22 August 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

Section 2(j) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 defined 'industry'. The recent nine-judge bench verdict dealt with the interpretation of this section, which has now been repealed and replaced by the Industrial Relations Code, 2020.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the triple test explicitly held that the absence of profit motive is irrelevant. Statements 2 and 3 are correct as per the 1978 Bangalore Water Supply judgment.

Explanation

The seven-judge bench delivered the judgment in 1978, establishing the triple test that has been used to define 'industry' for decades.

Explanation

The nine-judge bench unanimously agreed that pending cases under the repealed ID Act will be governed by the 1978 Bangalore Water Supply triple test. The new Code is to be interpreted independently.

Explanation

IPMDA was launched under the Quad (India, Australia, Japan, USA) framework in 2022. It is a key Quad initiative focused on maritime security and domain awareness in the Indo-Pacific region.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: IPMDA was launched under Quad in 2022. Statement 2 is correct: it shares near-real-time maritime data. Statement 3 is incorrect: IFC-IOR was established in 2018, not 2020. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that nearly $7 trillion in trade flows annually through the Indo-Pacific, connecting energy producers in the Persian Gulf to manufacturing hubs in East Asia and consumer markets across the Americas.

Explanation

The article highlights that while these countries have independent surveillance infrastructure, their waters are frequently exploited because these systems remain ineffective at addressing maritime crimes beyond their jurisdictions. IPMDA provides an opportunity for collaboration to fill this gap.

Explanation

The article states that President Trump invoked Section 338 of the Tariff Act of 1930, a Depression-era law (Smoot-Hawley tariffs) that had never been used before for imposing tariffs. Options A, B, and D are other US trade laws but not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because Canada retaliated 'dollar for dollar' (i.e., matching $20 billion), not $10 billion. Statement 3 is incorrect because Section 338 had never been used before to impose tariffs; the Smoot-Hawley tariffs were a different set of tariffs under the same Act.

Explanation

The article mentions that the countries sold each other $880 billion worth of goods and services last year. The other options are distractors.

Explanation

The article states that Trump has made tariffs the centrepiece of his second-term economic agenda, 'in a push to bring manufacturing back to the United States'. While Canada's dairy market and USMCA negotiations are mentioned, the overarching objective is reshoring manufacturing. Option C is partially correct but the root cause is protectionism.

Explanation

The FDI policy is formulated and implemented by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. The article explicitly credits the 'Commerce and Industry Ministry' for the announcement.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the revised framework allows non-controlling beneficial ownership up to 10%. Statement 2 is correct: the Cabinet decision required majority shareholding and control to be with resident Indian citizens/entities. Statement 3 is incorrect: the 29 proposals came from jurisdictions like Mauritius, USA, South Korea, Japan, Singapore, and Cayman Islands, not necessarily from LBCs themselves.

Explanation

The article specifically states that 29 FDI investments involving proposed FDI of ₹4,895.65 crore were reported up to August 20, 2026. The other options are close distractors with digit swaps.

Explanation

The revised policy relaxes earlier restrictions (PN3 2020) by allowing non-controlling beneficial ownership up to 10% from LBCs, while maintaining Indian control. This calibrated approach aims to attract foreign investment in strategic sectors (IT, AI, pharma, electronics) without compromising national security, as seen in the 60-day clearance deadline and specific sector openings.

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank and the primary regulator of the foreign exchange market in India. It introduced the special USD-INR Forex Swap facility on June 8, 2026 to manage forex inflows and support the rupee.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the facility covers FCNR(B) deposits, ECBs, and OFCBs. Statement 2 is incorrect because the scheme was introduced due to FPI outflows (not inflows) and high oil import bills. Statement 3 is correct as per the article: FCNR(B) deposits are open till August 31, 2026. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that $72.85 billion ($72,848 million) of foreign exchange was generated under the swap facility as on August 21, 2026. The other options are components: $64.40 billion from FCNR(B), $4.86 billion from OFCBs, and $2.59 billion from ECBs.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the facility was introduced to swell forex reserves that were under pressure due to depreciation of the Indian Rupee on account of FPI outflow and high oil import bill. The swap mechanism incentivizes banks and entities to bring in foreign currency, thereby strengthening reserves and supporting the rupee.

Explanation

FCNR(B) deposits accounted for $65.397 billion out of the total $72.85 billion, i.e., about 90% of total inflows. These are fixed-term deposits in foreign currencies held by NRIs.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the facility explicitly included OFCB and ECB alongside FCNR(B) deposits. Statement 3 is correct—the original deadline was September 30 but was preponed to August 31 due to encouraging response.

Explanation

The RBI reported that the scheme attracted $72.85 billion in forex inflows till August 21. Close distractors include $70 billion (initial expectation) and $75 billion (rounding off).

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The facility was aimed at strengthening domestic liquidity and providing support to the foreign exchange market at a time when the rupee and forex reserves had come under pressure.' The other options are partial or secondary benefits.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the 'Disaster Management Act, 2005' and its 2025 amendment (Section 41A) which allows state governments to constitute Urban Disaster Management Authorities. The other options are unrelated acts.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the article says the Urban Disaster Management Authority can be constituted in every state capital and city with a municipal corporation 'except Delhi and Chandigarh'. Statement 2 is correct as the article states heatwaves and lightning were included for the 2026-31 Finance Commission period. Statement 3 is correct: the authority is chaired by the municipal commissioner.

Explanation

The article states: 'Measures to reduce extreme heat could also save more than 130,000 lives by 2050.' This is a direct data point from the World Bank estimate mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly argues that 'the amount of rain matters, but so does the surface on which it falls.' It states that heavy rain need not cause severe flooding if water can drain, spread, or seep into the ground. The disaster depends on how the city is built, including drainage, floodplain protection, and the extent of concrete cover.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the Radhakrishnan Committee, which reviewed the NTA's functioning and recommended stronger standard operating procedures, better data security, and other reforms. The other committees are historical education commissions not related to NTA review.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because Kumar said replacing NTA 'may not be the most useful answer' and instead advocated for deep structural strengthening. Statement 2 is correct as the article lists three priority areas. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions '46 of the committee's major action points'.

Explanation

The article states: 'The government had also reported in July that 35 of the committee’s 46 major action points had been implemented.' The other options are distractors: 46 is the total, 40 and 30 are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article explains that under the partnership model, ministries, regulators, or institutions requesting an examination would remain responsible for syllabus, subject experts, and academic validation, while NTA focuses on the secure platform, centre network, candidate verification, and result processing. The other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The article mentions IT Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw as the key official, indicating the scheme falls under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), which oversees electronics manufacturing policies.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the scheme runs for five years from FY 2026-27 to FY 2030-31. Statement 2 is incorrect: the requirement is more than 51% (not 50%) Indian ownership. Statement 3 is correct: the baseline moves each year as previous year's sales plus 15%.

Explanation

The article states that to qualify for Track 1, a manufacturer must have recorded at least ₹10,000 crore in turnover in FY 2025-26. The other options are distractors – ₹5,000 crore is the first-year incremental threshold, not the minimum turnover.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the scheme aims to 'incentivise the creation of a homegrown smartphone brand' with Indian-owned IP, design, and R&D. It seeks to move beyond assembly and build domestic product capability, as highlighted by the higher incentive structure for Indian brands.

Explanation

The NHAI, which operates under the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH), is the nodal agency implementing MLFF. The article mentions MoRTH issuing new National Highway Fee Rules and NHAI taking decisions like mandating HSRP and 'One Vehicle, One FASTag'.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: MLFF uses RFID readers and ANPR cameras to read FASTag and vehicle registration numbers. Statement 2 is incorrect: MLFF is barrier-less, meaning vehicles do not stop. Statement 3 is correct: six toll plazas (Choryasi, Mundaka, Daulatpura, Gharaunda, Manoharpur, Shahjahanpur) are already operational. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'According to the Economic Survey 2025-26, the MLFF is projected to be implemented across all four-lane and above national highways and expressways by March 2029.' The other options are common distractors; 2027 and 2028 are too early, and 2030 is later than the specified target.

Explanation

The article states that the digital local pass 'enables local residents around a toll plaza to obtain a monthly pass... allowing a commuter to cross the respective toll plaza unlimited times in a month for a fee.' The pass is integrated with VAHAN and DigiLocker to verify the 20 km radius condition. It is not a replacement for FASTag or a general toll reduction.

Explanation

As per the article, the Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs (MoHUA) issued a statement defending metro expansion and is responsible for urban transport policy, including metro rail projects. The Ministry of Railways only operates the Kolkata Metro; other metro corporations are under state/central urban development ministries.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: DMRC was established as a 50-50 partnership between Central and Delhi governments in 1995. Statement 2 is incorrect: India's network (1,100 km) is behind China's 10,000 km network, as per the article. Statement 3 is correct: Kolkata Metro is the only metro system run by the Indian Railways, while all others are operated by separate corporations.

Explanation

The article cites a 2023 IIT Delhi analysis by Geetam Tiwari and Deepty Jain showing that most metro systems meet only 25-35% of projected ridership. Delhi met 47% and Kolkata 38% – the two better performers. The other options are plausible distractors but not the correct data from the news.

Explanation

The article highlights that DPRs often assume enabling infrastructure (last-mile connectivity, feeder systems, integrated transport) that governments and urban local bodies fail to deliver. While fares (option A) are also mentioned, the core structural issue is unrealistic DPR assumptions. Option C and D are not supported as primary reasons in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the detailed regulations for the land pooling policy will come with the approval of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. The DDA itself is under this ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the TPS model does NOT replace the consortium model; it is an additional tool. Statement 2 is correct: the article says landowners representing at least 70% of the land in a sector must come together. Statement 3 is correct: the DDA stopped acquiring land in 2013 and introduced land pooling, becoming a facilitator.

Explanation

The article clearly states that under the existing consortium model, landowners with adjoining plots of 20 hectares or more come together to form a consortium. The other options are distractors not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states that the TPS provision is aimed at taking forward the land pooling policy in areas where owners have not been able to voluntarily come together. It does not replace acquisition, does not change the 60:40 ratio, and does not increase the threshold.

Explanation

The article states that KEO was developed through a collaboration between the Department of Electronics, IT and Biotechnology, State-owned KEONICS, semiconductor partners, and system integrators, with KEONICS as the nodal agency. Hence KEONICS is the primary developer.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article calls KEO 'the country's first home-made AI personal computer'. Statement 2 is incorrect because KEO uses open-source RISC-V architecture, not proprietary. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions sponsorship by Kiran Mazumdar Shaw, Kris Gopalakrishnan, and Prashanth Prakash with ₹1 crore each.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'Unveiling the KEO, priced at ₹18,999'. The other options are close distractors often used in exams to test precise recall.

Explanation

The article quotes CM Shivakumar saying KEO would 'democratise access to artificial intelligence' and help students, farmers, and entrepreneurs. The other options are not mentioned as primary objectives.

Explanation

The Defence Consultative Group (DCG) is a bilateral defence dialogue mechanism conducted under the aegis of the Ministry of Defence. The meeting was co-chaired by India's Defence Secretary, confirming the lead role of the Ministry of Defence.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the meeting was held in New Delhi, not London. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions expansion of bilateral exchanges through joint exercises and capacity building. Statement 3 is correct as the meeting reviewed defence industrial cooperation under the India-UK Vision 2035 and the 10-year Defence Industrial Roadmap.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 25th India-UK Defence Consultative Group meeting was held between Defence Secretary Rajesh Kumar Singh and UK Permanent Under Secretary Jeremy Pocklington in New Delhi.

Explanation

The RMSCE is established under the IPOI to strengthen maritime security collaboration in the Indo-Pacific. While it may involve multiple nations, its core purpose is to enhance security cooperation, not just trade or climate adaptation. The article highlights it as part of the robust maritime security collaboration between India and the UK.

Explanation

The article quotes Santosh Kumar Sarangi, Secretary at the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE). MNRE is the nodal ministry for renewable energy policies and programs in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article defines vanilla solar as standalone solar PV without storage or hybrid components. Statement 2 is correct as per the CERC regulation allowing exit without forfeiting bank guarantees. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 100 MW order was for vanadium flow batteries, not lithium-ion.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Around 42 gigawatts (GW) of renewable energy capacity is currently without PPAs.' The other options are distractors: 30 GW is the polysilicon target, 50 GW is not mentioned, and 100 MW is the vanadium flow battery order.

Explanation

The article states that 'hybrid renewable energy projects with high tariffs and vanilla solar projects are finding it difficult to secure buyers' and specifically mentions that some hybrid tenders where the discovered tariff was higher are struggling. The high tariff makes them less palatable to DISCOMs compared to cheaper alternatives.

Explanation

The Ministry of Commerce and Industry, through the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), is responsible for FDI policy and reported the data on August 21, 2026.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the relaxation applied to minority and non-controlling stakes, not majority stakes. Statement 3 is correct as reported by the Ministry.

Explanation

The Ministry of Commerce and Industry reported exactly 29 FDI projects worth ₹4,895.65 crore. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article states that the relaxation aimed to address investments held up because even companies with tiny stakes owned by Chinese entities faced stricter restrictions. The new guidelines provided clarity and ease of doing business to facilitate FDI inflows.

Explanation

The article deals with proceedings under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002. The court's ruling specifically addresses the relationship between predicate offences and PMLA proceedings.

Explanation

Statement 1 is false because the court explicitly ruled that protection in predicate offence does not automatically extend to PMLA. Statement 3 is false because the petitioner failed to appear despite summons, indicating non-cooperation. Only statement 2 is correct as per the article.

Explanation

The article states that the court noted 'proceeds of crime amounting to around ₹26.18 crore' were traced to the petitioner. The other options are numerical distractors.

Explanation

The ruling clarifies that PMLA proceedings are independent, so the accused cannot rely on protection in predicate offence; they must show reasonable grounds for being not guilty under PMLA, as per Section 45 of the Act.

Explanation

The National Green Tribunal (NGT) in 2017 held the Art of Living Foundation responsible for damage to the Yamuna floodplains and imposed the ₹5 crore environmental compensation. The Supreme Court later set aside this order.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the SC set aside the 2017 NGT order. Statement 2 is correct as the SC directed DDA to refund the ₹5 crore. Statement 3 is incorrect because the SC directed DDA to continue the rehabilitation work.

Explanation

The Supreme Court directed the DDA to refund the ₹5 crore environmental compensation that was deposited by the Art of Living Foundation following the 2017 NGT order.

Explanation

Floodplains are ecologically sensitive zones that support groundwater recharge, nutrient cycling, and biodiversity. The NGT and SC's orders recognize the need to protect such areas from damage due to large-scale events.

Explanation

Section 26A of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, gives the central government power to restrict or ban drugs in public interest. The other acts deal with different subjects like criminal law, pharmacy practice, and food safety.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the restriction is specifically on FDCs containing both compounds together, not on single drug formulations. Statement 3 is correct as the notification is under Section 26A of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940.

Explanation

The article states that a previous notification dated April 15, 2025, restricted certain FDCs. The latest notification on August 22, 2026, extends this to all formulations. The other dates are distractors.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the use of such combinations may pose risks to children below four years and that safer alternatives are available. The primary objective is safeguarding child health, not cost reduction or international compliance.

Explanation

GST is administered by the Ministry of Finance through the Department of Revenue. The GST Appellate Tribunal (GSTAT) falls under the same ministry. The other options are not directly responsible for GST administration.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: GSTAT is the second appellate authority; the first appellate authority is a Commissioner (Appeals). Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is correct: the e-filing portal was made operational on September 24, 2025. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that only 74,758 cases have been filed before GSTAT since September 2025. The expected number was 2.5 lakh (2,50,000), and 3.5 lakh cases were filed before the first appellate authority. 30,000 is the number of additional tokens issued.

Explanation

Justice Mishra speculated that the low filings could be because businesses have closed down or the cases were about fake input tax credit (ITC) claims. The article does not mention satisfaction with first appellate authority, portal issues, or deadline extension as reasons.

Explanation

The Patna High Court, in a single bench of Justice Alok Kumar, held that the right to religious freedom under Article 25 is not absolute and can be subject to reasonable restrictions in the interest of public order. The judgment was delivered on August 20, 2026.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the right to religious freedom is not absolute; it is subject to public order, morality, and health. Statement 2 is correct as per the court's observation that constitutional protection extends only to essential and integral practices. Statement 3 is incorrect because the court dismissed the plea, not allowed it.

Explanation

The Patna High Court delivered its judgment on August 20, 2026. The article was published on August 22, 2026, but the judgment date is clearly mentioned as August 20, 2026.

Explanation

The court observed that there is a necessity of maintaining public tranquility, particularly in a residential area, and that the right to religious freedom is subject to public order concerns. The state had cited past incidents of violence, including a 2024 incident where a crowd set a government vehicle on fire.

Explanation

BSF and SSB are central armed police forces under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), not the Ministry of Defence. The MHA is responsible for internal security and border management.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct - the Siliguri Corridor is popularly called 'Chicken's Neck'. Statement 2 is correct - the grid includes Dhubri, Kishanganj, and Chopra. Statement 3 is incorrect because the meeting was held in Sukna (outskirts of Siliguri) on the third and final day of the visit, not the first day.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'a triangular grid comprising three new military garrisons' at Dhubri (Assam), Kishanganj (Bihar), and Chopra (West Bengal).

Explanation

The article highlights that the meeting focused on enhancing border surveillance, improving coordination between forces, and drawing up a framework for the grid. The corridor is a sensitive area crucial to national security, and the grid aims to protect it from infiltration and disruption.

Explanation

The Central Empowered Committee (CEC) is a body constituted by the Supreme Court of India to monitor compliance of its orders related to forest, wildlife, and environmental matters. It is not a ministry or statutory body under any government department.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The SC banned mining on April 12, 2019. Statement 2 is incorrect: the default ESZ width is 10 km, not 5 km. Statement 3 is correct: CEC met Assam officials on March 3, 2022. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that nine animal corridors around Kaziranga were identified for which the CEC sought a list of construction activities. The SC had also prohibited new construction on private land within these nine corridors.

Explanation

Animal corridors are essential for safe wildlife movement, especially during floods. Unchecked construction fragments these habitats, disrupts migration routes, and increases encounters with humans, leading to conflict. While mining and tourism are related, the core issue is habitat fragmentation.

Explanation

The report has been authored by NITI Aayog, the government's premier policy think tank. It is based on data from the National Sample Survey (78th round), but the report itself is a NITI Aayog document.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct – the report uses data from the 78th NSS round. Statement 2 is incorrect – the report proposes vocational integration from Class 6 and Kaushal Tracks from Class 9, not after Class 12. Statement 3 is correct – only 8.25% of graduates are in aligned jobs as per the report.

Explanation

The report explicitly states that an estimated 8.7 crore Indians aged 15-29 were NEET in 2021. 7.67 crore refers to the number of people trained since 2014-15, while 9 crore is a rounded approximation often used in media headlines.

Explanation

The report states that Kaushal Tracks would provide deeper vocational specialisation based on local and national demand, alongside the existing academic curriculum. It is not about replacing academics or solely targeting dropout reduction.

Explanation

The Dedicated Freight Corridor project is under the Ministry of Railways, which oversees Indian Railways and its infrastructure. CONCOR, mentioned in the article, is a PSU under this ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: train departed JNPT at 7 pm on August 21, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: the train carried 360 TEUs total (180 per rake), not 180. Statement 3 is correct: the train was electrically hauled and covered 422 km to Varnama. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the train was 1.3 km long. The other options are close distractors; 1.1 km and 1.5 km are not mentioned, and 1.8 km is too high.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that double-stack long-haul trains help speed up evacuation of containers from ports, reduce congestion at terminals, and increase the amount of cargo per train. Option A is incorrect as DFC is for freight, not passenger. Option C is too absolute; the goal is modal shift, not complete replacement. Option D is irrelevant.

Explanation

The article mentions the 'Road Accident in India' report is by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH). This is the nodal ministry for road safety data.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The policy applies to all local body areas, though priority is given to cities >1 million. Statement 2 is incorrect: The policy allows on-street vending in the multi-utility zone, not removal. Statement 3 is correct: The policy mandates public awareness campaigns to educate citizens, vendors, merchants, and property developers.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'around 31% of pedestrian deaths occur on national highways alone' based on the MoRTH report. The other options are made-up distractors.

Explanation

The policy focuses on safe footpaths through audits, removal of encroachments, and universal accessibility (including for disabled). It discourages forcing pedestrians onto foot overbridges where at-grade crossings are safer. The core objective is pedestrian safety, not congestion or fines.