23 August 2026, Questions & Answers
96 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
96 questions · 0 topics covered · 20 min revision
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This page contains 96 current affairs questions with answers from 23 August 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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96 QsWhich constitutional article empowers the Governor to dissolve the Legislative Assembly of a state?
- A.Article 163
- B.Article 174(2)(b)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 356
- D.Article 171
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Explanation
Article 174(2)(b) of the Constitution explicitly gives the Governor the power to dissolve the Legislative Assembly. Article 163 deals with the Council of Ministers, Article 356 with President's Rule, and Article 171 with the Legislative Council.
Consider the following statements regarding the One Nation One Election proposal:
1. The Joint Committee of Parliament on the One Nation One Election Bills was formed in December 2024.
2. The two bills under consideration are the Constitution (129th Amendment) Bill, 2024 and the Representation of the People (Amendment) Bill, 2024.
3. The committee is expected to submit its report in the winter session of 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the second bill is the Union Territories Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2024, not the Representation of the People (Amendment) Bill. Statement 3 is correct: the committee's report is due in the winter session of 2026.
How many NDA-ruled states and union territories are being considered for dissolution to synchronize elections with Lok Sabha 2029?
- A.11
- B.18
- C.22✓ Correct Answer
- D.25
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the NDA is considering dissolution of assemblies in 22 states/UTs where it has a majority. Options 11 and 18 are distractors; 25 is not mentioned.
What is the primary constitutional mechanism proposed to advance simultaneous elections to 2029?
- A.Amendment of Article 356 to impose President's Rule
- B.Dissolution of Assemblies under Article 174(2)(b) on the advice of Chief Ministers✓ Correct Answer
- C.Supreme Court directive to hold elections simultaneously
- D.Presidential ordinance to dissolve all assemblies
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Explanation
The article states that the NDA plans to dissolve assemblies by Governors acting on the advice of their Council of Ministers, under Article 174(2)(b). This allows the states to hold elections alongside Lok Sabha 2029. President's Rule or Supreme Court directive are not proposed.
Which department of the Maharashtra government released the draft Private Coaching Centers Bill, 2026?
- A.Department of Higher and Technical Education
- B.School Education and Sports Department✓ Correct Answer
- C.Department of Law and Judiciary
- D.Home Department
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Explanation
The article states that the School Education and Sports Department has released the draft Bill and invited suggestions. This is a state-level administrative department responsible for school education, not higher education or law.
Consider the following statements regarding the Maharashtra draft Private Coaching Centers Bill:
1. The Bill prohibits coaching centres from operating in basements and bans the dummy-school model.
2. The Bill applies to any coaching centre with more than 50 students, which is the lowest threshold among state laws.
3. The Bill bars hiring anyone against whom a cognizable offence has been registered.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the draft explicitly bans integration with schools (dummy-school) and prohibits basement classes. Statement 2 is incorrect: the threshold is >25 students, not >50. Statement 3 is correct: the Bill bars hiring anyone with a registered cognizable offence under BNS or IPC. Hence option C is correct.
What is the maximum fine prescribed for major violations under the Maharashtra draft Private Coaching Centers Bill, 2026?
- A.₹5 lakh
- B.₹10 lakh
- C.₹25 lakh
- D.₹50 lakh✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article states that major violations, including operating without registration, false advertising, and enrolling an underage child, attract fines from ₹10 lakh to ₹50 lakh. The maximum limit is ₹50 lakh. The other options are lower amounts applicable to minor violations or other states.
What is the primary objective of the dummy-school ban in the Maharashtra draft Bill?
- A.To reduce the number of coaching centres in the state
- B.To ensure that students attend regular school and not substitute it with coaching✓ Correct Answer
- C.To increase the fees charged by coaching centres
- D.To promote online coaching over offline classes
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Explanation
The dummy-school model involves students being enrolled in school but spending most of their time at coaching centres, effectively missing school. The ban aims to enforce that students attend school as per the RTE Act and receive a balanced education, not just coaching. The other options are not stated or directly opposite to the intent.
Which body pulled up the Assam Government for inaction on mining near Kaziranga National Park?
- A.National Green Tribunal (NGT)
- B.Central Empowerment Committee (CEC)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- D.Supreme Court of India
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Explanation
The article states that the Supreme Court-constituted Central Empowered Committee (CEC) pulled up the Assam Government. The NGT is a statutory body, but the CEC is a committee constituted by the Supreme Court specifically for this case.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Central Empowered Committee (CEC) is a statutory body established under the Environment Protection Act, 1986.
2. The Supreme Court order of April 12, 2019, prohibited mining along the southern boundary of Kaziranga National Park.
3. The Karbi Anglong Autonomous Council administers the district that forms the southern boundary of Kaziranga.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect – CEC is not a statutory body; it is constituted by the Supreme Court. Statement 2 is correct – the SC order of April 12, 2019, restrained all mining along the southern boundary. Statement 3 is correct – the article mentions that KAAC administers Karbi Anglong, the southern boundary district.
What is the default distance of the Eco-Sensitive Zone (ESZ) around Kaziranga National Park mentioned in the article?
- A.5 km
- B.10 km✓ Correct Answer
- C.15 km
- D.20 km
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the default ESZ is 10 km, and the Assam government had a plan to reduce it. This is a standard rule for national parks under the Environment Protection Act guidelines.
What is the primary ecological concern highlighted by the CEC regarding mining near Kaziranga?
- A.Loss of revenue to the state exchequer
- B.Threat to wildlife habitat and ecological integrity✓ Correct Answer
- C.Violation of mining lease agreements
- D.Impact on tourism revenue from the park
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Explanation
The CEC repeatedly emphasized that mining undermines the protection of wildlife (especially rhinos and elephants) and the natural drainage system of the entire landscape, even noting that the Karbi Anglong hills serve as a refuge during floods. The core issue is ecological, not financial.
Which of the following categories of individuals are eligible to maintain Foreign Currency Non-Resident (Bank) [FCNR(B)] deposits?
- A.Only Non-Resident Indians (NRIs)
- B.NRIs and Overseas Citizens of India (OCIs)
- C.NRIs, OCIs, and Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs)✓ Correct Answer
- D.All Indian citizens residing abroad
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Explanation
As per the article, FCNR(B) deposits can be maintained by Non-Resident Indians, Overseas Citizens of India, and Persons of Indian Origin. The interest earned is tax-exempt for non-residents under Indian tax laws.
Consider the following statements regarding the India-Mauritius fuel supply agreement:
1. The agreement is a five-year pact under which Indian Oil Corporation will supply Mauritius' entire import requirement of petrol, diesel, and aviation turbine fuel.
2. The agreement was signed during the official visit of Prime Minister Narendra Modi to Mauritius in August 2026.
3. Mauritius has a population of 1.2 million, of which nearly 70% are of Indian origin.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) 1 and 2 only
- C.(C) 1 and 3 only✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: IOC will supply entire import requirement of petrol, diesel, and ATF. Statement 2 is incorrect: the agreement was signed during Petroleum Minister Hardeep Singh Puri's visit, not the Prime Minister. Statement 3 is correct: nearly 70% of Mauritius' 1.2 million population is of Indian origin.
What was the total amount of foreign exchange inflows attracted by the Reserve Bank of India's special forex swap facility as of August 21, 2026?
- A.$65.397 billion
- B.$72.85 billion✓ Correct Answer
- C.$4.86 billion
- D.$2.591 billion
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Explanation
The RBI reported total inflows of $72.85 billion under the special swap facility till August 21. The sub-components were FCNR(B) deposits ($65.397 billion), OFCBs ($4.86 billion), and ECBs ($2.591 billion). The facility was closed early on August 31.
What is the primary objective of the second track of the new mobile phone manufacturing scheme?
- A.To attract foreign smartphone brands to set up manufacturing in India
- B.To promote Indian smartphone brands that retain IP, design, R&D and management control in India✓ Correct Answer
- C.To increase exports of mobile phones to $50 billion by 2030
- D.To reduce the import of electronic components by 50%
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Explanation
The article states that the second track sets aside a separate incentive structure for Indian smartphone brands, offering higher support for companies that manufacture in India and keep their intellectual property, management control, design, and R&D capabilities in India. This marks an effort to build a domestic handset company with its own technology and brand.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for implementing the Pradhan Mantri Surya Sarovar Yojana (PM-SSY) for floating solar?
- A.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- B.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Power
- D.Ministry of Water Resources
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Explanation
PM-SSY is a renewable energy scheme, and the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) is the nodal ministry for all solar energy initiatives in India, including floating solar.
Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Surya Sarovar Yojana (PM-SSY):
1. The scheme aims to develop 5,000 MW of floating solar projects with a total outlay of ₹5,070 crore.
2. It provides central financial assistance of ₹1 crore per MW, but no additional support for feasibility studies.
3. The scheme includes a requirement for co-located energy storage with a minimum capacity of 2 hours.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Only 2 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the scheme targets 5,000 MW with ₹5,070 crore outlay. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article mentions additional CFA of up to ₹0.5 crore per project for feasibility studies. Statement 3 is correct: the scheme mandates co-located energy storage of at least 2 hours (10,000 MWh cumulative). Hence option B is correct.
According to the article, what is the current installed floating solar capacity in India as of 2026?
- A.1,000 MW
- B.700 MW✓ Correct Answer
- C.500 MW
- D.900 MW
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Explanation
The article states: 'The current installed capacity of floating solar in India, however, stands at only 700 MW.' This is contrasted with the 102 GW potential, highlighting the vast scope for expansion.
What is the primary objective of the Pradhan Mantri Surya Sarovar Yojana (PM-SSY) as highlighted in the news?
- A.To reduce water evaporation from reservoirs
- B.To promote land-neutral solar energy deployment and expand renewable capacity without using agricultural land✓ Correct Answer
- C.To provide cheap electricity to coastal areas
- D.To replace all existing thermal power plants with floating solar
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Explanation
The article emphasises that floating solar does not require land, addressing the challenge of land scarcity for solar projects. PM-SSY aims to mainstream this technology as a complement to ground-mounted and rooftop solar, easing pressure on land resources.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for conducting India's foreign policy and diplomatic negotiations like the SR-level boundary talks with China?
- A.Ministry of Defence
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs
- C.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
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Explanation
The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) handles India's foreign relations, including diplomatic negotiations with other countries. The SR-level talks are a diplomatic mechanism, and the MEA spokesperson Randhir Jaiswal is quoted in the article, confirming the ministry's role.
Consider the following statements regarding the India-China boundary talks:
1. The 25th round of Special Representative-level talks is being held in Beijing.
2. The SR mechanism for boundary talks was established in 2010 after the Doklam standoff.
3. The maintenance of peace and tranquillity along the LAC is considered important for the state of bilateral ties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states Doval is travelling to Beijing for the 25th round of SR-level talks. Statement 2 is incorrect because the SR mechanism was established in 2003, not 2010. Statement 3 is correct as the MEA spokesperson emphasized that maintenance of peace along the LAC is of 'utmost importance'.
In which year was the Special Representative-level mechanism for India-China boundary talks established?
- A.2003✓ Correct Answer
- B.2010
- C.2014
- D.2020
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that the SR-level talks mechanism was established in 2003 to comprehensively address the longstanding boundary dispute between the two countries. The other options are common distractors related to other events in India-China relations.
What is the primary purpose of holding the 25th round of Special Representative-level talks between India and China, as mentioned in the news?
- A.To finalize a free trade agreement between the two nations
- B.To comprehensively address the longstanding boundary dispute✓ Correct Answer
- C.To negotiate a new visa policy for Indian applicants
- D.To discuss India's naming of places in Arunachal Pradesh
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Explanation
The article states that the SR mechanism was established to 'comprehensively address the longstanding boundary dispute between the two countries'. While other issues like visas and naming of places are mentioned, the core purpose of the SR-level talks is the boundary dispute.
Which Indian official serves as the designated Special Representative for the India-China boundary talks?
- A.External Affairs Minister
- B.National Security Advisor✓ Correct Answer
- C.Defence Minister
- D.Foreign Secretary
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Explanation
The article states that NSA Ajit Doval is the designated Indian Special Representative for the boundary talks mechanism established in 2003. The SR is a high-level official appointed to lead discussions on the boundary dispute.
Consider the following statements:
1. The 25th round of India-China Special Representatives talks was held in New Delhi.
2. External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar stated that peace in border areas is a prerequisite for good relations with China.
3. The India-China border dispute spans approximately 3,488 km.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the 25th round of SR talks was held in Beijing, not New Delhi. Statement 2 is correct as Jaishankar made this remark at the Economic Times World Leaders Forum. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the border length is 3,488 km.
In which year was the India-China Special Representatives mechanism for boundary talks established?
- A.2001
- B.2003✓ Correct Answer
- C.2005
- D.2013
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that the SR mechanism was 'established in 2003 to comprehensively address the vexed boundary dispute.' Options 2001 and 2005 are common distractors related to other bilateral agreements.
What is the primary utility of the India-China Special Representatives (SR) mechanism, according to the article?
- A.To legally demarcate the entire India-China border
- B.To serve as a structured tool for managing recurring tensions and addressing the boundary dispute✓ Correct Answer
- C.To facilitate trade agreements between the two countries
- D.To coordinate military exercises along the Line of Actual Control
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Explanation
The article states that while 'success eluded it in resolving the boundary dispute, officials on both sides regard the structured mechanism as a useful tool in addressing the recurring tensions between the two countries.' This highlights its role as a crisis management and diplomatic channel.
Which organization is the primary space agency of India under the Department of Space?
- A.NewSpace India Limited (NSIL)
- B.Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Antrix Corporation
- D.Physical Research Laboratory (PRL)
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Explanation
ISRO is India's national space agency, responsible for space research and exploration. NSIL is its commercial arm, Antrix is a marketing arm, and PRL is a research institute under ISRO.
Consider the following statements regarding India's space sector:
1. National Space Day is celebrated on August 23 to commemorate the landing of Chandrayaan-3 on the Moon.
2. India currently has over 500 space start-ups operating in the private sector.
3. The government has promised a stable space policy to support private players.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: National Space Day is on August 23, marking Chandrayaan-3's landing. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article mentions 'over 400' start-ups, not 500. Statement 3 is correct: PM Modi assured stable space policy support.
According to the news article, approximately how many space start-ups are currently operating in India?
- A.Over 200
- B.Over 300
- C.Over 400✓ Correct Answer
- D.Over 500
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'Over 400 space start-ups — like Agnikul, Skyroot and GalaxEye — have come up in the last few years.' This is a direct data point for prelims.
What is the primary objective of the government's stable space policy as highlighted in the meeting?
- A.To increase revenue from satellite launches
- B.To encourage private sector investment and innovation in space✓ Correct Answer
- C.To reduce the budget allocation for ISRO
- D.To collaborate exclusively with foreign space agencies
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Explanation
The PM's assurance of stable policy is aimed at reducing regulatory risk for start-ups, thereby encouraging investment and innovation. The goal is to make India a global hub for space talent and technology, not just revenue generation or cutting ISRO's budget.
Which trade agreement governs the current trade relationship between the US, Canada, and Mexico, and is under threat due to the escalating trade war?
- A.NAFTA
- B.USMCA✓ Correct Answer
- C.WTO
- D.GATT
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Explanation
The USMCA (United States-Mexico-Canada Agreement) replaced NAFTA in 2020 and is the current framework for North American trade. The article mentions that the US and Canada still have to agree on revisions to the USMCA, which Trump declined to renew in its current form.
Consider the following statements regarding the US-Canada trade war:
1. The US imposed 50% tariffs on approximately $20 billion worth of Canadian goods after negotiations broke down on August 21, 2026.
2. Canada's retaliatory tariffs on US steel and dairy took effect immediately on August 22, 2026.
3. Canada's Prime Minister Mark Carney stated that the US proposed terms that were 'uneconomic, unfair and undermined the net benefits for Canada'.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: US tariffs of 50% on $20 billion of Canadian goods were put into force after talks broke down on August 21, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: Canada's retaliatory tariffs will take effect on September 8, 2026, not immediately. Statement 3 is correct: PM Carney described the US terms as 'uneconomic, unfair and undermined the net benefits for Canada'.
What percentage of Canada's exports to the United States are impacted by the new 50% US tariffs?
- A.2.5%
- B.5.5%✓ Correct Answer
- C.7.0%
- D.10.0%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the new US tariffs impact about $20 billion worth of goods, or 5.5% of Canadian exports to the United States. The other options are close distractors, but only 5.5% is correct as per the news.
What is the primary objective of Canada's retaliatory tariffs on US steel and dairy, as announced by PM Mark Carney?
- A.To completely sever trade ties with the United States
- B.To pressure the US to renegotiate the USMCA on more favorable terms for Canada✓ Correct Answer
- C.To increase domestic consumption of Canadian products
- D.To comply with WTO dispute resolution mechanisms
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Explanation
Canada's retaliatory tariffs are a direct response to US tariffs, aimed at pressuring the US to return to negotiations and secure a better deal. PM Carney stated the US proposed 'uneconomic, unfair' terms, and Canada walked away from a 'bad deal'. The goal is to force the US to offer more acceptable terms, not to sever ties or comply with WTO mechanisms.
Under which U.S. law were tariffs imposed on Chinese goods in 2018, as mentioned in the article?
- A.Trade Expansion Act of 1962
- B.Section 301 of the Trade Act of 1974✓ Correct Answer
- C.Section 232 of the Trade Expansion Act
- D.Section 201 of the Trade Act of 1974
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that in 2018, the U.S. imposed tariffs under Section 301 of the Trade Act of 1974 for unfair trade and tech practices. This is a key legal provision in U.S. trade law.
Consider the following statements regarding the 'Great Transhipment Scam' report:
1. The report accused about 40 countries of helping China evade U.S. tariffs.
2. India was named as the only top enabler of transshipment.
3. The report estimated $67 billion in U.S.-bound goods were transshipped from China through top hubs in 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the report accused about 40 countries. Statement 2 is incorrect: India was among the top enablers, not the only one; other top enablers included Mexico, Canada, EU, Japan, South Korea. Statement 3 is correct: $67 billion in goods transshipped in 2025. Hence option C.
According to the White House report, what was the estimated lost tariff revenue due to transshipment from China through top hubs in 2025?
- A.$28 billion✓ Correct Answer
- B.$67 billion
- C.$12.5 billion
- D.$525.8 billion
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Explanation
The report states that $67 billion in goods were transshipped, producing an estimated $28 billion in lost tariff revenue. Option B is the value of goods transshipped, not lost revenue. Option C is the additional tariff percentage for forced labour, and D is the 2017 value of U.S. imports from China.
What is the primary concern for India's economy if the U.S. imposes penal tariffs for transshipment, as per the article?
- A.India will lose its export market for luxury motorcycles.
- B.India's manufacturing costs will rise, making products less competitive globally.✓ Correct Answer
- C.India will be forced to stop importing Russian oil.
- D.India will have to increase tariffs on U.S. goods to retaliate.
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Explanation
The article explains that India's 'Make in India, For the World' strategy relies heavily on Chinese inputs. If India is forced to curb those imports, manufacturing costs will rise, reducing global competitiveness. Options A and C are mentioned but are separate issues; option D is not mentioned.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for elephant corridor mapping and conservation in India?
- A.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC)✓ Correct Answer
- B.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
- C.Ministry of Home Affairs
- D.Ministry of Science and Technology
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Explanation
The article mentions that elephant corridors have been well defined and identified by the Environment Ministry. MoEFCC is the nodal ministry for wildlife conservation, including elephant corridors, as per the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
Consider the following statements regarding elephant corridors in India:
1. The Supreme Court recently directed a fresh survey of elephant corridors and prohibited their blocking due to crop damage.
2. India has 150 elephant corridors documented across 15 states, with West Bengal having the highest number.
3. The Charmar-Jingol corridor in Chhattisgarh is 20 km long and facilitates movement of about 80-100 elephants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the SC order of August 17, 2026. Statement 2 is correct: the 2023 mapping documented 150 corridors across 15 states, and West Bengal has 26 corridors, the highest. Statement 3 is correct: the Charmar-Jingol corridor is 20 km long, 2.5 km wide, and used by 80-100 elephants.
According to the article, what is the total elephant population in India as mentioned in the last all-India elephant population estimation report?
- A.22,446✓ Correct Answer
- B.25,000
- C.20,000
- D.30,000
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Explanation
The article states: 'More than 50% of India’s 22,446 elephants are distributed in the Western Ghats...' This figure is from the last all-India elephant population estimation report released last year. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the article.
What is the primary reason for the disruption of elephant corridors as highlighted in the article?
- A.Climate change and drought
- B.Infrastructure construction, mining, and industrial activity✓ Correct Answer
- C.Natural predation and disease
- D.Increase in elephant population
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Explanation
The article identifies 'infrastructure construction, and industrial and mining activity' as the major issues disrupting elephant corridors. Linear infrastructure like highways, railways, canals, and power lines push elephants towards farmlands, triggering human-elephant conflict. While climate change and drought also play a role historically, the primary current disruption is human-induced infrastructure and mining.
Which ministry formed the committee for a permanent political solution to the Gorkha issue?
- A.Ministry of Law and Justice
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Tribal Affairs
- D.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the committee was constituted by the Centre (MHA) and the Home Minister chaired the meeting. The MHA is the nodal ministry for internal security and governance matters including regional issues.
Consider the following statements:
1. The committee is led by former Deputy NSA Pankaj Kumar Singh.
2. The committee will submit its report within one year.
3. The meeting was attended by West Bengal CM Suvendu Adhikari.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions Pankaj Kumar Singh was appointed as interlocutor and now leads the panel. Statement 2 is incorrect because no timeline for report submission is given. Statement 3 is correct as CM Suvendu Adhikari attended the meeting.
How many Gorkha communities are demanding Scheduled Tribe status according to the article?
- A.10
- B.11✓ Correct Answer
- C.12
- D.13
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Explanation
The article explicitly states 'demand for ST status for 11 Gorkha communities'. This is a direct data point from the news.
What is the primary objective of the committee formed by the Centre?
- A.To grant immediate ST status to all Gorkha communities
- B.To find a permanent political solution within the constitutional framework✓ Correct Answer
- C.To create a separate Gorkhaland state
- D.To increase central funding for Darjeeling hills
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Explanation
The article states the committee was formed to find a 'permanent political solution' and that the Home Minister promised a solution 'under the umbrella of the Constitution'. Immediate ST status was a demand, not the committee's objective.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for pushing states to accelerate PNG adoption?
- A.Ministry of Power
- B.Ministry of Petroleum✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Environment
- D.Ministry of Home Affairs
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Explanation
The article mentions the 'Petroleum Ministry' sending letters to Chief Secretaries. The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas oversees oil and gas policies, including PNG and LPG distribution.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Petroleum Ministry has asked states to appoint district-level nodal officers to coordinate PNG adoption.
2. The new orders prohibit households from retaining both LPG and PNG connections in areas where piped gas is available.
3. The West Asia crisis affected only industrial and commercial LPG consumers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the letter to Chief Secretaries. Statement 2 is correct: the orders prohibit dual connections. Statement 3 is incorrect because domestic LPG supplies were also disrupted, though they were prioritized.
On which date did the Petroleum Secretary write to the Chief Secretaries of states regarding PNG adoption?
- A.August 21, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- B.August 23, 2026
- C.August 21, 2025
- D.August 23, 2025
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Explanation
The article explicitly states 'In an August 21 letter to State Chief Secretaries, Petroleum Secretary Neeraj Mittal...' The other options are distractors based on the publication date (August 23) or wrong year.
What is the primary objective of the new regulatory orders prohibiting dual LPG-PNG connections?
- A.To increase LPG imports from the US and Algeria
- B.To reduce the logistics burden of LPG distribution and improve consumer convenience✓ Correct Answer
- C.To promote the use of CNG in vehicles
- D.To increase government revenue from natural gas
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Explanation
The article states that accelerated PNG adoption 'contributes to reducing the logistics burden associated with LPG distribution, enhancing consumer convenience, and improving utilisation of CGD infrastructure.' The other options are not mentioned as primary objectives.
Which court delivered the ruling that the government cannot force private landowners to execute sale deeds for land acquisition?
- A.Supreme Court of India
- B.Allahabad High Court✓ Correct Answer
- C.Delhi High Court
- D.Calcutta High Court
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Explanation
The ruling was given by the Lucknow Bench of the Allahabad High Court, comprising Justice Shekhar B Saraf and Justice Abdhesh Kumar Chaudhary, as per the article.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Allahabad High Court ruled that the government can force private landowners to execute sale deeds for land acquisition.
2. The court stated that if the landowner is unwilling to sell, the government must follow the compulsory acquisition procedure under the Land Acquisition Act, 2013.
3. The case involved land in Balrampur district of Uttar Pradesh for road widening.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is false because the court explicitly ruled that government cannot force private landowners to execute sale deeds. Statement 2 is correct as the court said the government must follow the LARR Act, 2013 for compulsory acquisition. Statement 3 is correct as the land was in Devipatan Tulsipur village, Balrampur district, for road widening.
According to the article, what percentage of the required land had already been purchased by the government through sale deeds?
- A.60%
- B.70%
- C.80%✓ Correct Answer
- D.90%
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Explanation
The State government informed the court that nearly 80% of the required land had been purchased through sale deeds, with around 104 registrations executed by different landowners.
According to the ruling, what must the government do if a private landowner is unwilling to sell their land?
- A.Forcibly acquire the land under the Land Acquisition Act
- B.Issue a notification under the LARR Act, 2013 and follow the acquisition procedure✓ Correct Answer
- C.Approach the Supreme Court for permission
- D.Negotiate a higher price until the owner agrees
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Explanation
The court stated that in the absence of consent, the State would have to issue a notification under the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013, and acquire the land in accordance with law.
Under which Act is the PM CARES Fund registered as a public charitable trust?
- A.Registration Act, 1908✓ Correct Answer
- B.Indian Trusts Act, 1882
- C.Societies Registration Act, 1860
- D.Companies Act, 2013
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Explanation
The PM CARES Fund was registered as a public charitable trust under the Registration Act, 1908, as per the article. The Indian Trusts Act, 1882 applies to private trusts, while the Societies Registration Act is for societies. The Companies Act is for corporate entities.
Consider the following statements regarding PM CARES Fund:
1. The Prime Minister is the ex-officio chairman of the Fund.
2. The Fund is audited by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
3. Donations to the Fund qualify for 100% tax exemption under Section 80G of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: PM is ex-officio chairman. Statement 2 is incorrect: PM CARES is audited by an independent auditor, not by CAG. Statement 3 is correct: donations qualify for 100% exemption under Section 80G. Hence option C is correct.
What was the total contribution received by the PM CARES Fund in the financial year 2024-25?
- A.₹479.96 crore✓ Correct Answer
- B.₹8,452.06 crore
- C.₹87.85 lakh
- D.₹475.14 crore
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Explanation
According to the audited statement, total contributions to PM CARES in FY2024-25 were ₹479.96 crore. ₹8,452.06 crore is the closing balance, ₹87.85 lakh is the spending, and ₹475.14 crore is the interest income.
Why are questions on PM CARES Fund not admissible in Lok Sabha according to the PMO?
- A.Because it is a trust not receiving any allocation from the Consolidated Fund of India✓ Correct Answer
- B.Because it is registered under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act
- C.Because it is audited by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
- D.Because it is a private entity not subject to parliamentary scrutiny
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Explanation
The PMO reasoned that the corpus of PM CARES, like PMNRF and NDF, is constituted entirely with voluntary public contributions and not from any allocation out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Therefore, under Rule 41(2) of Lok Sabha, questions on such funds are not admissible.
Which ministry/department is primarily responsible for the Indian space sector and related policy reforms?
- A.Ministry of Science and Technology
- B.Department of Space under the Prime Minister's Office✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Defence
- D.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
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Explanation
The Department of Space (DoS) directly under the PMO oversees the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and the overall space policy. The news mentions government policy support, which is executed by this department.
Consider the following statements regarding the PM's interaction with space startups:
1. The interaction took place ahead of National Space Day, which commemorates the Chandrayaan-2 mission.
2. Skyroot Aerospace is the first private Indian company to conduct an orbital launch.
3. PM Modi emphasized drawing global talent by leveraging India's cost-efficiency and high risk tolerance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because National Space Day commemorates the Chandrayaan-3 lunar landing (August 23, 2023), not Chandrayaan-2. Statement 2 is correct per the article: Skyroot Aerospace became the first private Indian company to conduct an orbital launch. Statement 3 is correct as PM Modi emphasized creating an ecosystem to draw global talent using India's cost-efficiency and risk tolerance.
According to the news, how many launch contracts has Skyroot Aerospace secured, and from which client base primarily?
- A.Eight contracts, mostly foreign clients✓ Correct Answer
- B.Eight contracts, mostly domestic clients
- C.Ten contracts, mixed foreign and domestic
- D.Five contracts, all foreign clients
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Skyroot Aerospace has secured eight launch contracts, mostly from foreign clients. This data point is crucial for Prelims factual recall.
What is the primary strategic objective behind PM Modi's call to create an ecosystem that can draw the global talent pool for space startups?
- A.To reduce the cost of satellite manufacturing by importing foreign engineers
- B.To establish India as a global space hub through innovation and competitive advantages✓ Correct Answer
- C.To facilitate technology transfer from foreign space agencies to Indian startups
- D.To increase the number of government-owned satellite launch facilities
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Explanation
PM Modi's statement about drawing global talent is directly linked to turning India into a global space hub, leveraging its cost-efficiency, deep talent pool, and risk tolerance. The other options are either too narrow (importing engineers) or not the primary objective as stated in the news.
Which US government agency is primarily responsible for enforcing economic sanctions against Iran, as mentioned in the article?
- A.US Department of State
- B.US Treasury's Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC)✓ Correct Answer
- C.US Department of Defense
- D.US Department of Commerce
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Explanation
The article mentions 'figures from the US Treasury’s Office of Foreign Assets Control' showing sanctioned entities. OFAC is the primary agency for administering and enforcing economic sanctions based on US foreign policy and national security goals.
Consider the following statements regarding the US economic pressure on Iran:
1. The US has imposed sanctions on over 1,000 people, vessels, and aircraft since Trump's second term.
2. China buys more than 80% of Iran's shipped oil, with state-owned refiners handling most of that trade.
3. The US Treasury has warned two larger Chinese banks that they could face sanctions if Iranian funds were traced through their systems.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the article states OFAC has sanctioned more than 1,000 entities since Trump's second term. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article says independent refiners ('teapots') handle much of that trade, not state-owned refiners. Statement 3 is correct: the Treasury warned two unnamed larger Chinese banks.
According to the article, what is the estimated value of Iran-linked cryptocurrency holdings targeted by US sanctions?
- A.$100 billion
- B.$250 billion
- C.$500 billion✓ Correct Answer
- D.$750 billion
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions 'digital exchanges holding an estimated $500 billion in Iran-linked cryptocurrency' as a target of recent US sanctions. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the source.
What is the primary strategic objective behind the US considering a land blockade against Iran?
- A.To prevent Iran from exporting oil through land routes
- B.To disrupt Iran's imports of food, energy, and textiles to increase internal pressure✓ Correct Answer
- C.To force Iran to abandon its nuclear program
- D.To secure the release of US hostages
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Explanation
The article states that a land blockade could 'increase pressure on the Iranian population by disrupting imports of food, energy, and textiles' and might lead to unrest. This is a coercive economic warfare tactic distinct from the naval blockade already in place.
Which medical institution in West Bengal reported the successful use of Haplo-cord transplant and CAR T-cell therapy?
- A.AIIMS Delhi
- B.Tata Memorial Hospital
- C.Narayana Health✓ Correct Answer
- D.Christian Medical College (CMC) Vellore
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Explanation
The article specifically mentions that the Haplo-cord transplant and CAR T-cell therapy were conducted by doctors at Narayana Health in West Bengal. This institution is a private healthcare provider known for advanced medical procedures.
Consider the following statements:
1. The 7-year-old thalassaemia patient became transfusion-free after a Haplo-cord transplant using stem cells from a matched sibling and father.
2. The 62-year-old brain cancer patient was treated with single-target CAR T-cell therapy targeting CD20.
3. Primary CNS lymphoma is a rare, aggressive type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the child received a Haplo-cord transplant using sibling cord blood and father's stem cells. Statement 2 is incorrect: the therapy used was dual-target CAR T-cell therapy targeting CD19 and CD22, not single-target CD20. Statement 3 is correct: primary CNS lymphoma is described as a rare, aggressive type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma.
What was the age of the patient who received dual-target CAR T-cell therapy for primary CNS lymphoma?
- A.45 years
- B.55 years
- C.62 years✓ Correct Answer
- D.70 years
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Explanation
The article clearly states that a 62-year-old male patient from Myanmar was treated for brain cancer using dual-target CAR T-cell therapy. The other options are close distractors not mentioned in the article.
What is the primary advantage of using a dual-target CAR T-cell therapy (targeting CD19 and CD22) over a single-target therapy?
- A.It reduces the cost of treatment significantly
- B.It helps overcome antigen escape, a common cause of relapse✓ Correct Answer
- C.It eliminates the need for chemotherapy
- D.It can be used for all types of solid tumours
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Explanation
Dual-target CAR T-cell therapy targets two different antigens (CD19 and CD22) on cancer cells, making it harder for cancer cells to evade the immune response through antigen loss. This reduces the risk of relapse compared to single-target therapies. The article highlights this as a key advancement.
Which company was awarded the contract for implementing the Thilamale Bridge project in the Maldives?
- A.Afcons Infrastructure✓ Correct Answer
- B.High Commission of India in Maldives
- C.Government of India
- D.Government of Maldives
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Explanation
The article states that the contract for the Thilamale Bridge project was awarded to India's Afcons Infrastructure on August 26, 2021. The other options are entities involved in the broader project but not the implementing contractor.
Consider the following statements regarding the Greater Male Connectivity Project (GMCP):
1. The Thilamale Bridge is part of the GMCP and is funded by India.
2. India provided $400 million as a grant and $100 million as a Line of Credit for the project.
3. The project will connect Male with Villingili, Gulhifalhu and Thilafushi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article identifies Thilamale Bridge as the GMCP, funded by India. Statement 2 is incorrect because India provided $100 million as a grant and $400 million as a Line of Credit, not the reverse. Statement 3 is correct as the project connects Male with Villingili, Gulhifalhu and Thilafushi.
What is the total length of the bridge and causeway link to be built under the Greater Male Connectivity Project?
- A.5.74 km
- B.6.74 km✓ Correct Answer
- C.7.64 km
- D.8.177 km
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Explanation
The article clearly mentions that the GMCP will build a 6.74-km-long bridge and causeway link. The 8.177 km option is a distractor based on the height of the tallest precast segments (8.177 metres), not the project length.
What is the primary strategic significance of the Thilamale Bridge project for India?
- A.To establish India's military presence in the Indian Ocean
- B.To enhance regional connectivity under the Neighbourhood First policy and Vision MAHASAGAR✓ Correct Answer
- C.To provide commercial benefits only to Indian construction companies
- D.To replace all existing ferry services between India and the Maldives
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Explanation
The article states that enhancing regional connectivity is a key priority for India and Maldives, and India considers Maldives a key maritime neighbour and partner in the Neighbourhood First policy and Vision MAHASAGAR. The other options are not supported by the article.
Which of the following is the central agency that has written to all states and central agencies to undertake 24 special anti-narcotics drives?
- A.Narcotics Control Bureau✓ Correct Answer
- B.Anti-Narcotics Task Forces
- C.Jurisdictional drug controllers
- D.State governments
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Explanation
The article states that the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) recently wrote to all states and various central agencies. ANTFs and drug controllers are implementation partners mentioned in the action plan, not the agency that issued the communication.
Consider the following statements:
1. The awareness program for students in schools and colleges is ongoing since August 16, 2026.
2. The enforcement action drives will begin in October with the inspection of medical stores.
3. The second fortnight of January 2027 will see detection and destruction of illicit cultivation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct because the article says the awareness program for students in schools and colleges is ongoing since August 16, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect because enforcement drives begin in September, while medical store inspections begin in October. Statement 3 is correct because the second fortnight of January 2027 is earmarked for detection and destruction of illicit cultivation. Hence option C is correct.
How many different special drives has the NCB asked states and central agencies to undertake as part of the year-long action plan?
- A.12 drives
- B.18 drives
- C.24 drives✓ Correct Answer
- D.30 drives
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the NCB has asked states and central agencies to undertake 24 different special drives, each running for a fortnight till August next year.
According to the NCB, what is the stated purpose of the coordinated nationwide fortnightly campaigns?
- A.To conduct only enforcement actions against foreign drug offenders
- B.To strengthen inter-agency collaboration and enhance public awareness towards Nasha Mukt Bharat✓ Correct Answer
- C.To focus only on inspections of medical stores and pharmacies
- D.To prepare dossiers against drug crime fugitives only
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Explanation
The article quotes the NCB as saying these campaigns will strengthen inter-agency collaboration and enhance public awareness, contributing significantly to the vision of Nasha Mukt Bharat. The other options are individual components of the action plan, not the stated overall purpose.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for implementing the MGNREGA scheme?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Rural Development✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Labour and Employment
- D.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
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Explanation
MGNREGA is a flagship rural employment scheme under the Ministry of Rural Development. The new VB-G RAM G scheme also falls under the same ministry. Other ministries handle different sectors like finance, labour, or agriculture.
Consider the following statements:
1. VB-G RAM G replaced MGNREGA from July 1, 2026.
2. In July 2026, Karnataka generated 61.48 lakh person-days under VB-G RAM G.
3. 805 gram panchayats in Karnataka recorded nil expenditure under VB-G RAM G.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states VB-G RAM G replaced MGNREGA from July 1. Statement 2 is incorrect because 61.48 lakh person-days was generated under MGNREGA in July 2025, not under VB-G RAM G. Statement 3 is correct as 805 of 5,958 gram panchayats recorded nil expenditure.
What was the number of person-days generated under MGNREGA in Karnataka in July 2025?
- A.17.98 lakh
- B.26.27 lakh
- C.36.15 lakh
- D.61.48 lakh✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article specifically mentions that 61.48 lakh person-days were generated in July 2025 under MGNREGA. The other options are distractors: 17.98 lakh is July 2026 under VB-G RAM G, 26.27 lakh is August 2026, and 36.15 lakh is August 2025.
What is the primary reason cited in the article for the slow implementation of VB-G RAM G?
- A.Lack of sufficient funds from the Centre
- B.Lack of clarity and prior clearances required✓ Correct Answer
- C.Shortage of rural workers during drought
- D.Resistance from state governments
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that officials attribute the slow implementation to lack of clarity over implementation and the need for prior clearances from the Centre. Unlike the demand-driven MGNREGA, the new scheme requires allotment and clearances, causing delays.
Which type of high-altitude tropical montane forest, mentioned in the article, is found in the Western Ghats and is characterized by a cool, moist microclimate?
- A.Mangrove forests
- B.Shola forests✓ Correct Answer
- C.Tropical rainforests
- D.Deciduous forests
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Explanation
The article describes Shola forests as high-altitude tropical montane forests that hold their own weather and support epiphytic communities. They are a key ecosystem in the Western Ghats, often tested in environment and geography sections.
Consider the following statements regarding the study on forest phenology in the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve:
1. The study used satellite imagery from 2000 to 2020 to analyze forest changes.
2. The average annual temperature increase was 0.1°C per year from 1950 to 2018.
3. During Phase II (2011-2020), the Start of Season advanced across all four forest types.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the study used satellite imagery from 2000-2020. Statement 2 is incorrect: the temperature rise was 0.01°C per year, not 0.1°C. Statement 3 is correct: Phase II showed advanced SOS across all forest types. Hence option C is correct.
According to the study, what was the average annual decrease in rainfall in the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve between 1950 and 2018?
- A.0.01 mm
- B.3.97 mm✓ Correct Answer
- C.4.37 mm
- D.0.1 mm
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Explanation
The article states that the average amount of rainfall decreased by 3.97 millimeters every year during the period 1950-2018. The other options are distractors: 0.01°C is the temperature rise, 4.37 days is the lengthening of season for moist deciduous forests in Phase I.
What is the primary ecological consequence of the phenological shifts observed in the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, as highlighted in the article?
- A.Increased forest productivity and greening
- B.Desynchronization of plant-pollinator interactions✓ Correct Answer
- C.Expansion of Shola forests into grasslands
- D.Increase in epiphyte abundance
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Explanation
The article explains that shifts in flowering and fruiting times cause mismatches with pollinators and seed dispersers, leading to reduced pollination and seed set. This desynchronization is a key threat to biodiversity, whereas increased greening or expansion is not supported by the evidence.
Which US law was used by the Trump administration to impose the new 50% tariffs on Canadian goods?
- A.International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA)
- B.Section 338 of the Tariff Act of 1930✓ Correct Answer
- C.Section 301 of the US Trade Act of 1974
- D.Smoot-Hawley Tariff Act (as a whole)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the US invoked Section 338 of the Tariff Act of 1930 (part of the Smoot-Hawley legislation) to impose the tariffs. IEEPA was struck down by the Supreme Court, and Section 301 was used for India and other countries on forced labour grounds.
Consider the following statements:
1. The US Supreme Court struck down Trump's earlier tariff programme under the International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA) in February 2026.
2. The new US tariffs on Canada are at a rate of 50% and cover about $20 billion worth of Canadian goods.
3. Canada's retaliation will target sectors including steel, dairy, agricultural equipment, and electronics.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 1 and 2
- C.(C) Only 2 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the article says the US Supreme Court struck down much of Trump's earlier tariff programme under IEEPA in February. Statement 2 is correct: the US imposed 50% tariffs on about $20 billion of Canadian goods. Statement 3 is correct: Canada's retaliation targets sectors including steel, dairy, appliances, agricultural equipment, pulp and paper, and electronics. Hence all three are correct.
According to the article, what percentage of Canada's goods exports went to the United States last year?
- A.50%
- B.62%
- C.72%✓ Correct Answer
- D.85%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'about 72% of its goods exports went to the US last year.' The other options are plausible distractors but not supported by the data. This high dependence makes Canada particularly vulnerable to US tariffs.
What is the primary significance of the US using Section 338 of the Tariff Act of 1930 for the new Canada tariffs?
- A.It allows tariffs up to 50% on countries deemed to discriminate against US businesses.✓ Correct Answer
- B.It was previously used to impose tariffs on India for forced labour practices.
- C.It was struck down by the US Supreme Court in February 2026.
- D.It requires a two-thirds majority vote in the US Congress to be invoked.
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Explanation
The article explains that Section 338 allows the President to impose tariffs of up to 50% on countries deemed to discriminate against US businesses. This law had never been used before. Option B is incorrect because Section 301 (not 338) was used for forced labour. Option C is incorrect because the Supreme Court struck down IEEPA, not Section 338. Option D is incorrect; no Congressional vote is required for this provision.
Which drug is combined with the personalised cancer vaccine intismeran in the Phase 3 trial?
- A.Keytruda (pembrolizumab)✓ Correct Answer
- B.Opdivo (nivolumab)
- C.Tecentriq (atezolizumab)
- D.Yervoy (ipilimumab)
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Explanation
The article states that the vaccine was administered along with the popular immunotherapy drug Keytruda. Keytruda is a PD-1 inhibitor, and the combination showed significant reduction in risk of death from melanoma.
Consider the following statements regarding the personalised cancer vaccine intismeran:
1. It is a preventive vaccine that can be given to healthy individuals to prevent melanoma.
2. The vaccine is personalised by identifying neoantigens unique to each patient's tumour.
3. In the study, the vaccine reduced the risk of death due to recurrence of skin cancer by 59%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) Both 2 and 3
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because intismeran is a therapeutic vaccine for existing cancer, not a preventive vaccine. Statement 2 is correct: the vaccine is designed by identifying neoantigens from the patient's tumour. Statement 3 is incorrect: the risk reduction for recurrence was 49%, not 59% (59% is for spread). Hence only statement 2 is correct.
According to the article, what percentage of all cancer cases in India does melanoma account for?
- A.0.17%
- B.0.26%✓ Correct Answer
- C.1.6%
- D.49%
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Explanation
The article explicitly cites Globocan data stating that melanoma accounts for only 0.26% of all cancer cases in India and 0.17% of deaths. The 1.6% figure refers to the percentage of patients who can afford immunotherapy, not incidence.
What are the two primary reasons why the impact of the intismeran-Keytruda therapy is limited in India?
- A.Low melanoma incidence and high cost of Keytruda✓ Correct Answer
- B.High melanoma incidence and lack of regulatory approval
- C.Low melanoma incidence and lack of mRNA production facilities
- D.High cost of the vaccine and lack of trained oncologists
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Explanation
The article specifically mentions two reasons: (1) melanoma is rare in India (0.26% of cancers), and (2) the cost of Keytruda is prohibitive, with only 1.6% of patients needing immunotherapy able to afford it. Other options introduce factors not mentioned in the article.
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More Current Affairs Questions
Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?
For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.
- Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
- Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
- Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.
Frequently Asked Questions
What are the important current affairs questions for 23 August 2026?▼
This page contains 96 current affairs questions from 23 August 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
How to use 23 August 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼
Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.
How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼
Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.
Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼
Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.
What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼
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All Questions in This Set
- Q1. constitutional article empowers the Governor to dissolve the L…
- Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the One Nation One…
- Q3. many NDA-ruled states and union territories are being consider…
- Q4. is the primary constitutional mechanism proposed to advance si…
- Q5. department of the Maharashtra government released the draft Pr…
- Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the Maharashtra dr…
- Q7. is the maximum fine prescribed for major violations under the …
- Q8. is the primary objective of the dummy-school ban in the Mahara…
- Q9. body pulled up the Assam Government for inaction on mining nea…
- Q10. Consider the following statements: 1. The Central Empowered C…
- Q11. is the default distance of the Eco-Sensitive Zone (ESZ) around…
- Q12. is the primary ecological concern highlighted by the CEC regar…
- Q13. of the following categories of individuals are eligible to mai…
- Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the India-Mauritiu…
- Q15. was the total amount of foreign exchange inflows attracted by …
- Q16. is the primary objective of the second track of the new mobile…
- Q17. ministry is primarily responsible for implementing the Pradhan…
- Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri…
- Q19. According to the article, what is the current installed floati…
- Q20. is the primary objective of the Pradhan Mantri Surya Sarovar Y…
- Q21. ministry is primarily responsible for conducting India's forei…
- Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the India-China bo…
- Q23. In which year was the Special Representative-level mechanism f…
- Q24. is the primary purpose of holding the 25th round of Special Re…
- Q25. Indian official serves as the designated Special Representativ…
- Q26. Consider the following statements: 1. The 25th round of India…
- Q27. In which year was the India-China Special Representatives mech…
- Q28. is the primary utility of the India-China Special Representati…
- Q29. organization is the primary space agency of India under the De…
- Q30. Consider the following statements regarding India's space sect…
- Q31. According to the news article, approximately how many space st…
- Q32. is the primary objective of the government's stable space poli…
- Q33. trade agreement governs the current trade relationship between…
- Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the US-Canada trad…
- Q35. percentage of Canada's exports to the United States are impact…
- Q36. is the primary objective of Canada's retaliatory tariffs on US…
- Q37. Under which U.S. law were tariffs imposed on Chinese goods in …
- Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the 'Great Transhi…
- Q39. According to the White House report, what was the estimated lo…
- Q40. is the primary concern for India's economy if the U.S. imposes…
- Q41. ministry is primarily responsible for elephant corridor mappin…
- Q42. Consider the following statements regarding elephant corridors…
- Q43. According to the article, what is the total elephant populatio…
- Q44. is the primary reason for the disruption of elephant corridors…
- Q45. ministry formed the committee for a permanent political soluti…
- Q46. Consider the following statements: 1. The committee is led by…
- Q47. many Gorkha communities are demanding Scheduled Tribe status a…
- Q48. is the primary objective of the committee formed by the Centre?
- Q49. ministry is primarily responsible for pushing states to accele…
- Q50. Consider the following statements: 1. The Petroleum Ministry …
- Q51. On which date did the Petroleum Secretary write to the Chief S…
- Q52. is the primary objective of the new regulatory orders prohibit…
- Q53. court delivered the ruling that the government cannot force pr…
- Q54. Consider the following statements: 1. The Allahabad High Cour…
- Q55. According to the article, what percentage of the required land…
- Q56. According to the ruling, what must the government do if a priv…
- Q57. Under which Act is the PM CARES Fund registered as a public ch…
- Q58. Consider the following statements regarding PM CARES Fund: 1.…
- Q59. was the total contribution received by the PM CARES Fund in th…
- Q60. Why are questions on PM CARES Fund not admissible in Lok Sabha…
- Q61. ministry/department is primarily responsible for the Indian sp…
- Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the PM's interacti…
- Q63. According to the news, how many launch contracts has Skyroot A…
- Q64. is the primary strategic objective behind PM Modi's call to cr…
- Q65. US government agency is primarily responsible for enforcing ec…
- Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the US economic pr…
- Q67. According to the article, what is the estimated value of Iran-…
- Q68. is the primary strategic objective behind the US considering a…
- Q69. medical institution in West Bengal reported the successful use…
- Q70. Consider the following statements: 1. The 7-year-old thalassa…
- Q71. was the age of the patient who received dual-target CAR T-cell…
- Q72. is the primary advantage of using a dual-target CAR T-cell the…
- Q73. company was awarded the contract for implementing the Thilamal…
- Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the Greater Male C…
- Q75. is the total length of the bridge and causeway link to be buil…
- Q76. is the primary strategic significance of the Thilamale Bridge …
- Q77. of the following is the central agency that has written to all…
- Q78. Consider the following statements: 1. The awareness program f…
- Q79. many different special drives has the NCB asked states and cen…
- Q80. According to the NCB, what is the stated purpose of the coordi…
- Q81. ministry is primarily responsible for implementing the MGNREGA…
- Q82. Consider the following statements: 1. VB-G RAM G replaced MGN…
- Q83. was the number of person-days generated under MGNREGA in Karna…
- Q84. is the primary reason cited in the article for the slow implem…
- Q85. type of high-altitude tropical montane forest, mentioned in th…
- Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the study on fores…
- Q87. According to the study, what was the average annual decrease i…
- Q88. is the primary ecological consequence of the phenological shif…
- Q89. US law was used by the Trump administration to impose the new …
- Q90. Consider the following statements: 1. The US Supreme Court st…
- Q91. According to the article, what percentage of Canada's goods ex…
- Q92. is the primary significance of the US using Section 338 of the…
- Q93. drug is combined with the personalised cancer vaccine intismer…
- Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the personalised c…
- Q95. According to the article, what percentage of all cancer cases …
- Q96. are the two primary reasons why the impact of the intismeran-K…