not mentioned — it is a distractor.

Explanation

The article highlights that the core tension was between Chandrasekaran's openness to listing Tata Sons (growth/capital allocation) and Noel Tata's preference for keeping it unlisted to preserve culture, heritage, and flexibility. This is a classic corporate governance conflict. Option A is incorrect as remuneration was a symptom, not the primary issue. Option C is incorrect because the debate was about listing Tata Sons, not all companies. Option D is speculative and not established in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the data was provided by the Bureau of Immigration (BoI), which is the nodal agency under the Ministry of Home Affairs for immigration data. The Ministry of Education and Ministry of External Affairs are not responsible for this specific dataset.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article mentions a decline in 2024 and 2025, making it two consecutive years. Statement 2 is incorrect: the 2025 figure of 6.19 lakh is still 1.74 lakh higher than the 2021 figure of 4.46 lakh. Statement 3 is correct: Canada had 4,27,085 Indian students, the highest among all countries.

Explanation

The article states that 8,94,758 Indians travelled abroad for study in 2023, which was the highest in the five-year period from 2021 to 2025. The other options are for 2022 (7,52,100), 2024 (7,60,060), and 2025 (6,19,264).

Explanation

The article highlights that while the numbers are small compared to the scale of student mobility, these campuses point to a gradual change where Indian institutions are beginning to take their programmes and campuses overseas. Option A is incorrect because the campuses are not reducing outflows significantly. Option C is incorrect as the scale is still small. Option D is not supported by the data.

Explanation

The article states that researchers at IISc's SPIRE Lab, in collaboration with ARTPARK and Google, released SraVaani. Therefore, IISc is the host institution for SPIRE Lab.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article says SraVaani covers 65 languages including 20 scheduled languages. Statement 2 is incorrect: It is released under an MIT open-source license, not proprietary. Statement 3 is correct: The word error rate on Garo is 9.5%.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'a 9.5% word error rate on Garo, compared with 69.4% for the next-best system evaluated.' Option D (69.4%) is the error rate of the next-best system, a common distractor.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that SraVaani is designed to 'take speech AI beyond scheduled languages' and 'extends automatic speech recognition to several regional and non-scheduled Indian languages that remain underserved.' Options A and C are not mentioned; option D is incorrect as the focus is on Indian languages, not English.

Explanation

The 38th report of the Analytical Support and Sanctions Monitoring Team, submitted to the UNSC 1267 Sanctions Committee, officially attributed the Red Fort attack to AQIS. This committee monitors sanctions against ISIL and Al-Qaeda.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the report officially attributed the Red Fort attack to AQIS. Statement 2 is incorrect because the report says AQIS evolved into a decentralized entity with small, scattered cells, not centralized. Statement 3 is correct as the report mentions concern about AQIS trying to exploit Bangladesh.

Explanation

The article states that the Red Fort attack occurred in November 2025. The report was published in August 2026, and the attack is described as having happened 'last year' relative to the report's context.

Explanation

The report explicitly states there is 'some concern about AQIS trying to exploit Bangladesh to establish cells there.' The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The Arctic region is considered to be above 66 degrees north latitude.' This is a standard geographical definition tested in exams.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per Maslennikov's comment. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Arctic represents nearly 90% of the ice sheet, while 70% refers to fresh water storage. Statement 3 is correct as Putin mentioned rising tensions. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article states that the Arctic and Antarctic together represent 'nearly 90% of the ice sheet of the planet'. This figure is directly testable. Other options are distractors based on the 70% fresh water figure.

Explanation

Putin described the Northern Sea Route as a 'very promising initiative to expand global logistics'. The other options are not mentioned in the article. This tests understanding of the economic significance of Arctic shipping routes.

Explanation

The Ministry of Commerce and Industry, through its Department of Commerce, is responsible for compiling and releasing India's export and import data. The Commerce Secretary is the administrative head of this ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: merchandise exports grew 19.6% while imports grew 17.5%. Statement 2 is incorrect: services imports grew faster (9.5%) than services exports (6.4%). Statement 3 is correct: the combined deficit rose to $15 billion from $11.4 billion.

Explanation

The article states that merchandise exports stood at $44.2 billion in July 2026, up 19.6% over July 2025. $35.9 billion is services exports, $76.2 billion is merchandise imports, and $5.7 billion is exports to West Asia.

Explanation

The Commerce Secretary explained that ports in Oman (outside the Strait of Hormuz) and UAE ports like Fujairah and Khor Fakkan are handling more cargo, bypassing the congested Jebel Ali port in Dubai, which helped recover exports to the region.

Explanation

The River Boards Act, 1956 empowers the Union government to establish River Boards for inter-State rivers. It has never been used, while the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956 deals with dispute adjudication through tribunals.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: DVC was established in 1948, before the Act, and no board has been set up under the 1956 Act. Statement 2 is correct: the Punchhi Commission recommended integrated watershed approach and standing tribunal. Statement 3 is correct: the article notes both boards became defunct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that no river board has been established under the River Boards Act, 1956. All existing river boards and authorities (listed as nine bodies) were created through executive orders, interstate agreements, or tribunal awards.

Explanation

The Punchhi Commission, as cited in the article, attributed the Act's failure to the 'reluctance of States to politically come to an understanding.' While other factors may exist, this political reluctance is highlighted as the core reason.

Explanation

The article defines bacteriophages as 'viruses that infect bacteria.' They are not human pathogens, nor are they bacteria themselves. Understanding this distinction is crucial for biosecurity discussions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states AI designed complete genomes of bacteriophages. Statement 2 is incorrect because only 16 of 285 designs produced functioning phages. Statement 3 is correct as some AI-designed phages overcame bacterial resistance.

Explanation

The article states that of 285 AI-generated designs physically synthesised and tested, 16 produced functioning phages. 285 is the total number of designs tested, not the number that worked.

Explanation

The article emphasises that what is new is not the physical manufacture of a virus, but that 'AI has entered the design stage of biology.' It moved from analysing information to proposing designs that scientists can physically build.

Explanation

The SWM Rules are framed under the Environment Protection Act, 1986, which falls under the purview of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). While urban local bodies implement them, the policy and regulation are handled by MoEFCC.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the rules became effective April 1, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: the rules require four-stream segregation (wet, dry, sanitary, special-care), not three. Statement 3 is correct: the SC on August 4, 2026 directed creation of environmental compensation guidelines. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article mentions the 2016 rules were revised a decade ago but does not give the exact effective date. It only states the new 2026 rules came into effect on April 1, 2026 and were notified on January 27. For the 2016 rules, only the year is mentioned, not the month or day. Therefore, the correct answer is that the article does not specify.

Explanation

The article states that the new rules 'promotes reduction, reuse and at-source processing, rather than relying on large landfills and dumping yards.' Options A and C are not mentioned, and D is too specific. The core objective is to shift from landfill dependency to a circular economy approach.

Explanation

A Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) is a committee comprising members from both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, constituted for a specific Bill or issue. The other options are financial committees that are not joint committees.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: committees can call for persons, papers and records. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states that recommendations are not binding on the government. Statement 3 is correct as the article provides the declining referral rates.

Explanation

The article specifically states that the figure fell to roughly 16% in the 17th Lok Sabha (2019-24). The other options are from earlier Lok Sabhas: 25% in 16th, 60% in 14th, and 71% in 15th.

Explanation

The article explains that committees allow smaller groups to examine Bills clause by clause, question officials, and hear experts and stakeholders. The purpose is not delay or automatic passage, but thorough scrutiny. The President's review is a separate constitutional process.

Explanation

The CAG is established under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution and audits the receipts and expenditure of the government. The Finance Commission deals with fiscal transfers, NITI Aayog is a policy think tank, and UPSC handles civil services recruitment.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the CAG found that CPWD did not conduct market surveys before revising DSR 2021. Statement 2 is correct as per the article, and statement 3 is also correct as the CAG flagged the faulty process.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that 4,666 out of 5,011 works (93%) were awarded at tendered costs less than the estimated cost. Other percentages are distractors.

Explanation

The CAG warned that if rates are higher than market rates, the estimated project cost increases, which may result in undue benefit to contractors. While delays and quality are concerns, the report specifically focuses on cost overestimation and contractor benefits.

Explanation

The DDA is the nodal agency for preparing the Master Plan for Delhi under the Delhi Development Act, 1957. It oversees land use planning, housing, and infrastructure development in the capital.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the plan projects 40 lakh additional homes by 2047. Statement 2 is incorrect; the proposed affordable housing carpet area is 25-60 sq m, not 50-100 sq m. Statement 3 is correct as TOD zones are part of the strategy. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that land pooling and transit-oriented areas have the potential to add about 30 lakh housing units. Note that the total need is 40 lakh, so these two sources cover a major portion.

Explanation

The plan explicitly states that smaller homes are intended to make housing more accessible while allowing developers to fit more homes onto scarce land. Rental housing for students, workers, and labourers also aims to keep rents low and address affordability.

Explanation

The LG used powers conferred by the proviso to Article 309 of the Constitution, which deals with regulation of recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services. Article 310 deals with tenure of office, Article 311 with dismissal/removal, and Article 312 with All India Services.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: 20% horizontal reservation was approved. Statement 2 is incorrect: the first batch gets a higher relaxation of 5 years, not 3 years (3 years is for general ex-Agniveers). Statement 3 is correct: the Home Secretary's letter (March 25, 2026) communicated the central policy.

Explanation

The Delhi LG approved 20% horizontal reservation for former Agniveers in direct recruitment to fire operator posts in Delhi Fire Services and warder/matron posts in the Prison department. The other options are common distractors for reservation percentages.

Explanation

The core objective of the reservation and age relaxation policy is the rehabilitation of ex-Agniveers who complete their four-year engagement under the Agnipath scheme. This is part of the Government of India's policy framework to provide employment avenues to these trained personnel after their short-term military service.

Explanation

The article states that the U.S. Senate passed the bill earlier this week. The House of Representatives has not yet considered it. The Supreme Court and Department of Commerce are not directly involved in passing legislation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the bill proposes tariffs of up to 100% on countries importing Russian oil in large quantities. Statement 2 is incorrect because the bill awaits introduction and voting in the House of Representatives before it can become law. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article: 'India currently faces a 10% tariff on 55% of what it exports to the U.S.' Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the bill 'proposes tariffs of up to 100%' on countries that import Russian oil in large quantities. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article highlights that India has had 'reassuring' discussions with the U.S. on the bill and a trade deal to address the tariff threat. The goal is to protect India's trade interests, not to increase Russian oil imports or join sanctions. A full elimination of tariffs is not mentioned.