14 August 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The Census of India is conducted under the Census Act, 1948, and is administered by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, which operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs. The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation handles other data collection but not the decennial Census.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states this is the first time caste will be enumerated for all citizens, beyond SC/ST. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Act is the Census Act, 1948, not 1951. Statement 3 is correct: questions on Aadhaar, mobile number, and COVID vaccination place are part of the 40 questions.

Explanation

The Union Government notified exactly 40 questions for the Census 2027 Population Enumeration exercise. The other options are distractors; 35 and 45 are not mentioned in the article, while 30 is the approximate number from previous censuses.

Explanation

The 'open column' methodology means the enumerator records the caste exactly as declared by the respondent, without forcing them into pre-defined categories. This is significant because it captures the self-identified caste identity, which can be used for policy formulation and understanding social stratification, without the constraints of official Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe lists.

Explanation

Article 22(2), read with Section 57 CrPC (Section 58 BNSS), mandates production of an arrested person before a local magistrate within 24 hours excluding travel time. Article 22(1) deals with the right to be informed of grounds and right to consult a lawyer; Article 21 is the broader right to life and personal liberty.

Explanation

Statement 1 is directly from the judgment; Article 22(1) and Section 50 CrPC (Section 47 BNSS) require grounds of arrest to be informed. Statement 2 is false because the article says communicating details to relatives or providing ambiguous records does not satisfy the constitutional requirement; the arrested person must be directly informed. Statement 3 is explicitly mentioned by the Court, making option C correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Section 50 CrPC corresponds to Section 47 of BNSS, 2023. Section 58 BNSS corresponds to Section 57 CrPC (24-hour production), while Section 35 BNSS corresponds to Section 41 CrPC (necessity of arrest). Thus, Section 47 is the correct data-centric answer.

Explanation

The Arnesh Kumar guidelines direct that for offences punishable with imprisonment of less than seven years, arrest should not be routine; police must assess necessity under Section 41 CrPC (Section 35 BNSS). This prevents use of criminal law as a tool of harassment.

Explanation

The article states the PKK was founded in 1978 by Abdullah Ocalan. YPG and PYD are Syrian Kurdish groups, while DEM is the pro-Kurdish party in Turkey that supported the legislation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the law applies only to low-ranking members without serious charges. Statement 2 is correct as the law excludes crimes before June 1, 2005. Statement 3 is correct as Ocalan is a senior leader and remains imprisoned.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'Turkish legislators voted 468-88 in favour of the measure'. The other options are close distractors but incorrect.

Explanation

The article notes that the law excludes premeditated murder, crimes before June 1, 2005, and senior leaders like Ocalan, leaving a huge number of former militants ineligible for rehabilitation. This is a key shortcoming highlighted.

Explanation

The article states that the National Tribunals Commission 'will be headed by a former Supreme Court judge or a former Chief Justice of a High Court' and will comprise two judicial and two technical members. This is an oversight body, not a ministerial or sitting-judge position.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the November 2025 judgment described the re-enactment as an 'impermissible legislative override'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 2026 Bill fixes tenure at five years, not four. Statement 3 is correct: the committee will recommend one candidate per vacancy and one additional name on a waiting list. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'the maximum age limit has been set at 70 years for chairpersons and 67 years for members'. Option C (70 years) applies only to chairpersons, making it a common distractor.

Explanation

The article says the Supreme Court insisted on an independent body 'to sever the tribunals' reliance on their parent government ministries for administrative and financial needs, which the court argued kept them under executive control'. The other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

According to the article, caste identities will be recorded during the second phase, i.e., Population Enumeration, which begins in February 2027. The HLO phase focuses on housing and household characteristics.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states Census 2027 is the first digital census. Statement 2 is incorrect: caste enumeration for SC/ST was already done in previous censuses; this is the first time for all communities. Statement 3 is correct: the PE phase has 40 questions as listed in the article.

Explanation

The article provides a list of 40 questions for the PE phase. The HLO phase has 33 questions. Questions 10 includes caste, and questions 37–40 cover Aadhaar, Voter ID, passport, and driving licence.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'Census 2027 will be conducted entirely in digital mode, with enumerators recording information through mobile applications.' The self-enumeration option is also digital. While Aadhaar, religion, and mother tongue questions existed in earlier censuses, the digital mode is a first.

Explanation

As per the article, Reliance Industries Ltd. (RIL) and Rolls-Royce have announced a strategic intent to collaborate on the combat engine for AMCA. The other options are major defence players but not mentioned in this context.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the JV covers design, development, manufacture, and delivery. Statement 2 is incorrect because the JV includes design and development, not just manufacturing. Statement 3 is correct as the companies plan to form a dedicated Aerospace Gas Turbine Complex.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the engine is for India's Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA) programme. Tejas uses GE F414 engines, while Rafale and Su-30MKI are imported aircraft.

Explanation

The article emphasises building 'sovereign, indigenous combat engine' and 'strategic autonomy' in critical technologies. The focus is on self-reliance (Atmanirbhar Bharat) rather than exports or civilian applications.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the U.S. levied tariffs on China under Section 301 of the Trade Act of 1974. This law allows the President to impose trade restrictions on countries engaging in unfair trade practices. The other options are unrelated trade laws.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the report identified more than 40 countries. Statement 2 is correct as India is in Tier 1 with the mentioned countries. Statement 3 is incorrect: the report estimated $67 billion in transshipped goods, not $28 billion. The $28 billion figure refers to the estimated lost tariff revenue.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The Office of Trade and Economic Analysis (OTEA) estimates that approximately $67 billion in U.S.-bound goods were transshipped from China through the top hubs — Mexico, India, and Vietnam — in 2025'. The $28 billion figure is the estimated lost tariff revenue, not the value of goods.

Explanation

The report explains that 'tariff arbitrage lies at the heart of this transshipment arrangement.' Chinese goods facing high U.S. tariffs are routed through countries with lower tariff rates, creating a profit for exporters and a loss of revenue for the U.S. government. This is the financial engine of the scam.

Explanation

The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act is under the purview of the Ministry of Mines, which handles legislation and policy for the mining sector. The Ministry of Coal deals specifically with coal, not all minerals.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Bill restricts states from imposing specified levies. Statement 2 is incorrect because the SC 2024 judgment actually UPHELD states' power, not restricted it. The Bill overrides that judgment. Statement 3 is correct as per the article: 'The Bill will also extinguish unpaid or unrecovered dues arising from such levies imposed before it comes into force.' Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'some estimates putting the value of such outstanding dues across the mining sector at around Rs 2 lakh crore.' The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article quotes a mining expert saying the amendments 'will help the mining industry by providing greater certainty over the fiscal burden.' The Centre also argued that unchecked state-level levies could raise the cost of key minerals and feed inflation. Options A, C, and D are not mentioned as primary objectives.

Explanation

The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, influenced by the Stockholm Conference, inserted Article 48A (Directive Principle) and Article 51A(g) (Fundamental Duty) into the Constitution, forming the constitutional basis for environmental law in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the absolute liability doctrine was developed in Union Carbide case. Statement 2 is incorrect: the polluter pays principle was first applied in Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action, while the precautionary principle was declared in Vellore Citizens' Welfare Forum. Statement 3 is correct: the public trust doctrine was developed in the Span Motel case.

Explanation

The article states that the views expressed at the Stockholm Conference (1972) form the core of India's environmental philosophy and led to the insertion of Article 48A and 51A(g) via the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.

Explanation

The Justice argues that the precautionary principle is the cornerstone of environmental jurisprudence and should be ranked above the polluter pays principle, which is only a principle of reparation. He also warns against a false narrative pitting environment against development.

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank of India and is responsible for monetary policy, including setting the repo rate. The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the RBI decides the repo rate to control inflation and manage economic growth.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: July retail inflation was 4.45%, the highest since December 2024 (19 months). Statement 2 is incorrect: core inflation (excluding precious metals) was below 3%. Statement 3 is correct: rural food inflation was 5.79% while urban food inflation was 5.05%. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the RBI's Monetary Policy Committee held the repo rate at 5.25% for the fourth consecutive meeting in August 2026. The other options are close distractors - 5.00% and 5.50% are possible rates that could be confused, while 5.75% is a higher rate that might be associated with tighter monetary policy.

Explanation

The article mentions the MPC is likely to remain on hold as it 'weighs persistent supply-side inflation against weakening economic momentum.' The HSBC composite PMI fell sharply from 57.1 to 54.3, indicating slowing growth. While global trends and fiscal considerations may be secondary factors, the core dilemma is the growth-inflation trade-off.

Explanation

Article 43 of the EU AI Act mandates that high-risk AI systems must undergo a conformity assessment to prove they meet the law’s standards on testing, documentation, and human oversight before being placed on the market.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Act entered into force in August 2024 and became applicable on August 2, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: only a ‘substantial modification’ (a change not foreseen in the original assessment) triggers a fresh assessment; foreseen changes do not. Statement 3 is correct: the India-EU FTA includes regulatory cooperation provisions that could allow Indian conformity assessment bodies to be recognised.

Explanation

In June 2026, the EU approved a package easing timelines, pushing the compliance deadline for standalone high-risk AI systems to December 2027. For high-risk AI embedded in regulated products, the deadline is August 2, 2028.

Explanation

The article argues that Europe’s “mountain of compliances” generates demand for legal and technical professionals. India’s professional services firms can supply this, and via the India-EU FTA, Indian bodies could become recognised to perform conformity assessments, turning regulation into an export service.

Explanation

The article states that the report was released by Peter Navarro, the top trade adviser to President Donald Trump. The other options are former US trade officials but not the author of this specific report.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article confirms India is named. Statement 2 is incorrect because the report gives a range of $40 billion to $303 billion, not exactly $303 billion. Statement 3 is correct as per the article's mention of 'Detective Border'. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the value of goods rerouted each year is estimated at somewhere between $40 billion and $303 billion, depending on how the figure is worked out. The other options are either one end of the range or an arbitrary number.

Explanation

The article states that 'Detective Border' is an AI tool designed to help US Customs and Border Protection identify goods that reach the US after passing through third countries, distinguishing legitimate nearshoring from illegal pass-through trade. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions '2024 WHO data' linking addiction-like behavior to poorer mental and social well-being. The WHO is the correct international agency. Other options are distractors based on similar acronyms.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article names those four states. Statement 2 is incorrect: the $567 million penalty was from a New Mexico court, not a jury; the jury verdict was $6 million. Statement 3 is correct as the article states 'the same WHO data shows that adolescents also rely on social media for peer support'. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states 'a jury held Meta and YouTube responsible for a young user's social media addiction and ordered them to pay $6 million in damages'. The $567 million figure is from the New Mexico court penalty, not the jury verdict.

Explanation

The article alleges that Meta 'deliberately made Facebook and Instagram addictive for children' through features like infinite scroll and auto-play. While privacy and data misuse are related issues, the core argument in this case is about product design that exploits youth psychology.

Explanation

The article states that formal negotiations are 'hosted by the UN Environment Programme'. This links the news to the UN body responsible for coordinating international environmental agreements.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the talks fell apart in August 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect because Cordano explicitly said the document 'does not constitute a negotiated or agreed text'. Statement 3 is correct as Thompson reportedly said the document was extremely similar and 'even slightly weaker'.

Explanation

The article cites Lancet research estimating that health problems caused by plastic pollution cost the world $1.5 trillion a year. This is a classic Prelims data trap with billion and trillion being swapped.

Explanation

The article states that the bloc of oil-producing states has 'pushed back against such restrictions, seeking to focus more narrowly on waste management'. Thompson also suggested oil producers see plastics as an alternative market for growth as carbon-emission pressure rises.

Explanation

The article states that the NPPA invoked special clauses on June 12 to raise the price cap of cisplatin and carboplatin, citing public interest. The Union Health Ministry is the administrative ministry, not the pricing authority.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because the NPPA raised cisplatin from ₹7.26 to ₹10.89 per mL. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article calls it a one-time revision to be reviewed after six months, not a permanent measure. Statement 3 is correct as India depends heavily on imported platinum and the move aimed to boost domestic manufacturing.

Explanation

The article explicitly says the government raised ceiling rates for the two drugs by 50% to help restart halted domestic manufacturing lines. The other percentages are distractors.

Explanation

The article states that platinum prices more than doubled, making old price-controlled manufacturing rates financially unviable. Shipping constraints through West Asia further restricted raw material imports, but the primary cost shock was the doubling of platinum prices.

Explanation

The gazette notification explicitly states the Central Government acted under sub-section (1) of section 8 of the Census Act, 1948 (37 of 1948). This section empowers census officers to ask specified questions of all persons in their local area. Other section numbers are not mentioned in the article and serve as distractors.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article lists religion, mother tongue, disability, and migration history among the 40 items. Statement 2 is incorrect because the notification was issued under Section 8(1), not Section 8(2). Statement 3 is correct as the questionnaire includes bank accounts, mobile numbers, Aadhaar, Voter ID, passport and driving licence.

Explanation

The article begins by saying the Centre has asked Census officers to collect information on 40 specified items during population enumeration. 35, 42 and 45 are close distractors. This is a direct number-based question for prelims.

Explanation

The Household Schedule is the tool for collecting information on specified items from all persons for the Census of India 2027. It records demographic, social, educational, employment, migration, disability, and official document details. The article does not say Aadhaar/Voter ID is compulsory or that passports/driving licences will be issued through the Census.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the US-based National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) released the monthly El Niño-Southern Oscillation (ENSO) bulletin. IMD is mentioned as India's weather agency monitoring the monsoon, not issuing the ENSO bulletin.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article defines El Niño as the warm phase of ENSO. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article associates drought, extreme heat, and below-normal rainfall with El Niño, not La Niña. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions ENSO has three phases: El Niño, neutral and La Niña.

Explanation

The article quotes NOAA's bulletin: during the October-December 2026 season, there is a 69% chance of a historic event that would exceed the strength of previous El Niño events dating back to 1950. The 90% figure refers to the chance of a 'strong' El Niño during the Northern Hemisphere winter.

Explanation

The article states that 'A positive IOD can counter some of the adverse influence of El Niño on the Indian monsoon.' This is a crucial modifier because while El Niño historically suppresses monsoon rainfall, a positive IOD can partially neutralize that effect.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the international tender was floated by Rashtriya Chemicals and Fertilizers (RCF) on July 29. GAIL and IOC are mentioned in the context of LNG diversification, not the urea tender. Fertiliser Association of India is a data-providing body.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the tender was for 17 lt. Statement 2 is incorrect: the lowest bids came from Ameropa Group based in Switzerland, not an Indian company. Statement 3 is correct: imports in April-June 2026 were 25.08 lt compared to 8.38 lt in the same period of 2025.

Explanation

The article states that the lowest price bid for east coast delivery was $390.25 per tonne from Ameropa Group. $393.65 is the west coast price. $444.9 and $935 are from earlier tenders.

Explanation

The article explicitly cites two reasons: an overall easing of the energy supply shock from West Asia and surplus urea availability in China. Increased domestic production (option A) is mentioned but not as the primary reason for price decline. Options C and D are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

HAL is a state-owned aerospace and defence company and operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Defence, Government of India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as BEML will manufacture 48 fuselages. Statement 2 is incorrect because Adani Defence Systems and Technologies Limited is a private company, not a PSU. Statement 3 is correct as the LCH is a 5.5-tonne class helicopter designed and developed by HAL.

Explanation

According to the news, Adani Defence will manufacture 42 fuselage structures, while BEML will manufacture 48. Option A (48) is the number for BEML, option C (90) is the total of both, and option D (156) is the total number of LCHs ordered.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'for the first time, the private industry is being integrated into the production of helicopter fuselage structures.' This marks a significant step in strengthening India's aerospace ecosystem and expanding the domestic supply chain.

Explanation

According to the article, 7 out of the 11 IIMs offering UG programmes use IPMAT/JIPMAT, 3 use JEE, and 1 uses its own test (IIMB UG-AT). Hence, IPMAT/JIPMAT is the most common entry route.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: IIMB's new campus is at Jigani, 27 km away. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article explicitly says the dual degree admits students purely via JEE Advanced ranks with 'no requirement to take the Common Admission Test (CAT)'. Statement 3 is correct: the article states IPM toppers are regularly recruited by top-tier consulting firms at salary packages matching postgraduate cohorts.

Explanation

The article states 'Now 11 out of the 22 IIMs (50%) offer UG programmes in management'. The other options are close distractors but only 50% matches the exact data.

Explanation

The article emphasises the 'pervasive impact of AI' and an '83% skill shortfall in AI-literate management'. It states B-schools are under pressure to integrate technical fluency earlier, and the new UG-PG formats allow building the MBA product from the ground up. While other options have some truth, the core driver cited is the need for early talent capture and AI readiness.

Explanation

As per the article, Sections 24, 25, and 26 of the Advocates Act place the function of enrolment with State Bar Councils. The Supreme Court in the 1995 case affirmed that it is the State Bar Council which alone must decide on enrolment. The BCI only has supervisory and rule-making powers.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Rule 18 allows the Chairman to pass interim orders in revisional and other matters. Statement 2 is incorrect: Section 48B gives power to give directions, not to suspend enrolment of a batch; enrolment is a State Bar Council function. Statement 3 is correct: The 1995 SC judgment struck down a BCI rule barring persons above 45 as ultra vires the Act and violative of Article 14.

Explanation

Section 48B states that the Bar Council of India may give directions to State Bar Councils for proper and efficient discharge of their functions. Sections 7(1)(b) and (g) deal with professional conduct and supervision, while Section 49 is the rule-making power.

Explanation

The article quotes legal experts who argue that blanket restrictions have no statutory basis and collective punishment cannot be imposed for the alleged acts of a few individuals. The BCI can inquire into individual conduct, but cannot deny enrolment to the entire batch unless each individual is disqualified under the Act.

Explanation

The article repeatedly refers to ISRO as India's space agency that operates rockets like PSLV. DRDO is defense-related, NASA and ESA are foreign agencies. Hence, ISRO is the correct nodal body.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: India's cost is $13,302/kg. Statement 2 is false: the US cost is $3,225/kg, not $6,682 (that is Russia's figure). Statement 3 is correct: only US and Europe show experience curve. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that it cost $13,302 to send a kilogram to low-earth orbit on Indian rockets in 2025. The other options represent costs for Europe ($9,897), China ($5,809), and the US ($3,225) respectively.

Explanation

The article states that ISRO mostly flies small rockets, due to which the fixed cost of each launch is spread across very little payload. This is the core reason for high per-kg cost. Other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The Kuril Islands are governed by Russia as part of the Sakhalin region. Japan claims four of the islands as its 'Northern Territories' but they are under Russian control since the end of WWII.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: Putin visited Iturup, which Japan refers to as Etorofu. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 1956 discussion involved the possible return of only two islands (Shikotan and Habomai), not all four. Statement 3 is correct: the article states that despite no peace treaty, Japan and Russia remain technically at war.

Explanation

According to the article, President Putin made his visit on Thursday, August 13, 2026. The other dates are distractors: August 12 is the previous day, and August 14 is when the article was published.

Explanation

The article states that Japan's PM called the visit 'absolutely unacceptable' and warned it would severely damage bilateral ties and deepen anti-Russian sentiment. The visit reinforced Russia's claim and complicated any future peace treaty negotiations.

Explanation

The Waqf Act, 1995 is the central legislation that provides for the administration of Waqf properties in India, including the establishment of Waqf Boards. The Gujarat Land Revenue Code applies to revenue administration, not specifically to Waqf properties.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The High Court quashed the Section 202 notice (demolition order), not the Section 61 order. Statement 2 is correct: The court ruled that the authority subverted the statutory appeal right. Statement 3 is correct: The Section 202 notice was issued before the 90-day window for appealing the Section 61 order had even begun.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Gujarat Land Revenue Code provides a '90-day statutory appeal' against orders under Section 61. The High Court noted that the Section 202 notice was issued before this period had even commenced, violating the petitioner's right to appeal.

Explanation

The High Court quashed the demolition notice because it was issued before the 90-day appeal window had opened, effectively denying the Waqf committee its statutory right to appeal. This upholds the principle that procedural due process must be followed even in matters of encroachment removal.

Explanation

The article mentions that queries were sent to KABIL and the Ministry of Mines, indicating that the Ministry of Mines is the nodal ministry overseeing KABIL. KABIL is a joint venture of NALCO, Hindustan Copper, and MECL, all under the Ministry of Mines.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: KABIL acquired five lithium brine blocks in Catamarca, Argentina. Statement 2 is incorrect: The initial NBO was $184 million in December 2024, but the revised NBO in September 2025 was $233 million, not $184 million. Statement 3 is correct: POSCO paid $765 million for a 30% stake in Mineral Resources Ltd, which owns 50% stakes in both mines. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

The article states that after the process was reopened, the consortium submitted a revised NBO of $233 million in September 2025 seeking a 40% stake in Mineral Resources Ltd. The initial NBO was $184 million in December 2024. POSCO ultimately paid $765 million for a 30% stake.

Explanation

According to the article, KABIL signed an NDA for the Chilean project in October 2025 but decided to pursue a joint bid with other PSUs. Due to limited time period, the bid could not be submitted. Additionally, KABIL cited limited financial capacity as a reason for handing over another Chilean opportunity (ENAMI) to Coal India Ltd.

Explanation

The article states that Iran officially became a full member of BRICS in January 2024, alongside Egypt, Ethiopia, and the UAE. This is a key fact for static GK about BRICS expansion.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the 18th BRICS Summit is scheduled for September 12-13, 2026, as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article says bilateral talks will focus on Chabahar port status, but not finalization of any agreement. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions more than 165 Indian seafarers are operating in the Strait of Hormuz and Persian Gulf. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the MEA told Parliament that 16 Indian nationals, including 10 seafarers, have been killed, and another 75 injured in the West Asia conflict since February 2026. Option 75 is the number of injured, and 165 is the number of seafarers in the region.

Explanation

India is heavily dependent on crude oil imports from the Persian Gulf region, which pass through the Strait of Hormuz. PM Modi reiterated the importance of freedom of navigation for India and the world. While countering China and establishing bases are secondary, the core objective is energy security.

Explanation

The article states that Section 6 of the Advocates Act lists among the functions of a State Bar Council the power to admit persons as advocates on its roll. The Bar Council of India only supervises, promotes legal education and recognises degrees; it cannot directly enrol advocates.

Explanation

Statement 1 and 2 are directly supported by the article: BCI directed state bar councils not to enrol the batch and withdrew the order within hours. Statement 3 is false because the article specifically says the BCI's communication acknowledged that it was not proceeding under Section 24A.

Explanation

The article says 'around 450 students of NALSAR objected to the CJI attending their convocation as chief guest.' The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article's core finding is that enrolment is done by State Bar Councils under Section 6, while BCI's role under Section 26 applies only after a State Bar Council proposes to reject an individual application. A blanket freeze on an entire batch exceeds BCI's statutory powers.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Delhi Development Authority (DDA) is the agency implementing the land pooling policy. DDA is a statutory body under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, responsible for planning and development in Delhi.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The policy was first introduced in 2007, in the Master Plan for Delhi 2021. Statement 2 is incorrect: The new policy has removed the consortium requirement; landowners with 20 hectares can approach DDA directly. Statement 3 is correct: MPD-2047 opens the door to Town Planning Schemes, a method long used in Gujarat.

Explanation

The article states: 'landowners with contiguous parcels above 20 hectares can approach the DDA directly.' This is a key change from the earlier requirement of forming a consortium of 70% of contiguous land.

Explanation

The article states that the policy is DDA's 'biggest bet on land pooling to tackle the city’s housing crunch' and aims to 'unlock up to 20 lakh homes.' While reducing litigation is a benefit, the core objective is to increase housing supply through private sector participation.

Explanation

FSSAI is the statutory body under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare that formulates and enforces food safety regulations in India, including the 2020 School Children Regulations. The FDA Maharashtra is the state-level enforcement agency, but the regulations themselves are issued by FSSAI.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the directive applies to all schools including pre-primary, primary, secondary, and residential schools. Statement 2 is incorrect because schools that prepare food on their premises are required to obtain FSSAI registration, not a licence. Statement 3 is correct as school managements are explicitly made responsible for verifying the validity of licences held by food operators.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions the enforcement of the Food Safety and Standards (Safe Food and Balanced Diet for School Children) Regulations 2020. The other options are distractor years not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The directive aims to ban junk food and mandate a menu including fruits, vegetables, and pulses, which directly targets child nutrition and health. While licence compliance is a mechanism, the core objective is public health and preventing obesity/lifestyle diseases among children.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change is the Nodal Ministry for disaster management caused by forest fire, water pollution and hazardous substances. However, since forests are managed by State Forest Departments, responsibility for forest fire prevention and management lies primarily with the respective states.

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 3 correctly define ground, surface and crown fires as per the article. Statement 4 is incorrect because the article clearly says crown fires are rare in India. Therefore, option B is correct.

Explanation

The FSI website, cited in the article, says roughly 54.40 per cent of the country's forest area is vulnerable to occasional fires. An additional 7.49% faces moderately frequent fires, 2.40% experiences high-level fire incidence, and about 35.71% remains largely unaffected.

Explanation

The article states that NAPFF was prepared to minimise forest fires by informing, enabling and empowering forest fringe communities and incentivizing them to work with State Forest Departments. It also aims to reduce forest vulnerability, enhance fire-fighting capacity, and speed up recovery after fire events. The other options are not stated in the article.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions the use of the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research balloon facility in Hyderabad for the high-altitude balloon launch. The other options are other Indian space-related facilities not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the autonomous pharmaceutical factory named 'Alchemy'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the satellite operated autonomously without human supervision. Statement 3 is correct as the satellite is designed for LEO at 400-500 km. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states the satellite is designed to be deployed in Lower Earth Orbits about 400-500 km from Earth's surface. Other options are distractors representing different orbital ranges.

Explanation

The article explains that microgravity provides an environment conducive to completing steps in manufacturing that are hindered by gravity on Earth, such as molecular movement and crystal growth. This is the core scientific advantage mentioned, making option B correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly quotes Stephen M Walt's The Origins of Alliances (1987) for this definition. Morgenthau and Waltz are realist scholars associated with balance of power, while Martin Griffiths et al. are cited for advantages and disadvantages of alliances.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because the article lists NATO as a defensive alliance. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Warsaw Pact is given as an example of a formal alliance, not an informal one. Statement 3 is correct as it directly matches Walt's balance-of-threat formulation in the article.

Explanation

The first paragraph states the pact was signed on August 7. August 14, 2026 is the publication date of the article, and 1987 is the publication year of Walt's book, making both useful distractors.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the pact aims to 'strengthen collective deterrence against any act of aggression' and stipulates that an armed attack on one state is regarded as an attack on all. The other options are not supported by the article.