17 August 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976) froze Lok Sabha seats based on the 1971 census until 2000 to encourage population control. The 84th Amendment later extended this freeze until 2026.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: Delimitation Commission is set up under an Act of Parliament. Statement 2 is incorrect – the last delimitation was based on the 1971 census, not 2001. Statement 3 is correct: the 106th Amendment provides for women reservation through delimitation after the first census post-2026 (i.e., 2027). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The 131st Amendment Bill proposed to increase the maximum number of Lok Sabha seats from the existing 550 to 850. The bill was defeated in the Lok Sabha. Option A (543) is the current frozen number, B (550) is the current maximum, C (816) is the approximate number after 50% increase on 543 but the bill proposed 850.

Explanation

The article highlights that states like Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh have controlled population growth better than northern states. A fresh delimitation based on current population would reduce their seat share, violating the federal principle. Options B, C, and D are additional implications but not the primary federal concern.

Explanation

SEBI is the regulator for securities and commodity derivatives markets in India after the merger of Forward Markets Commission in 2015. The proposal to allow FPIs into non-agricultural derivatives is under SEBI's purview.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the proposal excludes agricultural derivatives; it covers only non-agricultural commodities like bullion, energy, and base metals. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly mentions the goal of becoming a price setter.

Explanation

The article states that the combined futures and options ADT of MCX saw a whopping 238% increase in Q1FY27, reflecting growing investor adoption of commodity derivatives.

Explanation

The article states that the objective is to bring global commodity risk management into India, increase depth and liquidity, and enable the country to serve as a global benchmark, thus becoming a price setter rather than a price taker.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions Section 24A of the Advocates Act, which lists the grounds for disqualification for enrollment as an advocate. The other Acts are not directly related to enrollment disqualification.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states Manan Kumar Mishra is a Rajya Sabha member from BJP. Statement 2 is incorrect because legal experts and the SC clarified that BCI has no jurisdiction over students who are not yet enrolled as advocates. Statement 3 is correct as the SC gave interim protection to students and faculty.

Explanation

The article states that the BCI's order applied to the entire 2026 graduating class of roughly 1,400 students. 450 is the number reported to have participated in the protest, but the blanket order covered all 1,400.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that legal experts placed the protest squarely within Article 19(1)(a), which guarantees freedom of speech and expression, including peaceful protest. The other articles are not directly invoked in the context of the student protest.

Explanation

The MoEFCC is the nodal ministry responsible for environmental protection and forest conservation. It issues guidelines and notifications for ESZs under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, as mentioned in the article. The NBWL works under this ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states ESZ is also known as an Ecologically Fragile Area. Statement 2 is incorrect: certain tourism events are regulated, not completely prohibited. The article lists 'certain tourism events' under prohibited activities, but not all tourism. Statement 3 is correct: the MoEFCC 2011 guideline says buffer zone should be up to 10 km. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states '1,302 sq km Kaziranga Tiger Reserve'. The other options are close distractors. This is a potential Prelims data point for geography and environment questions.

Explanation

The article highlights that a shrinking buffer zone could harm animal migration routes during annual floods, especially along the southern boundary where animals take refuge in the Karbi Anglong hills. This is a key conservation concern for the rhino ecosystem.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Telangana created Telangana Rythu Power Distribution Company Ltd to supply electricity to agricultural and other water supply schemes. The other options are either existing DISCOMs (TGSPDCL, TGNPDCL) or incorrect names.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct – the article mentions accumulated losses of ₹6.77 lakh crore and borrowings of ₹7.11 lakh crore. Statement 2 is correct – the Maharashtra restructuring scheme wrote down ₹32,679 crore of MSEDCL's agricultural dues. Statement 3 is incorrect – the Haryana proposal was deferred after opposition from power sector employees, not operationalised.

Explanation

The article cites the Comptroller and Auditor General of India stating that state governments spent nearly ₹1.9 lakh crore on energy subsidies in FY25. Option A (₹1.3 lakh crore) is the farm power subsidy figure for 13 major agrarian states, not the total. Option D is total DISCOM losses.

Explanation

The article quotes experts saying that segregating agricultural consumers allows 'privatisation of profits' while making agri-DISCOMs exclusive subsidy-based agencies. Option A is not directly mentioned; Option B is implied but not the primary concern; Option D is not stated.

Explanation

The Bar Council of India is a statutory body established by Parliament under the Advocates Act, 1961. Section 4 of the Act provides for its creation and composition, while Section 7 empowers it to regulate legal education and professional conduct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: UPI was developed by NPCI. Statement 2 is incorrect: While person-to-person transactions are free, the Finance Ministry stated that MDR (Merchant Discount Rate) may be introduced for merchant transactions above a certain threshold. Statement 3 is correct: UPI is regulated by RBI under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.

Explanation

According to the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, India achieved 300.50 GW of non-fossil fuel capacity as of July 31, 2026, which is 60% of the 500 GW target by 2030. This includes solar (164.59 GW), wind (58.14 GW), hydro (57.24 GW), bio-power (11.75 GW), and nuclear (8.78 GW).

Explanation

FAST-DS is a one-time voluntary disclosure scheme notified by CBDT, operational from August 16, 2026, with the last declaration date on December 31, 2026. It allows taxpayers to declare undisclosed foreign bank accounts, immovable property, shares, etc., by paying a specified tax or fee, thereby regularizing their foreign assets.

Explanation

Article 3 empowers Parliament to alter the name, boundaries, or area of any state. Article 2 deals with admission of new states, Article 4 with supplemental provisions, and Article 368 with constitutional amendments. Hence, Article 3 is correct.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Kerala Assembly passed a resolution in 2024, not the bill itself; the bill was passed by Parliament. Statement 3 is incorrect because the bill amends the First Schedule, not the Second Schedule. Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the Lok Sabha passed the bill on August 11, 2026, and the Rajya Sabha passed it the next day, i.e., August 12, 2026. August 17 is the date of President's assent, and June 2024 is when the state government forwarded the resolution.

Explanation

Article 3 requires that a bill for altering the name of a state be introduced in Parliament only on the recommendation of the President, and the President must refer the bill to the state legislature for its views. The state's views are considered but not binding. Option A is not required; Option C is part of the process but not the sole requirement; Option D is not needed as Article 3 itself provides for a simple legislative process.

Explanation

The Finance Commission, established under Article 280 of the Constitution, recommends the distribution of tax revenues and grants-in-aid between the Union and States. The 16th Finance Commission's recommendations led to the reduction in grants for Andhra Pradesh.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the minister's claim. Statement 2 is incorrect because ₹15,000 crore was sanctioned for the construction of capital city Amaravati, not for Polavaram (which got ₹12,157 crore). Statement 3 is correct as the minister stated the previous government drew in advance 15th FC grants for those years.

Explanation

The article states that the revenue deficit, which was ₹16,000 crore in 2014-19, is projected to widen to ₹48,000 crore in 2025-26. The other options are distractors: ₹38,000 crore is the missed grants amount, and ₹50,000 crore is the amount of grants drawn in advance by the previous government.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions '50-year interest-free loans under the Special Assistance to States for Capital Investment (SASCI) scheme'. This scheme is designed to boost state infrastructure by providing long-term, interest-free capital investment loans. Options A and C are not the primary objective; option D is incidental but not the scheme's main goal.

Explanation

The Supreme Court directed the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC) to conduct a fresh survey of elephant corridors across India and submit a comprehensive report within six weeks. MoEFCC is the nodal ministry for wildlife conservation and forest management.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The SC barred the use of fireballs, mashaals, and spikes across all states. Statement 2 is incorrect: 'Hulla' parties are groups of local youth armed with iron rods/spikes, not official forest department units. Statement 3 is correct: The SC had passed orders on August 1, 2018 and December 4, 2018 banning such practices. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The Supreme Court directed the MoEFCC to submit its comprehensive survey report within six weeks from the date of the order (August 17, 2026). The other options are common deadlines used in court orders but the specific period mentioned is six weeks.

Explanation

The SC explicitly stated that 'construction of any kind of obstacle or creating blockades in elephant corridors is not acceptable' and ordered the survey to identify such blockades. While population assessment and compensation are related, the immediate goal is to ensure unobstructed movement of elephants across states.

Explanation

The news explicitly states the PSB Confluence was organized by the Department of Financial Services (DFS), which is part of the Ministry of Finance. The DFS oversees public sector banks and financial sector policies.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the Budget speech. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article does not mention the chairperson. Statement 3 is correct; the objective is to review and align with growth. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article states that the Finance Minister proposed the committee in her Budget speech on February 1, 2026. August 17, 2026 is when she announced it will be constituted soon.

Explanation

The article repeatedly states the committee's mandate is to 'comprehensively review the sector and align it with India's next phase of growth, while safeguarding financial stability, inclusion and consumer protection.' Options A, C, and D are not mentioned.

Explanation

The Communal Award was formally announced by British Prime Minister Ramsay MacDonald on August 16, 1932. Samuel Hoare was the Secretary of State for India who corresponded with Gandhi. Winston Churchill was a vocal critic of Indian self-rule but not the PM at that time. Lord Irwin was the Viceroy of India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Communal Award was announced on August 16, 1932, granting separate electorates to the Depressed Classes for 20 years. Statement 2 is incorrect: Gandhi began his fast on September 20, 1932, not September 24. Statement 3 is correct: The Poona Pact (Sep 24, 1932) replaced separate electorates with reserved seats and increased them from 71 to 148 in provincial legislatures.

Explanation

The article states that in the current 543-member Lok Sabha, 84 seats are reserved for Scheduled Castes and 47 seats for Scheduled Tribes. 71 was the number of special seats originally granted in the Communal Award. 148 was the number of reserved seats in provincial legislatures after the Poona Pact.

Explanation

Gandhi believed separate electorates would 'tear apart and disrupt Hindu society' and were 'neither an act of penance nor a remedy' for the problems facing the Depressed Classes. He saw it as a permanent separation, not a solution. Ambedkar, on the other hand, argued that upper-caste reformers could not adequately represent the Depressed Classes.

Explanation

ISRO comes under the Department of Space, which reports directly to the Prime Minister's Office. The Department of Space is the nodal agency for all space-related activities in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India was the 27th signatory to the Artemis Accords in 2023. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Accords are a set of principles, not a legally binding treaty. Statement 3 is correct: the Moon Base programme aims to establish a permanent research station on the Moon. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that there are 70 nations in the Artemis Accords club. The number 27 refers to India's signing order, not the total membership. Other options are close distractors but not correct.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that collaboration allows ISRO to gain valuable experience, avoid reinvention, and share high costs. Independent capability is important but the immediate advantage is leapfrogging via partnership. Options about domination or countering other nations are not the primary rationale mentioned.

Explanation

The article states that the 14-point framework was 'brokered by Pakistan and other Gulf nations'. Hence Pakistan is correct. Saudi Arabia and Oman are Gulf nations but not specifically mentioned as the lead broker. India is not mentioned.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: signed by Pezeshkian and Trump on June 17. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article says 'detailed nuclear talks have not even begun' – disposal of enriched uranium was not agreed. Statement 3 is correct: Trump declared the MoU 'over' on July 8 after Hormuz disputes. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The Hormuz is a narrow maritime channel that ships around 20 per cent of the world's oil and gas supplies.' Therefore 20% is correct. The other options are close but not mentioned.

Explanation

The article states the strait 'ships around 20 per cent of the world's oil and gas' and that Iran's control 'put pressure on global oil prices'. Option A is false (there are other routes like pipelines). Option C is false (Iran has large reserves but not largest). Option D is a consequence but not the primary reason. Option B correctly links the percentage to supply disruption.

Explanation

The Election Commission of India is the constitutional body responsible for electoral roll revision under the Representation of the People Act, 1950. BLOs are its field functionaries for door-to-door verification.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the enumeration ended on Monday, August 17, 2026. Statement 2 is correct: the article states voters have one month from August 24 to September 23 to seek inclusion. Statement 3 is incorrect: uncollected forms do not mean permanent deletion; it's a draft roll, and voters can apply for inclusion.

Explanation

The 10 am bulletin on the final day (August 17) showed 2,07,93,916 uncollected forms, approximately 2.08 crore. Option A (1.80 crore) was the figure on August 12, and Option D (7.69 crore) is the digitised forms count.

Explanation

The article states that officials cited migration and changes of address among the reasons for high urban numbers. Frequent movement between residences makes it difficult for BLOs to find electors at the recorded addresses.

Explanation

According to the article, Russia officially recognised the Taliban regime last year (2025), becoming the first country to extend formal legitimacy since the Taliban's return to power. China, Iran, and Pakistan have maintained contact but not formal recognition.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states that the Taliban claim they have brought peace and security. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article specifies 'secondary education', not 'primary' — this is a common examiner trap. Statement 3 is correct: The article notes that Russia officially recognised the regime last year (2025). Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct, making option C the right answer.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'More than 100 restrictive decrees and measures have been issued since 2021, increasingly institutionalising a system of gender-based exclusion.' Thus, the correct answer is 'More than 100'.

Explanation

The article repeatedly highlights this dilemma: 'How to engage a regime you do not recognise without normalising the system it has created?' Providing aid and counterterrorism cooperation are part of engagement, but the core challenge is avoiding de facto normalisation of a repressive regime while still addressing humanitarian and security needs.

Explanation

The article states that the Sahyog portal is a Home Ministry-developed platform for sending blocking notices to online platforms by central and state agencies. The IT Ministry is mentioned separately as not responding to queries, and the other ministries are not involved in this portal.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because the Sahyog portal is used by various central and state agencies to send blocking notices. Statement 2 is incorrect because Section 79(3)(b) deals with unlawful content and safe harbour immunity; it is Section 69(A) that is largely limited to national security and public order. Statement 3 is correct because Meta has integrated its API with the Sahyog portal to automate compliance.

Explanation

The article reports that around 1.95 lakh blocking orders were sent between March and July. 2,312 was the number of orders sent between October 2024 and October 2025, 1.11 lakh is the number of content pieces blocked until March 2025, and 23 million refers to content takedowns in Indonesia by Meta.

Explanation

Apar Gupta of the Internet Freedom Foundation argued that an API executing automated takedowns has no knowledge; nobody at Meta reads the order or checks whether it comes from an officer of the prescribed rank. Thus machine-to-machine execution converts a conditional legal duty into unconditional compliance.

Explanation

The 16th Finance Commission, in its report, highlighted that UCT schemes are consuming a significant share of state budgets and crowding out other social sector spending. The Economic Survey also raised similar concerns, but the question specifically asks about the constitutional body mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: Delhi CM launched Lakshmi Yojana with ₹2,500/month UCT. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article states that in Himachal Pradesh, UCT expenditure is less than 0.3% of total state expenditure, not over 10%. Statement 3 is correct: the 16th FC report mentioned that 44% of state expenditure is consumed by interest, pensions, and salaries. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that in Jharkhand, Karnataka, and West Bengal, which have the largest UCT schemes, the spending on UCTs is more than half the entire spending on education. Therefore, all three states are correct.

Explanation

The article highlights that UCT schemes are consuming a growing share of state budgets, and with 44% of expenditure already committed to interest, pensions, and salaries, states have limited flexibility. The 16th FC warns that this could crowd out spending on education and health, which are critical for long-term development. Options A, C, and D are not discussed in the article.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Centre extended the operation of Article 249 to J&K by amending the Presidential Order of 1954.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the amendment was approved by Governor Jagmohan, not the Chief Minister. Statement 3 is correct because the article mentions that the state legislature was suspended.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the amendment was approved by Governor Jagmohan, as the state legislature was suspended.

Explanation

Article 249 allows Parliament to legislate on state matters if the Rajya Sabha declares it necessary in national interest. The extension to J&K gave the Centre this power over state subjects in that region.

Explanation

The article states that Washington launched Pax Silica last year to secure supply chains for AI models, semiconductors and critical minerals. China launched the World Artificial Intelligence Cooperation Organization, while the AI Opportunity Statement is the U.S. statement signed by 35 countries.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is also correct — Kazakhstan is the only country known to have joined both initiatives. Statement 3 is false because the article describes Pax Silica as a non-binding framework.

Explanation

The draft letter is addressed to the 35 signatories of the U.S. 'AI Opportunity Statement' signed in June. Fifteen and 25 are incorrect distractors, and 45 is not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

By pressing countries to choose sides, the U.S. hopes to starve China of resources in the race to make the most sophisticated AI. The article does not mention UN-led regulation or the elimination of all trade barriers on semiconductors.

Explanation

Article 19(1)(a) of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to freedom of speech and expression. This right is subject to reasonable restrictions under Article 19(2), which includes grounds like contempt of court, making it central to the debate on permissible criticism of the judiciary.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the plea is to distinguish between criticism and distortion. Statement 2 is correct as the petitioner submitted that oral exchanges can be reduced to clips/memes detached from context. Statement 3 is incorrect because the court has only agreed to look into the plea and sought the government's response; no final judgment has been passed.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that CJI Surya Kant heard the plea on Monday, August 17, 2026. August 11, 2026 was the date when the court sought a response on the related 'Cockroach Janta Party' petition. May 15, 2026 is the date of the original hearing where the 'cockroach' remark was made.

Explanation

The petitioner's core argument is that criticism is valid when directed at what a judge actually said or decided. However, when criticism is based on a distorted version of oral remarks (e.g., a meme or clip out of context), it is no longer about the judicial record but a 'constructed version' of it. This is the key legal challenge the court is being asked to address.

Explanation

The article states that Karnataka Chief Minister D K Shivakumar announced the reservation during his Independence Day speech.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because AI education is introduced from Class 6, not Class 8. Statement 3 is correct as the CM said the government will fill around 72,000 vacancies within six months.

Explanation

The article explicitly states a 7.5% reservation for rural government school students in medical and engineering courses.

Explanation

The article states the measure is aimed at improving access to professional higher education for students studying in government schools in rural areas.

Explanation

The article states the draft letter was prepared by the State Department and addressed to the 35 signatories of the AI Opportunity Statement. The other departments are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 correctly describes Pax Silica's objective. Statement 2 is also correct as per the article. Statement 3 is wrong because the draft letter does not specifically mention China.

Explanation

The article says the draft letter is addressed to the 35 signatories of the AI Opportunity Statement. Option 24 refers to 'about two dozen' countries that joined Pax Silica, not the AI Opportunity Statement signatories.

Explanation

The article states the letter urges countries to 'choose deliberately' and warns that membership in Pax Silica cannot be held alongside membership in duplicative initiatives. The US hopes to starve China of resources needed for advanced AI.

Explanation

The article states that the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) flagged violations of water quality norms in this report. The CAG is India's constitutional audit authority responsible for auditing government receipts and expenditure.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because the article says E. coli is commonly found in the intestines of people and animals. Statement 2 is incorrect because even small amounts of E. coli can cause infection. Statement 3 is correct as the article notes some strains have become drug-resistant due to overuse of antibiotics.

Explanation

The report said E. coli bacteria was detected in drinking water samples collected from eight railway stations out of 49 stations. The other options combine wrong numbers of stations or platform-tap samples.

Explanation

The article highlights that E. coli is a faecal coliform; its presence in water signals sewage contamination. Unlike many bacteria, tiny amounts can cause digestive and urinary infections, and in severe cases sepsis, making water unsafe for passengers.

Explanation

The article states the Ministry of Defence inked the contract with General Atomics. The MoD is responsible for defense procurement and acquisitions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Navy currently operates two MQ-9A (not MQ-9B) drones on lease since 2020. Statement 3 is correct as the article says the expansion will provide greater operational coverage for both fronts.

Explanation

The article clearly mentions the Ministry of Defence inked a Rs 1,943-crore contract. The other options are plausible distractors.

Explanation

The lease model provides faster induction of advanced capability. Until now, limited HALE RPAS restricted simultaneous coverage; the new lease fills this gap while the larger procurement (31 units) is under process.

Explanation

NTA is an autonomous organisation under the Ministry of Education, Government of India. It was established in 2017 to conduct various entrance examinations for higher education.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the Ministry directed a complete overhaul of CONOPS. Statement 2 is correct: retest for those three subjects on Sept 9-10. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article says 'more than 50 staff members have been removed', not 100.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the UGC-NET June 2026 examination was conducted from June 22 to 30 across 87 subjects. The retest affects only 3 of these 87 subjects.

Explanation

The article highlights that errors (factual, typographical, translation) were found in three papers, and NTA has been directed to strengthen protocols (secluded rooms, air-gapped systems, device-deposit) to ensure security and accuracy. The overhaul aims at fixing systemic lapses to avoid recurrence.

Explanation

The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is the constitutional authority under Article 148 responsible for auditing government expenditure. The CAG report titled 'Passenger Amenities and Sanitation at Non-Suburban Railway Stations' is the subject of the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the report: drinking water taps were deficient at 12 NSG-1 stations. Statement 2 is incorrect because Gorakhpur Jn. (NSG-1) had no shortfall in MEAs, as shown in the category-wise table. Statement 3 is correct: the audit period is 2019-20 to 2023-24.

Explanation

The CAG surveyed 512 non-suburban railway stations for the audit. Out of these, 458 (89%) were deficient in Minimum Essential Amenities, and 54 (11%) had no shortfall. 18 stations were in the NSG-1 category.

Explanation

The CAG recommended that Indian Railways meet prescribed standards for basic amenities within fixed timelines and prepare station-wise, time-bound plans to address gaps. The focus is on improving passenger convenience, not penalty or revenue.

Explanation

The article states that the exercise got its latest rebrand in 2022 when it was rechristened the Ulchi Freedom Shield. Previous names include Ulchi Focus Lens (1976-2008) and Taeguk Exercise (1960s-1969).

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the article says an armistice was signed in 1953, not a peace treaty, so the two Koreas are still technically at war. Statement 2 is correct: the article mentions the drills were cancelled in 2018. Statement 3 is correct: the article states 'about 18,000 South Korean troops are expected to participate.' Hence option C.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that South Korea committed '$350 billion in investments in the US' in an attempt to address Trump's objections over defense spending. The other options are distractors not mentioned in the text.

Explanation

Trump's social media post, as quoted in the article, stated that the reduction was due to South Korea not participating in the 'Denuclearization of the Islamic Republic of Iran.' While defense spending was a related issue, the direct trigger was the Iran denuclearization link.