20 August 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The article states that the 1978 judgment interpreted Section 2(j) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. The new code is the Industrial Relations Code 2020, but the old act was the ID Act 1947.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the court said the 1978 interpretation will not affect IRC 2020. Statement 2 is correct: the 1978 judgment exempted only core sovereign activities. Statement 3 is correct as per the majority opinion that the future of 'industry' in Section 2(p) is not burdened by the old interpretation.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'A Nine-judge Bench of the Supreme Court'. The other options are common bench sizes but not the correct one for this case.

Explanation

The court clarified that the future of 'industry' in Section 2(p) is not burdened by the 1978 interpretation, allowing independent interpretation. Option A is wrong because the triple test does not apply. Option B is too broad. Option D is not stated.

Explanation

The article discusses the definition of 'industry' under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. The Bangalore Water Supply case interpreted Section 2(j) of this Act. The Industrial Relations Code 2020 is a later consolidation but the current case concerns the original Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the nine-judge bench is reconsidering the 1978 Bangalore Water Supply ruling. Statement 2 is incorrect: the 1978 ruling was by a seven-judge bench, not nine. Statement 3 is correct: the court is examining the impact of the Industrial Relations Code, 2020. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that a nine-judge bench, headed by Chief Justice Surya Kant, is hearing the case. The original 1978 ruling was by a seven-judge bench, but the current bench is larger.

Explanation

The article states that labour unions argued that excluding workers from the Act without comparable protections would leave them with little recourse. This is their primary concern, not expanding or contracting the definition per se.

Explanation

The news explicitly states that the Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) transferred the processing of pending CAA applications from Empowered Committees to District Collectors in eight States/UTs via an August 19, 2026 order.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the 1978 expansive definition will not apply under the new code. Statement 2 is incorrect: the 1978 judgment gave a broad (expansive) definition, not narrow. Statement 3 is correct: the new verdict, by narrowing the definition, reduces labour rights in non-industrial settings.

Explanation

The article lists exactly eight States/UTs: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Punjab, West Bengal, Assam, Tripura, Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the HPEC will examine issues including 'police violence' and 'excessive force and violence against protestors by police authorities and other agencies' during the NEET-UG protests.

Explanation

The Allahabad High Court (Lucknow Bench) ordered the CBI probe. The Supreme Court had earlier acquitted the accused in a different case, but the High Court's order was in the context of the encounter case. The District Court had convicted the accused, and the State Human Rights Commission was not involved.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The HC ordered a CBI probe citing loopholes. Statement 2 is correct: The court noted that all 23 police officials were rewarded. Statement 3 is incorrect: The court noted that at the time of remand, no legal aid was provided to the applicant, implying he did not have adequate legal representation.

Explanation

The article states that the court noted the accused was 'surrounded by 23 police personnel' during the encounter. While 13 personnel were in one vehicle, the total number involved was 23. This is a key data point from the judgment.

Explanation

The HC specifically observed a pattern where 'not even a pellet touches even the uniform of any police person' while the accused is shot in the knee or below. This points to a systemic issue of fabricated encounter narratives, which is the court's primary concern about police accountability and the integrity of investigations.

Explanation

The MHA is the nodal ministry for citizenship matters in India. The article mentions the MHA order empowering District Collectors, confirming its role in CAA implementation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the order transfers pending applications to Collectors. Statement 2 is incorrect because the order applies only to eight specific states/UTs, not all. Statement 3 is correct: under the amended rules, the Collector can administer the Oath and grant citizenship. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the CAA applies to members of six non-Muslim communities from Pakistan, Afghanistan and Bangladesh who entered India before December 31, 2014. March 11, 2024 is the date when CAA Rules were first notified, and August 19, 2026 is the date of the latest MHA order.

Explanation

The article indicates that the earlier multi-agency Empowered Committees were complex and potentially slow. By giving authority to a single officer (Collector), the process becomes faster and more efficient. While the Matua community may benefit, the primary objective is administrative streamlining, not specifically targeting a community.

Explanation

The ICC was established by the Rome Statute, adopted in 1998 and effective from 2002. The Geneva Conventions relate to humanitarian law, the UN Charter to the UN, and the Vienna Convention to treaty law. Only the Rome Statute created the ICC.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article names these two officials. Statement 2 is incorrect because Executive Order 14203 was issued on February 6, 2025, not August 2026. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the ICC has 125 member states. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article mentions that Venezuela, Chad, Mali, Burkina Faso, and Niger have announced withdrawal, totaling five countries. The other options are close distractors but only 5 are listed in the news.

Explanation

The article states that the sanctions 'are pursuant to the U.S.’s Executive Order 14203... and cited the ICC’s investigations against and arrest warrants on Israel’s Prime Minister Benjamin Netanyahu'. While the broader issue of jurisdiction over non-members is mentioned, the specific cited trigger was the Netanyahu warrant. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

The petition explicitly seeks to treat polygamy as a criminal offence under Section 82 of the BNS, which currently applies only to non-Muslims and punishes bigamy with up to 7 years imprisonment.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the petition seeks to invoke Section 82 BNS. Statement 2 is incorrect because Section 82 applies only to non-Muslims (exemptions for Muslims under personal law). Statement 3 is correct as the court sought the Centre's response and asked it to consider suitable legislative steps to abolish the practice for all citizens.

Explanation

The article states that Section 82 provides for a punishment of up to seven years for marrying another person during the subsistence of an existing marriage. This is a direct data point from the news.

Explanation

The petition seeks to have polygamy treated as a criminal offence under Section 82 for all citizens, irrespective of religion, and also seeks annulment of the exemptions granted under Muslim Personal Law. This is explicitly mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The judgment was delivered by the Supreme Court of India, specifically a Bench of Justices Sanjay Karol and N. Kotiswar Singh. The Supreme Court is the highest judicial authority in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Court held police cannot investigate PCPNDT offences. Statement 2 is incorrect because police can play a supplementary role under the Act. Statement 3 is correct as the Court clarified police can investigate other independent criminal offences. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The judgment was delivered on Thursday, August 20, 2026. The other options are close distractors but incorrect based on the article's publication date.

Explanation

The Supreme Court held that the PCPNDT Act concerns matters that are technical and require medical knowledge and sensitivity, making police unsuitable as primary investigators. This ensures specialized enforcement by designated authorities.

Explanation

The MoA on Maritime Security Cooperation was signed by Defence Minister Rajnath Singh and his Japanese counterpart, indicating that the Ministry of Defence is the nodal ministry for implementation. While external affairs coordinates diplomacy, the operational aspects fall under the Defence Ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the MoA specifically mentions closer cooperation between the Japan Maritime Self-Defense Force and the Indian Navy. Statement 2 is incorrect as the article does not mention nuclear submarine development. Statement 3 is correct as both sides agreed to establish a Working Group at the Director-General/Joint Secretary level.

Explanation

The article states that the Ministers welcomed the expansion of bilateral exercises including Dharma Guardian (Army), JAIMEX (Navy), and the planned Veer Guardian 26 air exercise, where Japanese fighter aircraft will participate in India for the first time.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the two Ministers reaffirmed their commitment to work towards a free and open Indo-Pacific amid heightened global tensions. The MoA focuses on operational cooperation including information sharing, naval exercises, and logistics support to achieve this strategic objective.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the experimental mRNA vaccine was developed by Moderna in partnership with Merck. Pfizer-BioNTech developed a different mRNA vaccine (for COVID-19), while Roche and AstraZeneca are involved in other cancer research.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the vaccine is personalised, not manufactured in bulk. Statement 2 is correct as the trial enrolled 1,137 people with high-risk stage IIB to IV melanoma after surgery. Statement 3 is correct: Keytruda removes the immune 'brake' while the vaccine provides targets, creating a sustained immune attack.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Phase 3 INTerpath-001 study enrolled 1,137 people with high-risk stage IIB to IV melanoma. The other options are incorrect: 500 and 750 are not mentioned, and 2,000 is a common distractor number often used in large trials.

Explanation

The article specifies that the vaccine is developed as an adjuvant treatment, given after surgery to reduce the chances that an already treated cancer will return. It is not a preventive vaccine (option A) nor a standalone therapy for advanced disease (option B). It is also not intended to replace chemotherapy for all skin cancers (option D).

Explanation

The pact was signed by Defence Ministers of both countries and covers operational maritime security, joint exercises, and defence industrial cooperation. Hence, the Ministry of Defence is the nodal ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the pact is a Memorandum of Arrangement on Maritime Security Cooperation. Statement 2 is incorrect: Veer Guardian 26 will be held in India, with Japan Air Self-Defence Force visiting India for the first time. Statement 3 is correct: the UNICORN antenna system is the first defence equipment transfer project between the two countries. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the UNICORN integrated communications antenna system is the first defence equipment transfer project between India and Japan. The other options are names of exercises or networks, not equipment projects.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that both ministers emphasised protecting Sea Lines of Communication and opposed unilateral actions threatening freedom of navigation. The pact aims to strengthen the free and open Indo-Pacific vision. While trade and humanitarian missions are part, the core objective is strategic security of SLOC.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that SEBI plans to launch a pilot for tokenising bonds. SEBI is the capital markets regulator in India, responsible for regulating the securities market and protecting investor interests.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because SEBI clarified the pilot is NOT about creating a separate trading market, but about making the existing bond market more efficient. Statement 2 is correct as the shared ledger will enable simultaneous transfer of security and money (DvP). Statement 3 is correct as the pilot will examine feasibility of automated coupon payments through smart contracts.

Explanation

SEBI announced a 'Credit Risk-o-Meter' which is a standardised, color-coded visual scale mapped to existing credit-rating symbols. It will be displayed in offer documents and sales platforms to help investors assess risk at a glance.

Explanation

SEBI's circular states that the digitally signed PoA eliminates the need for notarisation, apostillisation, or consularisation, thereby reducing the overall time taken for FPI onboarding and improving ease of doing business. The measure came into effect immediately.

Explanation

Article 343 of the Indian Constitution declares Hindi in Devanagari script as the official language of the Union. It also originally provided for the continued use of English for official purposes for 15 years, a provision that has been extended by subsequent legislation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the bench was CJI Surya Kant, Justices Joymalya Bagchi and V Mohana. Statement 2 is correct: ASG Aishwarya Bhati argued that English is an official language under the Constitution and cannot be treated as a native language. Statement 3 is incorrect: the court did not rule on the matter; it only made observations and asked for reconsideration, including a possible reprieve for Class 6 students.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that only around 4% of schools are under CBSE, while 96% are under State Boards. This data point is crucial for understanding the implementation challenges of the three-language policy.

Explanation

The core constitutional question raised by the court is about the classification of English as 'non-indigenous'. The court noted English's deep historical roots in Indian society and questioned whether treating it as a non-native language is constitutionally valid, especially given its status as an official language under Article 343.

Explanation

The Union Housing and Urban Affairs Minister Manohar Lal unveiled the plan. The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) is the nodal ministry for urban planning and development in Delhi, including notification of the Master Plan.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because height restrictions remain in the Lutyens' Bungalow Zone, airport areas, and border villages. Statement 2 is correct: TOD policy allows FAR of 500 along metro corridors. Statement 3 is correct: land-use categories reduced from 133 to 45.

Explanation

The Union Minister stated that the Master Plan envisages development of around 40 lakh new affordable housing units. 18 lakh homes are expected from TOD policy, 12 lakh from land pooling, and 7 lakh from redevelopment of unauthorised colonies — these are sub-components of the overall target.

Explanation

TOD aims to concentrate housing, shops, offices, and recreational spaces near metro corridors to maximize use of public transport, reduce sprawl, and create sustainable communities. The policy opens over 200 sq km for dense, high-rise development with FAR 500.

Explanation

NCERT is the apex body under the Ministry of Education that develops and publishes textbooks for school education across India. UGC oversees higher education, CBSE conducts examinations, and SCERTs are state-level bodies.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Sandeep Shastri is the team lead. Statement 2 is incorrect – the article says 'at least four' members have RSS/ABVP links, not all. Statement 3 is correct: the Class 11 textbook deadline is November 2026. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'the class 11 textbook by November and the class 12 book by July next year.' Since the article was published in August 2026, 'next year' refers to 2027, specifically July 2027.

Explanation

The NCERT notification specifies that the team will oversee integration of cross-cutting themes such as cultural rootedness, Indian knowledge systems, inclusion, educational technology, and assessment. This reflects NEP 2020's vision.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas (CAQM) announced the phased ban. CAQM is a statutory body established under the CAQM Act, 2021, with powers to regulate air quality in the NCR.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Smaller LGVs (N1) face a ban in Delhi from January 1, 2027. Statement 2 is incorrect: For N2 LGVs in those five cities, the ban starts from July 1, 2028, not 2027. Statement 3 is correct: For remaining NCR districts, the ban on N2 LGVs is limited to petrol and diesel from January 1, 2029, while electric and CNG are allowed.

Explanation

The article specifies that smaller LGVs under category N1 have a gross vehicle weight of up to 3.5 tonnes. Category N2 covers vehicles above 3.5 tonnes and up to 7.5 tonnes. Option D (7.5 tonnes) is the limit for N2 category, not N1.

Explanation

The order explicitly states that though CNG reduces primary particulate emissions, it continues to generate substantial nitrogen oxide (NOx) emissions, which are a key precursor to secondary PM2.5 formation. This highlights that air quality management requires addressing multiple pollutants, not just particulate matter.

Explanation

The article states that the Gummidipoondi-Gudur section forms part of the planned East Coast Economic Corridor (ECEC), which is described as the country's first coastal corridor. The Vizag-Chennai Industrial Corridor is a separate industrial corridor that the section also falls under.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Cabinet approved ₹2,229 crore. Statement 2 is correct: the project is one of five with a total outlay of ₹13,000 crore. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article says the section currently has double lines, not single lines.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Central government sanctioned ₹2,229 crore for the third and fourth lines from Gummidipoondi to Gudur. The ₹13,000 crore figure is the total outlay for all five projects combined.

Explanation

The article states that the section forms part of both the New Delhi to Chennai and Howrah to Chennai high-density network routes, and therefore it was decided to construct third and fourth lines. This directly indicates the objective is to increase capacity on these high-density routes. While the section also supports industrial corridors, the primary stated reason is the high-density network.

Explanation

The Election Commission of India (ECI) is established under Article 324 of the Constitution. It is a constitutional body responsible for conducting free and fair elections at national and state levels. The Law Commission, UPSC, and Finance Commission have different mandates.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the SAVE Act requires proof of citizenship for registration and photo ID for voting. Statement 2 is incorrect: SIR is conducted once in 20 years, not 10. Statement 3 is correct: the US has a decentralized, federalized electoral system. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the SAVE Act was passed in February 2026 and is pending in the Senate. Options A, C, and D are close distractors; the article's date is August 2026, but the Act was passed earlier in February 2026.

Explanation

The editorial states that while clean rolls and photo ID are elementary requirements, the state must not selectively weaponize these requirements against those not in power. This is the core concern about partisan misuse of election integrity measures. Options A, C, and D are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The article states that Health Minister K.G. Arunraj announced the scheme in the Tamil Nadu Assembly. Hence, the correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the scheme targets those aged 70+. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article explicitly says 'no ceiling on income' and 'irrespective of income criteria'. Statement 3 is correct as officials stated the scheme will be integrated with AB-PMJAY. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states 'covering nearly 38 lakh senior citizens aged 70 and above'. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The article states the scheme will 'provide free medical treatment, including for cancer care, advanced cardiac surgeries, organ transplants, and high-end diagnostic services'. The other options are not mentioned as primary objectives.

Explanation

The Supreme Court has interpreted Article 21 to include the right to health, as noted in the article. Articles 14, 19, and 32 deal with equality, freedoms, and constitutional remedies respectively.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as India's total health spend is 3.2-3.4% of GDP. Statement 2 is correct as the National Health Policy, 2017 envisaged raising public health spend to 2.5% of GDP. Statement 3 is incorrect because Standing Committee recommendations are not binding on the government.

Explanation

The article clearly states India's government health spend is in the 1.4% range. 2.5% is the NHP 2017 target, while 3.2-3.4% is total health expenditure—these are the usual distractors.

Explanation

The article argues that unlike a hotel guest, a patient seeking medical care may not have the option to shop for another provider. Hence the hospital-hotel parallel is flawed, reflecting the unique nature of healthcare as a right under Article 21.

Explanation

As stated in the article, the National Medical Commission (NMC) notified the draft regulations on August 11, 2026. NMC is the statutory regulator for medical education and practitioners; the Medical Council of India was its predecessor and is not the body mentioned in this news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because the article says registration with a State Medical Council plus a UID in the National Medical Register makes a doctor eligible to practise across India. Statement 2 is incorrect because the proposal removes the need for fresh registration or licence in another State. Statement 3 is correct as the draft was notified on August 11, 2026.

Explanation

The article states that the Delhi court remanded Satyendar Jain, former DJB CEO Udit Prakash Rai and three others to 14-day judicial custody. The 2-day option refers to the police custody granted to former DJB consultant Ankit Srivastava.

Explanation

The article says the proposal makes a doctor, once registered with a State Medical Council and allotted a UID in the National Medical Register, eligible to practise across India without obtaining fresh registration in another State. The other options reflect objectives not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states that the G.O. specifically orders implementation of BC reservations under the Andhra Pradesh Municipal Corporations Act, 1994 and the Andhra Pradesh Municipalities Act, 1965. The Municipal Corporations Act is the relevant one for corporations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the G.O. applies to 100 out of 123 ULBs, excluding 23 that are pending in court cases. Statement 2 is correct as Article 243-U provides for a five-year municipal term. Statement 3 is correct as the order highlights the 16th Finance Commission's operational guidelines requiring a duly constituted ULB for grant eligibility.

Explanation

The G.O. explicitly orders implementation of one-third (33.33%) BC reservations under the relevant municipal acts. 25% and 27% are common reservation percentages in other states, while 50% is the women's reservation in local bodies.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 16th Finance Commission's operational guidelines require a duly constituted Urban Local Body for accessing Finance Commission grants. Timely elections are therefore crucial for securing funds meant for ULBs. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

PM-KUSUM is a scheme under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE). It aims to promote solar energy among farmers by subsidising solar pumps and grid-connected solar plants. The Ministry of Agriculture is not the nodal ministry for this scheme.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: grid-connected solar with feed-in tariffs incentivizes conservation. Statement 2 is incorrect: the SKY scheme offered ~₹7/unit, not ₹3/unit. Statement 3 is correct: the fee-for-service model in Bangladesh prevented over-irrigation because it reduced service to other farmers.

Explanation

The article states that PM-KUSUM has installed over 2.5 million solar pumps in five years. The other options are close distractors but not the exact figure mentioned.

Explanation

The article recommends that in water-stressed regions, grid-connected solar (individual or feeder-level) should be expanded, paired with incentives like direct cash payments for reduced pumping. Standalone pumps are recommended only for rainfed eastern India where irrigation access is limited.

Explanation

The article mentions the National Medical Commission (NMC) as the regulator that issues guidelines on patient volume, faculty eligibility, and issues notices to deficient colleges. The MCI was replaced by NMC in 2020.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states that in January 2026, the qualifying threshold for NEET-PG was reduced to as low as zero percentile for some categories. Statement 2 is incorrect: The NMC relaxed faculty eligibility norms, not increased them. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions that NMC issued notices to over 100 colleges in July 2026.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the number of medical colleges rose from 387 in 2014 to 844 today (2026). 844 is the current figure, not the 2014 figure.

Explanation

The article repeatedly emphasises that lowered admission thresholds, faculty shortages, and inadequate patient volume result in poorly trained doctors, directly endangering patients. While other issues like cost and paper leaks are mentioned, the central theme is patient safety.

Explanation

The second progress report on the Bonn Challenge was released by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) along with the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the guide was launched at UNCCD COP17 in Ulaanbaatar. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Bonn Challenge is a voluntary global initiative, not a legally binding treaty under UNFCCC. Statement 3 is correct: the second progress report confirmed 21.76 Mha restored. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that about 461.14 million tonnes of carbon were estimated to be sequestered (343.66 million tonnes accounting for plantation mortality). Option A (343.66) is the adjusted figure after mortality, but the gross sequestration is 461.14 MT. The other options are distractors.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the guide marks an important step in strengthening conservation, restoration, and sustainable management of India's grasslands and ONEs. It is not about agriculture or carbon emissions, but about ecological preservation.

Explanation

CRPF is a central armed police force under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). The MHA is responsible for internal security and paramilitary forces. The article mentions that the NHRC sought reports from the Ministry of Home Affairs and the CRPF Director General.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the core group is headed by DG GP Singh. Statement 2 is incorrect: the group will meet in the third week, not the first week. Statement 3 is correct: the NHRC sought reports from MHA and CRPF. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 59 CRPF personnel died by suicide in 2025, which was a five-year high. The other options are from previous years: 46 in 2024, 57 in 2021 and 2023, and 43 in 2022.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the core group will meet monthly to review self-harm incidents, examine causes, and recommend preventive, welfare, administrative, and medical measures. The other options are not mentioned or are unrelated to the initiative.

Explanation

The Supreme Court invoked Article 142 of the Constitution, which empowers it to pass any order necessary for doing 'complete justice', to direct that the 2012 UGC Equity Regulations continue to operate until further orders.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the SC stayed the regulations on Jan 29, 2026, terming them 'prima facie vague'. Statement 2 is correct: the Solicitor General informed the Court that the regulations are under reconsideration. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article explicitly states the SC questioned why ragging had been left out of the scope of the regulations.

Explanation

The Supreme Court bench directed the UGC to file a comprehensive counter affidavit within four weeks from August 20, 2026. Petitioners were allowed to file rejoinders within two weeks thereafter.

Explanation

The Supreme Court stated that the language of the 2026 regulations appeared 'prima facie vague', could have 'very sweeping consequences', and might end up dividing society with a 'dangerous impact'. The Court also questioned the need for a separate definition of caste-based discrimination and the exclusion of ragging.

Explanation

The amendment Act specifies that individuals aggrieved by adjudicating officers' rulings can appeal to the National Green Tribunal (NGT) within 60 days upon depositing 10% of the imposed penalty. The NGT is the designated appellate authority for environmental matters under this Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Act replaces criminal penalties only for minor administrative and technical violations, not all violations. Serious offences (industrial consent violations, non-payment >90 days) still attract criminal action. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect because penalties are credited to the Environmental Protection Fund, not the Consolidated Fund of India.

Explanation

The article states that minor non-compliances are subject to additional daily fines of up to ₹10,000 for ongoing violations. This is in addition to the structured financial penalty ranging from ₹10,000 to ₹15 lakh.

Explanation

The amendment aims at fostering trust-based governance, ease of living, and ease-of-doing-business by replacing rigid criminal penalties for minor administrative and technical violations with structured financial penalties. It does not increase criminal penalties or abolish state boards.

Explanation

The Tenth Schedule, added by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985, contains the anti-defection law. The news article repeatedly references this schedule while discussing the disqualification of AIADMK MLAs.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the HC upheld the Speaker's action. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Court held that condonation under para 2(1)(b) also extinguishes para 2(1)(a). Statement 3 is correct as per the article.

Explanation

The article states that the Speaker dropped disqualification proceedings against 21 out of the 25 rebel MLAs. The remaining 4 MLAs were not covered by the condonation letter.

Explanation

The Court ruled that the party's condonation within 15 days nullifies both grounds. This reinforces the party's disciplinary control over its members, a key aspect of the anti-defection framework.

Explanation

The article mentions the A.P. State Council of Higher Education (APSCHE) as a key body that, along with the Higher Education Commissioner, will handle functions unrelated to fee regulation after the amendment. APSCHE is the state-level coordinating body for higher education in Andhra Pradesh.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Bill restricts the commission to fee regulation and prevention of commercialisation. Statement 2 is incorrect because the 10-acre norm applies only to the CRDA region and the municipal corporations of Visakhapatnam, Vijayawada, and Tirupati; elsewhere it is 15 acres. Statement 3 is correct as the Skill Universities Bill allows greenfield as well as brownfield skill universities, including conversion of ITIs and polytechnics.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that nearly 77% of teaching posts were vacant in state universities. The last major recruitment was held in 2012, and the new Bill aims to fill 1,523 faculty vacancies.

Explanation

The article notes that the earlier commission had exceeded its mandate and created a parallel system to the Higher Education Commissioner and APSCHE, causing administrative confusion. The amendment converts it into a committee with its mandate restricted to fee regulation and prevention of commercialisation, with other functions handled by the Higher Education Commissioner.

Explanation

Section 15 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, specifies when a divorced person may remarry. Section 13 lists the grounds for divorce, Section 24 deals with maintenance, and Section 9 deals with restitution of conjugal rights.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Court explicitly held that 'Right to marry is a human right.' Statement 2 is incorrect because the Court only suggested a legislative amendment and did not create a binding rule itself. Statement 3 is correct as the Court cited N Rajendran v S Valli, among other precedents.

Explanation

The Madras High Court passed the order on August 13, 2026. March 3, 2021 was the date of the family court's divorce decree. August 27, 2021 was when the wife remarried. March 30, 2026 was when the husband's appeal was restored.

Explanation

The Court observed that matrimonial appeals can take years to conclude, and making a valid marriage depend on the uncertain outcome of such proceedings is inequitable. The proposed two-month stay window aims to protect the winning spouse's right to remarry without indefinite delay.

Explanation

The news explicitly states that the Union Cabinet approved the decision. The Supreme Court, Parliament, and President are not mentioned as approving bodies for this specific decision.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the news. Statement 2 is incorrect – the announcement was made by Union Home Minister Amit Shah, not the CJI. Statement 3 is correct as the purpose is to improve access to justice for remote areas.

Explanation

The article's metadata and content both specify August 20, 2026 as the publication/announcement date. August 5, 2019 is the date of Article 370 abrogation, not this decision.

Explanation

Home Minister Amit Shah explicitly stated that the decision will 'significantly enhance access to justice for citizens living in remote areas of Ladakh'. While other options may be secondary effects, the primary objective is improving access to justice.

Explanation

The Delhi Development Authority (DDA), established under the Delhi Development Act, 1957, is the nodal body for planning and development in Delhi, including formulation and approval of Master Plans. The article states MPD-2047 was approved by DDA on August 12.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the plan aims to build 40 lakh new flats, mostly affordable. Statement 2 is incorrect: the share of affordable homes fell from 62% in 2020 to 11% in 2024 (the opposite trend). Statement 3 is correct: MPD-2047 was approved by DDA on August 12, 2026.

Explanation

The article states that luxury and ultra-luxury housing (Rs 1.5 crore and above) jumped from 13% of new supply in 2019 to 70% in 2024. Option C (62%) is the share of affordable homes in 2020, a common distractor.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that MPD-2047 aims to open up developable space to deal with shortages in housing and office space, with most of the 40 lakh new flats being affordable. It is a response to the worsening affordable housing crisis and population pressure, not about luxury housing or population reduction.

Explanation

The article mentions that in Himachal, the Home Secretary indicated the Home Department would act as the nodal agency to work with other departments for Agniveer reservation. The scheme itself is a central defence initiative (Ministry of Defence), but implementation at state level is coordinated by the State Home Department.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the scheme was launched in June 2022 for a four-year term. Statement 2 is incorrect: the retention rate is 25%, not 50% (though a proposal to increase it to 50% is unconfirmed). Statement 3 is correct: Haryana provides 20% horizontal reservation for Agniveers in Home, Prisons, Forests & Mining posts.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that data accessed by The Indian Express shows 2,242 Agniveers were recruited from Punjab. 1,818 (75%) will be released, and an estimated 1,100 may need state absorption after central schemes.

Explanation

The article notes that opposition and civil society activists argued that returning soldiers would be caught in an 'employment limbo' lacking skills to secure jobs in a competitive economy where even PhD holders struggle. While option C is a stated objective of the scheme, it is not the reason for opposition.

Explanation

The University Grants Commission (UGC) is a statutory body established in 1956, responsible for coordinating, determining, and maintaining standards of higher education in India. The regulations in question are the UGC (Promotion of Equity in Higher Education Institutions) Regulations, 2026.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The regulations were notified on January 13, 2026, and the SC stayed them on January 29, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: Regulation 3(1)(c) defines caste-based discrimination as discrimination against members of SCs, STs, and OBCs, not against any stakeholder. Statement 3 is correct: The SC directed that the 2012 Regulations will continue in force till further orders.

Explanation

The Supreme Court stayed the regulations on January 29, 2026, when a bench led by the Chief Justice of India said the issue raised important questions. The regulations had been notified on January 13, 2026.

Explanation

The Supreme Court observed that some provisions of the regulations suffered from ambiguities and could be misused, potentially 'divide society'. The court also raised concerns about 'separate yet equal' classification and whether the omission of 'ragging' as a specific form of discrimination was regressive, linking these to Articles 14, 15, and 21.

Explanation

As per the news, the UGC is the nodal body that framed the (Promotion of Equity in Higher Education Institutions) Regulations. The UGC is a statutory body under the UGC Act, 1956, responsible for maintaining standards in higher education.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the SC only stayed the 2026 regulations (kept them in abeyance), not struck them down permanently. Statement 2 is correct: the Court directed that the 2012 regulations will continue to operate. Statement 3 is correct: the Court exercised its power under Article 142.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that on January 29, the apex court had directed that the 2026 regulations be kept in abeyance. August 20, 2026 is the date of the current hearing where the Centre informed the court about reconsideration.

Explanation

The SC explicitly stated that the regulations were 'prima facie vague' and could have 'very sweeping consequences' and a 'dangerous impact' on society, potentially dividing it. The Court also questioned why ragging was left out of the scope.

Explanation

The UNSC has adopted multiple resolutions (e.g., 1718, 2270, 2397) that ban North Korea from any ballistic missile or nuclear test activities. The IAEA focuses on nuclear safeguards but does not impose such prohibitions. The ICJ settles legal disputes between states, and the WTO deals with trade rules.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct—the article reports the launch of ~10 short-range ballistic missiles. Statement 2 is incorrect: South Korea’s defence minister said the 80–120 range is based on private research and could not be officially confirmed; Seoul does not officially recognize North Korea as a nuclear-armed state. Statement 3 is correct—Kim Yo Jong said the personal relationship between the two leaders remains ‘excellent’.

Explanation

Defence Minister Ahn Gyu-back told lawmakers that private research organisations estimate North Korea possesses 80 to 120 nuclear warheads. Trump’s figure of 57 is significantly lower. The other options are close distractors but do not match the exact range mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that South Korea does not officially recognize North Korea as a nuclear-armed state and will continue relying on the US nuclear umbrella rather than developing its own weapons or accepting US tactical nuclear deployment. This is a strategic choice to maintain stability and avoid triggering a nuclear arms race in Northeast Asia.

Explanation

Indonesia has stood by its 'free and active' (bebas aktif) foreign policy for over half a century, distinguishing itself from neighboring countries that align with China or the US. While Indonesia is a founding member of NAM, its specific doctrine is 'Bebas Aktif'.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Indonesian Navy stated the activities were 'not warfighting activities in nature' and 'not intended as combat training.' Statement 3 is correct as Taiwan's Mainland Affairs Council condemned Beijing's 'provocation.' Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article specifically states there are '350,000 Indonesian citizens in Taiwan' who would need protection or evacuation in a hypothetical conflict scenario. The other options are plausible distractors but the exact figure mentioned is 350,000.

Explanation

The article highlights that the exercise occurred during Taiwan's annual Han Kuang military drill, and its location 'made it particularly sensitive.' This tests Indonesia's 'free and active' non-aligned stance because it appears to side with China during a period of heightened tension with Taiwan. Options A, C, and D are factually incorrect based on the article.

Explanation

Section 163 of BNSS, 2023 (which replaces the old CrPC Section 144) allows authorities to issue prohibitory orders. The HPEC is examining its regulation to prevent routine or pre-emptive use that forecloses the right to peaceful assembly. Section 152 BNS deals with assault on public servants, not prohibitory orders.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The HPEC is chaired by Justice R Subhash Reddy, a former Supreme Court judge, not a sitting judge. Statement 2 is correct: Issue 3 in the terms of reference explicitly asks the committee to examine the desirability of banning metallic kinetic projectiles. Statement 3 is correct: The SC directed the committee to prioritize issues 1 and 6 (including violence against female protesters) and submit a first interim report at the earliest.

Explanation

The HPEC comprises 5 members: Justice R Subhash Reddy (chairperson), Justice Ravi Shankar Jha, Justice Shalinder Kaur, Rishi Kumar Shukla (ex-CBI Director), and L R Bishnoi (ex-Meghalaya DGP).

Explanation

The SC specifically directed the HPEC to establish strict constitutional thresholds to prevent Section 152 BNS from being invoked as an instrument to stifle political dissent and peaceful protest. The goal is to ensure the provision remains confined to its intended purpose and does not operate as a chilling restraint on constitutionally protected speech and assembly.

Explanation

The order was issued by the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution under Section 3 of the Essential Commodities Act, 1955. The Ministry of Commerce and Industry separately amended the import policy for raw sugar.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because government institutions are explicitly kept out of the purview of the stockholding order. Statement 2 is correct as per the MoCI notification. Statement 3 is correct as the order was issued under Section 3 of the Essential Commodities Act, 1955.

Explanation

According to the Department of Consumer Affairs data, sugar retail prices rose 15.12% in one month from Rs 4,475.84 to Rs 5,152.44 per quintal. The 19.68% figure represents the year-on-year increase.

Explanation

The stockholding limit is a regulatory measure under the Essential Commodities Act aimed at preventing hoarding by bulk consumers. By limiting stock to 15 days' consumption, the government forces destocking, increasing market supply and cooling prices. This is a direct consumer welfare measure ahead of the festive season.

Explanation

The Zonal Councils are statutory bodies created under Part III of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956 (Sections 15-22). The Inter-State Council, on the other hand, is a constitutional body under Article 263. The Zonal Councils Act mentioned in option D does not exist as a separate legislation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect — Tamil Nadu and Karnataka urged that the existing number of Lok Sabha seats be frozen (not increased). Statement 3 is correct: Kerala CM Satheesan sought state-specific premiums for Ayushman Bharat instead of a uniform national premium.

Explanation

Andhra Pradesh CM N Chandrababu Naidu stated that the Southern economy could reach $10 trillion by 2047. This projection highlights the economic potential of the southern states in contributing to India's overall growth trajectory.

Explanation

The Zonal Councils are forums for discussing and resolving inter-state issues like water sharing (Mullaperiyar, Krishna waters), asset division (AP-Telangana), and political representation (delimitation). They aim to foster cooperative federalism by bringing together state leaders and central ministers to deliberate on common concerns, as seen in this meeting.

Explanation

The HCES is conducted by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). The other ministries are not directly involved in this survey.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: HCES expenditure shares are used to update CPI basket weights. Statement 2 is incorrect: urban non-response rose from 2.8% (2017-18) to 9.8% (2022-23). Statement 3 is correct: MoSPI is piloting diary-based collection for high-income households to minimize recall error. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the overall urban non-response rate during the 2022-23 HCES jumped to 9.8%, up from 2.8% in the 75th round (2017-18). Option D (11%) is the rate for the most affluent urban respondents specifically.

Explanation

Pronab Sen warned that while diary-based collection minimizes recall error, door-to-door surveys for lower-income groups will still have higher recall errors. Stitching together these two datasets with different error structures is a significant methodological challenge.

Explanation

The Haryana Human Rights Commission (HHRC) intervened while adjudicating a complaint filed by Parvesh Sharma. The Commission referred to Section 18 of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, leading to the state government notifying the compensation policy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the policy provides Rs 7.5 lakh for such deaths. Statement 2 is incorrect because at least 50% of the compensation must be recovered from the salary of the guilty police officer. Statement 3 is correct as deaths from natural illness and escape attempts are excluded.

Explanation

The policy explicitly states that at least 50% of the compensation payable will be recovered from the salary of the guilty police officer or official.

Explanation

The salary recovery clause makes individual police officers personally liable for the compensation, creating a strong financial deterrent against torture, assault, or negligence in custody. While it also reduces state burden, the core purpose is accountability and deterrence.